Final Course Review Flashcards

1
Q

Defined the word drug for DRE purposes

A

Any substance that, when taking into the human body, can impair the ability of the person to operate a vehicle safely.

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2
Q

Name the seven drug categories

A

CNS depressants, CNS stimulants, hallucinogens, dissociative anesthetic, narcotic analgesics, inhalants, and cannabis.

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3
Q

Name the sub categories of central nervous system depressants

A

Antidepressants, antipsychotic tranquilizers, sedative-hypnotics, and other.

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4
Q

Name the 3 categories of CNS stimulants

A

Cocaine, the amphetamines, and others

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5
Q

Name the two subcategories of narcotic analgesics

A

Opiates and opioids (synthetics)

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6
Q

Identify the drug category for Desoxyn

A

CNS Stimulant

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7
Q

Identify the drug category for Secobarbital (Seconal)

A

CNS Depressant (Sedative-Hypnotic)

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8
Q

Identify the drug category for Fentanyl

A

Narcotic Analgesics

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9
Q

Identify the drug category for Alprazolam (Xanax)

A

CNS Depressant (Sedative Hypnotics)

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10
Q

Identify the drug category for Phenyl Cyclohexyl Peperidine (PCP)

A

Dissociative Anesthetic

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11
Q

Identify the drug category for Ecstasy (MDMA)

A

Hallucinogens

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12
Q

Identify the drug category for ETOH

A

CNS Depressants

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13
Q

Identify the drug category for Demerol

A

Narcotic Analgesics

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14
Q

Identify the drug category for Psilocybin

A

Hallucinogens

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15
Q

12 components of the drug influence evaluation

A

BIPED VD MISOT

  1. Breath, alcohol test.
  2. Interview of the arresting.
  3. Preliminary exam.
  4. Examinations of the eyes.
  5. divided attention tests.
  6. Examination of vital signs.
  7. Dark Room Examination,
  8. Examination of Muscle Tone,
  9. Examination for injection sites
  10. Subjects statements and other observations.
  11. Opinion of evaluator.
  12. Toxicological results
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16
Q

Identify the Drug Category for Morphine

A

Narcotic Analgesic

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17
Q

Identify the Drug Category for Adderall

A

CNS Stimulant

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18
Q

Identify the Drug Category for Chlordiazepoxide

A

CNS Depressant

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19
Q

Identify the Drug Category for Ketamine

A

Dissociative Anesthetic

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20
Q

Identify the Drug Category for Oxycodone

A

Narcotic Analgesics

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21
Q

Identify the Drug Category for Ritalin

A

CNS Stimulant

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22
Q

Identify the Drug Category for Bufotenine

A

Hallucinogens

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23
Q

Identify the Drug Category for methaqualone

A

CNS Depressant

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24
Q

Name the three clues for Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus

A
  1. Lack of Smooth Pursuit
  2. Distinct and Sustained Nystagmus at Maximum Deviation
  3. Angle of Onset
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25
Q

For HGN, how long should the eye be held at maximum deviation?

A

A minimum of 4 seconds

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26
Q

What is the formula that expresses the approximate relationship between BAC and Angle of Onset?

A

BAC = 50- Angle of Onset

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27
Q

Name the categories of drugs that cause HGN

A

Your DID drugs
CNS Depressants, Dissociative Anesthetics, and Inhalants

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28
Q

Name the Categories of Drugs that cause VGN

A

DID drugs
CNS Depressants, Dissociative Anesthetics, and Inhalants

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29
Q

Name the test always administered immediately after VGN

A

Lack of Convergence

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30
Q

Name the categories of drugs that will cause slow reaction to light

A

CNS Depressants, CNS Stimulants, and Inhalants

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31
Q

Name the lighting conditions under which we make estimations of pupil size

A

Room light, near total darkness, and direct light

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32
Q

Name the other things a DRE looks for while shining the light directly into the subjects eye

A

Rebound dilation and pupil reaction to light

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33
Q

How quickly must the pupil start to constrict if it is considered to exhibit normal reaction to light?

A

Within one second

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34
Q

Define rebound dilation

A

A period of pupillary constriction, followed by a period of pupillary dilation where the pupil steadily increases in size in the range between minimum and max is equal to or greater than 1 mm and does not return to its original constricted size.

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35
Q

State the DRE average ranges of pupil size for the three lighting conditions

A

Room light: 2.5 - 5.0 mm
Near Total Darkness: 5.0 -8.0 mm
Direct Light: 2.0 - 4.5 mm

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36
Q

Define miosis

A

Abnormally small (constricted) pupils

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37
Q

Define Mydriasis

A

Abnormally large (dilated) pupils

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38
Q

Define Ptosis

A

Droopy eyelid

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39
Q

What category of drugs cause dilation of the pupils?

A

CNS Stimulants, Hallucinogens, Cannabis (although sometimes only slight dilation)

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40
Q

What category of drugs causes constriction?

A

Narcotic Analgesics

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41
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Oxycodone

A

Narcotic Analgesic

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42
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Halcion

A

CNS Depressant

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43
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Gabapentin

A

CNS Depressant

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44
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Peyote

A

Hallucinogen

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45
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Ritalin

A

CNS Stimulant

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46
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Diazepam?

A

CNS Depressant aka Valium

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47
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Dexedrine

A

CNS stimulant

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48
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Codine

A

Narcotic Analgesic

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49
Q

Identify the Drug Category of Lorazepam

A

CNS Depressant

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50
Q

Define pulse

A

The rhythmic dilation and relaxation of an artery that results from the beating of the heart.
Also acceptable, the expansion and contraction of an artery caused by the surging flow of blood

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51
Q

Define pulse rate

A

The number of pulsations in an artery per minute

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52
Q

Define Artery

A

A strong elastic blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the body tissues

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53
Q

Define Vein

A

A blood vessel that carries blood back to the heart from the body tissues

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54
Q

Where are these pulse points located:
Radial
Brachial
Carotid

A

Radial= wrist
Brachial = crook of arm
Carotid = neck

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55
Q

What is the normal range of adult pulse rates?

A

60-90 beats per minute

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56
Q

Name the drug categories that cause elevated pulse rates?

A

CNS stimulants
Hallucinogens
Dissociative Anesthetics
Inhalants
Cannabis

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57
Q

Name the drug categories that cause lowered pulse rates

A

CNS depressants
Narcotic Anesthetics

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58
Q

Define blood pressure

A

The force exerted by blood on the walls of the arteries

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59
Q

How often does a person’s blood pressure change?

A

It is always changing from instant to instant

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60
Q

When does blood pressure reach its highest value?

A

When the heart is fully contracted, and blood is sent rushing into the arteries

61
Q

When does the blood pressure reach its lowest value?

A

When the heart is fully expanded, just before it starts to contract for the next pumping action.

62
Q

Name the two medical instruments used to measure blood pressure

A

Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

63
Q

Name the sound we hear through the stethoscope when we take a blood pressure measurement

A

Korotkoff sounds

64
Q

What does this “Hg” mean?

A

Chemical symbol for the element mercury, abbreviation for the Latin word, hydrargyrum meaning mercury 

65
Q

In what units is blood pressure measured?

A

Millimeters of mercury

66
Q

Suppose at some particular instant, a person has a blood pressure of 120 mmHg. What does “120 mmHg” mean?

A

It means the pressure would be strong enough to push a column of liquid mercury up a glass tube to the height of 120 mm

67
Q

Name the drug categories that usually cause a lowered blood pressure

A

CNS Depressants, Narcotic Analgesics, and the Anesthetic Gases subcategory of inhalants

68
Q

Name the drug categories that elevate blood pressure

A

CNS stimulants, hallucinogens, disassociative anesthetics, cannabis, and the other two subcategories (volatile solvents and aerosols) of inhalants.

69
Q

Define systolic

A

The highest value of blood pressure

70
Q

Define diastolic

A

The lowest value of blood pressure

71
Q

Define Bradycardia

A

Abnormally slow heart rate, pulse rate is below the normal range

72
Q

Define tachycardia

A

Abnormally rapid heart rate, pulse rate above the normal range

73
Q

Define hypertension

A

Abnormally high blood pressure

74
Q

Define hypotension

A

Abnormally low blood pressure

75
Q

Normal range of systolic blood pressure

A

120-140 mmHg

76
Q

Normal range for diastolic blood pressure

A

70-90 mmHg

77
Q

Define Physiology

A

For the purposes of this training, course, physiology is the study of the functions of living organisms and their parts.

78
Q

What is the expression we used to remember the names of the 10 major body systems?

A

Murderers Inc.

79
Q

State the word that means “dynamic balance involving levels of salts, water, sugars, and other materials in the bodies fluids.”

A

Homeostasis

80
Q

Which artery carries blood from the heart to the lungs?

A

Pulmonary

81
Q

What is unique about the pulmonary artery, compared to all other arteries?

A

Is the only artery that takes blood from the right side of the heart is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood (i.e., blood depleted of oxygen)

82
Q

What are the pulmonary veins?

A

The veins that carry blood back to the heart from the lungs

83
Q

What is unique about the pulmonary veins?

A

They are the only veins that bring blood to the left side of the heart. They are the only veins that carry oxygenated blood.

84
Q

What do these terms mean sensory nerves?

A

Afferent nerves

85
Q

What do these terms mean motor nerves?

A

Efferent nerves

86
Q

What do these terms mean voluntary?

A

Conscious control

87
Q

What does this term mean autonomic?

A

Not conscious control

88
Q

What does sympathetic mean?

A

Fear, stress, etc.

89
Q

What does parasympathetic mean?

A

Relaxation, tranquility, etc.

90
Q

Define neuron

A

A nurse, the basic “building block” of a nerve

91
Q

Define synapse

A

The gap or space between two nerve cells

92
Q

Define neurotransmitter

A

A chemical that flows across the sign apps, to carry a message from one neuron to the next

93
Q

Define axon

A

The end of a neuron that sends out the neurotransmitter

94
Q

Define dendrite

A

The end of an neuron that receives an neurotransmitter

95
Q

What drug, other than alcohol, was found most frequently in the Los Angeles Field Validation Study?

A

PCP

96
Q

How common was polydrug use in the Los Angeles Field Validation Study?

A

More than 70% of the subjects had two or more drug categories in them.

97
Q

What does “polydrug use” mean?

A

Administering two or more drugs.

98
Q

How good were DREs in the Field Validation Study?

A

Nearly 80% of the time when the DREs said a particular category of drugs was present, that category was found in the subject’s blood.
In 92.5% of the subjects, the DREs correctly identified at least one of the categories that were present.

99
Q

In the University of Tennessee Study, what percentage of injured drivers had drugs other than alcohol in them?

A

40% of those drivers had evidence of other drugs in their urine.

100
Q

Name six different CNS Depressants

A

Alprazolam (Xanax), Butalbital (Fioricet), Carisoprodol (Soma) , Diazepram (Valium), Gabapentin (Neurotin, Gralise, Horizant), Fluvoxamine (Luvox), Methaqualone (Quaalude), Secobarbital ( Seconal).

101
Q

Name four different CNS Stimulants

A

Amphetamines, Cocaine, Cathinone, Methamphetamine, Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

102
Q

Name two naturally-occuring Hallucinogens

A

Bufotenine, Peyote (Mescaline), Psilocybin (Mushrooms), Nutmeg

103
Q

Name four different synthetic Hallucinogen

A

LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) , MDMA, DMY, MDA (Esctasy/ Methylenedioxymthamphetamine), 2C-B (Bronmo-Mescaline)

104
Q

Name a major analog of PCP

A

Ketamine

105
Q

Name the three sub-categories of inhalants?

A

Volatile Solvents, Aerosols, Anesthetic Gases

106
Q

What is the active ingredient in Cannabis?

A

THC

107
Q

True of False: Pulse rate is measured in units of “millimeters of mercury”

A

FALSE: Pulse Rate is measured in Beats per Minutes

108
Q

What is the “average” range of adult human blood pressure, for DRE purposes?

A

Systolic: 120-140 mmHg
Diastolic: 70-90 mmHg

109
Q

True or False: Any drug that causes HGN may also produce VGN

A

True, all drugs that cause HGN will cause VGN if the dose is large enough.

110
Q

What category of drugs causes VGN but not HGN?

A

No drug causes VGN but not HGN.

111
Q

True of False: Any drug that causes nystagmus will also usually cause the eyes to be unable to converge.

A

True: CNS Depressant, Dissociative Anesthetics, and Inhalants usually cause the eyes to be unable to converge.

112
Q

What category of drugs usually causes LOC but does not cause nystagmus?

A

Cannabis usually causes LOC but doesn’t cause nystagmus.

113
Q

How long should we wait in the Darkroom before beginning to check the subject’s pupils?

A

At least 90 seconds

114
Q

Name the device we use to estimate the size of the subject’s pupils.

A

Pupillometer

115
Q

What do the numbers on the Pupillometer refer to?

A

The diameters of the dark circles/semi-circles

116
Q

In what units of measurement are those numbers given

A

In millimeters

117
Q

What category of drugs usually causes Miosis, or constricted pupils?

A

Narcotic Analgesics usually cause pupils to constrict below the DRE average range.

118
Q

What categories usually cause Mydriasis, or dilated pupils?

A

CNS Stimulants and Hallucinogens usually cause pupils to dilate above the DRE Average range. Cannabis also may cause dilation. Certain CNS Depressants and some inhalants may also cause pupil dilation.

119
Q

What is unique about Methaqualone (Quaaludes) and Soma?

A

Both are CNS depressants that cause Pupil Dilation

120
Q

Name the four Divided Attention Tests administered during the DRE drug influence evaluation.

A

Modified Romberg Balance
Walk and Turn
One Leg Stand
Finger to Nose

121
Q

Why is the Modified Romberg Balance (MRB) the first test administered?

A

For standardization

122
Q

What four validated clues of impairment have been established for the One Leg Stand (OLS)
Test?

A

Sways while balancing
Uses arm(s) to balance
Hopping
Puts the foot down

123
Q

How many times is the OLS administered during the DRE drug influence evaluation?

A

Twice

124
Q

Which foot must the subject stand on first when performing the OLS?

A

Left

125
Q

How many validated clues of impairment have been established for the Walk and Turn (WAT)
test? Name them.

A

Eight validated clues
Cannot keep balance during the instructions
Starts too soon
Stops while walking
Does not touch heel-to-toe
Steps off the line
Uses arm(s) to balance
Improper turn
Incorrect number of steps

126
Q

In what sequence is the subject instructed to touch the index fingers to the nose on the Finger
to Nose (FTN) test?

A

Left, Right, Left, Right, Right, Left

127
Q

What is the medical or technical term for “droopy eyelids”?

A

Ptosis

128
Q

What does “Piloerection” mean? What drug often causes Piloerection?

A

“Piloerection” means “Hair Standing Up”, or “Goose Bumps”. It is often caused
by LSD

129
Q

What is the medical or technical term for Heroin?

A

Diacetyl Morphine

130
Q

Explain the terms “Null”, “Additive”, “Antagonistic,” and “Overlapping” Effect as they apply to
polydrug use. Give examples.

A

Null”: neither drug affects some specific indicator
No action + No action= no action
0+0=0
“Additive”: the two drugs produce some identical effects
Action + action = greater action
1+1=10
“Antagonistic”: the two drugs produce some directly opposite effects
Action + opposite action= unknown
1+1=?
“Overlapping”: one drug affects some symptom the other doesn’t affect, and vice versa.
Action + no action= action
1+0=1

131
Q

What is pupillary unrest?

A

The continuous change in the size of the pupils that may be observed under
room or steady light conditions

132
Q

What does “Bruxism” mean?

A

Grinding the teeth.

133
Q

What does the number denoting the size of a hypodermic needle refer to?

A

The inside diameter of the needle.

134
Q

What does “Synesthesia” mean?

A

A mixing of senses, i.e. hearing colors or seeing sounds

135
Q

What is “Sinsemilla”?

A

A variety of marijuana with a high concentration of THC.

136
Q

What are the twelve major components of the DRE drug influence evaluation?

A

Breath Alcohol Test
Interview of Arresting Officer
Preliminary Examination
Examinations of the Eyes
Divided Attention Tests
Vital Signs Examinations
Dark Room Examinations
Examination for Muscle Tone
Examination for Injection Sites
Subject’s Statements
Opinion of the Evaluator
Toxicological Examination

137
Q

Name the ten major body systems.

A

M is for Muscular System
U is for Urinary System
R is for Respiratory System
D is for Digestive System
E is for Endocrine System
R is for Reproductive System
S is for Skeletal System
I is for Integumentary System
N is for Nervous System
C is for Circulatory System

138
Q

What is the distinction between the “Smooth” muscles and the ”Striated” muscles?

A

We consciously control the Striated; we don’t consciously control the Smooth.

139
Q

What do we call the chemicals produced by the Endocrine System?

A

Hormones

140
Q

What is a neuron?

A

A nerve cell

141
Q

What do the Sensory Nerves do?

A

Carry messages to the brain, from the sense organs, pain sensors, etc.

142
Q

What do the Motor Nerves do?

A

Carry messages from the brain, to the muscles, etc

143
Q

Name the two sub-divisions of Motor Nerves.

A

Voluntary (control striated muscles) and Autonomic (control smooth muscles)

144
Q

Name the two sub-divisions of Autonomic Nerves and describe their functions.

A

Sympathetic (command the body’s response to fear, excitement, etc.), and
Parasympathetic (promote the body’s tranquil activities).

145
Q

What does it mean to say a drug is “sympathomimetic”?

A

It means the drug’s effects mimic those caused by messages transmitted along
sympathetic nerves (excitement, agitation, arousal, etc.).

146
Q

What does it mean to say a drug is “parasympathomimetic”?

A

The drug’s effects mimic those caused by messages transmitted along
parasympathetic nerves (relaxation, calm, sleep, etc.).

147
Q

Which two categories of drugs can most appropriately be called sympathomimetic?

A

CNS Stimulants and Hallucinogens

148
Q

Which category can most appropriately be called parasympathomimetic?

A

Narcotic Analgesics
Clarification: Cannabis, Dissociative Anesthetics, and Inhalants have some
sympathomimetic characteristics, but not as many as do the CNS Stimulants and
Hallucinogens. CNS Depressants have parasympathomimetic characteristics, but
not as many as the Narcotic Analgesics.