Final Flashcards
1
Q
Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the
a. ramus of the mandible.
b. maxillary foramina.
c. mandibular foramen.
d. condylar process.
e. mental foramina.
A
mental foramina
2
Q
Sinus inflammation is called
a. encephalitis.
b. asthma.
c. postnasal drip.
d. sinusitis.
e. congestion.
A
sinusitis
3
Q
Name the fontanelles found on the infant skull. Why aren’t they labeled on the adult skull? (Figure 7-16)
a. frontal, parietal, occipital, and sphenoid; they became foramen
b. sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they became foramen
c. coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous; they fused and are not on the adult skull
d. sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull
e. superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull
A
sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull
4
Q
What is the purpose of the secondary curves?
a. accommodate the abdominal organs
b. accommodate the thoracic organs
c. form a humpback
d. shift the weight of the body to permit an upright posture
e. accommodate the pelvic organs
A
shift the weight of the body to permit an upright posture
5
Q
The second cervical vertebra is called the
a. axis.
b. atlas.
c. primum.
d. apex.
e. cervix.
A
axis
6
Q
Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
a. coxal bones
b. tibia
c. scapula
d. clavicles
e. sacrum
A
sacrum
7
Q
The anterior surface of the scapula is smooth and concave. The name of the concave depression is the
a. supraspinous fossa.
b. subspinous fossa.
c. subscapular fossa.
d. infraspinous fossa.
e. glenoid fossa.
A
subscapular fossa.
8
Q
Use Figure 8-1 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled “7.”
a. scapular process
b. spine of scapula
c. acromion
d. scapular notch
e. coracoid process
A
spine of scapula
9
Q
Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna?
a. coronoid process
b. olecranon
c. trochlea
d. styloid process of ulna
e. radial notch
A
trochlea
10
Q
The trochlea is located on the
a. humerus.
b. tibia.
c. ulna.
d. radius.
e. scapula.
A
humerus.
11
Q
The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.
a. capitulum
b. coronoid process
c. olecranon process
d. styloid process
e. radial tuberosity
A
styloid process
12
Q
The pubic and ischial rami encircle the
a. obturator foramen.
b. greater sciatic notch.
c. pubic symphysis.
d. lesser sciatic notch.
e. acetabulum.
A
obturator foramen.
13
Q
One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the
a. coxal bones.
b. patellar surface of the femur.
c. distal epiphysis of the femur.
d. pubic ramus.
e. neck of the femur.
A
neck of the femur.
14
Q
The ________ is a large sesamoid-shaped bone sometimes called the kneecap.
a. talus
b. patella
c. cuboid
d. fibula
e. navicular
A
patella
15
Q
The lateral malleolus is found on the
a. femur.
b. fibula.
c. calcaneus.
d. tibia.
e. patella.
A
fibula.
16
Q
Use Figure 8-3 to answer the following question: Identify the area of the femur most likely to fracture.
a. 8
b. 9
c. 7
d. 1
e. 3
A
1
17
Q
A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a
a. synchondrosis.
b. synostosis.
c. symphysis.
d. gomphosis.
e. syndesmosis.
A
syndesmosis
18
Q
Dense fibrous connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n)
a. syndesmosis.
b. synostosis.
c. synchondrosis.
d. amphiarthrosis.
e. gomphosis.
A
gomphosis.
19
Q
Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged?
a. The matrix begins to break down.
b. The exposed surface appears rough.
c. Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue.
d. Friction in the joint increases.
e. All of the answers are correct.
A
All of the answers are correct.
20
Q
The surface of articular cartilage is
a. flat.
b. slick.
c. smooth.
d. rough.
e. both slick and smooth.
A
both slick and smooth.
21
Q
The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a ________ joint.
a. saddle
b. pivot
c. condylar
d. gliding
e. hinge
A
saddle
22
Q
Curling into the “fetal position” ________ the intervertebral joints.
a. extends
b. hyperextends
c. flexes
d. abducts
e. rotates
A
flexes
23
Q
Nodding your head “yes” is an example of
a. protraction and retraction.
b. flexion and extension.
c. pronation and supination.
d. circumduction.
e. lateral and medial rotation.
A
flexion and extension.
24
Q
The movement of a body part upward is called
a. abduction.
b. extension.
c. elevation.
d. supination.
e. protraction.
A
elevation.
25
The anterior longitudinal ligament is
a. a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
b. a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
c. a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
d. a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum.
e. a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
26
The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves
a. abduction.
b. flexion.
c. extension.
d. adduction.
e. both flexion and extension.
both flexion and extension.
27
The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.
a. fibular collateral
b. popliteal
c. patellar
d. cruciate
e. tibial collateral
cruciate
28
Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
a. maintain body temperature
b. produce movement
c. maintain posture
d. guard body entrances and exits
e. All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct.
29
Nerves and blood vessels that service a muscle fiber are located in the connective tissues of its
a. sarcomere.
b. perimysium.
c. sarcolemma.
d. myofibrils.
e. endomysium.
endomysium.
30
Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called
a. myomeres.
b. sarcomeres.
c. fascicles.
d. myofibrils.
e. myoblasts.
myoblasts.
31
Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
a. have many nuclei.
b. lack mitochondria.
c. lack a plasma membrane.
d. are very small.
e. have large gaps in the cell membrane.
have many nuclei
32
The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called
a. actinin.
b. actin.
c. nebulin.
d. titin.
e. myosin.
actinin.
33
Thick filaments are made of the protein
a. actin.
b. titin.
c. myosin.
d. tropomyosin.
e. nebulin.
myosin.
34
The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the correct sequence of these events?
1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.
2. The free myosin head splits ATP.
3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.
5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.
6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.
a. 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5
b. 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3
c. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2
e. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
35
The sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction is called
a. cross bridge formation.
b. neuromuscular junction.
c. action potential propagation.
d. excitation-contraction coupling.
e. sliding filament theory.
excitation-contraction coupling.
36
Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur.
1. Cross-bridge detachment
2. Cross-bridge formation
3. Active site exposure
4. Myosin reactivation
5. Calcium ions bind troponin
6. Myosin head pivoting
a. 3,5,2,6,1,4
b. 5,3,2,6,1,4
c. 5,3,2,6,4,1
d. 5,3,6,2,4,1
e. 5,3,6,2,1,4
5,3,2,6,1,4
37
The point in a muscle twitch when the troponin is bound to calcium is called the
a. contraction phase.
b. stimulus phase.
c. isotonic period.
d. latent period.
e. relaxation phase.
contraction phase.
38
Creatine phosphate
a. is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration.
b. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.
c. is only formed during strenuous exercise.
d. can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction.
e. cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP.
acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.
39
The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.
a. slow
b. fast
c. intermediate
d. high-density
e. anaerobic
slow
40
Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles.
a. pennate
b. bipennate
c. circular
d. convergent
e. parallel
circular
41
________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation.
a. Parallel
b. Convergent
c. Straight
d. Circular
e. Pennate
Convergent
42
The fulcrum of a lever system is the
a. joint.
b. bone.
c. load.
d. muscle.
e. resistance.
joint.
43
Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to
a. abduct the forearm.
b. flex the forearm.
c. adduct the forearm.
d. extend the forearm.
e. extend the carpals.
extend the forearm.
44
A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n)
a. prime mover.
b. agonist.
c. synergist.
d. antagonist.
e. fixator.
antagonist.
45
Which muscle is named for either shape or size?
a. vastus lateralis
b. pectoralis major
c. deltoid
d. latissimus dorsi
e. All of the above are named for shape or size.
All of the above are named for shape or size.
46
The origin of the frontalis muscle is the
a. forehead.
b. mandible.
c. occipital bone.
d. frontal bone.
e. epicranial aponeurosis.
epicranial aponeurosis.
47
Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle?
a. elevates the mandible
b. depresses the larynx
c. elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible
d. elevates the larynx
e. depresses and retracts the tongue
elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible
48
A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in
a. chewing.
b. blowing.
c. spitting.
d. kissing.
e. frowning.
chewing.
49
Which of these is true about the muscle named levator palpebrae superioris?
a. originates at the back of the orbit and raises the upper eyelid
b. elevates the eyebrow
c. raises the upper eyelid
d. lifts the scapula
e. originates at the back of the orbit
originates at the back of the orbit and raises the upper eyelid
50
The thick, flat sheet of tendon deep to the scalp is called the
a. calcaneal tendon.
b. plantar aponeurosis.
c. linea alba.
d. retinaculum.
e. epicranial aponeurosis.
epicranial aponeurosis.
51
Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachii?
a. olecranon process of the ulna
b. medial epicondyle of the humerus
c. base of the second metacarpal
d. infraglenoid tuberosity of the scapula
e. lateral condyle of the humerus
olecranon process of the ulna
52
Which of these muscles produces lateral rotation at the hip?
a. gluteus maximus
b. piriformis
c. obturator internus
d. obturator externus
e. All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct.
53
The Sartorius is innervated by which nerve?
a. sciatic
b. tibial
c. fibular
d. obturator
e. femoral
femoral
54
The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
a. efferent
b. peripheral
c. afferent
d. central
e. autonomic
central
55
________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors.
a. Unipolar neurons
b. Interneurons
c. Efferent neurons
d. Afferent neurons
e. Multipolar neurons
Efferent neurons
56
The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the
a. synapse.
b. telodendria.
c. collateral.
d. hillock.
e. axolemma.
synapse.
57
________ carry sensory information to the CNS.
a. Interneurons
b. Afferent neurons
c. Efferent neurons
d. Motor neurons
e. Multipolar neurons
Afferent neurons
58
Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the
a. transport of neurotransmitters within axons.
b. formation of myelin sheaths.
c. formation of ganglia.
d. repair of axons.
e. formation of cerebrospinal fluid.
formation of cerebrospinal fluid.
59
When potassium channels open and the ions diffuse through the membrane,
a. the membrane will depolarize to threshold.
b. the inside of the membrane will become more negative.
c. the membrane will become depolarized.
d. the inside of the membrane will become more positive.
e. there will be almost no effect on transmembrane potential.
the inside of the membrane will become more negative.
60
The all-or-none principle states that
a. the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential.
b. all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
c. only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
d. all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
e. only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
61
Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?
a. Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase.
b. Neurons would depolarize more rapidly.
c. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
d. The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
e. None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function.
The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
62
Use Figure 12-2 to answer the following question: Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4
63
The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the ________ period.
a. stationary
b. relative refractory
c. resting
d. lag
e. absolute refractory
absolute refractory
64
The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
a. magnesium.
b. calcium.
c. chloride.
d. potassium.
e. sodium.
calcium
65
Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is important in learning and memory?
a. gamma aminobutyric acid
b. glutamate
c. serotonin
d. noradrenaline
e. glycine
glutamate
66
The molecule responsible for making cyclic AMP is called
a. adenosine.
b. G-protein.
c. adenylate cyclase.
d. anandamide.
e. adenosine synthase.
adenylate cyclase.
67
The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system.
a. autonomic
b. central
c. somatic
d. afferent
e. peripheral
central
68
Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise.
a. thoracic region
b. cervical enlargement
c. lumbar enlargement
d. conus medullaris
e. sacral region
cervical enlargement
69
Spinal nerves are
a. involuntary.
b. purely sensory.
c. interneuronal.
d. purely motor.
e. both sensory and motor.
both sensory and motor.
70
The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed
a. spinal transection.
b. paraplegia.
c. spinal shock.
d. hemiplegia.
e. quadriplegia.
paraplegia.
71
The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord, seen easily in microscopic spinal cord cross sections, are called
a. horns.
b. wings.
c. fibers.
d. pyramids.
e. tracts
horns.
72
Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled "1."
a. anterior white column
b. lateral white horn
c. posterior white column
d. median commissure
e. lateral white column
posterior white column
73
Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs are collectively called
a. posterior rami.
b. gray rami.
c. white rami.
d. sympathetic nerves.
e. anterior rami.
sympathetic nerves.
74
In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise?
a. sacral
b. cervical
c. brachial
d. cranial
e. lumbar
brachial
75
Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled "6."
a. anterior root
b. autonomic nerve
c. sympathetic ganglion
d. rami communicantes
e. posterior root ganglion
sympathetic ganglion
76
In ________, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons.
a. convergence
b. parallel processing
c. divergence
d. serial processing
e. reverberation
divergence
77
The neural "wiring" of a single reflex is called a(n)
a. reflex arc.
b. ramus.
c. circuit.
d. ganglion.
e. tract.
reflex arc.
78
Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order: 1) motor neuron activation, 2) sensory neuron activation, 3) sensory receptor activation, 4) Information processing, 5) effector response.
a. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
b. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
c. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
d. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
e. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
3, 2, 4, 1, 5
79
Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex?
a. a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts
b. normal in newborns
c. clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected
d. flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked
e. abnormal in adults
clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected
80
What structures make up the brainstem? (Figure 14-1)
a. cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon
b. hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus
c. midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
d. pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum
e. diencephalon, midbrain, cerebellum
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
81
The lateral ventricles are found
a. between the pons and the midbrain.
b. in the cerebral hemispheres.
c. in the spinal cord.
d. in the diencephalon.
e. in the cerebellar hemispheres.
in the cerebral hemispheres.
82
The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the
a. corpus callosum.
b. cerebral aqueduct.
c. falx cerebri.
d. septum pellucidum.
e. fornix.
septum pellucidum.
83
Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the
a. falx cerebri.
b. cerebral aqueduct.
c. basal ganglia.
d. tentorium cerebelli.
e. septum pellucidum.
falx cerebri.
84
Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled "9."
a. lateral ventricle
b. subarachnoid space
c. superior sagittal sinus
d. arachnoid granulation
e. dura mater
superior sagittal sinus
85
If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?
a. control of blood pressure
b. breathing
c. coordination
d. judgment
e. sleep patterns
breathing
86
The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the
a. first four cranial nerves.
b. two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles.
c. superior and inferior colliculi.
d. cranial nerve IV.
e. our cerebral lobes.
superior and inferior colliculi.
87
The folds of the surface of the cerebellum
a. are bathed in spinal fluid.
b. consist of axons and dendrites of neurons.
c. form a network of blood vessels over the brain.
d. are called sulci.
e. are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds.
are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds.
88
Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms?
a. preoptic area
b. paraventricular nucleus
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus
d. tuber cinereum
e. autonomic nucleus
suprachiasmatic nucleus
89
Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem?
a. production of a large volume of urine
b. an insatiable appetite
c. reduced ability to regulate body temperature
d. an intense thirst
e. an uncontrolled sex drive
reduced ability to regulate body temperature
90
Which structure receives visual information before it reaches the visual cortex? (Figure 14-20)
a. lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
b. medial geniculate body of the thalamus
c. paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
d. supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus
e. ventral nucleus of the thalamus
lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
91
The visual cortex is located in the
a. frontal lobe.
b. occipital lobe.
c. insula.
d. parietal lobe.
e. temporal lobe.
occipital lobe.
92
Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue?
a. abducens
b. facial
c. vagus
d. glossopharyngeal
e. hypoglossal
hypoglossal
93
Which motor pathway directs a faster response: voluntary or involuntary? (Figure 15-1)
a. involuntary
b. voluntary
involuntary
94
General sense receptors are typically the
a. cell bodies of sensory neurons.
b. axons of sensory neurons.
c. dendrites of sensory neurons.
d. dendrites of motor neurons.
e. axons of motor neurons.
dendrites of sensory neurons.
95
Central adaptation refers to
a. increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus.
b. a change in motor receptivity of a neuron.
c. the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated.
d. a characteristic of phasic receptors.
e. inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.
inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.
96
A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as
a. transduction.
b. adaptation.
c. transformation.
d. exhaustion.
e. negation.
adaptation.
97
Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called
a. thermoreceptors.
b. chemoreceptors.
c. baroreceptors.
d. nociceptors.
e. proprioceptors.
baroreceptors.
98
________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure.
a. Proprioceptors
b. Baroreceptors
c. Nociceptors
d. Chemoreceptors
e. Hair cells
Baroreceptors
99
For the last few weeks, you have had an odd sensation on your upper thigh. When you touch the naked skin, it feels very strange, like you are touching your skin through layers of cloth. The surrounding area feels normal. Your doctor thinks that this may be related to spinal nerve damage related to a herniated disc. The doctor calls this change in sensation
a. anesthesia.
b. paresthesia.
c. kinesthesia.
d. hypesthesia.
e. synesthesia.
paresthesia.
100
All of the following pathways require third-order neurons synapsing in the thalamus except
a. the anterior spinothalamic tract.
b. the lateral spinothalamic tract.
c. the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.
d. the cuneate fasciculus.
e. the gracile fasciculus.
the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.
101
Which neuron delivers sensations to the CNS?
a. first-order
b. fourth-order
c. sensory receptor
d. third-order
e. second-order
first-order
102
Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy?
a. stroke
b. multiple sclerosis
c. cerebral palsy
d. paralysis
e. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
103
Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract synapse with neurons in
a. the spinothalamic tract.
b. the dorsal root ganglia.
c. the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
d. autonomic ganglia.
e. the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
104
Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons.
a. preganglionic
b. upper motor
c. somesthetic
d. postganglionic
e. lower motor
lower motor
105
The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following?
a. somatic division
b. craniosacral division
c. lumbosacral division
d. resting division
e. thoracolumbar division
thoracolumbar division
106
A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n)________ neuron.
a. upper motor
b. postganglionic
c. lower motor
d. preganglionic
e. somatomotor
preganglionic
107
The body's first tissue response to any injury is
a. inflammation.
b. bleeding.
c. shivering.
d. regeneration.
e. fever.
inflammation.
108
Voluntary movements are carried out by the contraction of
a. cardiac muscle.
b. skeletal muscle.
c. nonstriated muscle.
d. smooth muscle.
e. all types of muscle.
skeletal muscle.
109
Growth of cartilage by accumulation of new matrix around chondrocytes that are embedded in existing matrix is called ________ growth.
a. transitional
b. appositional
c. transformational
d. interstitial
e. intrasitional
interstitial
110
Cells that are flat and thin are classified as
a. blasts.
b. cuboidal.
c. transitional.
d. squamous.
e. columnar.
squamous.
111
The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the
a. gap junction.
b. tight junction.
c. hemidesmosome.
d. desmosome.
e. zonula adherens.
gap junction
112
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except
a. detection of sensations.
b. protection of underlying tissue.
c. synthesis of vitamin C.
d. maintenance of body temperature.
e. excretion of salts and wastes.
synthesis of vitamin C.
113
While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remains peaked. This is a sign of
a. water intoxication.
b. advanced skin cancer.
c. dehydration.
d. hydration intoxication.
e. malfunctioning elastin.
dehydration.
114
Cyanosis signifies that a patient has
a. had too much sun.
b. been kept out of the sun.
c. an allergic reaction.
d. been exposed to cyanide.
e. oxygen-starved skin.
oxygen-starved skin.
115
The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.
a. axillary
b. sebaceous
c. ceruminous
d. apocrine sweat
e. merocrine sweat
apocrine sweat
116
The combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called ________ tissue.
a. fibrocytic
b. granulation
c. germinative
d. abscess
e. spinous
granulation
117
Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ________ ganglia.
a. chain
b. collateral
c. prevertebral
d. adrenal
e. intramural
chain
118
Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape?
a. patella
b. metatarsal
c. vertebra
d. ulna
e. frontal
vertebra
119
Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except
a. reduced circulation to the skin.
b. increased sweat secretion.
c. dilation of the pupils.
d. increased blood flow to skeletal muscles.
e. decreased heart rate.
decreased heart rate.
120
Which of the following is true of osteoclasts?
a. Osteoclasts form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi.
b. Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix.
c. Osteoclasts are responsible for laying down osteoid.
d. Osteoclasts are located within lacunae.
e. Osteoclasts maintain protein and mineral content of matrix.
Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix.
121
Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help deal with his problem?
a. a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
b. a drug that increases cAMP levels in cardiac muscle tissue
c. a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle
d. a drug that blocks alpha-2 receptors in adipose tissue
e. a drug that blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
122
Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells results in
a. increased heart rate and force of contraction.
b. the decrease in ATP production.
c. inhibition of the heart muscle.
d. decreased force of contraction.
e. slower heart rate.
increased heart rate and force of contraction.
123
Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation?
a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. norepinephrine
d. acetylcholine
e. nitric oxide
nitric oxide
124
Parasympathetic stimulation
a. increases gastric motility.
b. causes the pupils to dilate.
c. increases heart rate.
d. causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate.
e. causes sweat glands to secrete.
increases gastric motility.
125
Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division?
a. Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L2 of the spinal cord.
b. Preganglionic fibers are relatively short.
c. Postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
d. PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column.
e. The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.
The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.
126
Which hormone increases calcium and phosphate ion absorption by the intestines?
a. estrogen
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid hormone
d. calcitriol
e. calcitonin
calcitriol
127
A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug that is used is a(n) ________ drug.
1. sympathomimetic
2. parasympathomimetic
3. adrenergic activating
4. cholinergic activating
a. 1, 2
b. 4
c. 2, 4
d. 1, 3
e. 3
1, 3
128
A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a ________ fracture.
a. comminuted
b. greenstick
c. compression
d. transverse
e. spiral
transverse
129
Most long-term memories are stored in the
a. cerebral cortex.
b. thalamus.
c. pons.
d. cerebellum.
e. hypothalamus.
cerebral cortex.
130
A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes making them brittle and compromises normal function is called
a. osteomalacia.
b. osteitis.
c. osteomyelitis.
d. osteoporosis.
e. osteopenia.
osteoporosis
131
Which of the following is an inherited disease characterized by destruction of ACh-secreting and GABA-secreting neurons in the basal nuclei causing difficulty controlling movements?
a. schizophrenia
b. Huntington's disease
c. senile dementia
d. Parkinson's disease
e. Alzheimer's disease
Huntington's disease
132
Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
a. provides an attachment for muscles involved in breathing
b. provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
c. provides protection for the brain and spinal cord
d. provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
e. All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct.
133
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. occipital: foramen magnum
b. mandible: movable facial bone in skull
c. maxilla: alveolar processes
d. frontal: glabella
e. sphenoid: external acoustic meatus
sphenoid: external acoustic meatus
134
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by all of the following except that it
a. is characterized by a progressive loss of memory.
b. is associated with the formation of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
c. is the most common cause of senile dementia.
d. has a clear genetic basis.
e. may be associated with damage to the nucleus basalis.
has a clear genetic basis.
135
The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI) is the
a. jugular foramen.
b. foramen rotundum.
c. foramen lacerum.
d. foramen magnum.
e. carotid canal.
foramen magnum.
136
Olfactory glands
a. house the sense of smell.
b. coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
c. group as olfactory bulbs.
d. react to aromatic molecules.
e. regenerate to form new olfactory epithelium.
coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
137
While you're visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is
a. occipital fontanelle.
b. mastoid fontanelle.
c. sphenoidal fontanelle.
d. anterior fontanelle.
e. cushion spot.
anterior fontanelle.
138
The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception.
a. cervical
b. sacral
c. thoracic
d. lumbar
e. axial
axial
139
The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.
a. coracoid processes
b. manubria
c. acromial processes
d. scapulae
e. clavicles
clavicles
140
Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure known as the
a. cribriform plate.
b. sella turcica.
c. sphenoid bone.
d. vomer.
e. zygomatic process.
cribriform plate.
141
In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.
a. medial
b. proximal
c. superior
d. lateral
e. distal
medial
142
A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.
a. longer
b. wider
c. narrower
d. larger
e. deeper
narrower
143
The medial malleolus is located on the
a. ischium.
b. patella.
c. femur.
d. fibula.
e. tibia.
tibia.
144
Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in
a. inability to see.
b. inability to hear.
c. inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue.
d. inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue.
e. inability to smell.
inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue.
145
Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton?
a. fusion of the coxal bones
b. closure of the fontanels
c. appearance of major vertebral curves
d. reduction in mineral content
e. bone remodeling
bone remodeling
146
Joints can be classified structurally as
a. bony.
b. cartilaginous.
c. synovial.
d. fibrous.
e. All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct.
147
Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called
a. lingual papillae.
b. macula.
c. ganglion cells.
d. ampulla.
e. pharyngeal papillae.
lingual papillae.
148
A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position.
a. dislocation
b. bunion
c. sprain
d. bursitis
e. fracture
dislocation
149
Amacrine cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? Horizontal cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? (Figure 17-7)
a. horizontal cells synapse with bipolar cells; amacrine cells synapse with bipolar cells
b. photoreceptors synapse with ganglion cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells
c. horizontal cells synapse with photoreceptors; amacrine cells synapse with ganglion cells
d. bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells
e. photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells
bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells
150
The gelatinous core of an intervertebral disc is called the
a. annulus fibrosus.
b. synovial fluid.
c. gelatinous pulposus.
d. nucleus pulposus.
e. gelatinous fibrosus.
nucleus pulposus.
151
All of the following are true of the neural layer of the eye except that it
a. is the innermost layer of the eyeball.
b. contains bipolar cells.
c. consists of dense fibrous connective tissue.
d. contains the photoreceptor cells.
e. contains ganglion cells.
consists of dense fibrous connective tissue
152
Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________.
a. constriction; constriction
b. constriction; dilation
c. dilation; dilation
d. vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction
e. dilation; constriction
constriction; dilation
153
In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci
a. are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones.
b. take the place of bursae.
c. are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.
d. act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.
e. are found between the patella and femur.
act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.
154
The ciliary muscle contracts to
a. adjust the shape of the cornea.
b. adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision.
c. adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.
d. control the amount of light reaching the retina.
e. control the production of aqueous humor.
adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.
155
In ________ an autoimmune response attacks joints and causes an inflammation condition.
a. rheumatism
b. degenerative joint disease
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. osteoporosis
e. gouty arthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
156
Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep.
1. muscle fiber
2. perimysium
3. myofibril
4. fascicle
5. endomysium
6. epimysium
a. 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2
b. 6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
c. 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5
d. 6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
e. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6
6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
157
The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps?
1. Membrane sodium channels close.
2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.
3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.
4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.
5. Opsin activates transducin.
6. Opsin activation occurs.
a. 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4
b. 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
c. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2
d. 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3
e. 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4
3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4
158
Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
a. the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
b. muscle fatigue.
c. muscle contraction.
d. muscle relaxation.
e. the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.
muscle contraction.
159
In the sarcomere which elastic protein attaches the thick filament to the Z line?
a. titin
b. actin
c. G actin
d. nebulin
e. myosin
titin
160
Shaking your head "no" will stimulate the hair cells of the
a. lateral semicircular duct.
b. utricle.
c. posterior semicircular duct.
d. saccule.
e. anterior semicircular duct.
lateral semicircular duct.
161
Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the
a. saccule and utricle.
b. spiral organ.
c. semicircular canals.
d. cochlea.
e. scala tympani.
saccule and utricle.
162
The elevated ridges within the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as
a. maculae.
b. vestibules.
c. canals.
d. otoliths.
e. ampullary crests.
ampullary crests.
163
Hormones known as "catecholamines" are
a. peptides.
b. derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
c. lipids.
d. derivatives of reproductive glands.
e. steroids.
derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
164
The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually
a. calcium ion levels.
b. a G protein.
c. cAMP.
d. cGMP.
e. adenyl cyclase.
a G protein.
165
Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and thromboxanes are all examples of
a. glycoproteins.
b. eicosanoids.
c. amino acid derivatives.
d. steroid hormones.
e. tyrosine derivatives.
eicosanoids.
166
The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called
a. tetany.
b. concentric.
c. isometric.
d. isotonic.
e. treppe.
isometric.
167
The main action of antidiuretic hormone is
a. increased water conservation by kidneys.
b. to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.
c. increased blood pressure by increased Na+ d. reabsorption.
d. inhibition of aldosterone.
e. increase urine output to remove excess fluid.
increased water conservation by kidneys.
168
Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of
a. intermediate fibers.
b. slow fibers.
c. fatty muscles.
d. red muscles.
e. fast fibers.
fast fibers.
169
Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?
a. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not.
b. Cardiac muscle cells does not have striations like skeletal muscle cells.
c. Cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres.
d. Cardiac muscle cells does not have t-tubules.
e. Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells.
Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not.
170
A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)
a. originator.
b. levator.
c. agonist.
d. synergist.
e. antagonist.
synergist
171
Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except
a. adductor.
b. sartorius.
c. levator.
d. extensor.
e. pronator.
sartorius
172
The term used to describe excess production of urine is
a. glycosuria.
b. polydipsia.
c. polyphagia.
d. polyuria.
e. hematuria.
polyuria.
173
The quadriceps group includes all of the following except the
a. vastus lateralis.
b. vastus intermedius.
c. biceps femoris.
d. rectus femoris.
e. vastus medialis.
biceps femoris.
174
The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.
a. afferent
b. sympathetic
c. somatic
d. autonomic
e. parasympathetic
somatic
175
________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.
a. Internoceptors
b. Exteroceptors
c. Spinal nerves
d. Unipolar neurons
e. Proprioceptors
Internoceptors
176
Hormones that stimulate endocrine glands to release other hormones are
a. humoral.
b. tropic.
c. reflexive.
d. up-regulators.
e. paracrine factors.
tropic.
177
Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.
a. leak
b. gated
c. regulated
d. local
e. active
leak
178
The hormone that plays a pivotal role in setting the metabolic rate and thus impacting body temperature is
a. thyroxine.
b. calcitonin.
c. parathyroid hormone.
d. glucagon.
e. somatotropin.
thyroxine.
179
After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal
a. pinches off and a new terminal grows.
b. reabsorbs the acetylcholine.
c. reabsorbs the choline.
d. reabsorbs axoplasm.
e. reabsorbs the acetate.
reabsorbs the choline.
180
When a second EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs?
a. hyperpolarization
b. temporal summation
c. inhibition of the impulse
d. decrease in speed of impulse transmission
e. spatial summation
temporal summation
181
The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the
a. periosteum.
b. pia mater.
c. coccygeal ligament.
d. arachnoid mater.
e. dura mater.
dura mater.
182
Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect?
a. loss of sensation in his torso
b. uncontrollable sweating of his feet
c. problems moving his legs
d. inability to breathe
e. problems with moving his arms
loss of sensation in his torso
183
Thyroid hormone may increase cellular ATP production by binding to
a. the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
b. the vesicles.
c. the cytoplasm.
d. the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
e. the mitochondria.
the mitochondria.
184
Nerve plexuses are formed by interconnecting branches of the
a. white rami communicans.
b. posterior rami.
c. anterior rami.
d. anterior root.
e. posterior root.
anterior rami.
185
Which of the following is NOT a way that reflexes are classified?
a. monosynaptic/polysynaptic
b. spinal/cranial
c. innate/acquired
d. somatic/visceral
e. sympathetic/parasympathetic
sympathetic/parasympathetic
186
A hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver is
a. erythropoietin.
b. calcitonin.
c. thymosin.
d. cortisol.
e. aldosterone.
cortisol.
187
In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
a. contralateral
b. polysynaptic
c. monosynaptic
d. commensual
e. ipsilateral
monosynaptic
188
When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences?
a. thalamus
b. midbrain
c. pons
d. medulla oblongata
e. cerebellum
cerebellum
189
Which of the following is NOT a property of the blood-brain barrier?
a. Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.
b. It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.
c. It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs.
d. It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds.
e. The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.
It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds.
190
The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the
a. arbor vitae.
b. flocculonodular lobe.
c. vermis.
d. folia.
e. pyramid.
vermis
191
The olfactory cortex is located in the
a. frontal lobe.
b. temporal lobe.
c. occipital lobe.
d. parietal lobe.
e. cerebellum.
temporal lobe.
192
Which hormone may be prescribed in chronic inflammatory disorders such as Lupus?
a. aldosterone
b. insulin
c. cortisol
d. calcitonin
e. androgens
cortisol
193
Which cranial nerve sends balance sensations to the brain?
a. vagus
b. olfactory
c. vestibulocochlear
d. facial
e. trigeminal
vestibulocochlear
194
Alpha cells are to ________ as beta cells are to ________.
a. somatostatin; insulin
b. pancreatic polypeptide; insulin
c. glucagon; somatostatin
d. glucagon; insulin
e. insulin; glucagon
glucagon; insulin
195
A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?
a. trigeminal
b. hypoglossal
c. glossopharyngeal
d. spinal accessory
e. vagus
hypoglossal
196
When blood glucose levels fall,
a. peripheral cells take up more glucose.
b. protein synthesis increases.
c. insulin is released.
d. glucagon is released.
e. calcitonin is secreted.
glucagon is released.
197
The sensory receptors, neurons and pathways make up the ________ division of the nervous system.
a. involuntary
b. afferent
c. somatic
d. voluntary
e. efferent
afferent
198
Type 2 diabetes
a. is a lack of insulin production.
b. is not as common as type 1 diabetes.
c. can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.
d. is associated with an immune reaction to the pancreatic cells.
e. is typically diagnosed in the very young.
can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.
199
All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity EXCEPT
a. the structure of the receptor cell.
b. accessory cells that function with the receptor.
c. the metabolism of the receptor cell.
d. accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli.
e. characteristics of the receptor cell membrane.
the metabolism of the receptor cell.
200
Two types of receptors that are least likely to adapt are the
a. proprioceptors and nociceptors.
b. lamellar corpuscles and baroreceptors.
c. chemoreceptors and baroreceptors.
d. tactile discs and the free nerve endings.
e. free nerve endings and the root hair plexus.
proprioceptors and nociceptors
201
The heart secretes the hormone
a. thymosin.
b. atrial natriuretic peptide.
c. thyroxine.
d. progesterone.
e. oxytocin.
atrial natriuretic peptide.
202
In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the
a. interneuron.
b. lower motor neuron.
c. upper motor neuron.
d. axon of the upper motor neuron.
e. axon of the lower motor neuron.
axon of the lower motor neuron.
203
In the corticospinal pathway, the neuron that exits the spinal cord and enters the spinal nerve is called the ________ neuron.
a. lower motor
b. lower sensory
c. pyramidal
d. upper motor
e. upper sensory
lower motor
204
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest."
a. visceral
b. thoracolumbar
c. sympathetic
d. parasympathetic
e. somatomotor
parasympathetic
205
In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons located?
a. thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord
b. brain stem
c. sacral segments of the spinal cord
d. cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord
e. cerebellum
thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord
206
The statement "Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine" is
a. true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
b. true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
c. not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
d. true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
e. true only for the somatic nervous system.
true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
207
The statement "It controls the diameter of the pupil" is
a. not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
b. true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
c. true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
d. true only for the somatic nervous system.
e. true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
208
Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes.
a. intermediate
b. short
c. long
d. hyper
e. spinal
short
209
Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain?
a. pons
b. cerebrum
c. medulla oblongata
d. cerebellum
e. thalamus
cerebrum
210
As we age
a. the number of taste buds increases.
b. taste bud sensitivity doubles.
c. the number of taste buds decreases.
d. taste bud sensitivity increases.
e. the number of taste buds decreases but the number of olfactory receptors increases to compensate.
the number of taste buds decreases.
211
Which of the following is a function of the pigmented layer of the retina?
a. secrete vitreous humor
b. refract light onto the photoreceptors
c. provide eye color
d. absorb light passing through the neural layer
e. house the photoreceptors
absorb light passing through the neural layer
212
Light refraction takes place at the
a. cornea and lens.
b. cornea and optic disc.
c. optic disc.
d. lens only.
e. cornea only.
cornea and lens.
213
Conflicting sensory information from visual and movement signals may cause
a. ringing in the ears.
b. motion sickness.
c. difficulty hearing low tones.
d. temporary deafness.
e. enhanced hearing.
motion sickness
214
All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they
a. are produced by reproductive glands.
b. are produced by the adrenal medulla.
c. are lipids.
d. bind to receptors within the cell.
e. are derived from cholesterol.
are produced by the adrenal medulla.
215
The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is
a. glucagon.
b. parathyroid hormone.
c. growth hormone.
d. insulin.
e. thyroid hormone.
parathyroid hormone.
216
A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is
a. parathormone.
b. cortisol.
c. aldosterone.
d. somatotropin.
e. thymosin.
aldosterone
217
The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce
a. peptide P.
b. insulin.
c. somatostatin.
d. cortisol.
e. glucagon.
insulin.
218
Normal growth is dependent on all of the following hormones except
a. glucocorticoids.
b. growth hormone.
c. thyroid hormones.
d. oxytocin.
e. insulin.
oxytocin.
219
Which one of the following is NOT one of the four main tissue categories?
a. muscle tissue
b. neural tissue
c. epithelial tissue
d. connective tissue
e. osseous tissue
osseous tissue
220
Epithelial cells that line the small intestine transport nutrients into the body. Directional transport is associated with the epithelial tissue property of
a. polarity.
b. avascularity.
c. regeneration.
d. attachment.
e. cellularity.
polarity.
221
Germinative cells
a. cannot divide in the deep layers of epithelial tissue.
b. start in the superficial layers of epithelial tissue.
c. make up most of the epithelial type of tissue.
d. divide continually to produce new epithelial cells.
e. cannot function in the repair of epithelial tissue.
divide continually to produce new epithelial cells.
222
You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the
a. stomach.
b. secretory portions of the pancreas.
c. surface of the skin.
d. urinary bladder.
e. trachea.
trachea.
223
The three categories of connective tissues are
a. connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.
b. glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue.
c. epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue.
d. connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue.
e. areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue.
connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.
224
A tissue that provides strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions is
a. any connective tissue proper.
b. dense regular connective tissue.
c. reticular connective tissue.
d. elastic or hyaline cartilage.
e. dense irregular connective tissue.
dense irregular connective tissue.
225
The watery fluid component of blood is called
a. hemoplasm.
b. hemosol.
c. plasma.
d. liquid elements.
e. formed elements.
plasma.
226
Which blood vessels have porous walls that allow water and small solutes to seep through?
a. capillaries
b. arterioles
c. arteries
d. venules
e. veins
capillaries
227
Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.
a. leukocytes
b. erythrocytes
c. lymphocytes
d. chondrocytes
e. mesenchymal cells
chondrocytes
228
Osseous tissue is also called
a. bone.
b. ligament.
c. cellulite.
d. fat.
e. cartilage.
bone.
229
Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration.
a. vacuous
b. non-sense
c. imprudent
d. impractical
e. insensible
insensible
230
The largest quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum
a. spinosum.
b. lucidum.
c. granulosum.
d. basale.
e. corneum.
corneum.
231
The amount of time it takes for a cell to progress from stratum basale to stratum corneum is
a. 7-10 days.
b. 5 days.
c. 1 minute.
d. 14 days.
e. 1 day.
7-10 days.
232
Use Figure 5-1 to answer the following question:
Adipose tissue is a major component of the region labeled
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.
5.
233
What are the dermal sensory structures that sense deep pressure?
a. Meissner's corpuscles
b. lamellar corpuscle
c. Merkel cells
d. tactile corpuscles
e. tactile dics
lamellar corpuscle
234
The layer of loose connective tissue deep to the dermis is the
a. deep fascia.
b. subcutaneous layer.
c. epidermis.
d. reticular layer.
e. hyperdermis.
subcutaneous layer.
235
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
a. melanin.
b. perspiration.
c. eleidin.
d. keratin.
e. carotene.
melanin
236
Which of the following causes yellowing of the skin?
a. pituitary tumor affecting melanocyte stimulating hormone
b. vitiligo
c. faulty bile excretion in the liver
d. cyanosis
e. Addison's disease
faulty bile excretion in the liver
237
Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation?
a. reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis
b. production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells
c. loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo
d. chromosomal damage in germinative cells or melanocytes
e. increased activity by melanocytes
loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo
238
Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called
a. squamous cell carcinoma.
b. melanoma.
c. keratosis.
d. psoriasis.
e. basal cell carcinoma.
basal cell carcinoma.
239
Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?
a. other tissues that connect bones
b. tendons
c. ligaments
d. bones
e. cartilage
tendons
240
A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a
a. trochlea.
b. tubercle.
c. tuberosity.
d. trochanter.
e. trabecula.
tuberosity.
241
The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is called a
a. crown.
b. capitulum.
c. bulb.
d. head.
e. corona.
head.
242
The patella is an example of a(n) ________ bone.
a. flat
b. sagittal
c. sesamoid
d. sutural
e. irregular
sesamoid
243
A shallow depression on a bone is termed a
a. sulcus.
b. fossa.
c. fissure.
d. line.
e. facet.
fossa.
244
Bones that are small, round and tend to develop in tendons are
a. long bones.
b. flat bones.
c. sesamoid bones.
d. short bones.
e. irregular bones.
sesamoid bones.
245
Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte?
a. immature bone cell
b. stem cell
c. dissolves matrix
d. mature bone cell
e. secretes organic matrix
mature bone cell
246
The femur can withstand ________ times the body's weight without breaking.
a. 5 to 10
b. 10 to 15
c. 3
d. 8
e. 30
10 to 15
247
The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?
a. osseous cartilage
b. fibrocartilage
c. synovial cartilage
d. hyaline cartilage
e. elastic cartilage
hyaline cartilage
248
RANKL or receptor activators of nuclear factor kB
a. causes calcium to be excreted by the kidneys.
b. is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development.
c. are found on the surface of osteoclasts.
d. are receptors that bind directly to PTH.
e. are molecules that cause osteoblasts to lay down bone.
is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development.
249
Identify the mismatched pair.
a. vertebral column: 24 vertebrae and 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx
b. bones associated with the skull: 6 auditory ossicles and 1 hyoid bone
c. skull bones: 8 cranial and 14 facial bones
d. thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles
e. There is no mismatched pair.
thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles
250
In some individuals the supra-orbital foramen is incomplete and called the
a. supra-orbital suture.
b. supra-orbital fissure.
c. supra-orbital fontanelle.
d. supra-orbital meatus.
e. supra-orbital notch.
supra-orbital notch.
251
Which paired bones form the lateral, posterior portions of the cranium?
a. parietal
b. sphenoid
c. frontal
d. maxilla
e. zygomatic
parietal
252
Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
a. temporal
b. occipital
c. palatine
d. frontal
e. parietal
palatine
253
The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone.
a. lacrimal
b. ethmoid
c. atlas
d. vomer
e. hyoid
hyoid
254
The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture.
a. lambdoid
b. sagittal
c. rostral
d. coronal
e. squamous
coronal
255
The smallest facial bones are the
a. lacrimal bones.
b. ethmoid bones.
c. lacerum bones.
d. zygomatic bones.
e. nasal bones.
lacrimal bones
256
The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by
a. increased pumping effectiveness of the heart.
b. an increase in urine output.
c. failure of electrolyte balance.
d. a sharp increase in motivation and energy.
e. an increasing ability to produce glucose from glycogen.
failure of electrolyte balance.
