FINAL Flashcards by Jeff Carriedo

The structural domain of the VWF monomer that binds platelet receptor GPIIb/IIIa.
a. Domain D
b. Domain C
c. Domain B
d. Domaine A

B - Domain C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The four glycoproteins that are required to form the GP Ib/IX/V complex include:
a. GP Ibα, GP V, GPIIIa, GP X
b. GP Ibα, GP Ibβ, GP Ib, GP IX
c. GP Ibα, GP Ibβ, GP IX, GP V
d. GP Ibα, GP Ibβ, GP X, GP V

C - GP Ibα, GP Ibβ, GP IX, GP V

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In reactive thrombocytosis, platelet production remains responsive to normal regulatory stimuli
such as thrombopoietin. This is contrasted with essential thrombocythemia by:
a. Unregulated platelet production
b. Platelets of variable size
c. Increased rate of platelet production
d. NOTA
e. AOTA

E - AOT

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the definition of antithrombin (AT) deficiency in terms of AT activity levels or antigen
concentration?
a. AT activity levels less than 50% of normal
b. AT activity levels less than 70% of normal or antigen concentration less than 22 mg/dL
c. AT antigen concentration less than 10 mg/dL
d. AT antigen concentration less than 20 mg/dL

B - AT activity levels less than 70% of normal or antigen concentration less than 22 mg/dL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which factors does the PT effectively monitor during Coumadin therapy?
a. Factors II, V, and VIII
b. Factors II, VII, and X
c. Factors III, VI, and IX
d. Factors VII, IX, and XII

B - Factors II, VII, and X

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the specimen size typically used by point-of-care coagulometers to generate PT/INR
results?
a. 1 to 5 uL of whole blood
b. 10 to 50 uL of whole blood
c. 100 to 200 mL of whole blood
d. 500 to 1000 mL of whole blood

B - 10 to 50 uL of whole blood

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which principle do coagulation instruments apply for clot detection?
a. Observing the clot formation
b. Detecting the clot by feel
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

C - Both A and B

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which factors can affect neonatal hematologic values?
a. Gestational age, birth weight, age in hours after delivery
b. Presence of illness, level of support required, site of sampling
c. Technique of sampling, timing of sampling, conditions during labor
d. All of the above

D - All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A subtype of von Willebrand disease describes a qualitative VWF variant that possesses poor
platelet receptor binding despite generating a normal multimeric distribution pattern in
electrophoresis.
a. Subtype 2A von Willebrand disease
b. Subtype 2N von Willebrand disease
c. Subtype 2B von Willebrand disease
d. Subtype 2M von Willebrand disease

D - Subtype 2M von Willebrand disease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All are Acquired Vascular Disorders, except:
a. Purpura Simplex
b. Vitamin C Deficiency
c. Senile Purpura
d. NOTA

A - Purpura Simplex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

It is a unique and devastated thrombotic disorder that manifests as large irregular areas of
blue-black cutaneous bleeding, occuring mostly in neonates and children.
a. Atypical Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
b. Neonatal Immune Thrombocytopenia
c. Purpura Fulminans
d. Hemolysis Disease of the Newborn

C - Purpura Fulminans

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

It is a serine protease inhibitor (SERPIN) that neutralizes factors IIa, IXa, Xa, and XIIa, all the
coagulation system serine proteases except factor VIIa. Its activity is also enhanced through binding
to exogenous heparan sulfate.
a. Prothrombin
b. Antithrombin
c. Antiphophatidylserine
d. Activated Protein C Resistance

B - Antithrombin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following antithrombotic drugs does not prevent acute coronary syndrome
recurrence?
a. Tirofiban
b. Clopidogrel
c. Ticagrelor
d. Aspirin

A - Tirofiban

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

. Daboia russelii viper catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. While Bothrops atrox viper
triggers coagulation ar the level of factor X.
a. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
b. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are true

C - Both statements are false

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is not a type of sample quality flags?
a. Bilirubinemia
b. Abnormal clot formations
c. No-endpoint detected
d. NOTA

D - NOTA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

It represents a heterohenous group of clonal bone marrow disorders that may affect multiple cell
lineages, and is the most common hematologic malignant in elderly adults.
a. Myeloproliferative neoplasm
b. Acute Myeloid Leukemia
c. Myelodysplastic syndrome
d. B-lymphoblastic Leukemia

: C - Myelodysplastic Syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

It is defined as any single or multiple coagulation factor or platelet deficiency, and is triggered by
the combination of injury-related acute inflammation, hypothermia, acidosis, and hypoperfusion.
a. Hemorrhage
b. Coagulopathy
c. Trauma
d. Thrombocytopenia

B. Coagulopathy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An autosomal dominant bleeding disorder that results from a deficiency of multimerin (a
multimeric protein that is stored complexed with factor V in a-granules).
a. Quebec Platelet Disorder
b. Gray Platelet Disorder
c. Scott Syndrome
d. Thrombocytopenia with absent radii syndrome

A. Quebec Platelet Disorder

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The drugs stimulate the formation of an autoantibody that binds to a specific platelet membrane
glycoprotein with no requirement for the presence of free drug.
a. Drug-dependent antibodies
b. Hapten-induced antibodies
c. Drug-induced autoantibodies
d. Immune complex-induced thrombocytopenia

C. Drug-induced antibodies

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For low or intermediate pre-test probability scores, the plasma ___________ assay is chosen
over imaging for its robust sensitivity and negative predictive index.
a. D-dimer
b. Homocysteine
c. C-Reactive Protein
d. Lipoprotein (a)

A. D-dimer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

. It was first used as an anticoagulant in 1952. It protects against venous thromboembolic disease
(VTE), but it has a narrow therapeutic range, and an overdose causes hemorrhage.
a. Coumadin
b. Aspirin
c. Dabigatran
d. Warfarin

D. Warfarin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are platelet function test except;
a. Bleeding Time
b. Platelet Aggregometry
c. Lee-White Coagulation Test
d. Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia Assays

C. Lee-White Coagulation Test

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This test system measures the increase in light transmission that occurs in direct proportion to
platelet aggregation induced by various agonists such as collagen, adenosine diphosphate [ADP],
epinephrine.
a. Platelet Function Analyzers
b. Platelet Aggregometers
c. Flow Cytometry
d. Spectrophotometer

B. Platelet Aggregometers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Often occurs with chronic inflammatory disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitis, liver
disease, chronic infections, and malignant diseases. A hypoproliferative anemia that is. most common
form of anemia in the hospitalized geriatric population.
a. Iron Deficiency Anemia
b. Unexplained Anemia of Elderly
c. Ineffective Erythropoiesis
d. Anemia of Chronic Inflammation

D. Anemia of Chronic Inflammation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A Nomenclature of the Factor VIII/von Willebrand Factor Complex that employs recombinant gain-of-function GPIb that binds the VWF A1 domain without the need for ristocetin. a. VWF:GPIbM b. VWF:CB c. VWF:GPIbR d. VWF:Immunoactivity

A.VWF:GPIbM

A third-generation thienopyridine derivative with the same mechanism of action as clopidogrel and it is also a prodrug, but its metabolism to the active form does not require CYP2C19. a. Ticagrelor b. Prasugrel c. Cangrelor d. Dipyridamole

B.Prasugrel

Lack of an _________ response may help to differentiate ET from reactive thrombocytosis, because this response is usually normal in reactive pthrombocytosis but absent in most cases of ET. a. Platelet aggregation b. epinephrine c. microfilaments d. thromboxane B2

B.epinephrine

It is a Predisposing Congenital Factors and Thrombosis Risk that is associated with arterial thrombosis and a thrombosis relative risk of 4.3–9.9 in males 3.3–7.2 mmol/L in females, Folate, vitamin B6, vitamin B12 deficiency, MTHFR C677T and A1298C a. Homocysteinemia b. Hyperfibrinogenemia c. APC resistance d. PC deficiency

A.Homocysteinemia

It is the inadequate response to aspirin a.aspirin inadequacy b. aspirin effectiveness c. aspirin resistance d. aspirin

C.aspirin resistance

In thromboplastin time, what participates in the formation of the tissue factor-factor VIIa complex, the factor VIIIa-factor IXa complex, and the factor Va-factor Xa complex. a.calcium and chloride b.tissue factor c.thromboplastins d.calcium and phospholipids

: D. calcium and phospholipids

It is a gene that can cause thrombosis, but are also performed to aid in its diagnosis. However, the American College of Medical Genetics and Genomics (ACMG) has recommended it should not be routinely performed for the workup of patients with thrombophilia. a.factor IX gene b.FV Leiden c.MTHFR d.prothrombin G20210A

c. MTHFR

The use of __________ for treatment of VTE during pregnancy is avoided because of the risk of maternal and fetal hemorrhage and fetal embryopathy early in the pregnancy a.aspirin b.warferin c.protein C d.coumadin

d.coumadin

It causes moderate to severe anatomic hemorrhage that may be treated with plasma or non-activated PCC to produce therapeutic levels of 10 units/dL to 40 units/dL. a. Factor VII deficiency b. Factor X deficiency c. Factor V deficiency d. Factor XIII deficiency

B. Factor X deficiency

It is an autosomal dominant, thrombophilic disorder that is associated with venous and arterial thromboembolic events. The disorder is characterized by hyperaggregable platelets in response to ADP, epinephrine, or both. a. Stormorken Syndrome b. Scott Syndrome c. Kasabach Merritt Syndrome d. Sticky platelet syndrome

D. Sticky platelet syndrome

It is associated with thrombocytopenia and other abnormalities, including bony abnormalities, abnormalities of visceral organs, and pancytopenia. a. TAR syndrome b. X-linked thrombocytopenia c. Congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia d. Fanconi anemia

D. Fanconi Anemia

It is a calcium-dependent pentameric ligand-binding member of the pentraxin family. It is produced in the liver and circulates in plasma at a concentration less than 0.55 mg/L. a. C-Reactive Protein b. Lipoprotein (a) c. Homocysteine d. Factor VIII

A. C-Reactive Protein

A prodrug whose main active metabolite is formed via the CYP3A4 liver enzyme. a. Prasugrel b. Aspirin c. Coumadin d. Ticagrelor

D. Ticagrelor

Under bleeding time test, the phlebotomist used a lancet to make a small, controlled puncture wound and recorded the duration of bleeding, comparing the results with the reference interval of_____ a. 3 to 10 minutes b. 2 to 8 minutes c. 2 to 9 minutes d. 3 to 7 minutes

C. 2 to 9 minutes

The BBL Fibrometer was the first semiautomated instrument to be used routinely in the coagulation laboratory. a. BBL Fibrometer b. KC1 and KC4 c. STart 4 d. BFT-II

A. BBL Fibrometer

It is a systemic disorder of microvascular thrombosis associated with a severe deficiency of ADAMTS13 and is most often an acquired autoimmune disorder. a. Antiphospholipid syndrome b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia c. Immune thrombocytopenia d. Preeclampsia and HELLP syndrome

B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia

Hemophilia C, also known as ___________, is an autosomal dominant hemophilia with mild to moderate bleeding symptoms caused by a deficiency in ___________. A. Christmas Disease, Factor XI B. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation, Factor IX C. Rosenthal Syndrome, Factor XI D. Hypofibrinogenemia, Factor IX

C. Rosenthal Syndrome, Factor XI

The following are storage pool diseases, except: A. Gray platelet syndrome B. Quebec syndrome C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome D. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

D. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Autosomal dominant thrombocytopenia has been mapped to mutations in what gene? A. ANKRD26 gene B. JAK2 V617F gene C. WAS gene D. GATA1 gene

A. ANKRD26 gene

____________ is a serine protease inhibitor (SERPIN) that neutralizes factors IIa (thrombin), IXa, Xa, XIa, and XIIa, all the coagulation system serine proteases except factor VIIa? A. PAI-1 B. Antithrombin C. PAFI D. D-dimer

B. Antithrombin

Which of the following is used to treat venous thromboembolic disease? a. Unfractionated heparin b. Low-molecular-weight heparin c. Fondaparinux d. DOACs e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Specimen quality flags, such as the following, are included on some coagulation instrumentation, except: A. Clotted B. Lipemia C. Overdraw D. Icterus

C. Overdraw

At birth, this hemoglobin constitutes 53% to 95% of the total hemoglobin. A. Hb F B. Hb SC C. Oxyhemoglobin D. Hb S

A. Hb F

It may be administered intravenously or intranasally to increase the plasma concentration of VWF high-molecular-weight multimers. A. Desmopressin acetate B. Warfarin C. Aspirin D. Clopidroge

A. Desmopressin acetate

It is manifested by hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, joint laxity, fragile tissues, and a bleeding tendency, primarily subcutaneous hematoma formation. A. Stormorken syndrome B. Sticky platelet syndrome C. Scott syndrome D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

What is the new term used to describe cases of thrombocytopenia arising without apparent cause or underlying disease state? A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura C. Acute ITP D. Chronic ITP

B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

It was first described in 1865, is a term for tumor-induced chronic DIC that generates DVT and migrating sub-epithelial thromboses causing ecchymosis and purpura fulminans. A. Arterial thrombotic disease B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Trousseau syndrome D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

C. Trousseau syndrome

It is a 1966 modification of the time-honored but obsolete Lee-White whole blood clotting time assay. A. PT B. PTT C. ACT D. TT

C. ACT

What is the preferred needle gauge for children or adults with small, fragile, or hardened veins? A. 20-gauge B. 21-gauge C. 19-gauge D. 23-gauge

D. 23-gauge

It is used to detect a change in plasma optical density (OD; light transmittance) during the clotting process. A. Photo-optical end-point detection B. Viscoelastic clot detection C. Mechanical clot end-point detection D. Immunologic light absorbance end-point detection

A. Photo-optical end-point detection

It is a neoplastic disease characterized by a malignant proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and often other organs. A. Chronic myeloid neoplasm B. Leukemia C. Ineffective erythropoiesis D. Hemoglobinopathies

B. Leukemia

Moderate thrombocytopenia occurs in one-third of patients with liver disease. In alcoholism-related hepatic cirrhosis, acute alcohol toxicity does not suppress platelet production. A. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE. B. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE. C. Both statements are TRUE. D. Both statements are FALSE

A. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE.

An autosomal recessive disorder characterized by tyrosinase-positive oculocutaneous albinism and defective lysosomal function in a variety of cell types. A. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome C. Hermansky-Pudlak Syndrome D. Gray Platelet Syndrome

C. Hermansky-Pudlak Syndrome

Platelet destruction in acute ITP is the result of the binding of autoantibodies to platelets. Chronic ITP is preceded by various infections or vaccinations in more than half of pediatric patients in the 4 weeks before diagnosis. A. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE. B. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE. C. Both statements are TRUE. D. Both statements are FALSE.

D. Both statements are FALSE.

A Clot-based screen that employs PTT with factor V-depleted plasma. A. APC resistance B. Factor V Leiden mutation C. LAC Protein D. PC Activity

A. APC resistance

Half-life of prothrombin A. 30 hours B. 2 days C. 72 hours D. 60 hourS

D. 60 hourS

Anticoagulant used for most hemostasis testing. A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Sodium citrate D. Sodium Fluoride

C. Sodium citrate

The first clot detection instrument developed by Koffman. A. Koagulovis kosimeter B. Thromboelastograph C. Nephelometers D. Koffman instrument

A. Koagulovis kosimeter

MCH is in healthy neonates. A. 27 to 41 pg B. 30 to 42 pg C. 57 to 61 D. 74 to 81 pg

B. 30 to 42 pg

All are primary assays for a generalized hemostatic disorder except: A. Platelet count B. Complete blood count C. Prothrombin time D. Reticulocyte count

B. Complete blood count

What is the process by which the volume of a formed clot is reduced through contraction of the intracellular actin-myosin cytoskeleton of activated platelets incorporated in the clot? A. Clot retraction B. Clot refraction C. Clot retention D. Clot formation

A. Clot retraction

Which of the following is true in the differentiation of acute and chronic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? A. Acute ITP: platelet count >20,000/uL B. Chronic ITP: age of onset 2-6 years old C. Acute ITP: duration 2-6 weeks D. None of the above

C. Acute ITP: duration 2-6 weeks

Which is an example of a condition in the mechanism that induces DIC through exposure of subendothelial tissue factor during vasodilatation? A. Acute inflammation B. Adenocarcinoma C. Heat stroke D. Graft rejection

C. Heat stroke

All of the following are clinical conditions that require anticoagulant and antiplatelet drug measurement except: A. Acute hemorrhage B. Renal disease C. Liver disease D. None of the above

D. None of the above

Which of the following is the preferred needle gauge and/or length for adults with good veins? A. 23 gauge, winged-needle set B. 20 or 21 gauge, thin-walled 1.0 or 1.25 inches long C. 19 gauge, safety transfer unit D. 22 gauge, evacuated tube system

B. 20 or 21 gauge, thin-walled 1.0 or 1.25 inches long

POC coagulation analyzers often use anticoagulated whole blood (venipuncture). Some POC will require capillary (fingerstick) whole blood. A. Both statements are correct. B. Only the first statement is correct. C. Only the second statement is correct. D. Both statements are incorrect.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

What is the average capillary hematocrit at birth for healthy full-term infants? A. 61% B. 42% C. 59% D. 56%

A. 61%

It is defined as blood loss exceeding total blood volume within 24 hours, loss of 50% of blood volume within a 3-hour period, blood loss exceeding 150 mL/min or blood loss that necessitates plasma and platelet transfusion. A. Massive Hemorrhage B. Massive Transfusion Protocols C. Acute Hemorrhage D. Chronic Hemorrhage

A. Massive Hemorrhage

The vascular defect of this disorder is characterized by thin-walled blood vessels with a discontinuous endothelium, inadequate smooth muscle, and inadequate or missing elastin in the surrounding stroma. A. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome B. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome C. Henoch Schonlein Purpura D. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome

D. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT) develops when the _________ lacks a platelet-specific antigen that the fetus has inherited from the _________ . A. father, mother B. grandmother, mother C. mother, father D. baby, father

C. mother, father

`It is an important first step in the lupus anticoagulant (LAC) laboratory workup to establish the presence of an LAC because it can differentiate from a factor deficiency. A. Antiphospholipid antibodies B. Mixing study C. Mixing coagulation D. Coagulation studies

B. Mixing study

Is a synthetic formulation of the active pentasaccharide sequence in UFH and LMWH. This is only synthetic heparin. Because of its short chain length it inhibits only factor Xa through antithrombin. It has no inhibitory effect on thrombin or other serine proteases. A. Fondaparinux B. Argatroban C. Bivalirudin D. Ticagrelor

A. Fondaparinux

Light-transmittance (optical) platelet aggregometry is designed to test PRP, plasma with a platelet count of _________. A. 100,000 to 200,000 u/L B. 200,000 to 400,000 u/L C. 200,000 to 300, 000 u/L D. 300,000 to 400,000 u/L

C. 200,000 to 300, 000 u/L

This technique uses the viscoelastic property of blood clotting. The assay provides information on the entire kinetic process of whole blood clot formation. These techniques assess both bleeding and thrombosis risk, and it also provides an evaluation of fibrinolysis and hypercoagulable state. A. Thromboilastography B. Platelet aggregometry C. Flow cytometry D. Thromboelastography

D. Thromboelastography

Platelet increases in activity with _________ as evidence by _________ in bleeding time in elderly adults and _________ markers of platelet activation such as β-thromboglobulin and platelet factor 4. A. Sex, increase, decrease B. Age, decrease, increase C. Age, increase, decrease D. Immobility, coagulation, children

B. Age, decrease, increase

Primary assay that assesses anemia associated with chronic bleeding, hemolytic anemia, and bone marrow response. A. Partial Thromboplastin time (PTT) B. Fibrinogen Assay and Prothrombin Time (PT) C. Platelet Count, hematocrit, PTT, PT D. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, reticulocyte count

D. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, reticulocyte count

This is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by partial oculocutaneous albinism, frequent pyogenic bacterial infections, giant lysosomal granules in cells of hematologic and nonhematologic origin, platelet dense granule deficiency, and hemorrhage. A. May-Hegglin anomaly B. Chediak-Higashinsyndrome C. Wiskott- Aldrich syndrome D. Hermansky-Pudlack syndrome

B. Chediak-Higashinsyndrome

A Chronic Thrombocytopenic purpura is: I. Most cases occur in patients between the ages of 20 and 50 years old II. Platelet count: <20,000/microliter III. Gradual IV. Females of this disorder outnumber males 2 to 3:1

C. I,III,IV

It is an anticoagulant produced in trace amounts in the saliva of the medicinal leech Hirudo medicinalis. A. Warfarin B. Coumadin C. Bivalirudin D. Heparin

C. Bivalirudin

This assay detect and measure coagulation factor inhibitors. A. CBC B.ESR C. Nijmegen-Bethesda D. Fibrinogen Assay

C. Nijmegen-Bethesda

Nephelometry uses synthetic small peptide substrate conjugated to a chromophore. Chromogenic End-Point detection is a modification of photo-optical end-point detection in which forward-angle scatter, rather than OD, is measured. A. First statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect. B. First statement is incorrect. Second statement is correct. C. Both statements are correct. D. Both statements are incorrect.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

________ affects not only erythrocytes but also the metabolic pathways of iron dependent tissue enzymes. A. Unexplained Anemia of the Elderly B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Ineffective erythropoiesis D. Folate Deficiency

B. Iron deficiency anemia

The following assays are incorporated in VWD test panels EXCEPT A. VWD:Rco B. Coagulation factor VIII activity C. Platelet count D. VWF:Ag

C. Platelet count

Bleeding disorder caused by decreased thrombin generation leading to inadequate fibrin formation. A. Stormorken syndrome B. Scott syndrome C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

B. Scott syndrome

Which of the following mechanisms are in immunologic drug-induced thrombocytopenia? A. Drug-dependent antibodies B. Hapten-induced antibodies C. Drug-induced autoantibodies D. AOTA E. NOTA

D. AOTA

LACs are detected using immunoassay. ACL and anti-β2-GPI antibodies are detected using clot-based profiles. A. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false. B. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false.

D. Both statements are false.

The administration of could cause HIT to some patients. can be used to avoid HIT. A. UFH ; LMWH B. Fondaparinux ; UFH C. LMWH ; Fondaparinux D. LMWH ; UFH

A. UFH ; LMWH

Which of the following statement/s is true about Bleeding time? I. The original test of platelet function. II. Reference interval of 26-38 seconds III. Is now obsolete IV. first described by Duke and modified by Ivy. A. II B. III, IV C. I,II,III D. II,III,IV, E. I,III,IV

E. I,III,IV

detect a change in plasma optical density during the clotting process. A. Chromogenic methodology B. Viscoelastic technique C. Photo-optical coagulometers D. Nephelometry

C. Photo-optical coagulometers

The HCT usually increases approximately during the first 48 postnatal hours. A. 5% B. 6% C. 7% D. 8%

A. 5%

What is the chance of inheritance of Hemophilia A when a female carrier has children with an unaffected man? a. 25% chance normal daughter and 25% chance carrier daughter b. 25% chance normal son and 25% chance of hemophilic son c. 50% chance children are all hemophilic and 50% chance children are all normal d. Both A and B

d. Both A and B

The most frequent forms of Bernard-Soulier Syndrome involve defects in ______ synthesis or expression. a. GP Ib𝝰 b. GP IIb/IIIa c. GP IIb/IX/V d. GP Ib𝛃

A. GP Ib a

What type of immunologic drug-induced thrombocytopenia is caused by use of quinidine and quinine? a. Drug-dependent antibodies b. Hapten-induce antibodies c. Drug-induced autoantibodies d. Immune complex induced-thrombocytopenia

a. Drug-dependent antibodies

The following are the known causes of thrombophilia except: a. Uncontrolled platelet activation b. Blood coagulation control protein deficiencies c. Heightened fibrinolysis d. Uncontrolled blood coagulation system activation

c. Heightened fibrinolysis

What test is utilized to monitor unfractionated heparin (UFH) dosage that yields plasma levels exceeding PTT and anti-Xa analytical range limits?? a. Activated Clotting Time b. Prothrombin time c. Lee-White Whole blood Clotting Time d. A & C

d. A & C

What marker is elevated in the plasma during thrombotic stroke or coronary thrombosis? a. Platelet Factor 4 b. Fibrinogen c. Plasmin d. Factor VII

a. Platelet Factor 4

What second common point-of-care test is conducted in monitoring oral anticoagulant Coumadin? a. ACT b. PT/INR c. PTT d. Fibrinogen assay

b. PT/INR

________ in neonates is a common cause of morbidity, particularly in premature and low-birth-weight infants. a. Anemia b. Polycythemia c. Sepsis d. Cancer

c. Sepsis