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UI 608 Organ Sys Path > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathogenesis of pituitary cysts and pituitary dwarfism?

A

failure of oropharyngeal ectoderm of rathkes pouch to differentiate into cells of pars distalis, resulting in cysts and absence of adenohypophysis

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2
Q

What neoplasm causes compression and atrophy of adjacent portion of pituatary gland and can lead to lack of pituitary trophic hormones?

A

inactive chromophobe adenomas

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3
Q

What pituatary gland neoplasm destroys the pars distalis and neurohypophyseal system leading to panhypopituitarism and diabetes insipidus?

A

pituitary gland carcinoma

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4
Q

What are the 3 non-functional pituitary gland neoplasms?

A

inactive chromophone adenoma
pituitary gland carcinoma
craniopharyngioma

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5
Q

What functional pituitary neoplasm leads to hirsuitism in horses?

A

pars intermedia adenoma

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6
Q

What are the sequalae of a adrenocorticotroph hormone secreting ademona?

A

Secretes ACTH –>cushings dz

bilateral enlargement of adrenal glands (cortical hyperplasia)

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7
Q

What form of diabetes insipidus is due to inadequate ADH production due to compression of the pars nervosa, infundibular stalk, or supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus?

A

hypophyseal form

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8
Q

What form of diabetes insipidus is when the target cells in kedneys lack pathway to respond to ADH?

A

nephrogenic form

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9
Q

What are the 3 layers of adrenal gland cortex and what do they secrete?

A

Glomerulosa - aldosterone
Fasciculata - cortisol
Reticularis - progesterone, estrogens, androgens

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10
Q

What are immediate and later sequalae of reduced mineralcorticoids in addisons disease?

A

severe hyperkalemia, pronounced bradycardia

later –>hyponatremia and hypochloremia

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11
Q

What are the consequences of decreased glucocorticoids in addisons disease?

A

moderate hypoglycemia

hyperpigmentation of skin (lack of negative feedback to pituatary gland and increased ACTH)

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12
Q

What are the consequences of decreased glucocorticoids in addisons disease?

A

moderate hypoglycemia

hyperpigmentation of skin (lack of negative feedback to pituatary gland and increased ACTH)

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13
Q

What are the 3 causes of addisons disease?

A

adrenalitis (most common)
adrenocortical hemorrhage (waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome)
idiopathyic adrenocortical atrophy

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14
Q

What are causes of cushings disease?

A

functional corticotroph adenoma
functional adrenal gland neoplasm
iatrogenic

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15
Q

What are the 4 types of hyperplasia and neoplasia of the adrenal cortex?

A

Diffuse cortical hyperplasia (ACTH pituatary adenoma)
nodular hyperplasia (1ry)
adenomas of adrenal cortex
adrenal cortical carcinoma

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16
Q

Where do adrenal cortical carcinomas metastasize to?

A

liver

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17
Q

What is the sequalae of functional carcinomas and adenomas in the adrenal cortex?

A

severe atrophy of the contralateral adrenal cortex (negative feedback)

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18
Q

Where can pheochromocytomas invade? metastasize?

A

caudal vena cava

metastasize to liver, LN and lungs

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19
Q

What cells produce calcitonin?

A

Thyroid C cells (parafollicular)

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20
Q

What is the role of calcitonin?

A

antagonistic with PTH on bone resorption BUT synergistic in decreasing renal tubular reasborption of phosphorus

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21
Q

What are the 3 ways PTH respond to low calcium levels?

A

increasing osteoclasts
decreased reabsorption of P and increased Ca in kidneys
increase absorption of Ca and P in intestinces

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22
Q

What are the 3 causes of hypothyroidism?

A

lymphocytic thyroiditis
bilateral nonfunctional follicular cell neoplasm (and goiter)
long standing pituitary gland or hypothalamic lesions

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23
Q

What happenes to the skin in hypothyroidism?

A

hyperpigmentation, myxoedema, alopecia, hyperkeratosis

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24
Q

What happenes to the skin in hypothyroidism?

A

hyperpigmentation, myxoedema, alopecia, hyperkeratosis

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25
Q

What is the cause of colloid goiter?

A

tooo much iodide added to diet, interferes with thyroid hromone synthesis and secretion

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26
Q

What species most commonly gets Thyroid C (Ultimobranchial) cell neoplasma?

A

bulls

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27
Q

What is the most common primary hyperparthyroidism neoplasm?

A

Functional chief cell neoplasms

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28
Q

What causes big head disease in horses?

A

secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism

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29
Q

What 3 neoplasms can cause pseudohyperparathyroidism?

A

apocrine gland adenocarcinomas (anal sac)
neoplasms metastatic to bone
lymphoma

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30
Q

What are the 3 main cells of pancreatic islets and what do they secrete?

A

alpha cells - glucagon
beta - insulin
delta - somatostatin

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31
Q

What are 4 causes of type 1 diabetes in dogs?

A

idiopathic atrophy of pancreas
acute pancreatitis
chronc pancreatitis
immune mediated isletitis

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32
Q

What are 2 causes of type 2 diabetes in cats?

A

hydropic degeneration with glycogen accumulation

deposition of amyloid

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33
Q

What are 2 causes of type 2 diabetes in cats?

A

hydropic degeneration with glycogen accumulation

deposition of amyloid

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34
Q

What is the sequalae of insulinomas?

A

neurologic disease, neuron necrosis (hypoglycemia)

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35
Q

What cells are affected in a centrilobular pattern of injury to the liver? What causes it?

A

least oxygenated hepatocytes around central vein –>due to hypoxia

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36
Q

What liver injury pattern is very similar to centrilobular and caused by the same things?

A

paracentral pattern (more “global”)

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37
Q

What pattern of liver injury is steroid hepatopathy in dogs?

A

steroid hepatopathy in dogs

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38
Q

What liver injury pattern results from “direct acting” toxicant?

A

periportal pattern

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39
Q

What does a bridging liver injury pattern suggest?

A

severe and extensive damage

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40
Q

Term for a flat discoloration on the skin.

A

Macule

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41
Q

Term for nodular elevation in skin.

A

papule

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42
Q

Term for a flat, solid, elevated lesion similar to a papule but larger.

A

Plaque

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43
Q

A callus is what type of skin lesion?

A

plaque

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44
Q

Term for a raised lesion with central pallor.

A

wheal

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45
Q

Which species get macronodular cirrhosis?

A

cats, dogs, humans

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46
Q

Term for when hepatocytes focally drop out and sinusoids dilate to produce irregular red spaces. Which species?

A

telangiectasia

species - cows and older cats

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47
Q

What kind of portal vena caval shunts are more common in larege breed dogs?

A

intrahepatic

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48
Q

What do livers look like in congenital portal caval shunts?

A

duplicated arterioles, small lobules

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49
Q

What is a cause of bacillary hemoglobinuria in the liver?

A

clostridium haemolyticum (combo with flukes in cattle and sheep)

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50
Q

What causes tyzzers disease?

A

clostridium piliforme

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51
Q

What are the species that can cause milk spot scarring in the live?

A 
nematodes
pigs - ascaris
horses - strongylus
dogs - stephanarus
dogs and cats - capillaria hepatica
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52
Q

What animals most commonly get “hepatosis dietetica” (vit a/selenium deficiency)?

A

growing baby pigs

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53
Q

What are the 3 types of toxins that cause centrilobular to massive necrosis?

A

blue green algae
phalloidin (mushroom)
inorganic iron (baby pigs)

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54
Q

What 2 liver toxins can cause chronic hepatitis and lead to end stage liver?

A

pyrrolizidine alkaloids - megalocytosis

aflatoxin - megalocytosis and lipidosis

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55
Q

Which species most commonly get nodular hyperplasia of the liver?

A

dogs

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56
Q

What species get hepatocellular adenoma?

A

young ruminants

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57
Q

What species commonly gets cholangiolar carcinoma?

A

cat

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58
Q

Term for gallbladder filling with mucus to the point it may rupture. Common in small dogs.

A

mucocoele

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59
Q

What is seen grossly with acute pancreatitis?

A

necrosis predominates over suppurative inflammation.
prominent interstitial edema
hemorrhage, saponified hat

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60
Q

What are the 3 general mechanisms for acute pancreatitis?

A

biliary reflux
direct damage to acinar cells
overstimulation of acinar cell

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61
Q

Vet term for cleft palate.

A

palatoschisis

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62
Q

What is cheiloschisis?

A

hare lip

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63
Q

What are the “big four” vesicular viruses?

A

Foot and mouth
vesicular stomatitis
vesicular exanthema of swine
swine vesicular dz

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64
Q

What viruses can cause full thickness necrosis of the oral epithelium causing erosion?

A

BVDV, malignant catarrhal fever, bluetongue
calicivirus - cats
rhinotracheitis in horses

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65
Q

What 3 etiologies cause necrotizing stomatidies?

A

calf diphtheria in calves (fuso necrophorum)
NOMA in primates and dogs (stomatitis)
gingivitis in young dogs and old cats

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66
Q

Looks like gingival hyperplasia but is actually remnant of tooth germ epithelium.

A

epulis

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67
Q

What should you think of if tonsils are bilaterally enlarged?

A

infection or lymphoma

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68
Q

What if only one tonsil is enlarged?

A

infectious or SCC

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69
Q

Disorder where there is a esophageal propulsive disorder.

A

achalasia

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70
Q

Another term for megaesophagus.

A

ectasia

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71
Q

What are the four distinct sites for choke?

A

dorsal to the larynx
throacic inlet
base of the heart
diaphragmatic hiatus

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72
Q

What causes primary bloat (frothy)?

A

sudden change in diet, to one rich in legumes

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73
Q

What causes secondary tympany?

A

inibility to eructate

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74
Q

What are the causes of neurogenic secondary tympany?

A

vagal damage

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75
Q

What are the 3 causes of obstructive secondary tympany?

A

lymphosarcoma in wall of rumen
choke
viral papillomas

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76
Q

What pH indicates the rumen is infected?

A

low pH (build up of lactic acid)

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77
Q

Where do gastric ulcers occur in pigs?

A

non-glandular portion

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78
Q

What can cause hemorrhagic abomasitis in young sheep and cattle from a heavy bout of nursing?

A

clostridium septicum

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79
Q

What parasite grows along the margo plicatus?

A

gasterophilus spp

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80
Q

What nematode causes anemia in sheep?

A

Haemonchus contortus

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81
Q

What nematodes live in gastric glands of cattle?

A

ostertagia spp.

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82
Q

What can cause hyperplasia of the gastric mucosa in dogs?

A

gastrinomas of the pancreas

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83
Q

What dog breeds get giant hypertrophic gastropathy?

A

basenji, beagles, boxers and bull terriers

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84
Q

Why are adenocarcinomas of the stomach so deadly in dogs?

A

highly invasive, mared scirrhous response, clinically late

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85
Q

What is a GISTs? (gastrointestinal stromal tumor)

A

any mesenchymal tumor of the stomach, most often leimyoma

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86
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasm?

A

lymphosarcoma

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87
Q

What type of diarrhea is the volume of feces is generally quite profuse and very watery?

A

small intestinal diarrhea

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88
Q

What diarrhea is when the volume of feces is small and more thicker with bits of solid material?

A

colonic diarrhea

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89
Q

What frequency is seen with small intestinal diarrhea? colonic diarrhea?

A

small - only mildly increased

colonic - very much increased

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90
Q

What toxicities cause functional obstructions?

A

cattle - lead

zinc - dogs, cats, horses

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91
Q

What can cause an anal stricture in pigs?

A

salmonellosis damages hemorrhoidal artery

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92
Q

What is volvulus?

A

twisting of intestine around mesenteric attachment

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93
Q

Red to blac fibrovascular plaques along ileum of horses

A

hemomelasma ilei

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94
Q

Red stripes that correlate with congestion of mucosal ridges in the colon

A

tiger striping

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95
Q

What heavy metals cause intestinal injury?

A

arsenic and thallium

96
Q

What are the 3 causes of lymphangiectasia?

A

congenital, inflammation that occludes, neoplastic blockage

97
Q

What type of enteritis is seen with winter dysentery?

A

catarrhal, non fatal

98
Q

What kind of diarrhea is seen with E coli in calves and weeks from 3d to 3w?

A

secretory

99
Q

What kind of e coli causes primarily osmotic diarrhea?

A

attaching and effacing colibacillosis in rabbits, pigs, calves, lambs and dogs

100
Q

Where do crytosporidium parasites live?

A

under the apical cell membranes of gastric mucous cells, villous enterocytes (not in cytoplasm)

101
Q

When are calves and piglets susceptible to rotavirus?

A

calves less than 1 week

pigs less than 6 weeks

102
Q

Which viral infection only infects the upper 2/3 of intestinal villi?

A

rotavirus

103
Q

How is coronavirus different from rotavirus?

A

corona destroys almost ALL enterocytes, recovery is longer

104
Q

What species is coronavirus worst in?

A

pigs (highly contagious, devestating in ppigs less than 10ds)

105
Q

What kind of virus is Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea virus?

A

coronavirus

106
Q

What is highly diagnostic of BVDV manifesting as GI problems?

A

infection and necrosis with deep ulceration of lymphoid cells in peyers patches

107
Q

Where do trichostrongyles live?

A

burrow into crypts and reside beneath crypt epithelium but do not penetrate into lamina propria in ruminants

108
Q

What kind of diet change predisposes animals to clostridial diarrhea?

A

from low carb to high carb

109
Q

What part of the intestine does clostridium perfringens infect?

A

necrosis of epithelium AND underlying lamina propria

110
Q

What are the 6 diseases that cause mostly hemorrhagic diarrhea?

A 
clostridial diarrheas (perfringens, difficile, piliforme)
salmonella
potomac horse fever
brachyspira colitis
salmon poisoning
coccidiosis
111
Q

What are the 4 diseases that cause granulomatous/pyogranulomatous enterocolitis?

A

mycobacterium paratuberculosis
rhodococcus
histoplasmal enterocolitis
helminth infections

112
Q

What are the 2 diseases that can cause proliferation of mucosal epithelium in GI tract?

A

lawsonia enteritis in pigs (campy in other species)

eimeria in goats and sheep

113
Q

What are the 2 diseases that cause peritonitis?

A 
FIP
glassers disease (haemophilus, also myco or strep)
114
Q

What are the CS of clostridial diarrheas?

A

found dead

115
Q

What type of clostridium perfringens causes hemorrhagic gastroenteritis in young small and toy breed dogs?

A

Type E

116
Q

What bacteria causes tyzzers disease?

A

clostridium piliforme

117
Q

What other lesions are associated with clostridium pilliforme besides hemorrhagic enteritis?

A

hepatic necrosis

118
Q

What is the causitive agent of Colitis X in horses and hemorrhagic gastroenteritis in dogs and cats?

A

clostridium difficile (not proven)

119
Q

What is the ddx of Colitis X in horses?

A

potomac horse fever or salmonella

120
Q

What makes salmonella so devestating?

A

invades through intestinal lining –> goes septic

121
Q

What is the cause of “button” ulcers in pigs?

A

chronic enteric form of salmonella

122
Q

What other 2 pathogens must be present for brachyspira hyodysenteriae to cause severe disease?

A

fusobacterium necrophorum and bacteroides vulgatus

123
Q

What breeds get canine histiocytic ulcerative colitis? What is it caused by?

A

young boxer dogs

e. coli

124
Q

What are the lesions associated with canine histiocytic ulcerative colitis?

A

mesenteric LN are enlarged and infiltrated by macros

raised ulcerated nodules

125
Q

What are the gross lesions of paratuberculosis?

A

colon and cecum become thickened with a “rugose” wrinkled mucosa

126
Q

What fungus can cause pyogranulomatous enterocolitis in dogs?

A

histoplasma

127
Q

What are the hookworms that cause the most damage in each species?

A

dog - anclyostoma and uncinaria
bunostomum - cattle
pigs - globocephalus

128
Q

What parasite burrows into the wall of the cecum or colon and produces necrohemorrhagic typhlocolitis?

A

whipworms (trichuris)

129
Q

What 3 bacteria can cause fibrinous peritonitis in pigs?

A

haemophilus suis
mycoplasma hyorhinis
strep suis

130
Q

What is the most common tumor in the GI tract?

A

lymphoma

131
Q

Term for a round solid elevated lesion >1 cm in diameter

A

nodule

132
Q

Term for a small fluid filled cavity WITHIN the epidermis or directly beneath the epidermis?

A

vesicle

133
Q

Vesicle that is >0.5 cm

A

bulla

134
Q

Term for vesicle full of neutros or eos

A

pustule

135
Q

Term for scales/crusts arranged in circular spreading patches, associated with staph hypersensitivity.

A

epidermal collarettes

136
Q

Term for multiple crusts piled on top of one another, suggestive of repetitive bouts of inflammation.

A

vegetations

137
Q

Term for vertical defect that only expands through epidermis

A

excoriation

138
Q

Term for retention of nuclei in cornified cells reflecting incomplete keratnization.

A

parakeratotic hyperkeratosis

139
Q

Term for excessive cells have cornified completely and lack nuclei.

A

orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis

140
Q

Term for intercellular edema that seperates epidermal cells so they are only conncted at bridges.

A

spongiosis

141
Q

Term for slit like spaces within epidermis that run parallel to dermal-epidermal jxn.

A

clefts

142
Q

What does collagen degeneration look like?

A

collagen fibers become hyalinized, frayed, flame figures

seen with eosinophilic dermatitis

143
Q

Term for melanophages and loss of pigment from skin.

A

pigmentary incontinence (leukoderma)

144
Q

Term for a narrow space of dermis beneath epidermis prominently seperating it from an underlying dermal lesion.

A

grenz zone

145
Q

What neoplasms are grenz zones seen in?

A

mast cell tumors
lymphomas
also deep granulomatous lesions

146
Q

What 3 nutritional disorders/metabolic disorders cause hyperkeratosis?

A

vit A deficiency
hypothyrodism
hyperadrenocorticism

147
Q

What nutrional deficiency causes parakeratosis?

A

zinc deficiency

148
Q

What is dyskeratosis mostly suggestive of?

A

neoplastic transformation

149
Q

Type of integument hyperplasia where ridges of hyperplastic epithelium extend upward and downward/

A

papilliform

150
Q

Type of integument hyperplasia where deep irregular extensions of epidermis into dermis but normal differeniation is maintained.

A

Pseudoepithleiomatous (pre cancer)

151
Q

What diseases are “regular” epithelial hyperplasia associated with?

A

psoriatic types of dz (cells building up on top)

152
Q

What are the most common causes of epidermal atrophy?

A

hormonal imbalances - hyperadrenocorticocism and hypothyroidism

153
Q

What is the sequence of events of type 2 hypersensitivity in skin? (auto immune disorders)

A

clefts –>fluid filled vesciles –> pustules –>rupture –>encrusted erosions –>become 2ndary infected

154
Q

What auto immune disease in the skin is where vesciles form subcorneal?

A

pemphigus foliaceus

155
Q

Where do vesicles form in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

just above stratum basale

156
Q

Where do vesicles form in bullous pemphigoid, lupus, and 2nd degree thermal burns?

A

beneath stratum basale w/ sloughing of entire epidermis

157
Q

What types of diseaes cause vasculitis in the upper half of the dermis?

A

type 3 hypersensitivity –> drugs, sepsis, rickettsia, photosensitization

158
Q

What types of diseases are associated with perivascular inflammation resulting in edema?

A

localized disease –> allergic reactions

159
Q

What type of skin inflammatory pattern is where both superficial dermis and epidermis are involved with plaque like accumulations of inflammatory cells?

A

interface

160
Q

What 2 diseases are associated with interface skin inflammation?

A

lupus eryhematosis and drug eruption

161
Q

Term for localized increase in star type collagen with abnormal development of trapped hair follicles and adnexal glands.

A

fibroadnexel dysplasia

162
Q

Type of folliculitis where inflammation is confined to the stroma surrounding the follicle.

A

perifolliculitis

163
Q

Type of folliculitis where there is exocytosis of leukocytes into the follicular wall.

A

mural folliculitis

164
Q

Type of folliculitis where inflammatory cells are in the follicle lumen.

A

luminal folliculitis

165
Q

Type of folliculitis where the wall of the follicle is breached by inflammatory cells.

A

furunculosis

166
Q

Term for multiple furuncles coalescing into pustular lesions.

A

carbuncle

167
Q

What is needed for a dermatophyte to cause a granulomatous folliculitis pattern?

A

type IV hypersensitivity component

168
Q

Where do most epithelial tumors in dogs and cats stem from?

A

adnexal origin

169
Q

What location are squamous cell carcinomas most likely to metastasize from?

A

on the digit near the claw or in the mouth

170
Q

What can be confused with sebaceous adenomas in older wire haired breeds?

A

sebaceous hyperplasia

171
Q

What is the most common follicular neoplasm in the dog?

A

infundibular keratnizing keratoacanthoma

172
Q

What is the most common follicular neoplasm in the cat?

A

trichoblastoma

173
Q

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the dog?

A

hemangiopericytomas - wrap like onion skin around blood vessels

174
Q

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the cat?

A

fibrosarcoma

175
Q

Term for tumor like lesion of skin involving fibroblasts and epidermis. Common in horse.

A

sarcoid

176
Q

What are the four “big” round cell tumors to rule out when assessing a neoplasm?

A

mast cell tumor
histiocytoma
lymphoma
melanoma

177
Q

When do histiocytomas become much more less likely to regress in dogs?

A

dogs over 5 years

178
Q

What are the two behaviors of melanomas histiologically?

A

form “nest” or jigsaw like clusters

push into and invade epidermis or follicle (junctional activity)

179
Q

What are 3 causes of death in acute renal failure?

A

hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, pulmonary edema

180
Q

What are clinical/biochemical signs of chronic renal failure?

A

polyuria
hyponatremia and hypochloremia
hyperkalemia in cats

181
Q

What electrolyte tends to be consistent between species when there is renal failure?

A

phosphorus

182
Q

What electrolytes tend to vary between species with renal failure?

A

potassium and calcium

183
Q

Which 2 species get hypokalemia in chronic renal failure?

A

cats and cows

184
Q

What species gets hyperkalemia during chronic renal failure?

A

horses

185
Q

What 2 species get hyperkalemia in post renal obstruction?

A

cats and foals

186
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms of tissue damage when there is uremia?

A

endothelial damage –>vasculitis –> infarction

urea –>ammonia –>caustic –>ulceration

187
Q

What are the 4 clinical signs of uremia?

A

uremic grastropathy (dogs and cats)
ulcerative stomatitis
vomiting
soft tissue mineralization

188
Q

What are 2 critcial proteins lost from glomerulus when filtration barrier is damaged? What are sequelae?

A

albumin - edema

Antithrombin 3 - procoagulant state

189
Q

What are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome?

A

proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, edema, hypercholesterolemia

190
Q

What are the acute and chronic lesions of glomerulitis?

A 
acute = red or white pinpoints in cortex
chronic = pitted
191
Q

What is the mechanism for systemic amyloidosis?

A

chronic inflammation –> acute phase amyloid A –> cleavage –>fibrils and deposited

192
Q

What are the most common types of glomerulonephritis in cat, horse, pig and dog?

A

cat - membranous
horses and pigs - proliferative
dogs - membranoproliferative

193
Q

How is glomerulonephritis diagnosed?

A

transmission electron microscopy

194
Q

What specific dzs lead to glomerulonephritis?

A

Dog: lympe, HW, lupus, IMHA
Cats - FIP
Horses - strep

195
Q

What do hyaline and granular casts indicate respectively?

A

hyaline - glomerulitis

granular - renal epeithelium necrosis

196
Q

What are some common renal tubular toxins?

A 
heavy metals - lead, mercury
mycotoxins
drugs - aminoglycs, doxorub
cholecalciferol
ethylene glycol
pet food - melamine/cyanuric acid
oxalates
197
Q

What serum abnormalities are present with ethylene glyco toxicity?

A

serum hyperosomlality and metabolic acidosis

198
Q

How can you rule out which pigment is causing red urine?

A

myoglobin - plasma is clear

199
Q

What is the pathogenesis of renal papillary necrosis with NSAIDS in horses?

A

inhibit Cox1,2 –> inhibit prostacyclin –>vasoconstriction of renal –>ischemia –>necrosis

200
Q

What is the route of infectious organisms to cause glomerulitis and tubulointerstitial nephritis?

A

hematogenous

201
Q

What is the route of infectious organisms to cause pyelonephritis?

A

ascending bacterial

202
Q

What does acute tubulointerstial nephritis look like?

A

hypertrophy of epithelium with influx of plasma cells

203
Q

What does acute pyelonephritis look like histologically?

A

renal crest and medulla are necrotic with hemorrhage and inflammation that radiates up to cortex

204
Q

What are the 2 agents associated with glomerulritis?

A

actinobacillus equuli

erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

205
Q

What are 2 agents associated with tubulointerstitial nephrits?

A

lepto

e. coli in cows

206
Q

What 3 agents are associated with pyelonephritis?

A

e coli
staph
c. renale (cows)

207
Q

What is the most common cause of white spots in calf kidney?

A

e. coli, little significance (bacteremia)

208
Q

What are 3 causes of a kidney looking small grossly?

A

progressive juvenile nephropathy
fibrosis
renal dysplasia

209
Q

When are renal cysts clinically significant?

A

if compromised renal function in polycystic kidneys

210
Q

What are the 3 MOA of renal cysts.

A

either obstruction of nephron with dilation or defective BM that allows for tubular dilation or focal tubular epithelial hyperplasia

211
Q

What 2 species is lymphoma found commonly in the kidney?

A

cows and cats

212
Q

What are 2 MOA of hydronephrosis?

A

blockage of ureter

ascending infection

213
Q

What are 2 possible gross appearances of the bladder in chronic cystitis cases?

A

follicular cystitis - many white raised mucosal nodules surrounded by red rim
polypoid cystitis - polypoid mucosal proliferation

214
Q

What is the most common urinary bladder tumor in the dog?

A

TCC

215
Q

Term for dorsal deviation of spinal cord.

A

kyphosis

216
Q

Term for S shaped spinal cord

A

scoliosis

217
Q

Term for endochondral ossification at ectopic site.

A

exostosis

218
Q

Term for dachsund shaped dog

A

chondrodysplasia

219
Q

Term for osteoblast insufficiency

A

osteoporosis

220
Q

Term for too little mineralized osteoid in immature animal.

A

rickets

221
Q

Term for increased amount of bone.

A

osteosclerosis

222
Q

Term for isolated avascular, non viable bone fragment

A

sequestrum

223
Q

What is the term for reactive tissues surrounding a sequestrum?

A

involucrum

224
Q

What bone deformity is related to a space occupying lesion in the thorax or abdominal cavity?

A

hypertrophic osteopathy

225
Q

Term for polishing of bone after the cartilage has worn down.

A

eburnation

226
Q

Term for infection of bone and the marrow/periosteum.

A

osteomyelitis

227
Q

What bone lesion does brucella cause?

A

diskospondylitis - looks like IVDD

228
Q

Term for fibrovascular tissues arising from synovium and covering articular surface.

A

pannus

229
Q

What are the 3 different types of myopathies

A

Vit E/selenium deficiency
monensin (ca overload)
exertional

230
Q

What are the 3 myositis that are caused by clostridium?

A

gas gangrene
malignant edema
blackleg

231
Q

Term for eyeball has shrunk and become disorganized.

A

phthisis bulbi

232
Q

What are the 3 sequelae of keratitis?

A

vascularization, scarring
descmetocele
uveitis

233
Q

Term for chronic supefcial keratitis.

A

canine pannus

234
Q

What are the 2 types of retina degeneration?

A

Progressive - rod-cone degeneration

central - retinal pigment epithelial dystrophy

235
Q

What disease in cats is caused by injury to the lens?

A

post traumatic sarcoma

UI 608 Organ Sys Path (6 decks)

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