Final A&P Flashcards
22) This plane divides the body into equal right and left halves.
a) frontal
b) midsagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
e) coronal
midsagittal
23) This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
a) frontal
b) sagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
e) midsagittal
frontal
24) A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into
a) anterior and posterior portions.
b) left and right portions.
c) superior and inferior portions.
d) portions separated at an angle to its longitudinal axis.
e) unequal left and right portions.
superior and inferior portions.
25) This directional term means farther from the midline.
a) medial
b) anterior
c) proximal
d) deep
e) lateral
lateral
26) This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure. a) deep b) contralateral c) lateral d) cephalic e) distal
distal
27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
a) superficial
b) superior
c) inferior
d) distal
e) proximal
superficial
27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
a) superficial
b) superior
c) inferior
d) distal
e) proximal
superficial
7) This is the condition of equilibrium (balance) in the body’s internal environment.
a) palpation
b) metabolism
c) homeostasis
d) autopsy
e) differentiation
homeostasis
30) Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity?
a) stomach
b) spleen
c) liver
d) gallbladder
e) diaphragm
diaphragm
31) This serous membrane covers the viscera within the abdominal cavity, and lines the
abdominal wall and the inferior surface of the diaphragm.
a) pericardium
b) pleura
c) mediastinum
d) dura mater
e) peritoneum
peritoneum
70) What is the name of the serous membrane in closest proximity to the lungs?
a) parietal pleura
b) visceral pleura
c) parietal pericardium
d) visceral pericardium
e) mediastinum
b) visceral pleura
71) What is the name of the outer layer of the serous membrane that surrounds the heart?
a) diaphragm
b) visceral pleura
c) parietal pericardium
d) visceral pericardium
e) mediastinum
c) parietal pericardium
92) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tissues found in the human body? a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscular tissue d) necrotic tissue e) nervous tissue
necrotic tissue
96) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which of the following types of medical imaging. a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) low-dose radiography
e) low-dose radiography
5) The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element’s
a) mass number.
b) atomic number.
c) atomic mass.
d) valence number.
e) None of these choices.
b) atomic number
7) This refers to a weighted average of the atomic weights of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element. a) mass number b) atomic number c) atomic mass d) ionic mass e) covalent mass
c) atomic mass
11) This is the name given to a negatively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) catalyst
d) anion
e) cation
d) anion
13) This type of chemical bond involves the sharing of valence electrons between two atoms.
a) covalent
b) ionic
c) hydrogen
d) atomic
e) electronic
covalent
molecules like proteins and DNA?
a) nonpolar covalent
b) polar covalent
c) hydrogen
d) ionic
e) atomic
hydrogen
21) An enzyme acts to
a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
c) convert the activation energy into potential energy.
d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy.
e) stop a chemical reaction.
lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
25) This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body.
a) water
b) oxygen gas
c) carbon dioxide
d) glucose
e) DNA
water
29) A solution with a pH value less than 7 is
a) basic.
b) neutral.
c) acidic.
d) alkaline.
e) concentrated.
acidic
30) A chemical compound that helps control the pH of a solution by adding or removing hydrogen ions is a(n) a) electrolyte. b) salt. c) cation. d) colloid. e) buffer.
buffer
11) This is the name given to a negatively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) catalyst
d) anion
e) cation
anion
1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell?
a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm
b) plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus
c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles
d) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
e) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles
plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
6) This type of membrane protein extends across the entire lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane
touching both intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid.
a) complement protein
b) transmembrane protein
c) peripheral protein
d) lipoprotein
e) All of these choices are correct.
transmembrane protein
8) This type of membrane protein enables cells to catalyze specific chemical reactions at the inner
or outer surface of their plasma membrane.
a) receptors
b) phospholipids
c) cholesterol
d) enzymes
e) ligands
enzymes
9) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones and neurotransmitters? a) transporters b) receptors c) enzymes d) linkers e) cell identification markers
receptors
10) This type of membrane protein anchors cells to neighboring cells and to protein filaments found outside or inside the cell. a) transporters b) receptors c) ligands d) ion channels e) linkers
linkers
11) Plasma membranes are ________, which means that some chemicals move easily through
plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.
a) selectively permeable
b) concentration graded
c) electrically graded
d) selectively soluble
e) electrical insulators
selectively permeable
15) This is the transport process by which gases, like O2 and CO2, move through a membrane.
a) osmosis
b) active transport
c) secondary active transport
d) simple diffusion
e) endocytosis
d) simple diffusion
17) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across
the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
a) primary active transport
b) secondary active transport
c) facilitated diffusion
d) passive diffusion
e) osmosis
a) primary active transport
29) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane proteins and secretory proteins? a) rough endoplasmic reticulum b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) centrosome e) Golgi complex
a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
destined for other regions of the cell?
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi complex
c) peroxisomes
d) nucleus
e) proteasome
b) Golgi complex
36) The major function of mitochondria is to
a) move the cell.
b) generate ATP.
c) produce proteins.
d) oxidize organelles.
e) synthesize glycolipids.
generate ATP
96) This organelle is responsible for synthesis of steroids, phospholipids and functions as a reservoir for Ca2+? a) mitochondrion b) secretory vesicle c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) rough endoplasmic reticulum e) lysosome
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
97) What other organelle besides the nucleus contain DNA?
a) Golgi complex
b) lysosome
c) ribosomes
d) mitochondrion
e) centrosome
mitochondrion
1) Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
a) epithelial
b) connective
c) myocardial
d) muscle
e) nervous
myocardial
4) Epithelial tissue
a) is used as a covering of body surfaces.
b) is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs.
c) is used to form glands.
d) usually has a free surface that interacts with external environment.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
6) This type of epithelial tissue is found lining the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
7) This type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
8) This type of epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and esophageal glands.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Transitional epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
9) This type of epithelial tissue lines the fallopian tubes, uterus, and some bronchioles of the respiratory tract. a) Simple cuboidal epithelium b) Simple columnar epithelium c) Stratified columnar epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Transitional epithelium
b) Simple columnar epithelium
11) Which of the following types of glands are categorized by whether their ducts are branched
or unbranched?
a) Unicellular exocrine glands
b) Multicellular exocrine glands
c) Unicellular endocrine glands
d) Multicellular endocrine glands
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
Multicellular exocrine glands
12) This type of multicellular exocrine gland has a branched rounded secretory part attached to a
single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.
a) Simple coiled tubular gland
b) Compound tubular gland
c) Compound tuboloacinar gland
d) Simple branched acinar gland
e) Simple branched tubular gland
d) Simple branched acinar gland
13) Simple tubular exocrine glands have
a) a straight tubular secretory portion attached to a single unbranched duct.
b) a coiled tubular secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct.
c) a rounded secretory attached to a single unbranched duct.
d) a branched rounded secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct.
e) none of these choices
a) a straight tubular secretory portion attached to a single unbranched duct.
14) Functional classification of exocrine glands is based on
a) shape of the gland.
b) size of the gland.
c) how the gland release its secretory product.
d) how the gland synthesizes its secretory product.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
c) how the gland release its secretory product.
15) This type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cells until
the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product.
a) Apocrine
b) Exocrine
c) Holocrine
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) None of these Answer choices are correct.
Holocrine
17) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
a) Bone
b) Blood
c) Cartilage
d) Tendons
e) Epidermis
Epidermis
19) Which of the following is a polysaccharide commonly found in the ground substance of connective tissues?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Melatonin
c) Cholesterol
d) Glycogen
e) Starch
a) Hyaluronic acid
20) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular matrix of
connective tissue?
a) Elastic
b) Reticular
c) Collagen
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) None of these Answer choices are correct.
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
22) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
a) Blood
b) Spongy bone
c) Areolar connective tissue
d) Elastic connective tissue
e) Hyaline cartilage
c) Areolar connective tissue
23) Which of the following is a location where adipose tissue is commonly found?
a) Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin
b) Lining the chambers of the heart
c) Surrounding the brain
d) Inside the ear canal
e) In the cartilage found in joints
Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin
56) Which of the following types of tissues is made up of small spindle-shaped cells and is
commonly found in the walls of hollow organs?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) transitional epithelium
e) areolar tissue
smooth muscle
55) Which of the following types of tissues is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) intercalated cells
e) myoblasts
c) cardiac muscle
57) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are under voluntary control? a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) cardiac muscle d) transitional epithelium e) areolar tissue
a) skeletal muscle
Chapter #5
1) This is another name for the subcutaneous layer.
a) Dermis
b) Epidermis
c) Stratum corneum
d) Stratum basale
e) Hypodermis
Hypodermis
2) This layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous layer
e) Corpuscle
Epidermis
6) This layer of epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes.
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum lucidum
e) Stratum corneum
a) Stratum basale
7) This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis. a) Stratum basale b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum granulosum d) Stratum lucidum e) Stratum corneum
c) Stratum granulosum
8) The stratum lucidum
a) contains lamellar granules.
b) lies just above the stratum basale.
c) is the layer used in a skin graft.
d) is present only in thick skin.
e) can consist of up to 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.
d) is present only in thick skin.
9) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the
thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
a) stratum basale
b) stratum spinosum
c) stratum granulosum
d) stratum lucidum
e) stratum corneum
e) stratum corneum
11) This layer of the skin is composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing collagen and elastic fibers. a) Hypodermis b) Basement membrane c) Epidermis d) Dermis e) Subcutaneous (subQ) layer
Dermis
14) Characteristics of thick skin include:
a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips.
b) Does not contain hair follicles.
c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin.
d) Contain epidermal ridges.
e) All of these choices are correct
e) All of these choices are correct
15) Which of the following structures found in the skin plays an important role in thermoregulation? a) Merkel cells b) Sebaceous glands c) Sweat glands d) Nails e) Fingerprints
c) Sweat glands
16) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit
bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
a) Arrector pili
b) Lunula
c) Sweat glands
d) Hair follicles
e) Oil glands
e) Oil glands
19) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sudoriferous gland
c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
d) None of these answers are correct
Sebaceous gland
21) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, coiled tubular gland that is found throughout almost
the entirety of the skin.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Eccrine sweat gland
c) Apocrine sweat gland
d) Ceruminous gland
e) None of these answer choices are correct.
Eccrine sweat gland
65) Which condition results from androgens inhibiting hair growth in genetically predisposed adults? a) hirsutism b) pallor c) jaundice d) male-pattern baldness e) erythema
male-pattern baldness
66) Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive body hair caused by tumors in adrenal glands, testes or ovaries? a) hirsutism b) pallor c) jaundice d) androgenic alopecia e) erythema
hirsutism
76) “Goose bumps” are caused by
a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
c) contraction of dermal papillae.
d) stimulation of hair root plexus.
e) secretions from the sebaceous gland.
a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
81) Which of the following is a common characteristic of thin skin?
a) Hairless.
b) Contains a stratum lucidum.
c) High density of sensory receptors.
d) Presence of sebaceous glands.
e) Contains epidermal ridges.
d) Presence of sebaceous glands.
3) This is the shaft of a long bone.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow
diaphysis
2) This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) dmarrow
epiphysis
1) One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow
marrow
6) This is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis.
a) epiphyseal plate
b) epiphyseal line
c) metaphysis
d) diaphyseal line
e) diaphyseal plate
metaphysis
8) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to
highly specialized mature bone cell?
a) osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes
b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
c) osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts
d) osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes
e) None of these choices.
b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
9) These are considered bone-building cells.
a) fibroblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices
osteoblasts
10) These are considered bone-dissolving cells.
a) osteogenic cells
b) osteoclast
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices
osteoclast
11) Which of the following structures contain osteocytes?
a) haversian canals
b) Volkmann’s canals
c) concentric lamellae
d) lacunae
e) canaliculi
lacunae
13) Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned
a) horizontal to the metaphysis.
b) parallel to the epiphysis.
c) parallel to the length of the diaphysis.
d) randomly between the epiphyseal plates.
e) parallel to the perforating canals.
parallel to the length of the diaphysis.
14) Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE?
a) It occurs throughout your lifetime.
b) It involves bone resorption.
c) It involves bone deposition.
d) It occurs at different rates at different locations.
e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.
e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.
20) During adulthood, which of the following does NOT significantly contribute to bone remodeling and growth? a) parathyroid hormones b) vitamin D c) epinephrine d) sex steroids e) human growth hormone
epinephrine
23) Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?
a) calcitriol
b) calcitonin
c) human growth hormone
d) parathyroid hormone
e) insulin
d) parathyroid hormone
73) Which of the following conditions is characterized by reduced bone mass due to a decreased
rate of bone synthesis to a level too low to compensate for normal bone resorption?
a) osteogenic sarcoma
b) osteomyelitis
c) osteophytes
d) osteoarthritis
e) osteopenia
osteopenia
75) Which of the following conditions is observed in adults when new bone formed during bone remodeling fails to calcify? a) osteogenic sarcoma b) osteoporosis c) osteomalacia d) osteoarthritis e) osteopenia
osteomalacia
83) The general process by which bones form is called
a) ossification.
b) osteomalacia.
c) calcification.
d) apposition.
e) orthodontics.
ossification
84) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during
intramembranous ossification?
a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
periosteum.
b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
periosteum.
c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new
periosteum.
d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation
of trabeculae.
e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation
of trabeculae.
a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
85) During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model
surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the
a) periosteum.
b) endosteum.
c) perichondrium.
d) perimysium.
e) trabeculae.
perichondrium
87) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skeletal system?
a) support
b) locomotion
c) hemopoiesis
d) energy storage
e) carcinogenesis
carcinogenesis
3) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones.
b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones.
c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body.
d) Children have more bones than adults.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.
4) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae
d) Carpals
e) Sternum
d) Carpals
5) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a) Tarsals
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle
Sphenoid
7) Which of the following types of bone is the femur?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone
a) Long bone
8) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone
c) Flat bone
9) Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists?
a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone
c) Irregular bone
d) Sesamoid bone
e) Short bone
e) Short bone
10) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?
a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles.
c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
d) They help form joints.
e) They can be depressions or projections.
c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
11) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called a a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.
foramen
12) A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a
a) foramen.
b) condyle.
c) tuberosity.
d) head.
e) trochanter.
head
13) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a
a) crest.
b) trochanter.
c) sulcus.
d) fossa.
e) tubercle.
crest
14) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the
eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.
meatus
15) Bones in the following area protect the brain.
a) Cranium
b) Vertebral column
c) Sacrum
d) Face
e) Ribcage
Cranium
16) Which of the following cranial bones are paired bones in the human skull?
a) temporal
b) parietal
c) sphenoid
d) ethmoid
e) more than one selection is correct
temporal
17) Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull?
a) maxilla
b) nasal
c) lacrimal
d) mandible
e) zygomatic
d) mandible
18) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
a) Parietal
b) Nasal
c) Maxillae
d) Zygomatic
e) Palatine
a) Parietal
21) These cranial bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor. a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal
Temporal
22) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible. a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal
Temporal
25) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone? a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid
Sphenoid
foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid
b) Frontal
c) Palatine
d) Maxilla
e) Temporal
Ethmoid
41) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the
a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves.
c) cervical and lumbar curves.
d) cervical and thoracic curves.
e) cervical and sacral curves.
e) cervical and sacral curves.
43) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the
anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection
b) Occular process
c) Odontoid process
d) Cervical projection
e) Cervix
c) Odontoid process
45) The inferior articular processes of the fifth sacral vertebrae that are found on either side of the sacral hiatus are called a) sacral cornua. b) coccygeal cornua. c) lateral sacral crests. d) anterior sacral foramina. e) median sacral crests.
a) sacral cornua
130) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone.
a) Ethmoid
b) Sphenoid
c) Lacrimal
d) Temporal
e) Parietal
Sphenoid
