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Anatomy > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Type of connective tissue with a liquid matrix

Transports vital substances

Maintains stability of interstitial fluid

Distributes heat

A

Blood

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2
Q

Form mostly in red bone marrow, and are called “formed elements”:
* Red blood cells (RBC s)
* White blood cells (WBC s)
* Platelets (cell fragments)

A

Blood cells

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3
Q

What are the percentages of each of the following blood components listed below?

Plasma
RBC
WBC
Platelets

A

Plasma - 55%
RBC - 45%
WBC / Platelets - < 1%

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4
Q

What is the percentage of RBC called?

A

Hematocrit (HCT) or Packed cell volume (PCV)

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5
Q

Also called erythrocytes

Biconcave disc shape

One-third hemoglobin:
* Oxyhemoglobin (with O2)
* Deoxyhemoglobin (without O2)

Lack nuclei and mitochondria

Cannot divide

Can produce ATP through glycolysis

A

Red Blood Cells (RBCs)

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6
Q

What do changes in RBC reflect?

A

Changes in blood’s oxygen carrying capacity

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7
Q

RBC formation

Occurs in red bone marrow.

Low blood O2 causes kidneys and liver to release EPO (erythropoietin), which stimulates RBC production.

Negative feedback mechanism

Hemocytoblast –>erythroblast –>reticulocytes –> erythrocytes

Within a few days many new RBCs appear in the blood

A

Erythropoiesis

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8
Q

What 3 dietary factors affect RBC production?

A

Vitamin B12:
* Absorbed from small intestine
* Required for DNA synthesis
* Necessary for growth & division of all cells

Iron:
* Absorbed from small intestine
* Conserved during RBC destruction & made avalible for reuse
* Required for Hemoglobin synthesis

Folic Acid:
* Absorbed from small intestine
* DNA synthesis

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9
Q

What happens in RBC deconstuction?

A

Hemoglobin Breakdown

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10
Q

Protect against disease.

Leukocytes have limited life spans, so they must constantly be replaced.

Produced in red bone marrow, under control of hormones: interleukins and colony-stimulating factors

Nomal range: 5,000 - 10,000

Leukocytosis:
* High WBC
* Acute infection, vigorous exercise, great loss of body fluids

Leukopenia:
* Low WBC
* Typhoid fever , flu, measles, mumps, chicken pox, AIDS, polio, anemia

A

WBC

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11
Q

What are the 2 categories or WBC & what type(s) of WBC is found in each categorie?

A

Granulocytes: Have granular cytoplasm, and short life span
* Neutrophils.
* Eosinophils.
* Basophils.

Agranulocytes: Do not have noticeable granules
* Lymphocytes.
* Monocytes.

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12
Q

Small, light purple granules in acid-base stain.
* Most common WBC
* Strong phagocytes.

Lobed nucleus; 2-5 sections.

Also called PMNs, polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

First to arrive at infection site.
* Elevated in bacterial infections.

54% - 62% of leukocytes.

A

Neutrophils

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13
Q

Coarse granules; stain deep red in acid stain.

Bi-lobed nucleus.

Defend against parasitic worm infestations.

1% - 3% of leukocytes.

Elevated in parasitic worm infestations and allergic reactions

A

Eosinophils

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14
Q

Large granules; stain deep blue in basic stain.
* Least abundant

Granules can obscure view of nucleus.

Release histamine to stimulate inflammation.

Release heparin to stop blood from clotting.

Less than 1% of leukocytes.

Similar to eosinophils in size and shape of nuclei.

A

Basophils

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15
Q

Largest of the WBCs.
* Strong phagocyte

Spherical, kidney-shaped, oval or lobed nuclei.

Agranulocytes.

Leave bloodstream to become macrophages.

3% - 9% of leukocytes.

Live for weeks – months.

Phagocytize bacteria, dead cells, debris.

A

Monocytes

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16
Q

Slightly larger than RBCs; smallest WBCs.

Large spherical nucleus surrounded by thin rim of cytoplasm

Agranulocytes

T cells and B cells are major types; both important in immunity.
* T cells directly attack pathogens, tumor cells.
* B cells produce antibodies.

25% - 33% of leukocytes.

May live for years.

A

Lymphocytes

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17
Q

What is the function of a WBC?

A

Diapedesis: WBCs can squeeze between the cells of a capillary wall and leave blood vessel; then migrate toward infection site.

Cellular adhesion molecules: proteins that direct leukocytes to injury sites.

Phagocytosis: Engulfing and digestion of pathogens; neutrophils and monocytes are most mobile and active phagocytes.

Inflammatory response: Reaction that restricts spread of infection; promoted by basophils, by secretion of heparin and histamine; involves swelling and increased capillary permeability.

Positive chemotaxis: Attraction of WBCs to an infection site, by chemicals released by damaged cells.

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18
Q

How do neutrophils respond to a bacterial invasion?

A

By accumulating in the infection site, and destroying the pathogens by phagocytosis

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19
Q

Cytoplasmic fragments of megakaryocytes (type of cell in red bone marow)

Produced by hemocytoblasts in response to the homone, thromopoirtin

Lack nucleus

Help in homeostasis in damaged blood vessels, by sticking to broken surface

Release serotonin

A

Platelets (thrombocytes)

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20
Q

Clear, straw-colored.

Liquid portion of blood.

55% of blood volume.

92% water.

7% protein

1% other solutes (nutrients, electrolytes, waste products)

Contains organic and inorganic chemicals.

Transports nutrients, gases, hormones, and vitamins.
* Albumin & fibrinogen

Helps regulate fluid and electrolyte balance and maintain pH.

A

Plasma

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21
Q

Which 2 gases are imporant in the blood?

A

Oxygen

Carbon Dioxide

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22
Q

What nutrience is found in the blood?

A

Amino Acids

Simple sugars

Nucleotides

Lipids:
* Fats (triglycerides)
* Phospolipids
* Cholesterol

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23
Q

What are the 8 electrolytes found in plasma?

A

Sodium (Most abundant)
Potassium.
Calcium.
Magnesium.
Chloride (Most abundant)
Bicarbonate.
Phosphate.
Sulfate.

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24
Q

Refers to the stoppage of bleeding.

Actions that limit or prevent blood loss include:
* Blood vessel (vascular) spasm.
* Platelet plug formation.
* Blood coagulation.

Most effective in small blood vessel injuries.

Needs healthy liver, Ca, platelets, Vit K, & liver protein

A

Hemostasis

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25
Q

T/F: Blood clotting is apart of positive feedback mech.

A

True

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26
Q

Cascade produces prothrombin activator

Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin

Thrombin stimulates increased activity of the intrinsic cascade

A

Positive feedback

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27
Q

Triggered by exposure of platelets to collagen.

Platelets adhere to rough surface

  1. Break in vessel wall
  2. Blood escaping through break
  3. Platelets adhere to each other, to the end of broken vessel & to expose collagen
  4. Platelet plug helps control blood loss
A

Platelet plug formation

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28
Q

Any molecule that evokes an immune response.

If immune system finds a foreign antigen in the body, it produces antibodies against the antigen

A

Antigen

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29
Q

Proteins that react against a specific antigen

In an incompatible blood transfusion, donor red blood cells (RBCs) evoke an immune response in the recipient, and antibodies in the recipient’s plasma agglutinate the donor RBCs

A

Antibodies

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30
Q

What are the antigens & antibodies for the blood types below?

A:
B:
AB:
O:

A

A:
* Antigen: A
* Antibody: Anti-B

B:
* Antigen: B
* Antibody: Anti-A

AB:
* Antigen: A & B
* Antibody: Neither A or B

O:
* Antigen: Neither A or B
* Antibody: Both Anti- A & Anti-B

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31
Q

What type of blood can each of the following recieve?

A:
B:
AB:
O:

A

A: A & O
B: B & O
AB: A, B, & O (Universal recipient)
O: O (Universal donar)

Positive w/ positive, Negative w/ negative

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32
Q

Why is an individual with AB blood called a universal recipient?

A

Type AB blood lacks both Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies, so an individual with type AB can receive donor RBCs of any type

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33
Q

Why is an individual with type O blood called a universal donor?

A

Type O lacks the A and B antigens, so type O RBCs could be donated to aperson with any blood type. Often, when given to a person with a different blood type, only the RBCs are donated (since plasma contains antibodies)

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34
Q

Includes several Rh antigens or factors, but most important one is antigen D.

Rh positive: Presence of antigen D or other Rh antigens on RBC membranes.

Rh negative: Do not have the Rh antigens on RBC membranes.

Anti-Rh antibodies form only in Rh-negative individuals in response to the presence of red blood cells with Rh antigens.

The seriousness of the Rh blood group is evident in a fetus that develops the condition erythroblastosis fetalis or hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Rh blood group

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35
Q

In what order does the heart pump blood through the blood vessels?

A

arteries → arterioles → capillaries → venules → veins → back to heart

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36
Q

What 2 things make up the cardiovascular system?

A

Heart & blood vessels

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37
Q

The L side of the heart contains _ blood, while the R side of the heart contains _ blood.

A) Deoxygenated ; Oxygenated
B) Oxygenated ; Deoxygenated

A

B) Oxygenated ; Deoxygenated

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38
Q

What’s the difference between pericardium & visceral pericardium?

A

Pericardium: Covering over heart and large blood vessels

Visceral pericardium: Inner layer of serous membrane; attached to surface of heart; also called the epicardium

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39
Q

What are the 3 distinct heart walls?

A

Epicardium

Myocardium

Endocardium

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40
Q

Outer layer - thin layer

AKA “visceral pericardium”

Serous membrane of connective tissue covered w/ epithelium & include blood capillaries, lymph capillaries, & nerve fibers
* Forms protective outer covering
* Secrete serous fluid

A

Epicardium

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41
Q

Middle layer - thickest layer

Composed of cardiac muscle tissue

Cardiac muscle tissue separated by connective tissue & include blood capillaries, lymph capillaries, & nerve fibers
* Contracts to pump blood from the heart chambers

A

Myocardium

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42
Q

Inner layer - thin layer

Membrane of epithelium & underlying connective tissue, Including blood vessels
* Forms protective inner lining of all heart chambers & valves

A

Endocardium

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43
Q

What are the 4 chambers of the heart & their function?

A

Right atrium: Receives blood returning from systemic circuit (from the superior and inferior vena cavae and coronary sinus); pumps blood to right ventricle.

Right ventricle: Receives blood from the right atrium; pumps blood to lungs.

Left atrium: Receives blood from the pulmonary veins; pumps blood to left ventricle.

Left ventricle: Receives blood from the left atrium; pumps blood to systemic circuit

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44
Q

What are the 4 valves or the heart & their function?

A

Tricuspid Valve:
* Prevents blood from moving from R ventricle into the R atrium during ventricular contraction
* Located in R atrioventricular Orifice

Pulmonary Valve:
* Prevents blood from moving from the pulmonary trunk into the R ventricle during ventricular relaxation
* Located in entrance to pulmonary trunk

Mitral Valve / Bicuspid Valve:
* Prevents blood from moving from the L ventricle into the L atrium during ventricular contraction
* Located in L atrioventricular Orifice

Aortic Valve:
* Prevents blood from moving from aorta into L ventricle during ventricular relaxation
* Located in entrance to aorta

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45
Q

How does blood flow through the heart?

A
  1. Blood from systemic circuit
  2. Venae cavae & coronary sinus
  3. R atrium (through tricuspid valve)
  4. R ventricle (through pulmonary valve)
  5. Pulmonary trunk
  6. Pulmonary arteries
  7. Pulmonary capillaries / Lungs
  8. Pulmonary veins
  9. L atrium (through mitral / bicuspid valve)
  10. L ventricle (through aortic valve)
  11. Aorta
  12. Blood from systemic circuit
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46
Q

Which arteries supply blood & O2 to tissues of the heart?

A

L & R Coronary arteries
* First 2 branched of aorta

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47
Q

The _ _ drains (deoxygenated) blood from the heart wall to the coronary sinus.

A) Cardiac veins
B) Cardiac artery
C) Coronary sinus
D) Coronary artery

A

A) Cardiac veins

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48
Q

The _ _ returns deoxygenated blood to the R atrium.

A) Cardiac veins
B) Cardiac artery
C) Coronary sinus
D) Coronary artery

A

C) Coronary sinus

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49
Q

The events of a heartbeat.

Heart chambers function in a coordinated manner.

Heart actions are regulated so that atria contract (atrial systole) while ventricles relax (ventricular diastole); then ventricles contract (ventricular systole) while atria relax (atrial diastole).

A

Cardiac cycle

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50
Q

What happens during atrial systole and ventricular diastole of the cardiac cycle?

A

The ventricles are relaxed.

The A-V valves open and the semilunar valves close.

About 70% of blood flows passively from atria into ventricles.

Atrial systole pushes the remaining 30% of blood into the ventricles, causing ventricular pressure to increase

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51
Q

What happens during ventricular systole and atrial diastole of the cardiac cycle?

A

The A-V valves close.

The chordae tendineae prevent the cusps of the valves from bulging too far backward into the atria.

The atria relax.

Blood flows into atria from venae cavae and pulmonary veins.

The ventricular pressure increases and opens the semilunar valves.

Blood flows into the pulmonary trunk and aorta.

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52
Q

Sounds are due to closing of heart valves, and vibrations associated with a sudden slowing of blood flow during contraction/relaxation of chambers

“Lubb”:
* The first heart sound.
* Occurs during ventricular systole.
* Associated with closing of the A-V valves.

“Dupp”:
* The second heart sound.
* Occurs during ventricular diastole.
* Associated with closing of the pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves.

A

Heart sounds

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53
Q

A group of clumps and strands of specialized cardiac muscle tissue, which initiates and distributes impulses throughout the myocardium
* Coordinates the events of the cardiac cycle.

  1. SA Node
  2. Atrial syncytium (In atrial walls)
  3. Junctional fibers
  4. AV Node
  5. AV bundle
  6. Bundle branches
  7. Purkinje fibers
  8. Ventricular syncytium (In ventricular walls)
A

Cardiac Conduction System

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54
Q

Define the following components of the cardiac conduction system:

SA Node
Internodal Atrial Muscle
Junctional fibers
AV (Atrioventricular) Node:
AV (Atrioventricular) Bundle (of His)
Left and Right Bundle Branches
Purkinje fibers

A

SA (Sinoatrial) Node: Pace maker; Initiates rhythmic contractions of the heart

Internodal Atrial Muscle: Conducts impulses from SA node to atria

Junctional fibers: Conducts impulses from SA node to AV node

AV (Atrioventricular) Node: Delays impulse, so that atria finish contracting before ventricles contract. Conducts impulses to AV Bundle

AV (Atrioventricular) Bundle (of His): Conducts impulses rapidly between SA node and bundle branches.

Left and Right Bundle Branches: Split off from AV bundle, conduct impulses to Purkinje fibers on both sides of heart.

Purkinje fibers: Large fibers that conduct impulses to ventricular myocardium.

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55
Q

What are the waves of an EKG called?

A

P wave: Atrial depolarization; occurs just prior to atrial contraction.

QRS complex (3 waves): Ventricular depolarization; occurs just prior to ventricular contraction.

T wave: Ventricular repolarization; occurs just prior to ventricular relaxation

ST segment: Ventricular contraction

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56
Q

What are the intervals of an EKG?

A

PQ (PR) interval: 0.12-0.20 s

QRS wave: < 0.12 s

QT interval: 0.34-0.43 s

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57
Q

Whats the difference between Parasympathetic impulses & Sympathetic impulses?

A

Parasympathetic impulses: Vagus nerves decrease heart rate, due to influence on SA and AV nodes

Sympathetic impulses: Accelerator nerves increase heart rate, due to influence on SA and AV nodes, and ventricular myocardium.

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58
Q

List & describe the 5 types of blood vessels:

A

Arteries: carry blood away from the ventricles of the heart.

Arterioles: receive blood from the arteries, and carry it to the capillaries.

Capillaries: sites of exchange of substances between the blood and the body cells.

Venules: receive blood from the capillaries, and conduct it to veins.

Veins: receive blood from venules, and carry it back to the atria of the heart.

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59
Q

Which of the following helps make up an artery? (SATA)

A) Lumen
B) Valve
C) Endothelium of tunica interna
D) Connective tissue (Elastic & collagen fibers)
E) Tunica media
F) Tunica externa

A

A) Lumen
C) Endothelium of tunica interna
D) Connective tissue (Elastic & collagen fibers)
E) Tunica media
F) Tunica externa

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60
Q

Which of the following helps make up a vein? (SATA)

A) Lumen
B) Valve
C) Endothelium of tunica interna
D) Connective tissue (Elastic & collagen fibers)
E) Tunica media
F) Tunica externa

A

All of the above

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61
Q

What are the 3 layers (or tunica) of an artery?

A

Tunica interna (intima): innermost layer

Tunica media: smooth muscle & elastic tissue

Tunica externa (adventitia): outer layer, connective tissue

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62
Q

Smallest-diameter blood vessels
* Extensions of the inner lining of arterioles
* They are semi-permeable

Connect the smallest arterioles and the smallest venules

The higher the metabolic rate in a tissue,the denser its capillary networks

Walls consist of endothelium (simple squamous epithelium) only

Blood flow regulated mainly by precapillary sphincters: smooth muscle surrounding capillary when it branches off arteriole or metarteriole

A

Capillaries

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63
Q

Thinner walls than arteries (3 layers or tunics).

Tunica media less developed

Carry blood under relatively low pressure to the heart
* Valves prevent backflow of blood & serves as blood reservoir

Function as blood reservoirs.

Many have flap-like valves

A

Veins

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64
Q

The force the blood exerts against the inner walls of the blood vessels

Circulates the blood

Most commonly refers to pressure in systemic arteries

Blood moves from higher to lower pressure throughout the system
* Pressure moves throughout the vascular system

Varies w/ cardiac O/P (CO)
* BP = CO x PR

A

BP

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65
Q

What factors increase arterial blood pressure?

A

Increase in blood volume

Increase HR

Increase stroke volume

Increase blood viscosity

Increase periheral resistance

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66
Q

Whats the difference between Stroke volume & cardiac O/P?

A

Stroke volume: Volume of blood that enters the arteries with each ventricular contraction
* (~70 ml/beat)

Cardiac output (CO): Volume of blood discharged from a ventricle each minute
* CO = SV x HR

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67
Q

How does blood volume affect blood pressure?

A

Blood pressure (BP) is directly proportional to blood volume.

Any factor that changes blood volume can change BP.

Example: Decreased blood volume, due to hemorrhage, decreases BP.

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68
Q

Force of friction between blood and walls of blood vessels.

Blood pressure must overcome PR in order to flow.

Factors that change PR also change blood pressure.

Vasoconstriction of arterioles increases PR, which increases the blood pressure

When blood is pumped out of ventricles, arteries swell; rapid elastic recoil sends the blood through the arteries, against PR in arterioles and capillaries.

A

Peripheral resistance

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69
Q

Venous Blood flow is dependent on…

A

Skeletal muscle contraction.

Breathing movements.

Vasoconstriction of veins.

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70
Q

Blood vessel form what 2 pathways?

A

Pulmonary circuit.

Systemic circuit

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71
Q

Blood in pulmonary arteries and arterioles is low in O2 and high in CO2 while Blood in pulmonary venules and veins is rich in O2 and low in CO2.

Gas exchange occurs in pulmonary (alveolar) capillaries.

Transports oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs. In lungs, blood picks up O2 and drops off CO2
* Oxygen-rich blood returns to the heart

Right ventricle → pulmonary trunk → right and left pulmonary arteries → lobar branches, repeated divisions → pulmonary arterioles → pulmonary capillaries → pulmonary venules and veins → left atrium.

A

Pulmonary circuit

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72
Q

Oxygen-rich blood moves from left atrium to left ventricle. Contraction of left ventricle sends blood into systemic circuit

Transports oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all body cells
* Oxygen-poor blood returns to the heart

Blood delivers nutrients, including oxygen, to cells, and removes wastes

Left ventricle → aorta → all arteries and arterioles leading to body tissues → systemic capillaries → systemic venules and veins → right atrium

A

Systemic circuit

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73
Q

What is the larges artery in the body that supplies blood to all of the systemic arteries?

A

Aorta

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74
Q

whats the difference between basilic and cephalic veins?

A

Basilic vein joins brachial vein

Cephalic vein joins axillary vein

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75
Q

What 5 organs are incuded in the upper Resp. tract?

A

The nose

Nasal cavity

Sinuses

Pharynx

Larynx

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76
Q

What organs are incuded in the lower Resp. tract?

A

Trachea

Bronchial tree

Lungs

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77
Q

Goblet cells interspersed throughout the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium produce mucus

Particles and microorganisms from inhaled air are trapped in mucus

The cilia sweep mucus toward pharynx

Microorganisms in swallowed mucus are destroyed in stomach

A

Nasal cavity

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78
Q

Air-filled spaces in the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones of the skull

Open into the nasal cavity

Mucous membrane lining is continuous with the lining of the nasal cavity

A

Sinuses (paranasal sinuses)

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79
Q

Passageway for air from the nasal cavities and food from oral cavities
* contains the tonsils (immune system)

Three parts:
* Nasopharnyx (Transmits only air)
* Oropharynx (Transmits food & air)
* Laryngopharnx (Transmits food & air)

A

Pharynx

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80
Q

Cartilaginous structure between the pharynx and the trachea

Protects the trachea and lower tract
* Houses the vocal cords
* Glottis: opening to the larynx
* Epiglottis: flap of tissue that covers

3 large single cartilages:
* Thyroid: largest cartilage.
* Cricoid: below thyroid cartilage.
* Epiglottic: part of flap-like epiglottis.

3 pairs of small cartilages:
* Arytenoid.
* Corniculate.
* Cuneiform.

A

Larynx

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81
Q

larynx contains 2 horizontal vocal folds composed of muscle and connective tissue:

False vocal cords:
* Upper (vestibular) folds.
* No sound production.

True vocal cords:
* Lower folds.
* Vocal sounds.
* Opening between them is called the glottis.

A

Vocal Cords

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82
Q

Extends downward anterior to the esophagus
* Wall has 20 C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage to prevent collapse of trachea

Enters thoracic cavity, it splits into the left and right primary bronchi.

Lined with ciliated mucous membrane with goblet cells (pseudostratified columnar epithelium).

A

Trachea

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83
Q

Consists of branched airways leading from the trachea to the microscopic air sacs in the lungs.
* Part of lower resp tract

Primary (main) bronchi arise from the trachea, and each enters one of the lungs.

Starting with the trachea, branching airways resemble an upside-down tree

A

Bronchial Tree

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84
Q

Provide surface area for gas exchange.

During gas exchange, O2 diffuses through alveolar walls to enter the blood.

CO2 diffuses from the blood

A

Alveoli

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85
Q

What 2 structures seperate the lungs from each other?

A

Heart

Mediastinum

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86
Q

The R & L side of the lungs have how many lobes?

A

R side: 3 Lobes

L side: 2 Lobes

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87
Q

Where are the following muscles found in the resp. tubes?

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

Simple cuboidal epithelium

Simple squamous epithelium

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium in larger tubes.

Simple cuboidal epithelium in respiratory bronchioles.

Simple squamous epithelium in alveoli.

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88
Q

Define the following:

  • Visceral pleura
  • Parietal pleura
  • Pleural cavity
A

Pleura: Sac around lungs

Visceral pleura: inner layer of serous membrane; attached to surface of lung.

Parietal pleura: outer layer of serous membrane; lines thoracic cavity.

Pleural cavity: potential space between visceral & parietal pleura; Contains serous fluid for lubrication

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89
Q

the movement of air from outside of the body into the bronchial tree and the alveoli.

The actions responsible for these air movements are inspiration (inhalation), and expiration (exhalation).

One inspiration + the following expiration = a respiratory cycle.

A

Breathing (or ventilation)

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90
Q

Diaphragm contracts downward.

Surfactant reduces surface tension in the alveoli, to help lung expansion.

A deep (forced, maximal) inspiration requires contraction of several other muscles, to enlarge thoracic cavity even more

A

Inspiration

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91
Q

What are the 6 major events in Inspiration?

A
  1. Impulses conducted on phrenic nerves to muscle fibers in diaphragm, contracting them
  2. As dome-shaped diaphragm moves downward, the thoracic cavity expands
  3. External intercostal muscles contract raising ribs & expanding thoracic cavity further
  4. Intra-aveolar pressure decreases
    atmospheric pressure, greater than intra-alveolar pressure, forces air into resp. trach throgh air passages
  5. Lungs fill w/ air
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92
Q

Forces responsible for normal resting expiration come from:
* Controlled by pons
* Elastic recoil of lung tissues and abdominal organs, as tissues return to their original shape at the end of inspiration
* Surface tension that develops on the moist surfaces of the alveolar linings shrinks alveoli

Resting (normal, quiet) expiration is a passive process without muscle contraction.

Forced expiration is due to contraction of internal intercostal and abdominal muscles.

A

Expiration

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93
Q

What are the 4 major event in Expiration?

A
  1. Diaphragm & external resp. tract muscles relax
  2. Elastic tissue of lungs, stretch during inspiraition, suddenly recoil, & surface tension pulls in on aveolar walls
  3. Tissue recoiling around the lungs increase the intra-aveolar pressure
  4. Air forced out of lungs
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94
Q

Define the following respt. volumes:

Tidal volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Expiratory reserve volume
Risidual volume

A

Tidal volume: volume moved in or out during a normal breath (smallest)

Inspiratory reserve volume: volume that can be inhaled during forced breathing in addition to tidal volume (Largest)

Expiratory reserve volume: volume that can be exhaled during forced breathing in addition to tidal volume (Same)

Residual volume: volume that remains in lungs at all times (Same)

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95
Q

Groups of neurons in the brainstem that control breathing.

Respiratory areas initiate impulses that cause inspiration and expiration, and control rate and depth of breathing

Main respiratory areas:
* Medullary respiratory center (Contains ventral & dorsal respiratory groups)
* Pontine respiratory groups

A

Respiratory Areas

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96
Q

What factors can affect breathing?

A

Partial pressure of O2 (Po2)

Partial pressure of CO2 (Pco2)

H ion in body fluids

Degree of stretch of lung tissue.

Emotional state.

Level of physical activity.

Receptors involved include mechanoreceptors and central and peripheral chemoreceptors.

Main controlling factors are usually the Pco2 + H ion concentration

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97
Q

How is oxygen transported from the lungs to the body cells?

A

Hemoglobin

Plasma

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98
Q

What Factors increase the release of O2 from hemoglobin?

A

Decrease in P o2.

Increase in P co2.

Increase in acidity.

Increase in temperature.

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99
Q

How is CO2 transported to the lungs?

A

As CO2 dissolved in plasma. (7%)

Bound to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin. (23%)

As part of a bicarbonate ion (70%)
* Majority is transported this way bicarbonate ions form as a result of a reaction between carbon dioxide and water: CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 = H+ + HCO3-

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100
Q

Renal cortex: Outer region of kidney

Renal medulla:Inner region; composed of renal pyramids

Renal columns: Extensions of cortex that dip into medulla

Hilum: Entrance to renal sinus

Renal pelvis: Funnel-shaped sac; superior end of ureter
* Major calyces: Large tubes that merge to form renal pelvis
* Minor calyces: Small tubes that merge to form major calyces

Renal capsule: Fibrous capsule around kidney

A

Kidney structures

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101
Q

What is the function of the kidney?

A

Filter blood

Produce urine

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102
Q

What are the structures of a nephron?

A

Glomerular Capsule

Glomerulus

Proximal tubule

Nephron loop (of Henle)

Descending limb

Ascending limb

Distal tubule

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103
Q

What is the difference between Cortical nephrons & Juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

Cortical nephrons:
* Majority of nephrons (85%)
* Lie almost completely in renal cortex
* Have short nephron loops
* Renal corpuscles located near surface of kidney

Juxtamedullary nephrons:
* Smaller percentage of nephrons (15%)
* Have long nephron loops, that extend deep into medulla
* Renal corpuscles lie deep in renal cortex
* Important in regulating water balance and urine concentration

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104
Q

What are the 3 processes of urine formation?

A

Glomerular filtration:
* Performed by specialized glomerular capillaries (first capillary bed)
* Water and small molecules are filtered
* Filtered fluid enters renal tubules, and becomes tubular fluid

Tubular reabsorption:
* Transfer of filtered substances from renal tubules to peritubular capillaries (second capillary bed)
* Only reclaims useful substances, while wastes continue to become urine

Tubular secretion:
* Transfer of certain substances from peritubular capillaries to renal tubules
* Adds waste products and excess substances to forming urine

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105
Q

First step of urine formation
* Water and small dissolved molecules and ions can be filtered

Substances move from the blood in the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule

Formed as substances filter from glomerulus into the glomerular capsule

Glomerular capillaries are much more permeable than other capillaries, due to fenestrae, tiny openings in walls

A

Glomerular filtration

106
Q

T/F: Surfactant reduces surface tension

A

True

107
Q

What factors affect Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A

Directly proportional to the net filtration pressure (NFP),
* Anything that changes NFP will change GFR (glomerular or capsular hydrostatic pressure, or glomerular colloid osmotic pressure)
* Changes in diameter of afferent or efferent arteriole

108
Q

Reverse of tubular reabsorption

Movement of substances from plasma of peritubular capillaries into fluid of renal tubules

Active transport mechanisms function in tubular secretion, but work in opposite direction as tubular reabsorption

Substances secreted into forming urine: Drugs, ions such as K+ and H+

Secretion of H+ ions is important in regulating the pH of body fluids

K+ ions are secreted as Na+ ions are reabsorbed in distal tubule

A

Tubular secretion

109
Q

A by-product of amino acid catabolism

Plasma concentration reflects amount of protein in diet

Enters renal tubules through glomerular filtration, and undergoes both tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion

Up to 80% is reabsorbed; the rest is excreted in the urine

A

Urea

110
Q

A product of nucleic acid metabolism

Enters the renal tubules through glomerular filtration

Active transport completely reabsorbs filtered uric acid

About 10% of uric acid enters urine through tubular secretion, and is excreted

Excess uric acid may lead to painful condition called gout, in which uric acid precipitates in blood and forms crystals in joints

A

Uric acid

111
Q

Composition reflects the volumes of water and solutes that the kidneys must excrete or conserve to maintain homeostasis

Composition of urine varies, due to dietary intake and physical activity, but typically:
* Consists of about 95% water
* Contains metabolic waste products: Urea, uric acid, and creatinine
* Contains small amounts of amino acids and varying amounts of electrolytes

A

Urine composition

112
Q

What is the normal pH range for urine?

A

4.6 - 8.0

113
Q

How is urine stored & eliminated?

A

Urine forms throughout the nephrons and collecting ducts, and then follows this pathway to the outside of the body:
* Through openings in renal papillae
* Drains into minor calyces
* Drains into larger major calyces
* Drains into renal pelvis
* Follows renal pelvis, which narrows to become ureter
* Transported to urinary bladder for storage
* Leaves body through urethra

114
Q

The Wall of ureter consists of what 3 layers?

A

Inner mucous coat (or mucosa, consists of transitional epithelium)

Middle muscular coat (or muscularis)

Outer fibrous coat (or adventitia)

115
Q

How does the urethra of a male differ from that of a female?

A

Female urethra:
* About 4 cm long
* External urethral orifice is anterior to vaginal opening

Male urethra:
* About 19.5 cm long
* Has a dual function for both urination and reproduction
* Has 3 sections: Prostatic urethra, Membranous urethra, & Spongy urethra (terminates at external urethral orifice in penis)

116
Q

Expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder
* Urine leaves urinary bladder by micturition reflex

Occurs through reflex contraction of detrusor muscle and reflex relaxation of internal urethral sphincter

Requires relaxation of external urethral sphincter (voluntary)

Controlled by micturition reflex center in sacral spinal cord

Problems with micturition:
Incontinence: Inability to control micturition
Nocturnal enuresis: Bedwetting

A

Micturition (urination)

117
Q

Consists of various fluids in different spaces and vessels
* Interstitial fluid: in tissue spaces.
* Blood plasma: in blood vessels.
* Lymph: in lymphatic vessels.
* Transcellular fluid: Separated from other extracellular fluids by epithelial layers; consists of cerebrospinal fluid, aqueous and vitreous humors in eye, synovial fluid in joints, serous fluid

Have high concentrations of Na, Cl, Ca, & HCO3

A

Extracellular Fluid Compartment

118
Q

Define the efollowing blood vessels w/in the nephrons:

Afferent arteriole
Glomerulus
Efferent arteriole
Peritubular capillaries

A

Afferent arteriole: Branch off cortical radiate arteries; each enters a different nephron

Glomerulus: Capillary cluster that branches from afferent arteriole; filters blood in each nephron

Efferent arteriole: Arises from merging of glomerular capillaries

Peritubular capillaries: Branches off the efferent arteriole; surrounds renal tubules

119
Q

The renal corpuscle consists of _ & a _.

A) Glomerulus ; Glomerular capsule (Bowmans)
B) Proximal tubule ; Distal tubule
C) Afferent arteriole ; Efferent arteriole

A

A) Glomerulus ; Glomerular capsule (Bowmans)

120
Q

Extracellular fluids are similar in composition, having high concentractions of……

A

Na+

Cl-

Ca+

HCO3-

121
Q

Intracellular fluids have high concentractions of….

A

K+

Mg+2

PO-3

SO4-2

122
Q

exists when water intake (and metabolic production) equals water output.

Homeostasis requires control of both water intake and water output.

Water intake is controlled by the thirst centers in the brain.

Water output is controlled by the kidneys.

A

Water balance

123
Q

Activity in the _ causes a person to feel thirsty & to seek water.

A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Medulla
D) Pon

A

B) Hypothalamus

124
Q

In what ways can water be excreated?

A

Urine (60%)

Feces (6%)

Sweat or sensible perspiration (6%)

Through combination of evaporation from the skin & lungs during breathing (28%)
* Insensible perspiration)

125
Q

What are the most important electrolytes for cellular functions?

A

Na

K

Ca

Mg

Cl

SO

PO

HCO3

H

126
Q

Which mechanisms ordinarily regulate electrolyte intake?

A

Foods

Fluids

Metabolic reactions

127
Q

By what routes does the body lose electrolytes?

A

Perspiration

Feces

Urine

128
Q

How does aldosterone regulate the sodium and potassium ion concentrations?

A

High K concentration stimulates secretion of aldosterone, which increases tubular reabsorption of Na & tubular secretion of K

129
Q

electrolytes that ionize in water and release hydrogen ions

The more acidic the solution, the lower its p H.

Strong acids ionize more completely and release more H+
* Example: H C l in gastric juice.

Weak acids ionize less completely and release fewer H+
* Example: H2CO3 , produced when CO2 combines with H2O.

A

Acids

130
Q

substances which release ions that combine with hydrogen ions
Acid-base balance involves regulation of the H ion concentrations

The more basic/alkaline the solution, the higher its p H

Strong bases ionize more completely and release more OH- or other negative ions
* Example: NaOH (sodium hydroxide).

Weak bases ionize less completely and release fewer OH- or other negative ions.
* Examples: Na HCO3 (sodium bicarbonate), HCO3 can act as base.

A

Base

131
Q

Found in intracellular and extracellular fluids.

Important in intracellular fluid, renal tubular fluid, urine.

The monohydrogen phosphate ionconverts a strong acid to a weak acid.

The dihydrogen phosphate ion converts a strong base to a weak base.

A

Phosphate buffer system

132
Q

How do the kidneys respond to excess hydrogen ions?

A

Regulate H+ ion concentration of body fluids by excreting H+ ions in the urine

Kidneys compensate for extra acidity by increasing tubular secretion of H+ ions, & increased excretion in the urine

133
Q

results from the
accumulation of acids or
loss of bases, both of which
cause abnormal increases in the H+ ion concentration in body fluids, and lower the pH
below 7.35.

A

Acidosis

134
Q

results from a
loss of acids or an
accumulation of bases
accompanied by a decrease in H+ ion concentration, which increases the pH above 7.45.

A

Alkalosis

135
Q

What is the difference between Resp. Acidosis & Metabolic Acidosis?

A

Resp. Acidosis: Caused by increase in CO2 and H2CO3 levels
* Obstrucion of airway
* Decreased gas exchange

Metabolic Acidosis: Caused by accumulation of other acids or loss of bases
* Kidney failure
* Ketones / DM
* Prolonged diarrhea & vomitting

136
Q

T/F: Renin is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatua regulates the renin angiotensis system, which increases BP

A

True

137
Q

What is the difference between Resp. Alkalosis & Metabolic Alkalosis?

A

Resp. Alkalosis: caused by excess loss of CO2 and HCO3.
* Hyperventilation (Fever, anxiety, poisoning, high altitude)
* Excessive loss of CO2
* Decreased HCO3 & H

Metabolic Alkalosis: results from excess loss of H+ ions or gain in bases
* Gastric drainage
* Vomiting w/ loss of gastric secretion
* Diuretics

138
Q

Bodys maintenance of stable internal enviornment
* Requires most of our metabolic energy

Receptors: Provides information
Control center: Tells what particular value should be
Effectors: Cause responses to change to internal enviornment

A

Homeostasis

139
Q

Most common homeostatic mech

Effectors return conditions toward normal range
* Maintains balance
* Prevent severe changes in the body
* Long lived

Ex:
* BP
* T
* Glucose (Insulin)

A

Negative feedback loop

140
Q

Divides body into 4 parts (head, neck, trunk, & upper appendicular portion)
* Cranial cavity: Houses brain
* Vertebral cranial: Spinal cavity/cord, backbone/vertebra
* Thoracic cavity: Heart, lungs and pleura
* Abdominopelvic cavity: All of your organs other than your brain, heart, and lungs

A

Axial portion

141
Q

Seperated from abdominopelvic by diaphragm
* Broad thin muscle

At rest, muscle is curved upwards into thorax (like dome) ; when contracting during inhalation, muscle curves down on abdominal viscera

Includes:
* L pleural cavity: Line thoracic cavity & cover lungs
* Mediastinum
* R pleural cavity: Line thoracic cavity & cover lungs
* Pericardial cavity: Surrounding heart & covering surface

A

Thoracic cavity

142
Q

Extends forward to the sternum & backward to the vertebral column

Forms boundry between R & L sides of thoracic cavity
* R & L lungs are on either side

Includes:
* Heart
* Esophagus
* Trachea
* Thymus

A

Mediastinum

143
Q

Includes upper abdominal & lower pelvic portion

Abdominal cavity:
* Viscera found within (stomach, liver, spleen, gallbladder, kidneys, small/large intestine)

Pelvic cavity:
* Portion enclosed by pelvic bones
* Contains terminal end of large intestine, urinary bladder, & internal reproductive organs

A

Abdominopelvic Cavity

144
Q

What’s the difference between parietal & visceral peritoneum?

A

Parietal peritoneum: Lines the wall of the abdominal pelvic cavity

Visceral peritoneum: Covers most organs in the abdominopelvic cavity

145
Q

Define the following positions:

Superior
Inferior

Anterior/Ventral
Posterior/Dorsal

Medial
Lateral
Bilateral

Ipsilateral
Contralateral

Proxial
Distal

Superficial
Deep

A

Superior: Above
Inferior: Below

Anterior/Ventral: Toward front
Posterior/Dorsal: Toward back

Medial: Toward midline
Lateral: Away from midline

Bilateral: Paired structures on both sides
Ipsilateral: Same side
Contralateral: Opposite sides

Proxial: Close to trunk
Distal: Away from trunk

Superficial: Close to body surface
Deep: More internal

146
Q

Define each body section/ plane:

Sagittal section:

Midsagittal /median:

Coronal / frontol section:

A

Sagittal section: Longituted cut diving body into L & R portions

Midsagittal /median: Divides body into L & R

Coronal / frontol section: Longitudinal cut that divides body into anterior & porterior portions

147
Q

Positively charged ion

Formed when atom loses electrons

Attract anions to create a 3D structure

A

Cation

148
Q

Negatively charged ion

Formed when atoms gains electrons

Attract cations to create a 3D structure

A

Anion

149
Q

Strong chemical bonds formed when ions of opposite charge attract
* Between cation & anion
* Dissociation in water
* Lose/gain electrons

3 steps:
1. Transfer of an electron to form ion
2. Positive & negative ions are attracted to each other
3. Formation of bond

Example: NaCl

A

Ionic bond

150
Q

Chemical bond formed between atoms that shared electrons
* Strong chemical bonds
* Can be polar/nonpolar

Examples:
* Hydrogen (H) can combine to create a molecule = (H2)
* Hydrogen molecule (H2) often combines w/ oxygen (O2) molecule = H2O
* CO2

A

Covelent bond

151
Q

Atoms share electrons equally

Exist between atoms of the same element

Attraction to electrons is based on the size of the nucleus (electronegativity)
* The bigger the nucleus, the more electronegative an atom is
* Atoms of same size have same size nucleus & need equal “pull” of electrons

C & H atoms also form

Examples found in carbon dioxide & most carbon-hydrogen bonds

A

Nonpolar covalent bonds

152
Q

Electrons are not shared equally
* More electrons are on one end of the molecule making that end slightly negative, while the other end is slightly positive

Usually form where hydrogen atoms bond to & oxygen to nitrogen atoms

Example: Water (H2O)

A

Polar covalent bonds

153
Q

What has control over blood pH?

A

Bicarb (HCO3)

154
Q

What are the 2 forms of endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum (SER):
* No ribosomes attached and makes glycogen (polysaccharides), phospholipids, and steroids

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER):
* Has ribosomes attached and modifies proteins given by ribosomes (little red dots)

155
Q

Puts finishing touches on proteins, packages the protein into the vesicles, and ships the protein filled vesicles towards the plasma membrane and out of the cell (exocytosis)

Stacks of flattened membraneous sacs

Think of UPS/ FEDEX/ Amazon

A

Golgi apparatus

156
Q

Powerhouse of the cell

Requires oxygen and uses it to burn glycose into ATP (comes from Glycolisis)

A

Mitochondria

157
Q

cell organelle filled with enzymes needed to break down and dispose of debris, old organelles, and bacteria that has been ingested (endocytosis)

Think of garbage disposal

A

Lysosomes

158
Q

Provides structure and movement for the cell

Forms structures that undergo Mitosis

Translates to “skeleton of the cell”

A

Cytoskeleton

159
Q

Outer body of cell

Maintains integrity of cell

Regulates entry/exit of substances
* Selectively permeable

Consits mainly of lipids & protein w/ some carbs

Framework is phospholipid bilayer
* Water-soluble: Heads form surface
* Water-insoluble: Tails form interior
* Permable to lipid-soluble substances

A

Cell (plasma) membrane

160
Q

Have nucles in cell

Some are larger & multicellular (human like)

Some are like amebas

Some can be pathogens

Ex:
* Fungi
* Protozoan
* Parasitic worms (plant/animal)

A

Eukaryotic organisms

161
Q

Single cell organism

Lack nucleus

Ex: Bacteria

A

Prokaryotic organisms

162
Q

Consists of networks of membranes & organelles suspended in cytosol

Cytosol + Organelles
* Cytosol: Fluid protion of cytoplams
* Organelles: Tiny solid structures w/ specific functions in the cell

Contain cytoskeleton
* supporting framework of protien rods & tubules

A

Cytoplasm

163
Q

Do not require ATP
* Diffusion
* Osmosis
* Facillitated diffusion
* Filtration

A

Physical (passive) Process

164
Q

Require ATP
* Active transport
* Endocytosis
* Exocytosis
* Transcytosis

A

Physiological (Active) Process

165
Q

Movement of substances from region of low concentration to high concentration (against gradient)
* Acitve process - ATP required

Uses carrier molecules in cell membrane

Ex:
* Sugars
* Amino acids
* Ca 2+
* H+
* Na+ / K+ pump

A

Active transport

166
Q

Cell grows & replicates genetic materia (DNA) to prepare for mitosis (Nuclear division)

Cell synthesizes organelles, membranes,
& biochemicals to prepare for cytokinesis (Division of cytoplams)

Phases:
* G1: Cell growth, prepares for DNA replication
* S (synthesis): DNA replicated
* G2: Cell prepares for mitosis & cytokinesis

A

Interphase

167
Q

What are the major events in mitosis?

A

Prophase: Chromatin condenses into chromosomes; centrioles move to opposite sides of cytoplasm to form spindle; nuclear emebrane & nucleolus disperse

Metaphase: Chromosomes align midway between centrioles. Spindle fibers from the centrioles attach to the centromeres of the sister chromosome

Anaphase: Centromeres separate, & sister chromatids move apart, w/ each chromatid now an individual chromosomes ; spindle fibers shorten & pull these new individual chromosomes toward centrioles

Telophase: Chromosomes elongate & from chromatin threads; nuclear membranes form around each chromosome set; nucleoli form; microtubules break down

168
Q

Function:
* Protection
* Secretion
* Absorption
* Excretion

Location:
* Covers body surface
* Cover & line internal organs
* Compose glands

Distinguishing characteristics:
* Lack blood vessels, cell readily divide, cells are tightly packed. injuries heal rapidly

Shapes:
* Squamous (flat) * cuboidal (cube-shaped)
* columnar (tall)

Layers:
* Simple (1 layer)
* Stratified (2+ layers)
* pseudostratified (Looks layered but isnt)

A

Epithelial tissue

169
Q

Functions:
* Binds, support, protect
* Fill spaces, store fat, produce blood cells

Location:
* Widely distributed throughout the body

Distinguishing characteristics:
* Mostly have good blood supply
* Cells are farther apart than epithelial cells
* Extracellular matrix inbetween

A

Connective Tissue

170
Q

composed of cells that produce & secrete substances into ducts or body fluids

2 types of glands:
Endocrine: Secrete into tissue fluid / blood
Exocrine: Secretes into ducts that open onto surface

A

Glandular epithelium

171
Q

Functions:
* Movement

Location:
* Attached to bone
* In walls of hollow internal organs
* Heart

Distinguishing characteristics:
* Able to contracts in response to specific stimuli

A

Muscle tissue

172
Q

What are the 3 major types of connective tissue?

A

Fibroblast:
* Most common fixed cell
* Large star-shaped cell
* Secrete fibers into extracellular matrix

Macrophages (Histiocytes):
* Usually attached to fibers, but can detach & wander
* Conduct phagocytosis
* Defend against infections

Mast Cells:
* Large cells, located near blood vessels
* Release heparin to prevent blood clotting
* Release histamine, whichcauses an inflammatory response

173
Q

Functions:
* conduct impulses for coordination, regulation, integration, & sensory reception
* Release of neurotransmitters,, & regulate body functions
*
Location:
* Brain
* Spinal cord
* Nerves

Distinguishing characteristics:
* Cells communicate w/ each other & other body parts

Cells w/ cytoplasmic extensions
* Neuroglia support and nourish neurons

A

Nervous Tissue

174
Q

Closely packed collagenous fibers

Fine network of elastic fibers

Most cells are fibroblasts

Very strong, withstands pulling

Binds body parts together

Tendons, ligaments, dermis

Poor blood supply; slow to heal

A

Dense regular connective tissues

175
Q

Randmoly organized, thick, interwoven collagenous fibers

Can withstand tension exerted from dfferent directions

Dermis of skin

Around skeletal muscles

A

Dense Irregular connective tissue

176
Q

Line body cavities that do not open to outside of body

Inner linning of thorax & abdomen; covers groin

Simple squamous epithelium + areolar connective tissue

Secrete serous fluid for lubrication, reducing friction

A

Serous membrane

177
Q

Shorter cells, single, central nucleus, Non-striated
* Contains spindle-shaped fibers

Function: Involuntary movement internal organs

Location: Walls of hallow internal organs

A

Smooth muscle tissue

178
Q

The skin contains what 2 tissues?

A

Epithelial & Connective tissue

179
Q

What is the difference between the epidermis & dermis of the skin?

A

Epidermis:
* Outer layer
* Stratified squamous epithelium
* Basement membrane between epidermis & dermis
* Contains Keratin

Dermis:
* Inner layer
* Thicker of the 2 layers
* Connective tissue
* Contains collagenous & elasric fibers

180
Q

Beneath dermis ; insulating layer

Areolar & adipose connective tisue

Not considered part of the skin

Contans blood vessels that supply skin

A

Subcutaneous layer (hypodermis)

181
Q

Located in stratum basale

Melanoma arises

Produce dark pigment melanin

Absorbs UV light from sunlight & provides skin color
* causes melanocytes to produce more melanin, and skin darkens
* overwhelms body’s natural protective responses against skin cancer

Distributed into keratinocytes, to protect skin cells from damaging effects of UV light
* DNA damage
* Fibroblast damage
* Skin cancer

A

Melanocytes

182
Q

What are the 3 factors affecting skin color?

A

Hereditay factors:
* All people have same number of melanocytes, but vary in amount of melanin produced (genetic control)
* Varying distribution and size of melanin granules.
* Albinos inherit mutation in melanin genes; lack melanin

Environmental Factors:
* Sunlight.
* UV light from sunlamps/ tanning beds
* X-rays.

Physiological Factors:
* Oxygenation in blood of dermal blood vessels: pinkish, cyanosis.
* Vasodilation/vasoconstriction of dermal blood vessels.
* Accumulation of carotene pigment from diet.
* Jaundice.

183
Q

Inner layer of skin that contains dermal papillae between epidermal ridges
* Binds epidermia to underlying tissue

Connective tissue layer that conatines fibers, hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands,& nerve processes

Sensory receptors:
* Lamellated (Pacinian): Corpuscles for pressure
* Tactile (Meissner’s): Corpuscles for light touch

A

Dermis

184
Q

The dermis consists of what 2 layers?

A

Papillary layer:
* Superficial layer.
* Areolar connective tissue.
* Thinner of the 2 layers.
* Location of dermal papillae.

Reticular layer:
* Deeper layer.
* Dense irregular connective tissue.
* Thicker of 2 layers.

185
Q

What is the function of skin?

A

Versatile, and vital for homeostasis.

Protective covering, barrier against harmful substances and microorganisms

Prevents some water loss & contains sensory receptors.

Excretes some wastes.

Helps produce Vitamin & regulate body temperature

186
Q

T/F: Body temp is monitored by Hypothalamus

A

true

187
Q

Which 3 active body cells are major heat producers?

A

skeletal muscle

cardiac muscle

cells of the liver

188
Q

What are the 2 types of Metabolic reactions?

A

Anabolism: small molecules are built into larger ones; requires energy

Catabolism: larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones, releases energy

189
Q

Provides materials for maintenance, cellular growth and repair. Requires ATP made during catabolism
* Example: Dehydration synthesis

Smaller molecules are bound together to form larger ones.

H2O produced in the process.

Used to produce polysaccharides, proteins, triglycerides

A

Anabolism

190
Q

Breaks down larger molecules into smaller ones; ATP is produced
* Example: Hydrolysis

Used to decompose carbohydrates, proteins, lipids.

Uses H2O to split the substances.

Reverse of dehydration synthesis.

A

Catabolism

191
Q

Sensory nerve only

Associated with sense of smell

Bipolar neurons; pass through cribriform plate of ethmoid bone, and enter olfactory bulbs

A

Olfactory nerve I (1)

192
Q

Sensory nerve only

Associated with sense of vision

Neuron cell bodies form ganglion layers of retina, and pass through optic foramina of the orbits.

A

Optic nerve II (2)

193
Q

Primary motor nerve

Monitor impulses to several voluntary muscles that rise eyelids, & move the eye

Motor impulses to involuntary muscles that focus the lens, & adjust the light entering your eye (Part of autonomic nervous system)

Small sensory component (Proprioceptive fibers)

A

Oculomotor nerve III (3)

194
Q

Primary motor nerve

Smallest pair of cranial nerves

Motor impulses to one pair of muscles that move the eyes

Small sensory component (Proprioceptive fibers)

A

Trochlear nerve IV (4)

195
Q

Mixed nerve

Largest part of sensory branches

3 large sensory branches:
1. Opthalmic division: Sensory from surface of eyes, tear glands, scalp, forhead, & upper eyelids
2. Maxillary division: Sensory from upper teeth, upper gum, upper lip, palate, & skin on the face
3. Mandibular division: Sensory from scalp, skin of jaw, lower teeth, lower gums, lower lip, & muscles of mastication (Chewing)

A

Trigeminal nerve V (5)

196
Q

Primary motor nerve

Motor impulses to one pair of muscles that move the eyes

Some sensory (Proprioceptive fibers)

A

Abducens nerve VI (6)

197
Q

Mixed nerve

Special sensory from taste receptors

Somatic motor to muscles of facial expression

Autonomic motor to tear glands, & salivary glands

A

Facial nerve VII (7)

198
Q

Sensory nerve only

Acoustic or auditory nerve

2 branches:
* Vestibular branch: Sensory form equilibrium receptors of the ear
* Cochlear branch: Sensory from hearing receptors

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve VIII (8)

199
Q

Mixed nerve

Sensory from pharynx, tonsils, part of tongue (posterior third), carotid arteries

Motor to salivary glands (autonomic) & muscles o pharynx (for swallowing, somatic)

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve IX (9)

200
Q

Mixed nerve

Somatic motor to muscles of speech & swallowing

Autonomic motor to heart, & other viscera of the thorax & abdomen

Sensory from pharynx, larynx, esophagus, & viscera of thorax & abdomen

A

Vagus nerve X (10)

201
Q

Primary motor nerve

Aka “Spinal accessory”

Contain crainal & spinal branches
* Cranial branch: Motor to muscles of soft palate, pharynx, & larynx ; Join Vagus N
* Spinal branch: Motor to muscles of neck & back ; Small sensory component (proprioceptive fibers)

A

Accessory nerve XI (11)

202
Q

Primary motor

Motor to muscles of tongue

Small sensory component (Proprioceptive fibers)

A

Hypoglossal nerve XII (12)

203
Q

T/F: Nerves are bundles of axons

A

True

204
Q

What are the 3 connective tissue coverings located on the structures of periphreal nerves?

A

Endoeurium: Around each axon (Outside Myelin Sheath)

Perineurium: Around fascicles (Bundle of axons)

Epineurium: Around whole nerve

205
Q

What are the 4 major parts of the brain?

A

Cerebrum

Dienecphalon

Cerebellum

Brainstem

206
Q

what are the 3 ventricles in the brain?

A

Forebrain (Prosencephalon): Divides brain into telenecephalon & diencephalon

Midbrain (Mesencephalon)

Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon): Divides into metencephalon & myelencephalon

207
Q

What 3 structures make up the brainstem?

A

Midbrain

Pons

Medulla Oblongata

208
Q

Association areas Carry on higher intellectual process for:
* Concentrating
* Planning
* Complex problem solving
* Emotional behavior, jusging consequences of behavior

Motor areas control movements of voluntary skeletal muscles

A

Frontal lobe

209
Q

Sensory areasare responsible for hearing & interpret complex sensory experiences (understanding speech, & reading)
* Auditory

Associated areas interpret sensory experiences & remember visual scense, music, & other complex sensory patterns

A

Temporal lobe

210
Q

Sensory areas provide sensations of temperature, touch, pressure, & pain involving the skin

Association areas function in understanding speech & using words to express thoughts & feelings

Part of lobe associated w/:
* Understanding speech
* Choosing words to express thoughts & feelings

A

Parietal lobe

211
Q

Sensory areas are responsible for vision

Association areas combine visual images w/ other sensory experiences

Part of lobe associated w/ analyzing & combining viual images w/ other sensory experiences

A

Occipital lobe

212
Q

Translating sensory information into proper emotional response

A

Insula

213
Q

What is the difference between a Dominant Hemisphere & a Nondominant Hemisphere?

A

Dominant Hemisphere:
* Language skills of speech, writing, & reading
* Verbal, analytical, & computational skills

Nondominant Hemisphere:
* Nonverbal tasks
* Motor tasks
* Understanding & interpreting musical & visual patterns
* Provides emotional & intuitive thought process

214
Q

What are 5 neuron structures?

A

Dendrites: Receive signals

Cell body: Manufacture cell components, & intergrate signal

Axon: Conduct impulses

Synaptic Knob: Site of contract w/ target cell

Myelin Sheath: Formed by neuroglia cells to insulate axons ; Interrruped in Periheral neurons by nodes

215
Q

What is the difference between a Bipolar Neuron & an Unipolar neuron?

A

Bipolar Neuron:
* 2 processes
* Eyes, ears, nose (special senses)

Unipolar neuron:
* 1 process
* Cell bodies are in ganglia
* Sensory neuron
* Dendrites fuse w/ Axons
* Special senses

216
Q

What is the difference between the following neurons:

Sensory neurons
Interneurons
Motor Neurons

A

Sensory neurons:
* Afferent neurons
* Carry impulses to CNS
* Most are unipolar
* Some are bipolar

Interneurons:
* Association Neurons
* Link sensory & motor neurons
* Multipolar
* Located in CNS

Motor Neurons:
* Multipolar, efferent
* Carry impulses away from CNS
* Carry impulses to effectors

217
Q

Connect neurons to blood vessel
* Exchange nutrients & growth factors

Acts as filter for brain

Form scar tissue

Aid metabolism of certain substances

Regulates K+

Part of Blood Brain Barrier

A

Astrocytes (Neuroglia of CNS)

218
Q

Phagocytic cell

Provides structural support

A

Microglia (Neuroglia of CNS)

219
Q

Line central canal to spinal cord & ventricles of brain
* Cover choroid plexuses

Help regulate composition & circulation of cerebrospinal fluid

Cuboidal or columnar cells; ciliated

A

Ependyma / Ependymal cells (Neuroglia of CNS)

220
Q

PNS neuroglia that encase axons in a sheath

Speed up speed of nerve impulse transmission

Wrap tightly around axon in layers composed of myelin (Lipoprotein mixtures)
* Coating called Myelin Sheath

Node of Ranvier: Gaps in Myelin Sheath between Schwann cells

A

Schwann Cells

221
Q

If peripheral axon is injured, it may regenerate

Axon separated from cell body and its myelin sheath will degenerate

Schwann cells and neurilemma remain

Remaining Schwann cells provide guiding sheath for growing axon

If growing axon establishes former connection, function will return; if not, function may be lost.

A

Neuron Regeneration in the PNS

222
Q

CNS axons lack neurilemma to act as guiding sheath.

Oligodendrocytes do not proliferate after injury.

Regeneration is unlikely

A

Neuron Regeneration in theCNS

223
Q

Propagated down the length of the axon as nerve impulses

Axon hillock / Initial segment / Trigger zone at first part of axon contains many voltage-gated sodium channels

When threshold is reached (-55 mV), voltage-gated Na+ channels open (Beginning of the action potential)

Na+ ions diffuse into the cell, and membrane depolarizes (Toward 0)

Na+ channels close and K+ channels open

K+ diffuses out of the cell, and membrane repolarizes (Toward -70)

The voltage goes a below -70 mV, so the membrane is temporarily hyperpolarized (-90)

Then K+ channels close

Na+/K+ pumps bring the membrane back to RMP (-70 mV)

A

Action Potentials

224
Q

What is the difference between Myelinated & Unmyelinated axons?

A

Myelinated axons:
* PNS have a series of Schwann cells lined up along the axon, each having a wrapped coating of myelin insulating the axon

Unmyelinated axons:
* Encased by Schwann cell cytoplasm, but there is no wrapped coating of myelin surrounding the axons.

225
Q

Where are neurotransmitters produced?

A

Rough ER or cytoplasm

226
Q

Neurotransmitters are released by ____________.

A) Endocytosis
B) Exocytosis

A

B) Exocytosis

227
Q

Membranes that protect brain & spinal cord

Consists of 3 layers:
* Dura mater (Outer layer)
* Arachnoid mater (middle layer ; weblike)
* Pia mater (Inner layer attached to spinal cord)

A

Meningies

228
Q

Describe the 3 layers of the meningies:

A

Dura Mater:
* Outer layer of meningies
* Tough, dense connective tissue
* Dural sinuses
* Epidural space

Arachnoid mater:
* Middle layer ; web-like
* Subarachnoid space contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Pia mater:
* Inner layer ; attached to surface of brain & spinal cord
* Blood vessels & nerves
* Nourishes CNS

229
Q

Thin layer of gray matter

Makes up outermost layer of the cerebrum

Interpretes impules from sensory organs
* Creating sensations
* Forming perceptions

Initiating voluntary movements

Storing information as memory
* Retrieving stored info

Reasoning, seat of intelligence & personality

A

Cerebral Cortex

230
Q

Lies deep to the cerebral cortex

Makes up most of cerebrum

Contains bundles of myelinated axons

A

White matter of cerebrum

231
Q

What are the 6 sensory areas of the cortex?

A

Cutaneous Sensory Area:
* Parietal Lobe
* Interprets sensations on skin

Sensory Speech Area (Wernicke’s Area):
* Temporal / parietal lobe
* Usually left hemisphere
* Understanding & formulating language

Visual Area:
* Occipital Lobe
* Interprets vision

Auditory Area:
* Temporal lobe
* Interprets hearing

Sensory Area for Taste:
* Near base of the central sulcus
* Includes part of insula

Sensory Area for Smell:
* Arise from centers on the deep side of temporal lobes

232
Q

What are the motor areas of the cortex?

A

Primary motor areas:
* Frontal lobes
* Control voluntary muscles
* Most nerve fibers cross over in brainstem

Brocas area:
* Anterior to primary motor cortex
* Usually in left hemisphere
* Controls muscles needed for speech

Frontal eye field:
* Above Brocas area
* Controls voluntary movements of eyes & eyelids

233
Q

Between cerebral hemispheres & above the brainstem

Surrounds the 3rd ventricle

Composed of gray matter

Contains:
* Thalamus / Hypothalamus
* Posterior pituitary
* Pineal gland

A

Diencephalon

234
Q

Maintain homeostasis by regulating visceral activities:
* HR, BP, temp
* Water, electrolytes
* Hunger, body weight, movement
* Glandular secretions (digestive tract)
* Pituitary gland function
* Sleep & wakefulness

Links nervous & endocrine systems

A

Hypothlamus

235
Q

Lies between diencephalon & pons

Contains bundles of fibers that join lower parts of brainstem & spinal cord w/ higher part of the brain

Cerebral aqueduct

A

Midbrain

236
Q

Rounded bulge on underside of brainstem
* Between midbrain & medulla oblongata

Relays nerve impulses between medulla oblongata & cerebrum

Relays impulses from cerebrum to cerebellum

Helps regulate rhythm of breathing

A

Pons

237
Q

Enlarged continuation of spinal cord

Conducts ascending & descending impulses between brain & spinal cord

Contains cardiac, vasomotor, & respiratory control centers

Contains various nonvital reflex control centers (Coughing, sneezing, swallowing, & vomiting)

Injuries are fatal

A

Medulla Oblongata

238
Q

Inferior to occpitial lobes ; Dorsal to pons & medulla oblongata ; posterior to brain

Cerebellar cortex (Gray matter)
Arbor Vitae (White mater)

Integrates sensory information concerning position of body parts

Coordinates skeletal muscle activity, maintains posture

A

Cerebellum

239
Q

Consists of nerves that connect CNS to other body parts

Includes:
* Cranial Nerves: Arising from the brain
* Spinal Nerves:Arising from the spinal cord

Divided into 2 parts:
* Somatic Nervous System: Cranial & spinal nerves that connect CNS to the skill & skeletal muscles (Consciois activites)
* Autonomic Nervous System: Cranial & spinal nerves that connect CNS to viscera (Subconscious activities)

A

Peripheral Nervous System

240
Q

Whats the difference between Anterior (ventral) Root & Posterior (dorsal) root

A

Anterior (ventral) Root: Motor root
* Cell bodies found in gray matter of spinal cord

Posterior (dorsal) root: Sensory root
* Posterior root ganglion: Contains cell bodies of sensory neurons

241
Q

Complex network formed by anterior rami (branches) of spinal nerves

Not in T2-T12, instead anterior rami become intercostal nerves

Fibers of various spinal nerves are sorted & recombined, so all fibers heading to same peripheral body part reach in the same nerve

3 Nerve Plexuses: Cervival, brachial, lumbosacral

A

Nerve Plexus

242
Q

Formed by anterior rami (branches) of C1-C4 spinal nerves

Lies deep in the neck

Supply muscles & skin of the neck

C3-C5 nerve roots contribute to phrenic nerves, which transmt motor impulses to the diaphragm

A

Cervical Plexus

243
Q

Formed by anterior branches C5-T1

Lies deep w/in shoulders

5 branches:
* Musculocutaneous Nerve: Supply muscles of anterior arms & skin of forearms
* Ulnar & Median Nerve: Supply muscles of forearms & hands, skin of hands
* Radial Nerve: Supply posterior muscles of arm & skin of forearms & hands
* Axillary Nerve: Supply muscles & skin of anterior, lateral, & posterior arms

A

Brachial Plexus

244
Q

Formed by the anterior branches of L1-S4 roots

Lumbar portions are in lumbar regions of the abdomen, & the sacral portions are in pelvic cavity

Obturator Nerve: Supply motor impulses to adductors of thighs

Femoral Nerve: Supply motor impulses to muscls of anterior thigh & sensory impulses from skin of thighs & legs

Sciatic Nerve: Supply muscles & skin of thighs, legs & feet; largest/longest nerve in body

A

Lumbosacral Plexus

245
Q

Part of PNS

Functions w/o conscious effort

Controls visceral activities

Regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, & glands

Helps maintain homeostasis & helps body respond to stress

Prepares body for exercise, intense physical activity

A

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

246
Q

What are 2 divisions of Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)?

A

Sympathetic Division:
* Prepares body for “fight or flight” situations ; speeds body up
* Most active under energy-requiring, stressful, emergency situations

Parasympathetic Division:
* Prepares body for “resting & digesting” activities ; slows body down
* Most active under resting, nonstressful conditions

247
Q

Autonomic motor pathway contains what 2 neurons?

A

Preganglionic Fibers:
* Axons of preganglionic neurons
* Neuron cell bodies are in CNS

Postganglionic Fibers:
* Axons of postganglionic neurons
* Neuron cell bodies in ganglia
* Extend to visceral effector
* Ectends sympathetic ganglia to visceral effector organs

248
Q

Thoracolumbar division (T1-L2)

Preganglionic fibers originate in spinal cord, leave via ventral roots & enter sympathetic chain (paracertebral) ganglia
* Send distance from viscera (regulate)

Sympathetic chain ganglia + fibers that connect them make up sympathetic trunk

Ex: Collateral ganglia in abdomen lie close to some large blood vessels

A

Sympathetic Division

249
Q

What are 2 types of autoniomic neurotransmitters?

A

Cholinergic Neurons:
* Releases acetylcholine
* Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

Adrenergic neurons:
* Release Norepinephrine (noradrenaline)
* Most postganslionic sympathetic fibers

250
Q

What are the 5 sensoy receptors in the body?

A

Chemoeceptors: Respond to changes in chemical concentations
* Smell, taste, O2 concentration

Pain Receptors: Responds to tissue damage
* Mechanical, electrical, thermal energy

Thermoreceptors: Respond to modeate changes in temp

Mechanoreceptors: Respond to mechanical foces that distort receptor
* Touch, tension, BP, stretch

Photoreceptors: Respond to light
* Eyes

251
Q

Cornea + Sclera

Cornea:
* Anterior sixth.
* Transparent.
* Helps focus light rays.
* Transmits and refracts light

Sclera:
* Posterior five sixths.
* White, opaque.
* Protects eye, attaches muscles.
* Pierced by optic nerve and blood vessels

A

Outer (fibrous) tunic

252
Q

Controls amount of light entering the eye controlling the size of the pupil (hole in the iris).
* located in front of lens.

Consists of connective tissue and smooth muscle (colored portion of eye).

Anterior to ciliary body.

Pigmented.

A

Iris

253
Q

Consists of retina
* Retina contains visual receptors (photoreceptors)

Continuous with optic nerve in back of eye & ends just behind margin of the ciliary body toward front of eye

Composed of several layers.
* Macula lutea: yellowish spot in retina.
* Fovea centralis: center of macula lutea; produces sharpest vision.
* Optic disc: blind spot; contains no photoreceptors; found where nerve fibers from retina leave eye to become optic nerve.
* Vitreous humor: thick gel that holds retina flat against choroid coat, and helps maintain the eye’s shape.

A

Inner (Nervous) Tunic

254
Q

What ae the 3 layes of the eye?

A

Outer layer:
* Posteior porition: Sclera
* Function: Protecion
* Anterior portion: Cornea
* Function: Light transmission & refaction

Middle layer:
* Posteior porition: Choroid coat
* Function: Blood supply, pigment prevents reflection
* Anterior portion: Ciliary body, iris
* Function: Accomidation, contols light intensity

Inner layer:
* Posteior porition: Retina
* Function: Photoreception, impulse conduction

255
Q

Long, thin projections.
​
Contain light sensitive pigment, called rhodopsin

Hundreds of times more sensitive to light than cones.

Provide vision in dim light

Produce vision without color in shades of gray

Produce outlines of objects

Named for shape of receptive ends: Cylindrical

A

Rods

256
Q

Short, blunt projections

Contain light sensitive pigments, called erythrolabe, chlorolabe, and cyanolabe

Provide vision in bright light

Produce sharp images

Produce color vision

Fovea centralis contains only cones

Named for shape of receptive ends: conical

Erythrolabe: responds to red light.
Chlorolabe: responds to green light.
Cyanolabe: responds to blue light.

A

Cones

257
Q

Abundant in hairless portions of skin & lips

Detect fine touch & texture

Distinguish between 2 points

Type of mechanoreceptor associated w/ touch & pressure senses

A

Tactile (Meissner’s) Corpuscles

258
Q

What are the 5 primary taste sensations?

A

Sweet: stimulated by carbohydrates.
Sour: stimulated by acids (H+)
Salty: stimulated by salts (Na+ or K+)
Bitter: stimulated by many organic compounds, M g and C a salts.
Umami: stimulated by some amino acids, MSG.

259
Q

What are the 3 parts of the outer ear?

A

Auricle (Pinna):
* Funnel-shaped
* Collects sounds waves

External acoustic meatus:
* S-shaped tube.
* Lined with ceruminous glands.
* Carries sound to tympanic membrane.
* Terminates at tympanic membrane

Tympanic membrane (Eardrum):
* Vibrates in response to sound waves

260
Q

What are the 5 parts of the middle ear?

A

Tympanic cavity:
* Air-filled space in temporal bone

Auditory ossicles:
* 3 tiny bones.
* Vibrate in response to tympanic membrane vibrations; amplify force.
* Malleus, incus and stapes.
* Hammer, anvil and stirrup

Oval window:
* Opening in wall of tympanic cavity.
* Stapes vibrates against it to move fluids in inner ear.

Tympanic Reflex:
* Muscle contractions that occur during loud sounds, to lessen the transfer of sound vibrations to inner ear, and prevent damage to hearing receptors.
* Muscles involved are tensor tympani and stapedius

Auditory (eustachian) tube:
* Connects middle ear to throat.
* Helps maintain equal pressure on both sides of tympanic membrane.
* Usually closed by valve-like flaps in throat.

Anatomy (5 decks)

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