Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Med Surg 2 > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Depression of bone marrow function

A

Myleosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If bone marrow producing sites are irradiated, what conditions can this cause?

A

Anemia (decreased RBCs, hemoglobin, or volume of packed RBCs)
Leukopenia (decreased WBCs)
Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Common adverse effects associated with chemotherapy

A

N/V common w in first 24 hrs
Stomatitis and mouth soreness
Myleosuppression
Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Results from inhibition of the manufacture of RBCs, WBCs and platelets

A

Myleosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The immune system is a collection of specialized ___ and __ that maintain ___

A

WBC & lymphoid tissue
Immunocompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The ability to cooperatively protect a person from external invaders and the body’s own altered cells.

A

Immunocompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs for autoimmune disorders
(Cytotoxic drugs)

A

Mercaptopurine azathioprine (Imuran)
-inhibit inflammatory immune of T and B cells (lymphocytes)
*safety warning: increases susceptibility to infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Promotes release of vasoactive chemicals such as histamine and bardykinin in allergic, hypersensitivity and inflammatory reactions. * see this w a latex allergy

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Manifestations of an anaphylactic reaction

A

Shock
Laryngeal edema
Wheezing
Stridor
Tachycardia
Generalized itching
Hypotension
Bronchospasm
Angioneurotic edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inhaled allergens often trigger

A

Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A complex of symptoms primarily characterized y profound fatigue with no identifiable cause. The fatigue worsens with physical activity and *does not improved with rest

A

CFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Staining the surface with fluorescein dye identified a minute foreign body or abrasions to the cornea

A

Eye trauma diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal IOP

A

10-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Glaucoma =

A

Increased IOP with progressive loss of peripheral vision
No atropine, allergy, cold meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In cataracts, after surgery vision is restored with one of 3 methods

A

IOL implant (most common)
Corrective eyeglasses
Contact lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

__ or __ lens is implanted and reduces the need for corrective glasses
In cataracts

A

Monofocal (single vision)
Multifocal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cochlear implant may be beneficial

A

Profoundly deaf
Severe hearing loss
Hearing aid ineffective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Result of a bony overgrowth of the stapes and a common cause of hearing impairment among adults. Fixation of the stapes occurs gradually over many years

A

Otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

OTC antihistamines for motion sickness symptoms (N/V)

A

Dimenhydrinate (Dramanine)
Meclizine hydrochloride (Antivert)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A disorder characterized by fluctuations in the volume and pressure in the endolymphatic sac of the inner ear

A

Meniere disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Triad of symptoms in meniere

A

Hearing loss
Vertigo
Tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Jaundice caused by excessive destruction of RBCs

A

Hemolytic jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Jaundice caused by liver disease (damaged liver cells cannot clear normal amounts of bilirubin from the body)

A

Heptatocellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Jaundice caused by a block in the passage of bile between the liver and intestinal tract

A

Obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acute hemorrhage from esophageal varices resuscitative measure

A

IV fluids and blood products
IV octreotide (Sandostatin) started asap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Action of octreotide

A

Reduces pressure in the portal venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For a colectomy, a prepo “stress dose” of IV steroid ___ is given to clients who have been on prednisone within the previous 6 months to prevent adrenal crisis

A

Hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

S&S of a adrenal crisis

A

Weakness
Lethargy
Hypotension
N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ileoanal Reservoir post op risks

A

R/o fluid volume deficit
R/o bowel incontinence
R/o impaired perianal skin integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When to empty ostomy pouch

A

1/3 full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Colostomy irrigation begins on the __ or __ postop day

A

4th or 5th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Standard irrigation amount for a colostomy

A

500-1500mL tepid water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Irrigate colostomy same __, every__, after__

A

Time
Day
Meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diagnostic findings for acromegaly

A

Glucose tolerance test
GH measurement
(Bolus of glucose should lower GH, but remains elevated with acromegaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Treatment of choice for acromegaly

A

Hypophysectomy
Surgical removal of pituitary gland, which lies within the sella turcica, a saddle shaped depression in the sphenoid bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A GH receptor antagonist, is the newest and most effective drug for treating acromegaly. Injected subcut once a day

A

Pegvisomant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Antithyroid drugs given to block the production of thyroid hormone preop or for long term treatment if not candidate for surgery or radiation

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU,PropylThyracil)
Methaimazole (Tapazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Require daily corticosteroids replacement therapy for the rest of their lives w this condition

A

Adrenal inssufficiency (Addison Disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Diagnostic for Addison disease (adrenal insufficiency)

A

Synthetic ACTH cosyntropin (cortrosyn)
Administered IM as a screening test for adrenal function

40
Q

HbA1c for diabetic

A

Less than 7%

41
Q

__ & ___ cannot be mixed with other types of insulin in the same syringe

A

Glargine (Lantus)
Detemir (Levemir)
They are peakless

42
Q

Only biguanide approved for use together with TZDs, which include..

A

Biguanide: Metformin (Glucophage)
TZDs: rosiglitazone (Avandia) pioglitazone (Actos)

43
Q

“Insulin sensitizers” they help tissues use available insulin more efficiently

A

TZDs
Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
Pioglitazone (Actos)

44
Q

Pathologic changes in the nerves

A

Neuropathy

45
Q

Results from poor glucose control and decreased blood circulation to nerve tissues. Manifestations more common in clients w DM who smoke & who’s blood glucose level is poorly controlled

A

Peripheral neuropathy

46
Q

Peripheral neuropathy =

A

Blood vessels compromised

47
Q

HPV is the cause of 70% __ and 90% __

A

Cervical cancer
Cervical warts

48
Q

Consequence of breast cancer surgery

A

Lymphedema

49
Q

Lymphedema, a consequence of removing the axillary lymph nodes is evidenced by temporary or permanent ___

A

Enlargement of the arm and hand of the side of the amputated breast

50
Q

__ is the basis for various drugs & therapeutic cancer vaccines. Rather than prevent breast cancer, it __

A

Immunotherapy
Stimulates the immune systems ability to attack and rid the body of cancer cells

51
Q

A breast cancer preventative study determined that __ reduced the occurrence of estrogen receptive positive tumors, but did not affect the occurrence of estrogen receptor negative tumors

52
Q

Orchitis = __ = __

A

Mumps
Sterility

53
Q

No infectious epididymitis may result from

A

Long term indwelling catheter use

54
Q

Nursing management for BPH

A

Teach how to maintain optimal bladder emptying
Explain they will have continuous irrigation for at least 24 hrs after surgery

55
Q

STIs that require national reporting

A

Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Hep B
HIV
Syphilis
Chancroid
Zika

56
Q

STI not required for reporting but is the most common STI

57
Q

Of the reportable STIs, these are easily cured with early and adequate treatment

A

Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Syphilis

58
Q

STI that can be transmitted from the blood of a person who is infected directly from the lesion, or across the placenta to an unborn infant

59
Q

STI that can be transmitted from the blood of a person who is infected directly from the lesion, or across the placenta to an unborn infant

60
Q

In the primary (early stage), a chancre (painless ulcer) appears in the genitals, anus, cervix or other parts of the body

61
Q

Secondary stage of syphilis includes

A

Fever, malaise, lymph node enlargement, rash on trunk, back, arms, palms, or soles of feet that do not itch, patchy hair loss, headache, sore throat

62
Q

Secondary stage of syphilis includes

A

Fever, malaise, lymph node enlargement, rash on trunk, back, arms, palms, or soles of feet that do not itch, patchy hair loss, headache, sore throat

63
Q

Symptoms of the tertiary stage of syphilis

A

*noninfectious (microorganism invades CNS & other organs
Tabes dorsalis (degenerative condition of CNS that results in stabbing back pain & leg pain)
Unsteady gait, urinary incontinence, blindness & other neurologic symptoms like dementia
Charcot (neuropathic joint disease)
Heart involvement as well as

64
Q

Transmission can occur from mother to infant during vaginal birth and carries a high rate of neonatal mortality

65
Q

Why does HSV reoccur

A

Bc the virus remains dormant in the ganglia of the nerves that supply the area until reactivation

66
Q

Antiviral drugs for HSV

A

Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
Famciclovir (Famvir)

67
Q

A __ is indicated if a stone has permanently and severely damaged a kidney beyond adequate function. The other kidney must be fully functional

A

Nephrectomy

68
Q

A catheter inserted through the skin into the renal pelvis to drain fluid from the affected kidney after procedure

A

Nephrostomy tube or pyelostomy tube

69
Q

Used to manage any obstruction to urine flow above the bladder. Kept in place with a suture through the skin

A

Nephrostomy tube

70
Q

If a blood clot or kinking or compression of the tubing impairs urinary drainage for even a short time ___ and damage to surgically repair tissue can result

A

Hydronephrosis

71
Q

Hydronephrosis =

A

Monitor I&O

72
Q

It may take __ to __ or longer for recovery of AKI

A

3 to 12 months

73
Q

Erythropoietin production is inadequate, causing anemia. Susceptibility to infection increases as a result of a deficient immune system

A

Chronic kidney disease

74
Q

After dialysis completed, no injections for

A

2-4 hrs
Nothing in/on this arm

75
Q

A client with acute urinary retention usually __

A

Cannot void at all

76
Q

A client with CUR (complete urethral obstruction) may __

A

Be able to void but not completely empty bladder (retention with overflow) and has a large residual volume
Residual amount may vary for 30mL to several 100 or more

77
Q

__ is a noninvasive bladder scan used to measure post voiding volume of urine in the bladder

A

Bedside ultrasound bladder scanning

78
Q

For urinary retention __ or __ can determine post op residual volume

A

Catheterization
Ultrasound

79
Q

Acute urinary retention requires __

A

Immediate catheterization

80
Q

Applying general downward pressure to the bladder during voiding

A

Crede maneuver

81
Q

Beating down with defecation, contraindicated in pt with cardiac problems or who may be adversely affected by a vagal response (HR slows down)

A

Valsalva maneuver

82
Q

With acute urinary retention, measure volume in bladder with ___ to help determine if catheter is needed. Collaboration with provider if it is left in place or removed. Pt is cathed every ___ depending on the amount of fluid obtained and the fluid intake.

A

Bedside scanner
4-8 hrs

83
Q

The bladder should not be allowed to get distended beyond __, because bladder over distention results in ___

A

350mL
Loss of bladder tone
Decreased blood flow to the bladder

84
Q

CIC continues until the postop residual volume of urine is

A

Less than 30mL

85
Q

Goals when caring for a client with urinary incontinence

A

Maintain continence as much as possible
Preventing skin breakdown
Reducing anxiety
Initiating a bladder training program

86
Q

Teaching to prevent cystitis

A

Increase fluid to 2-3L/day
Avoid coffee, tea,cola, alcohol
Shower rather than bathe

87
Q

Interstitial cystitis/painful bladder syndrome biopsy findings that confirm diagnosis

A

Biopsy of bladder mucosa reveals an inflammatory process with scarring and hemorrhagic areas

88
Q

Stones may form in the __ or originate in the __ and travel to and remain in the ___

A

Bladder
Upper urinary tract
Bladder

89
Q

Large bladder stones develop in those with

A

Chronic urinary retention
Urinary stasis

90
Q

__ enlargement can lead to bladder stones because it can impede urine flow through the urethra, resulting in urinary stasis

A

Prostate gland

91
Q

Clients who are __ also may have a tendency to form bladder stones

A

Immobile (unconscious, para or quadriplegic)

92
Q

Stones =

A

Strain urine

93
Q

Before scabies treatment begins the client needs to

A

Bathe thoroughly

94
Q

Treatment of tinea pedis

A

Topical antifungal benzoic and salicylic acid ointment
Oral griseofulvin (Grisactin)-systemic antifungal & may be required for several weeks

95
Q

Most common form of cancer in the United States. __ ranks as the 6th cause of cancer in the US

A

Skin cancer
Melanoma

96
Q

Nits hatch in __ and have a life span of __ which one female can lay __ nits

A

7-10 days
30 days
100-400

97
Q

Live are transmitted through __ and cannot survive longer than __ w out blood

A

Direct contact
24 hours

Med Surg 2 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions