Final A&P Flashcards
1
Q
22) This plane divides the body into equal right and left halves.
a) frontal
b) midsagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
e) coronal
A
midsagittal
2
Q
23) This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
a) frontal
b) sagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
e) midsagittal
A
frontal
3
Q
24) A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into
a) anterior and posterior portions.
b) left and right portions.
c) superior and inferior portions.
d) portions separated at an angle to its longitudinal axis.
e) unequal left and right portions.
A
superior and inferior portions.
4
Q
25) This directional term means farther from the midline.
a) medial
b) anterior
c) proximal
d) deep
e) lateral
A
lateral
5
Q
26) This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure. a) deep b) contralateral c) lateral d) cephalic e) distal
A
distal
6
Q
27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
a) superficial
b) superior
c) inferior
d) distal
e) proximal
A
superficial
7
Q
27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
a) superficial
b) superior
c) inferior
d) distal
e) proximal
A
superficial
8
Q
7) This is the condition of equilibrium (balance) in the body’s internal environment.
a) palpation
b) metabolism
c) homeostasis
d) autopsy
e) differentiation
A
homeostasis
9
Q
30) Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity?
a) stomach
b) spleen
c) liver
d) gallbladder
e) diaphragm
A
diaphragm
10
Q
31) This serous membrane covers the viscera within the abdominal cavity, and lines the
abdominal wall and the inferior surface of the diaphragm.
a) pericardium
b) pleura
c) mediastinum
d) dura mater
e) peritoneum
A
peritoneum
11
Q
70) What is the name of the serous membrane in closest proximity to the lungs?
a) parietal pleura
b) visceral pleura
c) parietal pericardium
d) visceral pericardium
e) mediastinum
A
b) visceral pleura
12
Q
71) What is the name of the outer layer of the serous membrane that surrounds the heart?
a) diaphragm
b) visceral pleura
c) parietal pericardium
d) visceral pericardium
e) mediastinum
A
c) parietal pericardium
13
Q
92) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tissues found in the human body? a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscular tissue d) necrotic tissue e) nervous tissue
A
necrotic tissue
14
Q
96) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which of the following types of medical imaging. a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) low-dose radiography
A
e) low-dose radiography
15
Q
5) The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element’s
a) mass number.
b) atomic number.
c) atomic mass.
d) valence number.
e) None of these choices.
A
b) atomic number
16
Q
7) This refers to a weighted average of the atomic weights of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element. a) mass number b) atomic number c) atomic mass d) ionic mass e) covalent mass
A
c) atomic mass
17
Q
11) This is the name given to a negatively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) catalyst
d) anion
e) cation
A
d) anion
18
Q
13) This type of chemical bond involves the sharing of valence electrons between two atoms.
a) covalent
b) ionic
c) hydrogen
d) atomic
e) electronic
A
covalent
19
Q
molecules like proteins and DNA?
a) nonpolar covalent
b) polar covalent
c) hydrogen
d) ionic
e) atomic
A
hydrogen
20
Q
21) An enzyme acts to
a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
c) convert the activation energy into potential energy.
d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy.
e) stop a chemical reaction.
A
lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
21
Q
25) This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body.
a) water
b) oxygen gas
c) carbon dioxide
d) glucose
e) DNA
A
water
22
Q
29) A solution with a pH value less than 7 is
a) basic.
b) neutral.
c) acidic.
d) alkaline.
e) concentrated.
A
acidic
23
Q
30) A chemical compound that helps control the pH of a solution by adding or removing hydrogen ions is a(n) a) electrolyte. b) salt. c) cation. d) colloid. e) buffer.
A
buffer
24
Q
11) This is the name given to a negatively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) catalyst
d) anion
e) cation
A
anion
25
1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell?
a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm
b) plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus
c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles
d) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
e) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles
plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
26
6) This type of membrane protein extends across the entire lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane
touching both intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid.
a) complement protein
b) transmembrane protein
c) peripheral protein
d) lipoprotein
e) All of these choices are correct.
transmembrane protein
27
8) This type of membrane protein enables cells to catalyze specific chemical reactions at the inner
or outer surface of their plasma membrane.
a) receptors
b) phospholipids
c) cholesterol
d) enzymes
e) ligands
enzymes
28
```
9) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to
hormones and neurotransmitters?
a) transporters
b) receptors
c) enzymes
d) linkers
e) cell identification markers
```
receptors
29
```
10) This type of membrane protein anchors cells to neighboring cells and to protein filaments found
outside or inside the cell.
a) transporters
b) receptors
c) ligands
d) ion channels
e) linkers
```
linkers
30
11) Plasma membranes are ________, which means that some chemicals move easily through
plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.
a) selectively permeable
b) concentration graded
c) electrically graded
d) selectively soluble
e) electrical insulators
selectively permeable
31
15) This is the transport process by which gases, like O2 and CO2, move through a membrane.
a) osmosis
b) active transport
c) secondary active transport
d) simple diffusion
e) endocytosis
d) simple diffusion
32
17) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across
the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
a) primary active transport
b) secondary active transport
c) facilitated diffusion
d) passive diffusion
e) osmosis
a) primary active transport
33
```
29) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane
proteins and secretory proteins?
a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) nucleus
d) centrosome
e) Golgi complex
```
a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
34
destined for other regions of the cell?
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi complex
c) peroxisomes
d) nucleus
e) proteasome
b) Golgi complex
35
36) The major function of mitochondria is to
a) move the cell.
b) generate ATP.
c) produce proteins.
d) oxidize organelles.
e) synthesize glycolipids.
generate ATP
36
```
96) This organelle is responsible for synthesis of steroids, phospholipids and functions as a
reservoir for Ca2+?
a) mitochondrion
b) secretory vesicle
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) rough endoplasmic reticulum
e) lysosome
```
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
37
97) What other organelle besides the nucleus contain DNA?
a) Golgi complex
b) lysosome
c) ribosomes
d) mitochondrion
e) centrosome
mitochondrion
38
1) Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
a) epithelial
b) connective
c) myocardial
d) muscle
e) nervous
myocardial
39
4) Epithelial tissue
a) is used as a covering of body surfaces.
b) is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs.
c) is used to form glands.
d) usually has a free surface that interacts with external environment.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
40
6) This type of epithelial tissue is found lining the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
41
7) This type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
42
8) This type of epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and esophageal glands.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Transitional epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
43
```
9) This type of epithelial tissue lines the fallopian tubes, uterus, and some bronchioles of the
respiratory tract.
a) Simple cuboidal epithelium
b) Simple columnar epithelium
c) Stratified columnar epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Transitional epithelium
```
b) Simple columnar epithelium
44
11) Which of the following types of glands are categorized by whether their ducts are branched
or unbranched?
a) Unicellular exocrine glands
b) Multicellular exocrine glands
c) Unicellular endocrine glands
d) Multicellular endocrine glands
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
Multicellular exocrine glands
45
12) This type of multicellular exocrine gland has a branched rounded secretory part attached to a
single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.
a) Simple coiled tubular gland
b) Compound tubular gland
c) Compound tuboloacinar gland
d) Simple branched acinar gland
e) Simple branched tubular gland
d) Simple branched acinar gland
46
13) Simple tubular exocrine glands have
a) a straight tubular secretory portion attached to a single unbranched duct.
b) a coiled tubular secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct.
c) a rounded secretory attached to a single unbranched duct.
d) a branched rounded secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct.
e) none of these choices
a) a straight tubular secretory portion attached to a single unbranched duct.
47
14) Functional classification of exocrine glands is based on
a) shape of the gland.
b) size of the gland.
c) how the gland release its secretory product.
d) how the gland synthesizes its secretory product.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
c) how the gland release its secretory product.
48
15) This type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cells until
the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product.
a) Apocrine
b) Exocrine
c) Holocrine
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) None of these Answer choices are correct.
Holocrine
49
17) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
a) Bone
b) Blood
c) Cartilage
d) Tendons
e) Epidermis
Epidermis
50
19) Which of the following is a polysaccharide commonly found in the ground substance of connective tissues?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Melatonin
c) Cholesterol
d) Glycogen
e) Starch
a) Hyaluronic acid
51
20) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular matrix of
connective tissue?
a) Elastic
b) Reticular
c) Collagen
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) None of these Answer choices are correct.
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
52
22) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
a) Blood
b) Spongy bone
c) Areolar connective tissue
d) Elastic connective tissue
e) Hyaline cartilage
c) Areolar connective tissue
53
23) Which of the following is a location where adipose tissue is commonly found?
a) Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin
b) Lining the chambers of the heart
c) Surrounding the brain
d) Inside the ear canal
e) In the cartilage found in joints
Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin
54
56) Which of the following types of tissues is made up of small spindle-shaped cells and is
commonly found in the walls of hollow organs?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) transitional epithelium
e) areolar tissue
smooth muscle
55
55) Which of the following types of tissues is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) intercalated cells
e) myoblasts
c) cardiac muscle
56
```
57) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are
under voluntary control?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) transitional epithelium
e) areolar tissue
```
a) skeletal muscle
57
Chapter #5
1) This is another name for the subcutaneous layer.
a) Dermis
b) Epidermis
c) Stratum corneum
d) Stratum basale
e) Hypodermis
Hypodermis
58
2) This layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous layer
e) Corpuscle
Epidermis
59
6) This layer of epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes.
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum lucidum
e) Stratum corneum
a) Stratum basale
60
```
7) This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through
apoptosis.
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum lucidum
e) Stratum corneum
```
c) Stratum granulosum
61
8) The stratum lucidum
a) contains lamellar granules.
b) lies just above the stratum basale.
c) is the layer used in a skin graft.
d) is present only in thick skin.
e) can consist of up to 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.
d) is present only in thick skin.
62
9) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the
thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
a) stratum basale
b) stratum spinosum
c) stratum granulosum
d) stratum lucidum
e) stratum corneum
e) stratum corneum
63
```
11) This layer of the skin is composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing
collagen and elastic fibers.
a) Hypodermis
b) Basement membrane
c) Epidermis
d) Dermis
e) Subcutaneous (subQ) layer
```
Dermis
64
14) Characteristics of thick skin include:
a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips.
b) Does not contain hair follicles.
c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin.
d) Contain epidermal ridges.
e) All of these choices are correct
e) All of these choices are correct
65
```
15) Which of the following structures found in the skin plays an important role in
thermoregulation?
a) Merkel cells
b) Sebaceous glands
c) Sweat glands
d) Nails
e) Fingerprints
```
c) Sweat glands
66
16) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit
bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
a) Arrector pili
b) Lunula
c) Sweat glands
d) Hair follicles
e) Oil glands
e) Oil glands
67
19) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sudoriferous gland
c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
d) None of these answers are correct
Sebaceous gland
68
21) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, coiled tubular gland that is found throughout almost
the entirety of the skin.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Eccrine sweat gland
c) Apocrine sweat gland
d) Ceruminous gland
e) None of these answer choices are correct.
Eccrine sweat gland
69
```
65) Which condition results from androgens inhibiting hair growth in genetically predisposed
adults?
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) male-pattern baldness
e) erythema
```
male-pattern baldness
70
```
66) Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive body hair caused by tumors
in adrenal glands, testes or ovaries?
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) androgenic alopecia
e) erythema
```
hirsutism
71
76) “Goose bumps” are caused by
a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
c) contraction of dermal papillae.
d) stimulation of hair root plexus.
e) secretions from the sebaceous gland.
a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
72
81) Which of the following is a common characteristic of thin skin?
a) Hairless.
b) Contains a stratum lucidum.
c) High density of sensory receptors.
d) Presence of sebaceous glands.
e) Contains epidermal ridges.
d) Presence of sebaceous glands.
73
3) This is the shaft of a long bone.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow
diaphysis
74
2) This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) dmarrow
epiphysis
75
1) One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow
marrow
76
6) This is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis.
a) epiphyseal plate
b) epiphyseal line
c) metaphysis
d) diaphyseal line
e) diaphyseal plate
metaphysis
77
8) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to
highly specialized mature bone cell?
a) osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes
b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
c) osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts
d) osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes
e) None of these choices.
b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
78
9) These are considered bone-building cells.
a) fibroblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices
osteoblasts
79
10) These are considered bone-dissolving cells.
a) osteogenic cells
b) osteoclast
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices
osteoclast
80
11) Which of the following structures contain osteocytes?
a) haversian canals
b) Volkmann’s canals
c) concentric lamellae
d) lacunae
e) canaliculi
lacunae
81
13) Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned
a) horizontal to the metaphysis.
b) parallel to the epiphysis.
c) parallel to the length of the diaphysis.
d) randomly between the epiphyseal plates.
e) parallel to the perforating canals.
parallel to the length of the diaphysis.
82
14) Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE?
a) It occurs throughout your lifetime.
b) It involves bone resorption.
c) It involves bone deposition.
d) It occurs at different rates at different locations.
e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.
e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.
83
```
20) During adulthood, which of the following does NOT significantly contribute to bone
remodeling and growth?
a) parathyroid hormones
b) vitamin D
c) epinephrine
d) sex steroids
e) human growth hormone
```
epinephrine
84
23) Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?
a) calcitriol
b) calcitonin
c) human growth hormone
d) parathyroid hormone
e) insulin
d) parathyroid hormone
85
73) Which of the following conditions is characterized by reduced bone mass due to a decreased
rate of bone synthesis to a level too low to compensate for normal bone resorption?
a) osteogenic sarcoma
b) osteomyelitis
c) osteophytes
d) osteoarthritis
e) osteopenia
osteopenia
86
```
75) Which of the following conditions is observed in adults when new bone formed during bone
remodeling fails to calcify?
a) osteogenic sarcoma
b) osteoporosis
c) osteomalacia
d) osteoarthritis
e) osteopenia
```
osteomalacia
87
83) The general process by which bones form is called
a) ossification.
b) osteomalacia.
c) calcification.
d) apposition.
e) orthodontics.
ossification
88
84) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during
intramembranous ossification?
a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
periosteum.
b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
periosteum.
c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new
periosteum.
d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation
of trabeculae.
e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation
of trabeculae.
a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
89
85) During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model
surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the
a) periosteum.
b) endosteum.
c) perichondrium.
d) perimysium.
e) trabeculae.
perichondrium
90
87) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skeletal system?
a) support
b) locomotion
c) hemopoiesis
d) energy storage
e) carcinogenesis
carcinogenesis
91
3) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones.
b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones.
c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body.
d) Children have more bones than adults.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.
92
4) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae
d) Carpals
e) Sternum
d) Carpals
93
5) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a) Tarsals
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle
Sphenoid
94
7) Which of the following types of bone is the femur?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone
a) Long bone
95
8) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone
c) Flat bone
96
9) Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists?
a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone
c) Irregular bone
d) Sesamoid bone
e) Short bone
e) Short bone
97
10) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?
a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles.
c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
d) They help form joints.
e) They can be depressions or projections.
c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
98
```
11) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is
called a
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.
```
foramen
99
12) A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a
a) foramen.
b) condyle.
c) tuberosity.
d) head.
e) trochanter.
head
100
13) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a
a) crest.
b) trochanter.
c) sulcus.
d) fossa.
e) tubercle.
crest
101
14) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the
eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.
meatus
102
15) Bones in the following area protect the brain.
a) Cranium
b) Vertebral column
c) Sacrum
d) Face
e) Ribcage
Cranium
103
16) Which of the following cranial bones are paired bones in the human skull?
a) temporal
b) parietal
c) sphenoid
d) ethmoid
e) more than one selection is correct
temporal
104
17) Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull?
a) maxilla
b) nasal
c) lacrimal
d) mandible
e) zygomatic
d) mandible
105
18) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
a) Parietal
b) Nasal
c) Maxillae
d) Zygomatic
e) Palatine
a) Parietal
106
```
21) These cranial bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial
floor.
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
```
Temporal
107
```
22) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the
mandible.
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
```
Temporal
108
```
25) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with
every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital
b) Frontal
c) Ethmoid
d) Nasal
e) Sphenoid
```
Sphenoid
109
foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid
b) Frontal
c) Palatine
d) Maxilla
e) Temporal
Ethmoid
110
41) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the
a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves.
c) cervical and lumbar curves.
d) cervical and thoracic curves.
e) cervical and sacral curves.
e) cervical and sacral curves.
111
43) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the
anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection
b) Occular process
c) Odontoid process
d) Cervical projection
e) Cervix
c) Odontoid process
112
```
45) The inferior articular processes of the fifth sacral vertebrae that are found on either side of
the sacral hiatus are called
a) sacral cornua.
b) coccygeal cornua.
c) lateral sacral crests.
d) anterior sacral foramina.
e) median sacral crests.
```
a) sacral cornua
113
130) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone.
a) Ethmoid
b) Sphenoid
c) Lacrimal
d) Temporal
e) Parietal
Sphenoid
