Final Flashcards
What is the pathogenesis of pituitary cysts and pituitary dwarfism?
failure of oropharyngeal ectoderm of rathkes pouch to differentiate into cells of pars distalis, resulting in cysts and absence of adenohypophysis
What neoplasm causes compression and atrophy of adjacent portion of pituatary gland and can lead to lack of pituitary trophic hormones?
inactive chromophobe adenomas
What pituatary gland neoplasm destroys the pars distalis and neurohypophyseal system leading to panhypopituitarism and diabetes insipidus?
pituitary gland carcinoma
What are the 3 non-functional pituitary gland neoplasms?
inactive chromophone adenoma
pituitary gland carcinoma
craniopharyngioma
What functional pituitary neoplasm leads to hirsuitism in horses?
pars intermedia adenoma
What are the sequalae of a adrenocorticotroph hormone secreting ademona?
Secretes ACTH –>cushings dz
bilateral enlargement of adrenal glands (cortical hyperplasia)
What form of diabetes insipidus is due to inadequate ADH production due to compression of the pars nervosa, infundibular stalk, or supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus?
hypophyseal form
What form of diabetes insipidus is when the target cells in kedneys lack pathway to respond to ADH?
nephrogenic form
What are the 3 layers of adrenal gland cortex and what do they secrete?
Glomerulosa - aldosterone
Fasciculata - cortisol
Reticularis - progesterone, estrogens, androgens
What are immediate and later sequalae of reduced mineralcorticoids in addisons disease?
severe hyperkalemia, pronounced bradycardia
later –>hyponatremia and hypochloremia
What are the consequences of decreased glucocorticoids in addisons disease?
moderate hypoglycemia
hyperpigmentation of skin (lack of negative feedback to pituatary gland and increased ACTH)
What are the consequences of decreased glucocorticoids in addisons disease?
moderate hypoglycemia
hyperpigmentation of skin (lack of negative feedback to pituatary gland and increased ACTH)
What are the 3 causes of addisons disease?
adrenalitis (most common)
adrenocortical hemorrhage (waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome)
idiopathyic adrenocortical atrophy
What are causes of cushings disease?
functional corticotroph adenoma
functional adrenal gland neoplasm
iatrogenic
What are the 4 types of hyperplasia and neoplasia of the adrenal cortex?
Diffuse cortical hyperplasia (ACTH pituatary adenoma)
nodular hyperplasia (1ry)
adenomas of adrenal cortex
adrenal cortical carcinoma
Where do adrenal cortical carcinomas metastasize to?
liver
What is the sequalae of functional carcinomas and adenomas in the adrenal cortex?
severe atrophy of the contralateral adrenal cortex (negative feedback)
Where can pheochromocytomas invade? metastasize?
caudal vena cava
metastasize to liver, LN and lungs
What cells produce calcitonin?
Thyroid C cells (parafollicular)
What is the role of calcitonin?
antagonistic with PTH on bone resorption BUT synergistic in decreasing renal tubular reasborption of phosphorus
What are the 3 ways PTH respond to low calcium levels?
increasing osteoclasts
decreased reabsorption of P and increased Ca in kidneys
increase absorption of Ca and P in intestinces
What are the 3 causes of hypothyroidism?
lymphocytic thyroiditis
bilateral nonfunctional follicular cell neoplasm (and goiter)
long standing pituitary gland or hypothalamic lesions
What happenes to the skin in hypothyroidism?
hyperpigmentation, myxoedema, alopecia, hyperkeratosis
What happenes to the skin in hypothyroidism?
hyperpigmentation, myxoedema, alopecia, hyperkeratosis
What is the cause of colloid goiter?
tooo much iodide added to diet, interferes with thyroid hromone synthesis and secretion
What species most commonly gets Thyroid C (Ultimobranchial) cell neoplasma?
bulls
What is the most common primary hyperparthyroidism neoplasm?
Functional chief cell neoplasms
What causes big head disease in horses?
secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism
What 3 neoplasms can cause pseudohyperparathyroidism?
apocrine gland adenocarcinomas (anal sac)
neoplasms metastatic to bone
lymphoma
What are the 3 main cells of pancreatic islets and what do they secrete?
alpha cells - glucagon
beta - insulin
delta - somatostatin
What are 4 causes of type 1 diabetes in dogs?
idiopathic atrophy of pancreas
acute pancreatitis
chronc pancreatitis
immune mediated isletitis
What are 2 causes of type 2 diabetes in cats?
hydropic degeneration with glycogen accumulation
deposition of amyloid
What are 2 causes of type 2 diabetes in cats?
hydropic degeneration with glycogen accumulation
deposition of amyloid
What is the sequalae of insulinomas?
neurologic disease, neuron necrosis (hypoglycemia)
What cells are affected in a centrilobular pattern of injury to the liver? What causes it?
least oxygenated hepatocytes around central vein –>due to hypoxia
What liver injury pattern is very similar to centrilobular and caused by the same things?
paracentral pattern (more “global”)
What pattern of liver injury is steroid hepatopathy in dogs?
steroid hepatopathy in dogs
What liver injury pattern results from “direct acting” toxicant?
periportal pattern
What does a bridging liver injury pattern suggest?
severe and extensive damage
Term for a flat discoloration on the skin.
Macule
Term for nodular elevation in skin.
papule
Term for a flat, solid, elevated lesion similar to a papule but larger.
Plaque
A callus is what type of skin lesion?
plaque
Term for a raised lesion with central pallor.
wheal
Which species get macronodular cirrhosis?
cats, dogs, humans
Term for when hepatocytes focally drop out and sinusoids dilate to produce irregular red spaces. Which species?
telangiectasia
species - cows and older cats
What kind of portal vena caval shunts are more common in larege breed dogs?
intrahepatic
What do livers look like in congenital portal caval shunts?
duplicated arterioles, small lobules
What is a cause of bacillary hemoglobinuria in the liver?
clostridium haemolyticum (combo with flukes in cattle and sheep)
What causes tyzzers disease?
clostridium piliforme
What are the species that can cause milk spot scarring in the live?
nematodes pigs - ascaris horses - strongylus dogs - stephanarus dogs and cats - capillaria hepatica
What animals most commonly get “hepatosis dietetica” (vit a/selenium deficiency)?
growing baby pigs
What are the 3 types of toxins that cause centrilobular to massive necrosis?
blue green algae
phalloidin (mushroom)
inorganic iron (baby pigs)
What 2 liver toxins can cause chronic hepatitis and lead to end stage liver?
pyrrolizidine alkaloids - megalocytosis
aflatoxin - megalocytosis and lipidosis
Which species most commonly get nodular hyperplasia of the liver?
dogs
What species get hepatocellular adenoma?
young ruminants
What species commonly gets cholangiolar carcinoma?
cat
Term for gallbladder filling with mucus to the point it may rupture. Common in small dogs.
mucocoele
What is seen grossly with acute pancreatitis?
necrosis predominates over suppurative inflammation.
prominent interstitial edema
hemorrhage, saponified hat
What are the 3 general mechanisms for acute pancreatitis?
biliary reflux
direct damage to acinar cells
overstimulation of acinar cell
Vet term for cleft palate.
palatoschisis
What is cheiloschisis?
hare lip
What are the “big four” vesicular viruses?
Foot and mouth
vesicular stomatitis
vesicular exanthema of swine
swine vesicular dz
What viruses can cause full thickness necrosis of the oral epithelium causing erosion?
BVDV, malignant catarrhal fever, bluetongue
calicivirus - cats
rhinotracheitis in horses
What 3 etiologies cause necrotizing stomatidies?
calf diphtheria in calves (fuso necrophorum)
NOMA in primates and dogs (stomatitis)
gingivitis in young dogs and old cats
Looks like gingival hyperplasia but is actually remnant of tooth germ epithelium.
epulis
What should you think of if tonsils are bilaterally enlarged?
infection or lymphoma
What if only one tonsil is enlarged?
infectious or SCC
Disorder where there is a esophageal propulsive disorder.
achalasia
Another term for megaesophagus.
ectasia
What are the four distinct sites for choke?
dorsal to the larynx
throacic inlet
base of the heart
diaphragmatic hiatus
What causes primary bloat (frothy)?
sudden change in diet, to one rich in legumes
What causes secondary tympany?
inibility to eructate
What are the causes of neurogenic secondary tympany?
vagal damage
What are the 3 causes of obstructive secondary tympany?
lymphosarcoma in wall of rumen
choke
viral papillomas
What pH indicates the rumen is infected?
low pH (build up of lactic acid)
Where do gastric ulcers occur in pigs?
non-glandular portion
What can cause hemorrhagic abomasitis in young sheep and cattle from a heavy bout of nursing?
clostridium septicum
What parasite grows along the margo plicatus?
gasterophilus spp
What nematode causes anemia in sheep?
Haemonchus contortus
What nematodes live in gastric glands of cattle?
ostertagia spp.
What can cause hyperplasia of the gastric mucosa in dogs?
gastrinomas of the pancreas
What dog breeds get giant hypertrophic gastropathy?
basenji, beagles, boxers and bull terriers
Why are adenocarcinomas of the stomach so deadly in dogs?
highly invasive, mared scirrhous response, clinically late
What is a GISTs? (gastrointestinal stromal tumor)
any mesenchymal tumor of the stomach, most often leimyoma
What is the most common gastric neoplasm?
lymphosarcoma
What type of diarrhea is the volume of feces is generally quite profuse and very watery?
small intestinal diarrhea
What diarrhea is when the volume of feces is small and more thicker with bits of solid material?
colonic diarrhea
What frequency is seen with small intestinal diarrhea? colonic diarrhea?
small - only mildly increased
colonic - very much increased
What toxicities cause functional obstructions?
cattle - lead
zinc - dogs, cats, horses
What can cause an anal stricture in pigs?
salmonellosis damages hemorrhoidal artery
What is volvulus?
twisting of intestine around mesenteric attachment
Red to blac fibrovascular plaques along ileum of horses
hemomelasma ilei
Red stripes that correlate with congestion of mucosal ridges in the colon
tiger striping
What heavy metals cause intestinal injury?
arsenic and thallium
What are the 3 causes of lymphangiectasia?
congenital, inflammation that occludes, neoplastic blockage
What type of enteritis is seen with winter dysentery?
catarrhal, non fatal
What kind of diarrhea is seen with E coli in calves and weeks from 3d to 3w?
secretory
What kind of e coli causes primarily osmotic diarrhea?
attaching and effacing colibacillosis in rabbits, pigs, calves, lambs and dogs
Where do crytosporidium parasites live?
under the apical cell membranes of gastric mucous cells, villous enterocytes (not in cytoplasm)
When are calves and piglets susceptible to rotavirus?
calves less than 1 week
pigs less than 6 weeks
Which viral infection only infects the upper 2/3 of intestinal villi?
rotavirus
How is coronavirus different from rotavirus?
corona destroys almost ALL enterocytes, recovery is longer
What species is coronavirus worst in?
pigs (highly contagious, devestating in ppigs less than 10ds)
What kind of virus is Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea virus?
coronavirus
What is highly diagnostic of BVDV manifesting as GI problems?
infection and necrosis with deep ulceration of lymphoid cells in peyers patches
Where do trichostrongyles live?
burrow into crypts and reside beneath crypt epithelium but do not penetrate into lamina propria in ruminants
What kind of diet change predisposes animals to clostridial diarrhea?
from low carb to high carb
What part of the intestine does clostridium perfringens infect?
necrosis of epithelium AND underlying lamina propria
What are the 6 diseases that cause mostly hemorrhagic diarrhea?
clostridial diarrheas (perfringens, difficile, piliforme) salmonella potomac horse fever brachyspira colitis salmon poisoning coccidiosis
What are the 4 diseases that cause granulomatous/pyogranulomatous enterocolitis?
mycobacterium paratuberculosis
rhodococcus
histoplasmal enterocolitis
helminth infections
What are the 2 diseases that can cause proliferation of mucosal epithelium in GI tract?
lawsonia enteritis in pigs (campy in other species)
eimeria in goats and sheep
What are the 2 diseases that cause peritonitis?
FIP glassers disease (haemophilus, also myco or strep)
What are the CS of clostridial diarrheas?
found dead
What type of clostridium perfringens causes hemorrhagic gastroenteritis in young small and toy breed dogs?
Type E
What bacteria causes tyzzers disease?
clostridium piliforme
What other lesions are associated with clostridium pilliforme besides hemorrhagic enteritis?
hepatic necrosis
What is the causitive agent of Colitis X in horses and hemorrhagic gastroenteritis in dogs and cats?
clostridium difficile (not proven)
What is the ddx of Colitis X in horses?
potomac horse fever or salmonella
What makes salmonella so devestating?
invades through intestinal lining –> goes septic
What is the cause of “button” ulcers in pigs?
chronic enteric form of salmonella
What other 2 pathogens must be present for brachyspira hyodysenteriae to cause severe disease?
fusobacterium necrophorum and bacteroides vulgatus
What breeds get canine histiocytic ulcerative colitis? What is it caused by?
young boxer dogs
e. coli
What are the lesions associated with canine histiocytic ulcerative colitis?
mesenteric LN are enlarged and infiltrated by macros
raised ulcerated nodules
What are the gross lesions of paratuberculosis?
colon and cecum become thickened with a “rugose” wrinkled mucosa
What fungus can cause pyogranulomatous enterocolitis in dogs?
histoplasma
What are the hookworms that cause the most damage in each species?
dog - anclyostoma and uncinaria
bunostomum - cattle
pigs - globocephalus
What parasite burrows into the wall of the cecum or colon and produces necrohemorrhagic typhlocolitis?
whipworms (trichuris)
What 3 bacteria can cause fibrinous peritonitis in pigs?
haemophilus suis
mycoplasma hyorhinis
strep suis
What is the most common tumor in the GI tract?
lymphoma
Term for a round solid elevated lesion >1 cm in diameter
nodule
Term for a small fluid filled cavity WITHIN the epidermis or directly beneath the epidermis?
vesicle
Vesicle that is >0.5 cm
bulla
Term for vesicle full of neutros or eos
pustule
Term for scales/crusts arranged in circular spreading patches, associated with staph hypersensitivity.
epidermal collarettes
Term for multiple crusts piled on top of one another, suggestive of repetitive bouts of inflammation.
vegetations
Term for vertical defect that only expands through epidermis
excoriation
Term for retention of nuclei in cornified cells reflecting incomplete keratnization.
parakeratotic hyperkeratosis
Term for excessive cells have cornified completely and lack nuclei.
orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis
Term for intercellular edema that seperates epidermal cells so they are only conncted at bridges.
spongiosis
Term for slit like spaces within epidermis that run parallel to dermal-epidermal jxn.
clefts
What does collagen degeneration look like?
collagen fibers become hyalinized, frayed, flame figures
seen with eosinophilic dermatitis
Term for melanophages and loss of pigment from skin.
pigmentary incontinence (leukoderma)
Term for a narrow space of dermis beneath epidermis prominently seperating it from an underlying dermal lesion.
grenz zone
What neoplasms are grenz zones seen in?
mast cell tumors
lymphomas
also deep granulomatous lesions
What 3 nutritional disorders/metabolic disorders cause hyperkeratosis?
vit A deficiency
hypothyrodism
hyperadrenocorticism
What nutrional deficiency causes parakeratosis?
zinc deficiency
What is dyskeratosis mostly suggestive of?
neoplastic transformation
Type of integument hyperplasia where ridges of hyperplastic epithelium extend upward and downward/
papilliform
Type of integument hyperplasia where deep irregular extensions of epidermis into dermis but normal differeniation is maintained.
Pseudoepithleiomatous (pre cancer)
What diseases are “regular” epithelial hyperplasia associated with?
psoriatic types of dz (cells building up on top)
What are the most common causes of epidermal atrophy?
hormonal imbalances - hyperadrenocorticocism and hypothyroidism
What is the sequence of events of type 2 hypersensitivity in skin? (auto immune disorders)
clefts –>fluid filled vesciles –> pustules –>rupture –>encrusted erosions –>become 2ndary infected
What auto immune disease in the skin is where vesciles form subcorneal?
pemphigus foliaceus
Where do vesicles form in pemphigus vulgaris?
just above stratum basale
Where do vesicles form in bullous pemphigoid, lupus, and 2nd degree thermal burns?
beneath stratum basale w/ sloughing of entire epidermis
What types of diseaes cause vasculitis in the upper half of the dermis?
type 3 hypersensitivity –> drugs, sepsis, rickettsia, photosensitization
What types of diseases are associated with perivascular inflammation resulting in edema?
localized disease –> allergic reactions
What type of skin inflammatory pattern is where both superficial dermis and epidermis are involved with plaque like accumulations of inflammatory cells?
interface
What 2 diseases are associated with interface skin inflammation?
lupus eryhematosis and drug eruption
Term for localized increase in star type collagen with abnormal development of trapped hair follicles and adnexal glands.
fibroadnexel dysplasia
Type of folliculitis where inflammation is confined to the stroma surrounding the follicle.
perifolliculitis
Type of folliculitis where there is exocytosis of leukocytes into the follicular wall.
mural folliculitis
Type of folliculitis where inflammatory cells are in the follicle lumen.
luminal folliculitis
Type of folliculitis where the wall of the follicle is breached by inflammatory cells.
furunculosis
Term for multiple furuncles coalescing into pustular lesions.
carbuncle
What is needed for a dermatophyte to cause a granulomatous folliculitis pattern?
type IV hypersensitivity component
Where do most epithelial tumors in dogs and cats stem from?
adnexal origin
What location are squamous cell carcinomas most likely to metastasize from?
on the digit near the claw or in the mouth
What can be confused with sebaceous adenomas in older wire haired breeds?
sebaceous hyperplasia
What is the most common follicular neoplasm in the dog?
infundibular keratnizing keratoacanthoma
What is the most common follicular neoplasm in the cat?
trichoblastoma
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the dog?
hemangiopericytomas - wrap like onion skin around blood vessels
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the cat?
fibrosarcoma
Term for tumor like lesion of skin involving fibroblasts and epidermis. Common in horse.
sarcoid
What are the four “big” round cell tumors to rule out when assessing a neoplasm?
mast cell tumor
histiocytoma
lymphoma
melanoma
When do histiocytomas become much more less likely to regress in dogs?
dogs over 5 years
What are the two behaviors of melanomas histiologically?
form “nest” or jigsaw like clusters
push into and invade epidermis or follicle (junctional activity)
What are 3 causes of death in acute renal failure?
hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, pulmonary edema
What are clinical/biochemical signs of chronic renal failure?
polyuria
hyponatremia and hypochloremia
hyperkalemia in cats
What electrolyte tends to be consistent between species when there is renal failure?
phosphorus
What electrolytes tend to vary between species with renal failure?
potassium and calcium
Which 2 species get hypokalemia in chronic renal failure?
cats and cows
What species gets hyperkalemia during chronic renal failure?
horses
What 2 species get hyperkalemia in post renal obstruction?
cats and foals
What are the 2 mechanisms of tissue damage when there is uremia?
endothelial damage –>vasculitis –> infarction
urea –>ammonia –>caustic –>ulceration
What are the 4 clinical signs of uremia?
uremic grastropathy (dogs and cats)
ulcerative stomatitis
vomiting
soft tissue mineralization
What are 2 critcial proteins lost from glomerulus when filtration barrier is damaged? What are sequelae?
albumin - edema
Antithrombin 3 - procoagulant state
What are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome?
proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, edema, hypercholesterolemia
What are the acute and chronic lesions of glomerulitis?
acute = red or white pinpoints in cortex chronic = pitted
What is the mechanism for systemic amyloidosis?
chronic inflammation –> acute phase amyloid A –> cleavage –>fibrils and deposited
What are the most common types of glomerulonephritis in cat, horse, pig and dog?
cat - membranous
horses and pigs - proliferative
dogs - membranoproliferative
How is glomerulonephritis diagnosed?
transmission electron microscopy
What specific dzs lead to glomerulonephritis?
Dog: lympe, HW, lupus, IMHA
Cats - FIP
Horses - strep
What do hyaline and granular casts indicate respectively?
hyaline - glomerulitis
granular - renal epeithelium necrosis
What are some common renal tubular toxins?
heavy metals - lead, mercury mycotoxins drugs - aminoglycs, doxorub cholecalciferol ethylene glycol pet food - melamine/cyanuric acid oxalates
What serum abnormalities are present with ethylene glyco toxicity?
serum hyperosomlality and metabolic acidosis
How can you rule out which pigment is causing red urine?
myoglobin - plasma is clear
What is the pathogenesis of renal papillary necrosis with NSAIDS in horses?
inhibit Cox1,2 –> inhibit prostacyclin –>vasoconstriction of renal –>ischemia –>necrosis
What is the route of infectious organisms to cause glomerulitis and tubulointerstitial nephritis?
hematogenous
What is the route of infectious organisms to cause pyelonephritis?
ascending bacterial
What does acute tubulointerstial nephritis look like?
hypertrophy of epithelium with influx of plasma cells
What does acute pyelonephritis look like histologically?
renal crest and medulla are necrotic with hemorrhage and inflammation that radiates up to cortex
What are the 2 agents associated with glomerulritis?
actinobacillus equuli
erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
What are 2 agents associated with tubulointerstitial nephrits?
lepto
e. coli in cows
What 3 agents are associated with pyelonephritis?
e coli
staph
c. renale (cows)
What is the most common cause of white spots in calf kidney?
e. coli, little significance (bacteremia)
What are 3 causes of a kidney looking small grossly?
progressive juvenile nephropathy
fibrosis
renal dysplasia
When are renal cysts clinically significant?
if compromised renal function in polycystic kidneys
What are the 3 MOA of renal cysts.
either obstruction of nephron with dilation or defective BM that allows for tubular dilation or focal tubular epithelial hyperplasia
What 2 species is lymphoma found commonly in the kidney?
cows and cats
What are 2 MOA of hydronephrosis?
blockage of ureter
ascending infection
What are 2 possible gross appearances of the bladder in chronic cystitis cases?
follicular cystitis - many white raised mucosal nodules surrounded by red rim
polypoid cystitis - polypoid mucosal proliferation
What is the most common urinary bladder tumor in the dog?
TCC
Term for dorsal deviation of spinal cord.
kyphosis
Term for S shaped spinal cord
scoliosis
Term for endochondral ossification at ectopic site.
exostosis
Term for dachsund shaped dog
chondrodysplasia
Term for osteoblast insufficiency
osteoporosis
Term for too little mineralized osteoid in immature animal.
rickets
Term for increased amount of bone.
osteosclerosis
Term for isolated avascular, non viable bone fragment
sequestrum
What is the term for reactive tissues surrounding a sequestrum?
involucrum
What bone deformity is related to a space occupying lesion in the thorax or abdominal cavity?
hypertrophic osteopathy
Term for polishing of bone after the cartilage has worn down.
eburnation
Term for infection of bone and the marrow/periosteum.
osteomyelitis
What bone lesion does brucella cause?
diskospondylitis - looks like IVDD
Term for fibrovascular tissues arising from synovium and covering articular surface.
pannus
What are the 3 different types of myopathies
Vit E/selenium deficiency
monensin (ca overload)
exertional
What are the 3 myositis that are caused by clostridium?
gas gangrene
malignant edema
blackleg
Term for eyeball has shrunk and become disorganized.
phthisis bulbi
What are the 3 sequelae of keratitis?
vascularization, scarring
descmetocele
uveitis
Term for chronic supefcial keratitis.
canine pannus
What are the 2 types of retina degeneration?
Progressive - rod-cone degeneration
central - retinal pigment epithelial dystrophy
What disease in cats is caused by injury to the lens?
post traumatic sarcoma
