FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Depression of bone marrow function

A

Myleosuppression

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2
Q

If bone marrow producing sites are irradiated, what conditions can this cause?

A

Anemia (decreased RBCs, hemoglobin, or volume of packed RBCs)
Leukopenia (decreased WBCs)
Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count)

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3
Q

Common adverse effects associated with chemotherapy

A

N/V common w in first 24 hrs
Stomatitis and mouth soreness
Myleosuppression
Fatigue

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4
Q

Results from inhibition of the manufacture of RBCs, WBCs and platelets

A

Myleosuppression

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5
Q

The immune system is a collection of specialized ___ and __ that maintain ___

A

WBC & lymphoid tissue
Immunocompetence

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6
Q

The ability to cooperatively protect a person from external invaders and the body’s own altered cells.

A

Immunocompetence

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7
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs for autoimmune disorders
(Cytotoxic drugs)

A

Mercaptopurine azathioprine (Imuran)
-inhibit inflammatory immune of T and B cells (lymphocytes)
*safety warning: increases susceptibility to infections

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8
Q

Promotes release of vasoactive chemicals such as histamine and bardykinin in allergic, hypersensitivity and inflammatory reactions. * see this w a latex allergy

A

IgE

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9
Q

Manifestations of an anaphylactic reaction

A

Shock
Laryngeal edema
Wheezing
Stridor
Tachycardia
Generalized itching
Hypotension
Bronchospasm
Angioneurotic edema

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10
Q

Inhaled allergens often trigger

A

Asthma

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11
Q

A complex of symptoms primarily characterized y profound fatigue with no identifiable cause. The fatigue worsens with physical activity and *does not improved with rest

A

CFS

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12
Q

Staining the surface with fluorescein dye identified a minute foreign body or abrasions to the cornea

A

Eye trauma diagnostic

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13
Q

Normal IOP

A

10-21

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14
Q

Glaucoma =

A

Increased IOP with progressive loss of peripheral vision
No atropine, allergy, cold meds

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15
Q

In cataracts, after surgery vision is restored with one of 3 methods

A

IOL implant (most common)
Corrective eyeglasses
Contact lens

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16
Q

__ or __ lens is implanted and reduces the need for corrective glasses
In cataracts

A

Monofocal (single vision)
Multifocal

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17
Q

Cochlear implant may be beneficial

A

Profoundly deaf
Severe hearing loss
Hearing aid ineffective

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18
Q

Result of a bony overgrowth of the stapes and a common cause of hearing impairment among adults. Fixation of the stapes occurs gradually over many years

A

Otosclerosis

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19
Q

OTC antihistamines for motion sickness symptoms (N/V)

A

Dimenhydrinate (Dramanine)
Meclizine hydrochloride (Antivert)

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20
Q

A disorder characterized by fluctuations in the volume and pressure in the endolymphatic sac of the inner ear

A

Meniere disease

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21
Q

Triad of symptoms in meniere

A

Hearing loss
Vertigo
Tinnitus

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22
Q

Jaundice caused by excessive destruction of RBCs

A

Hemolytic jaundice

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23
Q

Jaundice caused by liver disease (damaged liver cells cannot clear normal amounts of bilirubin from the body)

A

Heptatocellular

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24
Q

Jaundice caused by a block in the passage of bile between the liver and intestinal tract

A

Obstructive

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25
Acute hemorrhage from esophageal varices resuscitative measure
IV fluids and blood products IV octreotide (Sandostatin) started asap
26
Action of octreotide
Reduces pressure in the portal venous system
27
For a colectomy, a prepo “stress dose” of IV steroid ___ is given to clients who have been on prednisone within the previous 6 months to prevent adrenal crisis
Hydrocortisone
28
S&S of a adrenal crisis
Weakness Lethargy Hypotension N/V
29
Ileoanal Reservoir post op risks
R/o fluid volume deficit R/o bowel incontinence R/o impaired perianal skin integrity
30
When to empty ostomy pouch
1/3 full
31
Colostomy irrigation begins on the __ or __ postop day
4th or 5th
32
Standard irrigation amount for a colostomy
500-1500mL tepid water
33
Irrigate colostomy same __, every__, after__
Time Day Meals
34
Diagnostic findings for acromegaly
Glucose tolerance test GH measurement (Bolus of glucose should lower GH, but remains elevated with acromegaly)
35
Treatment of choice for acromegaly
Hypophysectomy Surgical removal of pituitary gland, which lies within the sella turcica, a saddle shaped depression in the sphenoid bone.
36
A GH receptor antagonist, is the newest and most effective drug for treating acromegaly. Injected subcut once a day
Pegvisomant
37
Antithyroid drugs given to block the production of thyroid hormone preop or for long term treatment if not candidate for surgery or radiation
Propylthiouracil (PTU,PropylThyracil) Methaimazole (Tapazole)
38
Require daily corticosteroids replacement therapy for the rest of their lives w this condition
Adrenal inssufficiency (Addison Disease)
39
Diagnostic for Addison disease (adrenal insufficiency)
Synthetic ACTH cosyntropin (cortrosyn) Administered IM as a screening test for adrenal function
40
HbA1c for diabetic
Less than 7%
41
__ & ___ cannot be mixed with other types of insulin in the same syringe
Glargine (Lantus) Detemir (Levemir) They are peakless
42
Only biguanide approved for use together with TZDs, which include..
Biguanide: Metformin (Glucophage) TZDs: rosiglitazone (Avandia) pioglitazone (Actos)
43
“Insulin sensitizers” they help tissues use available insulin more efficiently
TZDs Rosiglitazone (Avandia) Pioglitazone (Actos)
44
Pathologic changes in the nerves
Neuropathy
45
Results from poor glucose control and decreased blood circulation to nerve tissues. Manifestations more common in clients w DM who smoke & who’s blood glucose level is poorly controlled
Peripheral neuropathy
46
Peripheral neuropathy =
Blood vessels compromised
47
HPV is the cause of 70% __ and 90% __
Cervical cancer Cervical warts
48
Consequence of breast cancer surgery
Lymphedema
49
Lymphedema, a consequence of removing the axillary lymph nodes is evidenced by temporary or permanent ___
Enlargement of the arm and hand of the side of the amputated breast
50
__ is the basis for various drugs & therapeutic cancer vaccines. Rather than prevent breast cancer, it __
Immunotherapy Stimulates the immune systems ability to attack and rid the body of cancer cells
51
A breast cancer preventative study determined that __ reduced the occurrence of estrogen receptive positive tumors, but did not affect the occurrence of estrogen receptor negative tumors
Tamoxifen
52
Orchitis = __ = __
Mumps Sterility
53
No infectious epididymitis may result from
Long term indwelling catheter use
54
Nursing management for BPH
Teach how to maintain optimal bladder emptying Explain they will have continuous irrigation for at least 24 hrs after surgery
55
STIs that require national reporting
Chlamydia Gonorrhea Hep B HIV Syphilis Chancroid Zika
56
STI not required for reporting but is the most common STI
HPV
57
Of the reportable STIs, these are easily cured with early and adequate treatment
Chlamydia Gonorrhea Syphilis
58
STI that can be transmitted from the blood of a person who is infected directly from the lesion, or across the placenta to an unborn infant
Syphilis
59
STI that can be transmitted from the blood of a person who is infected directly from the lesion, or across the placenta to an unborn infant
Syphilis
60
In the primary (early stage), a chancre (painless ulcer) appears in the genitals, anus, cervix or other parts of the body
Syphilis
61
Secondary stage of syphilis includes
Fever, malaise, lymph node enlargement, rash on trunk, back, arms, palms, or soles of feet that do not itch, patchy hair loss, headache, sore throat
62
Secondary stage of syphilis includes
Fever, malaise, lymph node enlargement, rash on trunk, back, arms, palms, or soles of feet that do not itch, patchy hair loss, headache, sore throat
63
Symptoms of the tertiary stage of syphilis
*noninfectious (microorganism invades CNS & other organs Tabes dorsalis (degenerative condition of CNS that results in stabbing back pain & leg pain) Unsteady gait, urinary incontinence, blindness & other neurologic symptoms like dementia Charcot (neuropathic joint disease) Heart involvement as well as
64
Transmission can occur from mother to infant during vaginal birth and carries a high rate of neonatal mortality
HSV
65
Why does HSV reoccur
Bc the virus remains dormant in the ganglia of the nerves that supply the area until reactivation
66
Antiviral drugs for HSV
Acyclovir (Zovirax) Valacyclovir (Valtrex) Famciclovir (Famvir)
67
A __ is indicated if a stone has permanently and severely damaged a kidney beyond adequate function. The other kidney must be fully functional
Nephrectomy
68
A catheter inserted through the skin into the renal pelvis to drain fluid from the affected kidney after procedure
Nephrostomy tube or pyelostomy tube
69
Used to manage any obstruction to urine flow above the bladder. Kept in place with a suture through the skin
Nephrostomy tube
70
If a blood clot or kinking or compression of the tubing impairs urinary drainage for even a short time ___ and damage to surgically repair tissue can result
Hydronephrosis
71
Hydronephrosis =
Monitor I&O
72
It may take __ to __ or longer for recovery of AKI
3 to 12 months
73
Erythropoietin production is inadequate, causing anemia. Susceptibility to infection increases as a result of a deficient immune system
Chronic kidney disease
74
After dialysis completed, no injections for
2-4 hrs Nothing in/on this arm
75
A client with acute urinary retention usually __
Cannot void at all
76
A client with CUR (complete urethral obstruction) may __
Be able to void but not completely empty bladder (retention with overflow) and has a large residual volume Residual amount may vary for 30mL to several 100 or more
77
__ is a noninvasive bladder scan used to measure post voiding volume of urine in the bladder
Bedside ultrasound bladder scanning
78
For urinary retention __ or __ can determine post op residual volume
Catheterization Ultrasound
79
Acute urinary retention requires __
Immediate catheterization
80
Applying general downward pressure to the bladder during voiding
Crede maneuver
81
Beating down with defecation, contraindicated in pt with cardiac problems or who may be adversely affected by a vagal response (HR slows down)
Valsalva maneuver
82
With acute urinary retention, measure volume in bladder with ___ to help determine if catheter is needed. Collaboration with provider if it is left in place or removed. Pt is cathed every ___ depending on the amount of fluid obtained and the fluid intake.
Bedside scanner 4-8 hrs
83
The bladder should not be allowed to get distended beyond __, because bladder over distention results in ___
350mL Loss of bladder tone Decreased blood flow to the bladder
84
CIC continues until the postop residual volume of urine is
Less than 30mL
85
Goals when caring for a client with urinary incontinence
Maintain continence as much as possible Preventing skin breakdown Reducing anxiety Initiating a bladder training program
86
Teaching to prevent cystitis
Increase fluid to 2-3L/day Avoid coffee, tea,cola, alcohol Shower rather than bathe
87
Interstitial cystitis/painful bladder syndrome biopsy findings that confirm diagnosis
Biopsy of bladder mucosa reveals an inflammatory process with scarring and hemorrhagic areas
88
Stones may form in the __ or originate in the __ and travel to and remain in the ___
Bladder Upper urinary tract Bladder
89
Large bladder stones develop in those with
Chronic urinary retention Urinary stasis
90
__ enlargement can lead to bladder stones because it can impede urine flow through the urethra, resulting in urinary stasis
Prostate gland
91
Clients who are __ also may have a tendency to form bladder stones
Immobile (unconscious, para or quadriplegic)
92
Stones =
Strain urine
93
Before scabies treatment begins the client needs to
Bathe thoroughly
94
Treatment of tinea pedis
Topical antifungal benzoic and salicylic acid ointment Oral griseofulvin (Grisactin)-systemic antifungal & may be required for several weeks
95
Most common form of cancer in the United States. __ ranks as the 6th cause of cancer in the US
Skin cancer Melanoma
96
Nits hatch in __ and have a life span of __ which one female can lay __ nits
7-10 days 30 days 100-400
97
Live are transmitted through __ and cannot survive longer than __ w out blood
Direct contact 24 hours