FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

true/false:

prefixes are attached directly to the end of the word

A

false

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2
Q

true/false:

suffix is placed at the end of the word root

A

true

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3
Q

true/false:
the definition of a medical word usually beings with the defining suffix first and continuing to read backward through the word

A

true

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4
Q

true/false:

if the suffix begins with a vowel, the root will not attach directly to it

A

false

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5
Q

true/false:

a word can end in a combining form

A

false

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6
Q

true/false:

medical words are made up of word roots, prefixes and suffixes

A

true

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7
Q

true/false:

when using more than one word root, a combining vowel is needed to separate the different word roots

A

true

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8
Q

the suffix ‘osis’ means

A

condition

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9
Q

true/false:
when a medical word has a prefix, the definition of the word usually begins with defining the suffix first, then the root second, and the prefix last

A

false

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10
Q

a word part that is attached to the end of teh word root defines which of the following

A

suffix

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11
Q

true/false:
compound words are usually composed in the following order:
combining form + word root + suffix

A

true

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12
Q

true/false:

words with the same root will have different meanings depending on the prefix attached

A

true

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13
Q

the basic foundation of a word to which is component parts are added defines

A

word root

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14
Q

a word element that is added at the beginning of a word defines

A

prefix

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15
Q

the prefix ‘inter’ means

A

between

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16
Q

the prefix ‘bi’ means what?

A

two

double

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17
Q

‘excessive’ is the definition of

A

hyper

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18
Q

prefix ‘ad’ means

A

toward

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19
Q

prefix ‘meta’ means

A

change

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20
Q

suffix ‘itis’ means

A

inflammation

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21
Q

prefix ‘anti’ means

A

against

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22
Q

prefix ‘epi’ means

A

upon

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23
Q

suffix ‘a’ makes what type of word

A

noun

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24
Q

prefix ‘bio’ means

A

life

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25
Q

prefix ‘hypo’ means

A

less than

under

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26
Q

prefix ‘ab’ means

A

from

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27
Q

suffix ‘tomy’ means

A

incision into

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28
Q

suffix ‘ical’ means

A

adjective

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29
Q

suffux ‘ile’ means

A

pertaining to

capable

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30
Q

prefix ‘hydro’ means

A

water

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31
Q

suffix ‘gram’ means

A

record or picture

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32
Q

suffix ‘tion’ makes

A

noun

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33
Q

suffix ‘lysis’ means

A

destruction

detachment

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34
Q

prefix ‘ultra’ means

A

beyond

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35
Q

prefix ‘post’ means

A

after

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36
Q

prefix ‘tachy’ means

A

rapid

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37
Q

prefix ‘contra’ means

A

against

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38
Q

suffix that means ‘characterized by’ is

A

ory

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39
Q

prefix ‘brady’ means

A

slow

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40
Q

prefix ‘trans’ means

A

across

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41
Q

suffix ‘ician’ means

A

specialist in a field of study

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42
Q

suffix ‘metry’ means

A

process of measuring

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43
Q

suffix ‘rrhaphy’ means

A

suturing

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44
Q

suffix ‘oma’ means

A

tumor

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45
Q

suffix ‘emia’ means

A

blood condition

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46
Q

suffix ‘lith’ means

A

stone

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47
Q

suffix ‘megaly’ means

A

enlargement

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48
Q

suffix ‘lepsy’ means

A

seizure

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49
Q

‘sensitivity to pain’ is the definition of

A

algesia

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50
Q

‘surgical repair’ is the definition of

A

plasty

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51
Q

‘pertaining to the back or posteriior’ is the definition

A

dorsal

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52
Q

what is made up of tissues arranged together to perform a particular function?

A

organs

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53
Q

which of the following it not one of the four quadrants

A

LPQ

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54
Q

which plane divides the body into = right/left portions

A

midsagittal plane

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55
Q

which plane divides the body into front/back portions

A

frontal plane

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56
Q

which pleans cut across the the body and divides it into upper and lower portions

A

transverse planes

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57
Q

what is located in the middle section of the abdomen between the right/left lumbar regions?

A

umbilical region

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58
Q

how many divisions of the back are there?

A

5

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59
Q

what organs are located in thorasic cavity?

A

lungs

heart

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60
Q

is the bladder found in the abdominal cavity?

A

no

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61
Q

definition of ‘superficial’ is

A

pertaining to the surface or near surface

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62
Q

defintion of ‘supine’ is

A

lying horizontally, face up

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63
Q

genes are

A

segements of chromosomes that transmit hereditary characteristics

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64
Q

developmental failure resulting in the absence of any organ or tissue is

A

aplasia

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65
Q

new and abnormal development of cells that may be benign or malignant is

A

neoplasia

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66
Q

abnormal development of tissues/organs is

A

dysplasia

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67
Q

‘caudal’ means

A

pertatining to the tail

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68
Q

‘toward the side of the body, away from the midline’ is definition of

A

lateral

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69
Q

top of the foot is

A

dorsum

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70
Q

localized collection of pus in any part of teh body is

A

abcess

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71
Q

laceration is

A

a tear in skin

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72
Q

erthemia is

A

redness of the skin

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73
Q

a closed sac or pouch in, or within skin that contains fluid, semi-fluid or solid material is

A

cyst

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74
Q

scraping or rubbing away of skin as a result of friction to the area is

A

abrasion

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75
Q

injury to part of the body w/o a break in skin is

A

contusion

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76
Q

floating ribs are

A

rib pairs 11-12

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77
Q

small, stalk like growth that produces upward/outward from a mucous membrane surface is

A

polyp

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78
Q

hollow/concave depression in bone is

A

fossa

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79
Q

hole in the bone that allows blood vessels/nerves to pass through is

A

foramen

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80
Q

true ribs are

A

rib pairs 1 - 7

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81
Q

compound fracture is a(n)

A

open fracture

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82
Q

the diaphysis is

A

main shaft like portion of bone

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83
Q

bones that are longer than they are wide are

A

long bones

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84
Q

fracture that is caused by bone surfaces being forced against each other is

A

compression

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85
Q

abnormal inward curvature of a portion of the spine is

A

lordosis

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86
Q

form of acute arthritis that is characterized by inflammation of the big toe is

A

gout

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87
Q

____ fracture occurs when the force that causes the fracture is so great that it splinters or crushes a segment of bone

A

comminuted

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88
Q

surgical repair of a joint is

A

arthroplasty

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89
Q

difficult speech is

A

dysphasia

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90
Q

paraplegia is

A

paralysis of the lower extremities and body trunk

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91
Q

hypersensitive reaction to normally harmless antigens is

A

allergy

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92
Q

physician who specializes in treating diseases/disorders of the nervous system

A

neurologist

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93
Q

abnormal increase of CSF in the brain that causes the ventricles to dialte is

A

trydocephatus

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94
Q

a serious bacterial infection of the covering of the brain/spinal cord is

A

meningitis

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95
Q

introduction of contrast medium into the lumbar subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture is

A

myelography

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96
Q

chronic hereditary form of anemia in which red blood cells become shaped like a crescent are

A

sickle cell

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97
Q

excessive uncontrolled increase of immature WBC in the blood is

A

leukemia

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98
Q

thrombus is

A

a clot

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99
Q

state of being resistant to or protected from a disease is

A

immunity

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100
Q

infectious disease that is chronic in nature, primarily affecting the lungs causing large areas of caviations and caseous necrosis is

A

TB

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101
Q

suffix ‘metry’ means

A

process of measuring

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102
Q

in diagnostic x-ray, what interactions will occur?

A

compton scatter
photoelectric effect
pair productions

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103
Q

the roentgen unit is a measure of

A

number of ions created in the air

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104
Q

what is the filtration manufactured into the x-ray tube called

A

inherent filtration

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105
Q

what do the letters ‘rad’ stand for?

A

radiation absorbed dose

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106
Q

when radiation interacts with matter and changes direction it is called

A

scatter radiation

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107
Q

which of the following factors will affect patient dose?

A

filtration
distance
time

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108
Q

which exam will give the patient the highest gonadal dose?

A

abdomen

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109
Q

law of Bergonie and Tribondeau implies that sensitivity is greatest in

A

rapidly dividing cells

youngest stage of organism

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110
Q

basis for the NCRP’s policies/regulations for personal and patients is

A

ALARA

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111
Q

general population is allowed what fraction of the dose allowed for occupationally exposed people?

A

1/10

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112
Q

which of the following are the LEAST sensitive cells of the body

A

nerve cells

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113
Q

primary concern in radiation to the gonads is to prevent

A

genetic effects

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114
Q

sensitivity to readiation in humans is greatest at which

A

embryonic stage

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115
Q

performance standards for the radiology dept are set by

A

chief radiologist

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116
Q

hosptial standards are set to conform with

A

JCAHO guidelines

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117
Q

what is primary concern of hospital?

A

patient care

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118
Q

an organization chart is designed to indicate

A

lines of authority
positions of personell
areas of responsibility

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119
Q

hospital-wide committee that functions to maintain safe working conditions is

A

hospital safety committee

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120
Q

in service education program in radiology departments is

A

a requirement

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121
Q

radiology dept policies and procedures are contained in

A

dept procedures manual

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122
Q

person responsible for verifying the qualifications of the technical staff is

A

radiology admin

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123
Q

radiologic compliance evaluation is a function of

A

quality assurance program

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124
Q

standards for hospital services are established by

A

JCAHO

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125
Q

an effective defense for a tech sued by a patient claiming neglegence would be

A

the exam was performed in a manner that was customary and accepted by the medical community

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126
Q

who is the person who is formally accused in a lawsuit?

A

defendant

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127
Q

‘res ipsa loqitur’ is a Latin phrase that means

A

‘the thing speaks for itself’

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128
Q

what is the underlying motivation for all forms of law?

A

to protect people/property
to provide means for correcting injustice
to compensate for inquiry

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129
Q

what is not a valid consent condition?

A

to be a member of the medical profession

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130
Q

situations in which a tort may be brought against a tech are

A

imprudent conduct by RT
bodily harm inflicted on patient
invasion of privacy

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131
Q

is the patient’s conditon not improving after a test a breach of standard of care

A

no

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132
Q

law in our society is based on

A

state/federal constitutions
statues of state/federal legislature
regulations issued by executive branch of govt

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133
Q

laws are framed/shaped by

A

community values

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134
Q

community values/law are generally in

A

agreement

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135
Q

allied health developed as a result of

A

specialization
advancements in science/technology
medical economics

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136
Q

medical tech does

A

analyzes/performs tests for diagnosis/treatment

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137
Q

medical records admin does

A

plans, designs, & manages patient records

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138
Q

respiratory therapist does

A

administers therapeutic procedures for respiratory emergencies

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139
Q

quality assurance is the responsibility of

A

chief radiologist
chief technologist
each radiology employee

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140
Q

quality assurance involves

A

monitoring x-ray equipment

in-service education for employees

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141
Q

what is the advantage of the pyramidal arrangement for dept admins

A

economy in personnel costs

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142
Q

what is the disadvantage of the pyramidal arrangement

A

communication from the base to the upper level is difficult

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143
Q

evaluating quality in the radiology dept may include

A

observing the tech’s performance
interviewing patients
checking the in-service program for techs

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144
Q

troubleshooting is an activity for

A

equipment testing after malfunction occurs

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145
Q

equipment monitoring is an activity involvoing

A

periodic routine equipment testing

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146
Q

film processing requires

A

controlled replenishment of solutions
near-constant solution temp
exact combinations of chemicals

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147
Q

a sensitometer is an instrumetn used to do

A

provide a controlled amount of light to the film

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148
Q

a densitometer is a device for

A

measuring the blackness/density of the film

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149
Q

what was the purpose of the certificate of need requirement

A

to limit equipment and space to the community needs

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150
Q

staffing needs are computed by

A
type of procedure performed
# of procedures/year
type of procedure performed
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151
Q

the decision to purchase new radiology equipment is based on

A

number of patients who need radiographic service

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152
Q

in the typical general service hospital ____ of the radiographic exams will be chest x-ray?

A

30%

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153
Q

in the typical general service hospital, ___ of the radiographic exams will be flurosocope?

A

10%

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154
Q

cost of radiographic exams includes the cost of

A

film/film development
labor
equipment

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155
Q

silver from radiographic film can be reclaimed by recovering silver ions from

A

the fixer

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156
Q

cost of producing radiograph is highest for

A

personnel

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157
Q

cost of health care since 1995 has

A

increased

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158
Q

the guidelines for staffing in a dept of radiology is ___ production hour(s) per procedure

A

1

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159
Q

ethics is a discipline that deals with

A

morals as they relate to behavior

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160
Q

patients presenting themselves for radiographic exams are first impressed by

A

personal appearance of the tech

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161
Q

when the patient asks the tech what the radiograph says

A

tell the patient that the referring physician will have the answers

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162
Q

true/false:

it’s ok to criticize the physician when he’s wronge

A

false: NEVER criticize, it’s unethical

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163
Q

the techs first duty is

A

the patient

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164
Q

techs who examine terminally ill patients should do

A

simply respect teh patient’s right of choice

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165
Q

some patients require more time and attention than others b/c

A

they are sicker

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166
Q

moral/ethical conduct of individuals who are handling patients for radiographic exams is a responsibility of

A

radiologist
tech
student

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167
Q

characteristics of ethical behavior are

A

fairness
honesty
integrity

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168
Q

breach of confidentiality occurs when the patient’s medical condition

A

discussed w/ patient’s spouse
written to a friend in another state
discussed in strict confidence w/ a ‘friend’

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169
Q

personal, ethical, & professional obligations lie w/

A

doctor
tech
student

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170
Q

legally, torts may be

A

violations to civil law

171
Q

most American legal principles are based on

A

English common law

172
Q

2positions and lines of authority are shown in a

A

organizational chart

173
Q

primary concern of radiology dept is

A

providing quality patient care

174
Q

verifying the competence of the radiography technical staff is the responsibility of

A

radiology admin

175
Q

system of prospective payment for Medicare was based on

A

diagnosis related groups

176
Q

exposure cord of a mobile unit should be at least

177
Q

techniques used to assess quality care given to patients are

A

observation of tech at work
interviewing patients
interviewing techs

178
Q

film badges are designed to be worn

A

outside the apron, near the neck

179
Q

x-ray beam collimation is used b/c

A

film quality is improved
patient dose is decreased
scatter radiation is decreased

180
Q

quality of x-ray beam is determined by

181
Q

individual in radiology dept who can legally make a diagnosis is

A

radiologist

182
Q

‘nocturia’ is

A

urination at night, usually excessive

183
Q

abnormal collection of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

184
Q

what is the definition of hypertension

A

high blood pressure

185
Q

lung disease resulting from inhalation of asbestos particles

A

asbestosis

186
Q

rotation of loops of bowel causing a twisting on itself results in an intestinal blockage is

187
Q

use of a needle to collect pleural fluid for lab analysis is

A

thorancentesis

188
Q

inflammation of the urethra is

A

urethritis

189
Q

instrument used to look at the inside of the bladder is

A

cystoscope

190
Q

at what level of the spine would you find the level of the xiphoid process

191
Q

50% of the population in the USA is what type of body habitus

192
Q

graphic record of the electrical action of the heart is

193
Q

slow heart rate is

A

bradycardia

194
Q

pounding/racing heart is

A

palpitation

195
Q

childhood disease characterized by a barking cough is

196
Q

systole is

A

contraction of phase of the heartbeat

197
Q

presence of pus in the urine is

198
Q

if x-ray projection is directed toward the outer margin of a curved body, then it is a ___ projection

A

tangential

199
Q

if patient is lying face down, what position is he/she in

200
Q

malignant tumor of the kidney occurring predominately in childhood is

A

Wilm’s tumor

201
Q

radiation therapy is used to accomplish:

A

destruction of tumor cells

relief of obstruction

202
Q

if an object/contrast agent does not permit the passage of xrays, what is it called

A

radiopaque

203
Q

if a joint has mulitaxial movement what type of joint is it

204
Q

club-chaped process on a bone is

205
Q

low pitched humming/fluttering sound is

206
Q

lack/loss of appetite is

207
Q

forced/excessive extension of a joint is

A

hyperextension

208
Q

rales is

A

abnormal sound heard on auscultation of the chest

209
Q

expectoration of blood arising from the pulmonary system is

A

hemoptysis

210
Q

xray beam that exits the patient is

A

remnant beam

211
Q

decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ is

212
Q

abnormal rapidity of breathing is

213
Q

obstruction of the intestines is

214
Q

how many primary bones are there in human body?

215
Q

abnormal stone formed in the body tissues is

216
Q

difficulty swalling is

217
Q

hardening of arteries is

A

arterioscleosis

218
Q

inflammation of the mucous membrane of the bronchial tubes is

A

bronchitits

219
Q

area inside the xray tube which xrays emanate is

A

focal spot

220
Q

immovable joint occurring only in the skull is

A

suture joints

221
Q

plane of the body that is formed by the biting surfaces of the teeth is

222
Q

appendicular skeleton includes

A

humerus
femur
phalanges

223
Q

shallow, linear channel in a bone is

224
Q

if a patient is upright and leans backward to put both shoulders in contact w/ the IR it is

A

lordotic position

225
Q

if you are referring to body parts on the opposite sides of the body then they are considered to be

A

contralateral

226
Q

___ position is when the patient is supine with the head higher than the feet

A

Fowler’s

227
Q

condition of abnormal, black, tarry stools is

228
Q

closure/state of being closed is

229
Q

collection of air/gas in the pleural cavity is

A

pneumothorax

230
Q

inflammation of the outpouchings of the muscular layer of the intestines is

A

diverticulosis

231
Q

telescoping of a portion of the bowel into the distal intestine is known as

A

intussusception

232
Q

registered techs must show continuing education

A

biannually

233
Q

practice standards for RTs are written by

234
Q

monitoring techs for ethical conducts is the function of

235
Q

JRCERT is required by the __ to respond to allegations of non-compliance

236
Q

AART cert requirements consist of

A

moral/ethical conduct
completion of an accredited program
successful completetion of the certifying exam

237
Q

JRCERT accredition is

A

non-governing

238
Q

ideal radiology admin will have expertise in

A

radiologic technique and management

239
Q

curriculum being taught in your radiography program is based on the national radiography curriculum from which profession organization?

240
Q

the initials RT(R) (CV) (ARRT) would be used by RTs specializing in

A

special procedures

241
Q

JRCERT’s board of directors

A

serves w/o compensation
is legally bound to protect the interest of the JRCERT
is required to appoint a member from the general public

242
Q

educators in RT must have expertise in

A

curriculm design
assessing the effectivenss of clinical practice
counseling students in career opportunities

243
Q

USA spends more than what amount on health care annually?

A

$1,000,000,000,000

244
Q

true/false:continuing education was instituted to reinforce cultural / ethinic status

A

false:
it was to prevent professional obsolescence
to advance the professon

245
Q

nat’l legislation to establish minimum education requirements for operators of radiation-producing equipment had its origin in which professional organization

246
Q

by the year 2025 half of all older Americans will be over what age?

247
Q

the latest medical technology may add what % per day to the patient’s hospital bill

248
Q

ARRT offered its first certficate in

249
Q

nation’s health care goals are stated in a document titled

A

Health People 2010

250
Q

ARRT is the national organization for which

A

certifying the qualified tech

251
Q

eligibility to sit for the ARRT exam in radiography requires what?

A

completion of an ARRT recognized accredited program in radiography

252
Q

ARRT

A

develops tests and examines applicants in RT

253
Q

in 1997 what became a requirement for recertification?

A

showing evidence of continuing education+

254
Q

the ARRT exam consists of a

A

200 question computerized test plus pilot questions

255
Q

ARRT does

A

register techs in radiation therapy, radiography, and nuclear medicine
exams techs for advanced level specialities
awards certficates in basic/advanced level radiography

256
Q

score is defined as passing provided that

A

a composite score of 75 is made

257
Q

purpose of the ARRT is to do

A

encourage education
elevate standards of radiologic technologists
examine/certify elgible candidates

258
Q

what was primary reason the ASRT was formed?

259
Q

national organization for radiologic technology educators is

260
Q

national organization for radiologic technology managers is

261
Q

national organization for all RTs is

262
Q

today, ASRT serves it members with

A

education program curricula
professional representation
continuing education/scholarly publications

263
Q

short-term postgraduate education for the radiographer is

A

sonography

radiation therapy

264
Q

group that represents over 350,000 health care professionals, including all radiologic science practioners is

A

Summit on Radiologic Sciences and Sonography

265
Q

professional journal published by the ASRT is

A

Radiologic Technology

266
Q

other professionals who work in diagnostic imaging and therapy include

A

radiologists
physicists
nurses

267
Q

personnel management, budget preparation, union negotiations, & purchasing are a few of the areas of involvement of teh

A

dept’ admin

268
Q

monitoring of personnel radiation exposure is the responsibility of

A

radiation safety officer

269
Q

minor radiographic/fluoroscopic equipment problems are often served by

A

equipment specialist

270
Q

in today’s radiology dept, upward and lateral mobility depends primarily on

271
Q

what is of the utmost importance in quality assurance/quality control program

A

processor monitoring

272
Q

JCAHO requires that radiology dept establish

A

quality assurance/quality control program

273
Q

qualificiations for radiologic science program director, faculty, clinical coordinator, and clinical instructor are addressed by?

274
Q

number of CE credits required for renewal of certification is

A

24 units in a 2 year period

275
Q

continuing education for RT is

A

mandatory for all registered techs

276
Q

CE credits may be obtained from an accredited postsecondary educational institution

A

courses in disciplines specified by ARRT

277
Q

for an academic course to be acceptable for CE credit, the course must be relevant to

A

radiographic sciences

patient care

278
Q

the organization requiring continuing education for renewal of certification is

279
Q

organization responsible for approving educational activities for CE credits is

280
Q

what is payment system that determines costs/payments before delivery of service called

A

prospective payment

281
Q

main objective for continuing education is

A

provide efficient patient care

282
Q

single largest cost in providing medical care is

283
Q

lifestyle factor(s) that has/have the largest role in relation to the management of good health are

A

diet/smoking

284
Q

when do most individuals incur the majority of their health care expenses?

A

last year of life

285
Q

number of workers available to pay into gov’t or private health insurance is

286
Q

radiographic exams performed for the sole purpose of avoiding litigation is

A

defensive medicine

287
Q

increasingly, entry-leve RT are working in which

A

imaging centers
physician offices
urgent care facilities

288
Q

in what way does the JRCERT accreditation benefit students

A

by ensuring that a program meets nationally established professional standards

289
Q

what gov’t agency is responsible for the oversight of institutional/programmatic accrediation

290
Q

site visitors’ responsibilities include

A

developing a report of findings from the onsite eval of a program
evalutating a program through an onsite visit of teh sponsoring institution

291
Q

which of the following is likely when a programs deficiences threaten the capability of a program to provide acceptable education

A

the program is awarded probationary accreditation

292
Q

educational standards address

A

radiation safety
curriculum
mission statement and goals

293
Q

JRCERT accredited pgorams may exist in which

A

health care facilities
colleges
proprietary schools

294
Q

the JRCERT is

A

an accreditor of educational programs

295
Q

JRCERT board of directors includes

A

radiologic technologists
physicians
represenative of the public

296
Q

speciality that allows for most patient contact is

A

radiaton therapy

297
Q

JRCERT investigates complaints that do what

A

relate to a programs compliance with the educational standards

298
Q

what is a responsibilit of the JRCERT

A

evaluation of education programs

299
Q

radiolgical sciences education has evolved from teh __ to the ___

A

apprentice

academic

300
Q

what is the max lenght of an accreditation award from the JRCERT

301
Q

what is true of accredidation

A

voluntary process
generally conducted by nongov’t agency
peer-review process

302
Q

what is true of a pgoram’s self study report?

A

includes info about the porgrams outcomes in relation to its mission/goals
it’s an eval of the pgoram by program personnel

303
Q

what imaging modality is useful in studing the brain and spinal cord through visualization?

304
Q

which procedure is not an xray exam?

305
Q

what are advantages of u/s

A

no radiation used

it can be used to monitor fetal dev’t

306
Q

distinguishing differences between CT and MRI

A

magnetic field vs radiation

307
Q

formulaton of radipharmaceuticals and the localization of each w/in the body are unique to what discipline?

A

nuclear medicine

308
Q

which specialty is involved in the treatment of diseases rather that its diagnosis?

A

radiation therapy

309
Q

in what specialty may national certification be obtained through an organization other than ARRT

310
Q

what subject is the curriculum not common to all disciplines/

A

treatment planning

311
Q

what is clearly shown on a lateral abdomen projection in the dorsal decubitus positon?

A

pre-vertebral space

air-fluid levels

312
Q

where is the center of the cassette positioned for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the left lateral decubitus position?

A

2” above the ililiac crests

313
Q

common indications for performing oral cholecystography include

A

cholelithiasis
cholecystitis
biliary stenosis

314
Q

it’s often necessary to demonstrate small amounts of intraperitoneal gas in patients with an acute abdomen. How long should the patient lay in the left lateral position before the radiograph is made?

A

10-20 mins

315
Q

what is the radiologically important primary function of the liver?

A

formation of bile

316
Q

the serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic walls is called?

A

peritoneum

317
Q

the liver lies in the

318
Q

what conveys blood to the liver

A

hepatic artery

portal vein

319
Q

pancreas produces what

A

insulin
glucagon
pancreatic juice

320
Q

the 2 main heaptic ducts join to form the

A

common hepatic duct

321
Q

the common heptaic duct and the cystic duct join together and form the

A

common bile duct

322
Q

common bile duct adn the pancreatic duct join together and enter a chamber known as

A

hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater)

323
Q

functions of the gallbladder include

A

store bile

concentrate bile

324
Q

what is a prime consideration in producing optimal radiogrpahs of the abdomen

A

explain the breathing procedure to patient

don’t start exposure for 1-2 seconds after expiration

325
Q

what describes the function of the spleen

A

produces lympohcytes

stores/removes dead blood cells

326
Q

technical factors for an abdominal radiograph should be set to produce

A

moderately wide lattitude

327
Q

properly exposed abdominal radiograph will exhibit

A

psoas muscles
lower boarder of the liver
tranverse process of the lumbar vertebrae

328
Q

most commonly performmed abdominal exams is referred to as

329
Q

CR angulation for an abdominal radiograph is

330
Q

if a patient is unable to stand for an upright AP abdominal radiograph which position should be used?

A

left lateral decubitus

331
Q

where is the center of the cassette positioned for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the supine position

A

iliac crests

332
Q

where is the center of the cassette positoned for an upright PA abdominal radiograph

A

2” above iliac crests

333
Q

what is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal radiograph doen in the supine position?

A

expiration

334
Q

what is the respiration phase for an AP or PA abdominal radiograph done in upright position

A

expiration

335
Q

one of the primary reasons for left lateral decubitus abdominal radiograph performed is to demonstrate

A

air-fluid levels

336
Q

for which of the followign projections of the abdomen is the xray beam placed in the horizontal position

A

upright, PA

AP, lateral decubitus

337
Q

what is placed perpendicular to the long axis of the grid for a lateral projection of the abdomen

A

midcoronall plane

338
Q

where is the cente rof the cassette positioned for a lateral projection of the abdomen done in the dorsal decubits position?

A

2” above iliac crests

339
Q

what is respiration phase for all projections of the biliary tract or gallbladder?

A

expiration

340
Q

when is the contrast medium for oral cholecystography given to the patient

A

2-3 hours after evening meal

341
Q

why is the prone position the best position for demonstrating the structures of the biliary system

A

places the structures closer to the cassette`

342
Q

where is cassette centered for a PA gallbladder radiograph

A

variable, depending on the body habitus

343
Q

during an operative cholangiogram the surgeon injects the contrast medium directly into the bilialry system. what projections are typically done during this procedure in surgery

A

AP

AP, oblique, RPO

344
Q

the inner portion of the sac that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is

A

visceral peritoneum

345
Q

during an ERCP an endoscope is passed into the duodenum under flouroscope control. “spot” radiographs are usutally taken of the

A

pancreatic duct

common bile duct

346
Q

what orangs lie in the abdominal cavity?

A

stomach
gallbladder
kidneys

347
Q

what organs lie in pelvic cavity

A

rectum

bladder

348
Q

outer portion of the sac that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is

A

parietal peritoneum

349
Q

narrow space between the 2 layers of the peritoneum is called

A

peritoneal cavity

350
Q

what should be clearly demonstrated on an AP/PA oblique projection of the lungs?

A

lungs & trachea filled with air

351
Q

where should top of cassette be positoned for an AP oblique projection of the lungs?

A

1 1/2 - 2” above vertebral ___ or 5” above jugular notch

352
Q

for AP oblique projection of the chest, what side is of interest?

A

side closest to the cassette

353
Q

what does the diaphram do when the lungs expand?

354
Q

what is the body habitus?

A

shape of your insides

355
Q

where is the thymus?

A

behind the manubrum sterni

356
Q

what does the thorasic viscera consist of

A

lungs

mediastinum

357
Q

right lung is ____” shorter than the left

358
Q

for PA oblique projection of teh chest, what is the side of interest?

A

furtherest from cassette

359
Q

what is CR angle for Lindblom of demonstrating pulminary aspes?

360
Q

what is the space between the 2 pleural cavities?

A

mediastinum

361
Q

how many chambers are in the thoracis cavity?

362
Q

what organs are in thoracic cavity?

A
lungs
heart
respiratory organs
cardiovascular organs
lympathic organs
inferior portion of the esphogus
thymus gland
363
Q

the trachea is anterior/inferior to the esophagus?

364
Q

trachea goves from C6 -

365
Q

where does the trachea divide?

A

at the carina

366
Q

what is carina

A

hooklike process at end of trachea

367
Q

foreign bodies that enter the trachea are more likely to go to which lung?

368
Q

terminal bronchioles communicate with

A

aveolar ducts

369
Q

each aveolar duct ends in several

A

aveolar sacs

370
Q

the aveolar sacs are lined with

371
Q

what does the alveioli do

A

gas exchange

372
Q

what is the respiratory system made up

A

pharynx
trachea
bronchi
lungs

373
Q

light spongy elastic substance that lungs are covered by

A

parenchyma

374
Q

where are the apex parts of the lungs

A

above the clavicles

375
Q

where is the base of the lungs

A

rests on diaphragm

376
Q

during respiration the lungs move ____ on inpsiration

A

inferiorly

377
Q

during respiration the lungs move ____ on expiration

A

superiorly

378
Q

deep recesses of the parietal pleura

A

costophrenci angle

379
Q

mediastinal surface is concave with a depression called ____ which accommodates blood vessels, nerves, etc

380
Q

each lung is enclosed in a double-walled serious membrane sac called

381
Q

inner layer of teh pleural sac that adheres to the surface of the lung

A

visceral pleura

382
Q

outer layer of the pleaural sac tha tlines the wall of teh thoracic cavity

A

parietal pleura

383
Q

space between the visceral and parietal pleura

A

pleural cavity

384
Q

tongue-shaped process on the anteromedial border of left lung

385
Q

does the mediastinum contain the lungs?

386
Q

true/false?

thymus atrophies as you age

387
Q

shield on sternum

388
Q

on PA position ___ is closer to IR

389
Q

on left lateral positon ___ is closer to IR

390
Q

quantity of electrons

391
Q

quality of or penetrability

392
Q

kVp is ___ on chest xrays

393
Q

breathing instructions for chest xrays:

A

full inspiration on 2nd breath

394
Q

gas or air in pleural cavity

A

pheumonthorax

395
Q

code of ethics followed by RT includes

A

attention to radiation safety

public education

396
Q

what organization stipulates that patient/family complaints must be in place/made available for use as part of continuing quality improvement

397
Q

people from outside the hopstial such as patients, families, physicians, and others w/in community

A

outside customer

398
Q

members of other dept

A

inside customer

399
Q

understanding but not necessarily agreeing w/ somene position

400
Q

maslow’s hiearchy of needs

A
  1. physiological needs: food, shelter, clothing
  2. feeling of safety: family/health/property
  3. love/belonging: friendship, family, sexual intimacy
  4. satisfying relationships: self esteen, resepct
  5. self-actualization: need to feel productive
401
Q

control over emotions/actions

A

self discipline

402
Q

interpret a sitation from an unbiased point of view

A

objectivity

403
Q

acute stress brings on

A

fight/flight

404
Q

primal stresses

A

life threatening
obtaining food
death

405
Q

physical, chemical, emotinal factor that causes bodily/mental tension

406
Q

observations, mental images, a result of perceiving

A

perception

407
Q

assisting or intending to assist memory

408
Q

making wise decisions based on a set of universally accepted values

A

critical thinking

409
Q

natural cohesivness in a group

A

herd instinct

410
Q

father of medicine

A

hippocrates

411
Q

what day was xray discovered

A

November 8, 1895

412
Q

who discovered xray

A

wilhelm roentgen

413
Q

technological knowledge doubles every

A

15-18 months

414
Q

state of complete physical, mental, social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease

415
Q

pattern of response of living organism to some form of injury

416
Q

rateof death from various conditions

417
Q

occurrence of disease

418
Q

effecting many people at once; an outbreak or porduct of sudden rapid growth

419
Q

disease occurring over a wide area and affecting in exceptionally high proportions of population

420
Q

infectious diseases account for what percoent of all visits to docs each year

421
Q

who primarily worked w/ fluroscope?

422
Q

credited w/ radium

A

marie curie

423
Q

how many properties of xrays are there