E4 Flashcards
1
Q
Olfactory glands _______
A) house the sense of smell.
B) regenerate to form new olfactory epithelium.
C) react to aromatic molecules.
D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
E) group as olfactory bulbs.
A
coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus
2
Q
Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain?
A) pons
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) cerebrum
E) medulla oblongata
A
cerebrum
3
Q
Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to _________
A) contact a basal cell.
B) bind to receptors on olfactory dendrites.
C) open ion channels.
D) respond to applied pressure.
E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs.
A
bind to receptors on olfactory dendrites
4
Q
Which of the following is TRUE of olfactory discrimination?
A) There are 6 primary smells known.
B) The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age.
C) All odorants require the same concentration to activate an olfactory receptor.
D) There are different types of olfactory receptor cells to detect each type of odorant.
E) The olfactory receptor population does not divide.
A
The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age
5
Q
All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one?
A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus.
B) Neurons from the olfactory epithelium synapse in the olfactory bulb.
C) Information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system.
D) They reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus.
E) The limbic system-olfactory pathway connection means that there are close ties between experiences and memories with smell.
A
They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus
6
Q
Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons. Which of these special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors?
A) olfaction
B) hearing
C) equilibrium
D) proprioception
E) vision
A
olfaction
7
Q
A normal, relaxed inhalation carries about ________ of the inhaled air to the olfactory organs.
A) 50 percent
B) 8 percent
C) 2 percent
D) 35 percent
E) 10 percent
A
2 percent
8
Q
Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) medial geniculate.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) olfactory bulb.
E) olfactory tract.
A
olfactory bulb
9
Q
Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure known as the
A) cribriform plate.
B) sphenoid bone.
C) sella turcica.
D) vomer.
E) zygomatic process.
A
cribriform plate
10
Q
The olfactory organ consists of the ________ and the lamina propria.
A) gustatory cells
B) basilar membrane
C) olfactory epithelium
D) hippocampus
E) ethmoid bone
A
olfactory epithelium
11
Q
The olfactory receptors are highly modified
A) epithelial cells.
B) interneurons.
C) sensory neurons.
D) motor neurons.
E) neuroglial cells.
A
sensory neurons
12
Q
Which of the following types of sensory information reaches the cerebral cortex directly?
A) visual
B) hearing
C) equilibrium
D) olfactory
E) gustatory
A
olfactory
13
Q
When odorant molecules contact the dendritic processes of olfactory receptors the initial response is
A) an action potential.
B) activation of a kinase.
C) a generator potential.
D) a hyperpolarization potential.
E) a conversion of 11-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal.
A
a generator potential
14
Q
During a sinus infection it is difficult to smell because
A) basal cell division decreases.
B) olfactory glands stop producing mucus.
C) olfactory supporting cells block odorant molecules from reaching the receptors.
D) the hypothalamus stops responding to olfactory stimulation.
E) excess mucus blocks odorant molecules from reaching the receptors.
A
excess mucus blocks odorant molecules from reaching the receptors
15
Q
Damage to the insula is most likely to affect which of the following senses?
A) olfaction
B) gustation
C) vision
D) hearing
E) equilibrium
A
gustation
16
Q
Our taste buds are most receptive to which of the following types of compounds?
A) sweet
B) salty
C) sweet and salty
D) bitter
E) umami
A
bitter
17
Q
As we age
A) taste bud sensitivity increases.
B) taste bud sensitivity doubles.
C) the number of taste buds increases.
D) the number of taste buds decreases.
E) the number of taste buds decreases but the number of olfactory receptors increases to compensate.
A
the number of taste buds decreases
18
Q
Which of the following correctly states how a gustatory receptor will be stimulated by an acidic or sour compound?
A) G proteins will be activated.
B) Hydrogen ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization.
C) Sodium ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization.
D) Second messengers will be activated.
E) Adenylate cyclase will be activated.
A
Sodium ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization
19
Q
The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of
A) photoreceptors in the eye.
B) mechanoreceptors in the ear.
C) olfactory receptors.
D) lamellar corpuscles.
E) proprioceptors.
A
olfactory receptors
20
Q
Which of the following lingual papillae has the largest number of taste buds?
A) pharynx
B) foliate papillae
C) filiform papillae
D) fungiform papillae
E) vallate papillae
A
vallate papillae
21
Q
Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in
A) inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue.
B) inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue.
C) inability to smell.
D) inability to see.
E) inability to hear.
A
inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue.
22
Q
Stimulation of receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of
A) intensely sweet.
B) intensely sour.
C) quite salty.
D) peppery hot.
E) bitter.
A
peppery hot
23
Q
An adult has approximately ________ taste buds.
A) 100
B) 10,000
C) 4,000,000
D) 500
E) 50,000
A
10,000
24
Q
A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve
A) VII.
B) III.
C) IX.
D) V.
E) XII.
A
V
25
Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations?
A) sweet
B) peppery
C) sour
D) salty
E) umami
peppery
26
The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as
A) sweet.
B) umami.
C) salty.
D) peppery.
E) sour.
umami
27
The sense of taste is also known as
A) proprioception.
B) maculation.
C) gustation.
D) olfaction.
E) sublation.
gustation
28
The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensations are called
A) gustatory hairs.
B) chemically-gated ion channels.
C) voltage-regulated ion channels.
D) G proteins.
E) papillae.
G proteins
29
Taste buds are clusters of individual
A) vallate papillae.
B) gustatory hairs.
C) epithelial cells.
D) olfactory receptors.
E) gustatory receptors.
gustatory receptors
30
Each gustatory cell extends ________ (called taste hairs) into the surrounding fluids through a narrow taste pore.
A) microvilli
B) villi
C) papillae
D) palpebra
E) G proteins
microvilli
31
Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called
A) macula.
B) lingual papillae.
C) ganglion cells.
D) pharyngeal papillae.
E) ampulla.
lingual papillae
32
A typical gustatory cell survives for only about ________ day(s) before it is replaced.
A) 10
B) 1
C) 60
D) 30
E) 365
10
33
Tears pass through which of the following structures before emptying into the nasal cavity?
A) anterior chamber
B) posterior chamber
C) nasolacrimal duct
D) scleral venous sinus
E) corneoscleral junction
nasolacrimal duct
34
Which structure of the eye is the most sensitive but contains no blood vessels?
A) iris
B) choroid
C) retina
D) sclera
E) cornea
cornea
35
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) anterior chamber: between the cornea and the iris
B) posterior chamber: between the iris and the lens
C) ciliary body: site of extrinsic eye muscle attachment
D) retina: consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer
E) sclera: covers most of the ocular surface
ciliary body: site of extrinsic eye muscle attachment
36
Which of the following is a function of the pigmented layer of the retina?
A) provide eye color
B) house the photoreceptors
C) secrete vitreous humor
D) absorb light passing through the neural layer
E) refract light onto the photoreceptors
absorb light passing through the neural layer
37
The purpose of the intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cell (ipRGC) photoreceptors are
A) to give clear sharp vision.
B) to allow us to see in dim light.
C) to replace rods as we age.
D) influence the circadian rhythm.
E) to provide color vision.
influence the circadian rhythm
38
The primary cause of blindness in the United States is
A) cataracts.
B) diabetic retinopathy.
C) glaucoma.
D) retinal detachment.
E) retinopathy of prematurity.
diabetic retinopathy
39
Jonathan received a strong blow to the eye. The eyeball remained intact but he suddenly could not see. This has likely caused
A) development of cataracts.
B) a detached retina.
C) development of glaucoma.
D) astigmatism.
E) myopia.
a detached retina
40
Which of the following is FALSE concerning lacrimal glands?
A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid.
B) They produce most of the volume of tears.
C) They produce lysozyme.
D) They produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions.
E) They are located in recesses in the frontal bones.
They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid
41
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest."
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) thoracolumbar
D) visceral
E) somatomotor
parasympathetic
42
The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following?
A) somatic division
B) craniosacral division
C) resting division
D) thoracolumbar division
E) lumbosacral division
thoracolumbar division
43
Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on
A) postganglionic fibers.
B) visceral reflex responses.
C) motor neurons.
D) ganglionic neurons.
E) afferent neurons.
ganglionic neurons.
44
Preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located in
A) the brain.
B) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
C) the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
D) both the brainstem and the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
E) the cerebrum
both the brainstem and the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
45
Ganglionic neurons innervate all of the following except
A) smooth muscle.
B) cardiac muscle.
C) adipose tissue.
D) glands.
E) skeletal muscle
skeletal muscle
46
The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state?
A) exertion
B) trauma
C) digestion
D) stress
E) exercise
digestion
47
A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n)________ neuron.
A) upper motor
B) lower motor
C) preganglionic
D) postganglionic
E) somatomotor
preganglionic
48
In which system are the ganglia in or near the target organ?
A) sympathetic division of the ANS
B) parasympathetic division of the ANS
C) somatic nervous system
D) afferent nervous system
E) central nervous system
parasympathetic division of the ANS
49
The parasympathetic division is also called the ________ division.
A) thoracolumbar
B) craniosacral
C) thoracocranial
D) craniolumbar
E) craniococcygea
craniosacral
50
Which of the following is not controlled by the ANS?
A) skeletal muscle system
B) cardiovascular system
C) respiratory system
D) digestive system
E) urinary system
skeletal muscle system
51
visceral motor neuron nuclei are located in which part of the brain?
A) midbrain
B) primary motor cortex
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
hypothalamus
52
Sympathetic postganglion fibers that innervate the small intestines originate from the
A) inferior mesenteric ganglion.
B) cardiac plexus.
C) celiac ganglion.
D) sacral splanchnic nerves.
E) superior mesenteric ganglion
superior mesenteric ganglion
53
Sympathetic nerves contain postganglionic fibers that innervate organs in which cavity?
A) thoracic
B) pelvic
C) abdominal
D) cranial
E) abdominopelvic
thoracic
54
Which is not a sympathetic ganglion?
A) celiac
B) otic
C) inferior mesenteric
D) superior mesenteric
E) sacral chain
otic
55
A pedestrian narrowly avoids being hit by an oncoming car. He notices that it takes a little while for his heart rate and respiratory rate to return to normal. This is likely because
A) the parasympathetic nervous system has become activated.
B) sympathetic activation of the adrenal medulla has released epinephrine and norepinephrine
into the bloodstream.
C) the splanchnic nerves have become activated.
D) somatic motor neurons have increased the heart and respiratory rate.
E) the corticospinal pathway has become ac
tivated.
sympathetic activation of the adrenal medulla has released epinephrine and norepinephrine
into the bloodstream.
56
Sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and have ________ axons.
A) short; myelinated
B) short; unmyelinated
C) long; myelinated
D) long; unmyelinated
E) intermediate; small
short; myelinated
57
In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons located?
A) cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord
B) sacral segments of the spinal cord
C) brain stem
D) thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord
E) cerebellum
thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord
58
Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the
A) lateral gray horns of the cervical cord.
B) anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord.
C) lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord.
D) anterior gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord.
E) lateral gray horns of T1 to S2 of the spinal cord.
lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord.
59
Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ________ ganglia.
A) intramural
B) collateral
C) chain
D) paravertebral
E) adrena
chain
60
Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called ________ ganglia.
A) intramural
B) collateral
C) chain
D) paravertebral
E) adrenal
collateral
61
Injury to the neurons of a collateral ganglion would affect the function of the
A) heart.
B) pupils.
C) sweat glands.
D) digestive tract.
E) arrector pili muscles.
digestive tract.
62
Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to
A) dilate the right pupil.
B) constrict the right pupil.
C) dilate the left pupil.
D) constrict the left pupil.
E) smile and frown
dilate the right pupil.
63
Postganglionic axons usually are
A) myelinated.
B) unmyelinated.
C) larger than preganglionic fibers.
D) located in the brain.
E) located in the spinal cord
unmyelinated.
64
Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to
A) relaxation of the urinary sphincter.
B) increased heart rate.
C) conversion of liver glycogen reserves into glucose.
D) activation of ventral sweat glands.
E) increased gastric motility
conversion of liver glycogen reserves into glucose.
65
Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity?
A) thoracic
B) pelvic
C) abdominal
D) craniosacral
E) abdominopelvic
abdominopelvic
66
Sympathetic nerves
A) provoke feelings of sympathy.
B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover.
C) contains short preganglionic fibers and longer postganglionic fibers.
D) control swallowing.
E) stimulate gastric secretion
contains short preganglionic fibers and longer postganglionic fibers.
67
Preganglionic fibers that innervate the collateral ganglia form the
A) adrenal medulla.
B) celiac ganglia.
C) sympathetic chain ganglia.
D) inferior mesenteric ganglia.
E) splanchnic nerves
splanchnic nerves
68
Which of the following is not innervated by the celiac ganglia?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) stomach
D) pancreas
E) bladder
bladder
69
The adrenal medullae secrete
A) medullin.
B) epinephrine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) renin.
E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine
both epinephrine and norepinephrine
70
Specialized ganglionic sympathetic neurons that release hormones into the bloodstream are found within the
A) intramural ganglia.
B) collateral ganglia.
C) chain ganglia.
D) brain stem.
E) adrenal medullae
adrenal medullae
71
Postganglionic fibers that innervate targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity originate on neurons within
A) intramural ganglia.
B) collateral ganglia.
C) sympathetic chain ganglia.
D) suprarenal ganglia.
E) white rami communicantes.
sympathetic chain ganglia.
72
Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except
A) increased sweat secretion.
B) reduced circulation to the skin.
C) decreased heart rate.
D) dilation of the pupils.
E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles.
decreased heart rate.
73
Splanchnic nerves
A) originate from first-order neurons located in the upper five thoracic segments of the spinal cord.
B) innervate the viscera or internal organs.
C) control sympathetic function of structures in the thorax.
D) connect chain ganglia.
E) are formed of parasympathetic fibers
innervate the viscera or internal organs.
74
Autonomic disorders would not cause
A) excessive perspiration.
B) appetite.
C) sexual arousal.
D) problems in maintenance of blood pressure.
E) problems related to skeletal muscle function
problems related to skeletal muscle function
75
The celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric ganglia are collectively called ________ ganglia.
A) chain
B) collateral
C) intramural
D) paravertebral
E) termina
collateral
76
The ________ nervous system stimulates the arrector pili muscles and gives you
"goosebumps."
A) parasympathetic
B) afferent
C) dorsal
D) sympathetic
E) somatic
sympathetic
77
As the result of an accident, the white rami communicantes of spinal nerves T1 and T2 on the left side of Brad's body are severed. What organ(s) would you expect to be affected by this
injury?
A) left pupil
B) right pupil
C) heart
D) both pupils
E) left pupil and heart
left pupil and heart
78
Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) somatic motor neuron
B) preganglionic neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) ganglionic neuron
E) astrocyte
preganglionic neuron
79
Identify the round structure labeled "3."
A) dorsal root ganglion
B) spinal nerve
C) chain ganglion
D) intramural ganglion
E) rami communicantes
chain ganglion
80
Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) preganglionic neuron
B) postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve
C) preganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve
D) collateral ganglion
E) white ramus communicans
postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve
81
Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) ventral root
B) dorsal ramus
C) spinal nerve
D) ventral ramus
E) white ramus communicans
spinal nerve
82
Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) somatic motor neuron
B) preganglionic neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) ganglionic neuron
E) astrocyte
ganglionic neuron
83
Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help
deal with his problem?
A) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle
B) a drug that blocks alpha-2 receptors in adipose tissue
C) a drug that increases cAMP levels in cardiac muscle tissue
D) a drug that blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
E) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac
muscle tissue
84
Drugs that have effects similar to those of sympathetic activation are called
sympathomimetic drugs. Which of the following would you not expect to observe in a person
who has taken a sympathomimetic drug?
A) sweating
B) increased heart rate
C) dilation of respiratory passages
D) decreased blood pressure
E) increased blood sugar level
decreased blood pressure
85
Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating
A) constipation.
B) diarrhea.
C) excessive salivation.
D) excessive heart rate.
E) prostate disorders.
excessive heart rate.
86
Sympathetic axon terminals form a branching network of swollen segments called
A) ganglia.
B) receptors.
C) varicosities.
D) nuclei.
E) bulbs.
varicosities.
87
The majority of norepinephrine released by varicosities only briefly affects the target tissue
because it is quickly reused or broken down by
A) monoamine oxidase.
B) acetylcholinesterase.
C) nitroxide.
D) decarboxylase.
E) catalase
monoamine oxidase.
88
Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation?
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) serotonin
E) nitric oxide
nitric oxide
89
Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells results in
A) the decrease in ATP production.
B) increased heart rate and force of contraction.
C) decreased force of contraction.
D) slower heart rate.
E) inhibition of the heart muscle
increased heart rate and force of contraction.
90
Regarding the sympathetic nervous system, the neurotransmitter ACh is
A) always excitatory when used in the synapses of the sympathetic nervous system.
B) broken down by COMT.
C) going to reduce the activity of the other neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
D) broken down by monoamine oxidase.
E) a chemica
l similar to the structure of adrenaline.
always excitatory when used in the synapses of the sympathetic nervous system.
91
Which of the following statements is true?
The stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors can lead to
1. an increase in metabolic activity.
2. contraction of airway smooth muscle.
3. the breakdown of triglycerides within adipocytes.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1 and 3
E) 1, 2, and 3
1 and 3
92
An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that
A) activates β1 adrenergic receptors.
B) activates β2 adrenergic receptors.
C) activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
D) blocks β2 adrenergic receptors.
E) activates β2 adrenergic receptors or activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
activates β2 adrenergic receptors.
93
Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release
acetylcholine instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type?
A) the heart
B) a blood vessel in the skin
C) a sweat gland
D) the liver
E) the salivary glands
a sweat gland
94
A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This
drug probably binds to ________ receptors.
A) nicotinic cholinergic
B) muscarinic cholinergic
C) alpha-1 adrenergic
D) alpha-2 adrenergic
E) beta-1 adrenergic
beta-1 adrenergic
95
Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors, causing constriction of peripheral vessels, are
A) sympathetic blocking agents.
B) sympathomimetic.
C) parasympathetic blocking agents.
D) parasympathomimetic.
E) autonomic blocking agents
sympathomimetic.
96
Sympathomimetic drugs might be used to
A) decrease heart rate.
B) decrease blood pressure.
C) dilate airways.
D) increase gastric motility.
E) reduce blood sugar levels
dilate airways.
97
If the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane binds to norepinephrine, the synapse is called
A) cholinergic.
B) anergic.
C) adrenergic.
D) synergic.
E) noradrenergic.
adrenergic.
98
Disorders involving the vagus nerve might
cause
A) food to remain in your stomach longer.
B) a drop in blood pressure.
C) constriction of the pupils.
D) more saliva production.
E) increased sweating
food to remain in your stomach longer.
99
The statement "It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system
true only for the parasympathetic nervous system
100
Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in all of the following cranial
nerves except
A) III.
B) VII.
C) IX.
D) X.
E) XII.
XII.
101
Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________ nerve(s).
A) splanchnic
B) facial
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
E) trigemina
vagus
102
Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion?
A) ciliary
B) pterygopalatine
C) submandibular
D) otic
E) celiac
celiac
103
Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except
A) decrease in the rate of cardiac contraction.
B) constriction of the pupils.
C) dilation of the airways.
D) stimulation of urination.
E) stimulation of defecation
dilation of the airways.
104
Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic division of the autonomic
nervous system is false?
A) Preganglionic neurons are located in the brain stem and sacral region of the spinal cord.
B) Ganglionic neurons are located in ganglia within or near to effectors.
C) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
D) The actions of the parasympathetic division are more localized than those of the sympathetic division.
E) The ganglionic neurons always release acetylcholine
Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
105
Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the CNS in all of the following locations except
A) the midbrain.
B) the pons.
C) the medulla oblongata.
D) spinal segments T1-L2.
E) spinal segments S2-S4
spinal segments T1-L2.
106
Preganglionic fibers from the sacral segments of the spinal cord form the ________ nerve(s).
A) pelvic
B) splanchnic
C) celiac
D) sympathetic
E) mesenteric
pelvic
107
Parasympathetic stimulation
A) increases heart rate.
B) increases gastric motility.
C) causes sweat glands to secrete.
D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate.
E) causes the pupils to dilate.
increases gastric motility.
108
Intramural ganglia in the digestive, urinary, and reproductive organs are innervated by the ________ nerves.
A) spinal
B) splanchnic
C) chain
D) pelvic
E) collateral
pelvic
109
Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve would likely cause
A) increase in heart rate.
B) problems in sexual arousal.
C) a reduction in saliva.
D) visual problems.
E) urine retention.
a reduction in saliva.
110
Parasympathetic ganglia that are near the eyes and salivary glands are called ________
ganglia.
A) somatic
B) collateral
C) contralateral
D) intramural
E) terminal
terminal
111
The statement "Its postganglionic axons always use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system
true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
112
Nicotinic receptors
A) respond to epinephrine.
B) respond to norepinephrine.
C) open chemically-gated sodium ion channels.
D) can be either excitatory or inhibitory in function.
E) are found at synaptic junctions of the sympathetic nervous system.
open chemically-gated sodium ion channels
113
Muscarinic receptors
A) are normally activated by acetylcholine.
B) are found mostly in autonomic ganglia.
C) always produce an excitatory response.
D) control sodium channels in the affected membrane.
E) are blocked by norepinephrine
are normally activated by acetylcholine.
114
The statement "Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the soma
tic nervous system
true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
115
Parasympathetic effects are localized and short-lived because
A) muscarinic receptors are deactivated by norepinephrine.
B) acetylcholine is inactivated at the synapse by acetylcholinesterase.
C) norepinephrine hyperpolarizes the postganglionic membrane.
D) norepinephrine is inactivated at the synapse by monoamine oxidase.
E) epinephrine blocks the muscarinic receptors
acetylcholine is inactivated at the synapse by acetylcholinesterase.
116
Nicotine poisoning differs from muscarine poisoning in that
A) it causes vomiting.
B) it causes salivation.
C) it causes sweating.
D) it causes skeletal muscle convulsions.
E) it causes diarrhea
it causes skeletal muscle convulsions.
117
Drugs that block nicotinic receptors would be
A) sympathomimetic.
B) parasympathomimetic.
C) parasympathetic blocking agents.
D) sympathetic blocking agents.
E) autonomic blocking agents
autonomic blocking agents
118
Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating
A) heart failure.
B) high blood pressure.
C) urinary incontinence.
D) hyperactivity.
E) excessive sweating
urinary incontinence.
119
A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug
that is used is a(n) ________ drug.
1. sympathomimetic
2. parasympathomimetic
3. adrenergic activating
4. cholinergic activating
A) 1, 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1, 3
E) 2, 4
1, 3
120
Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. You would expect to
observe all of the following symptoms except
A) diarrhea.
B) salivation.
C) very fast heart rate.
D) sweating.
E) low blood pressure.
very fast heart rate.
121
The ganglia located lateral to the vertebral column are part of the sympathetic
A) chain.
B) tract.
C) decussation.
D) tubes.
E) canal
chain.
122
Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division?
A) PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column.
B) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short.
C) Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L2 of the spinal cord.
D) The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.
E) Postganglionic fibers are relatively long
The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.
123
All parasympathetic neurons are
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) nitroxidergic.
D) gamma-aminobutyric.
E) dopaminergic
cholinergic.
124
Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) sympathetic: short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers
B) sympathetic: short preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
C) sympathetic: long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
D) parasympathetic: short preganglion and long postganglionic fibers
E) parasympathetic: contains only preganglionic fibers
sympathetic: short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers
125
Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving
A) two nerves from the spinal cord.
B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves.
C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation.
D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord.
E) both sensory and motor nerves
both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation.
126
The statement "It controls the diameter of the pupil" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system
true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
127
Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that innervate the heart pass through the
A) celiac plexus.
B) hypogastric plexus.
C) cardiac plexus.
D) sphenopalatine ganglia.
E) otic ganglia
cardiac plexus.
128
Control of the diameter of the respiratory passages depends upon
A) sympathetic stimulation only.
B) parasympathetic stimulation only.
C) somatomotor stimulation only.
D) both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation.
E) sensory receptors sensitive to changes in lung ventilation
both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation.
129
Nerve networks that include both sympathetic
and parasympathetic fibers that reach the same
structure are called
A) somatic plexuses.
B) somatic ganglia.
C) autonomic plexuses.
D) autonomic ganglia.
E) central plexuses
autonomic plexuses.
130
Descending branches of the vagus and splanchnic nerves travel through the ________
plexus.
A) cardiac
B) pulmonary
C) hypogastric
D) esophageal
E) celiac
esophageal
131
Autonomic tone is an important aspect of ANS function because it
A) allows ANS neurons to be silent under normal conditions.
B) allows ANS neurons to increase activity on demand but not decrease their activity.
C) allows ANS neurons to decrease their activity on demand but not increase their ac
tivity.
D) allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control
options.
E) provides for a narrow range of control options that keeps target tissues constantly active
allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control
options.
132
A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in
A) no change in vessel diameter.
B) a decrease in vessel diameter.
C) oscillation in vessel diameter.
D) a decrease in blood flow through the vessel.
E) an increase in blood flow through the vessel
an increase in blood flow through the vessel
133
In general, autonomic tone of peripheral blood vessels increases when
A) sympathetic stimulation is increased.
B) sympathetic stimulation is decreased.
C) parasympathetic stimulation is increased.
D) parasympathetic stimulation is decreased.
E) somatomotor stimulation is increased
sympathetic stimulation is increased.
134
Most vital organs receive ________ in
nervation. That is, they receive input from both
sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
A) single
B) dual
C) biaxial
D) ambitonic
E) autonomic
dual
135
Which of the following is not true regarding visceral reflex arcs?
A) They are monosynaptic.
B) They have the same basic components as somatic reflexes.
C) Short visceral reflexes bypass the CNS.
D) They can be short or long reflexes.
E) The processing steps involve interneurons in the CNS
They are monosynaptic.
136
Which of the following visceral reflexes is
not coordinated by the medulla oblongata?
A) swallowing reflex
B) vasomotor reflex
C) coughing reflex
D) cardioacceleratory reflex
E) pupillary reflex
pupillary reflex
137
Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic function?
A) gagging on food that does not appeal to you
B) a violent coughing attack in response to an irritant
C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear
D) dilation of the pupils when you enter a dark room
E) increased salivation when you smell food that appeals to you
increased heart rate when you see a person you fear
138
________ reflexes perform the simplest functions of the autonomic nervous system.
A) Somatic
B) Cranial
C) Spinal
D) Visceral
E) Consensual
Visceral
139
Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes.
A) short
B) intermediate
C) long
D) hyper
E) spinal
short
140
The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the
A) cerebrum.
B) thalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) pituitary gland.
E) hypothalamus.
hypothalamus.
141
Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation?
A) occipital lobe
B) basal nuclei
C) hippocampus
D) insula
E) prefrontal lobe
hippocampus
142
Mechanisms involved in memory formation and storage involve all of the following except
A) increased release of neurotransmitters.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) the formation of additional synaptic connections.
D) the formation of memory engrams.
E) facilitation at synapses.
anterograde amnesia.
143
Long-term memories that are with you for a lifetime are called ________ memories.
A) tertiary
B) reflexive
C) consolidated
D) multilobar
E) secondary
tertiary
144
Most long-term memories are stored in the
A) cerebellum.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) pons.
E) thalamus
cerebral cortex.
145
For minor surgical procedures, Valium is typically given to patients to cause anterograde
amnesia. This means the patient will temporarily
A) forget all fact memories such as the color of a stop sign.
B) forget skill memories like how to ride a bike.
C) forget long-term memories like their name.
D) forget memories from before surgery.
E) forget memories from during and immediately after surgery
forget memories from during and immediately after surgery
146
Blocking ________ receptors in the ________ prevents long-term memory formation.
A) serotonin; hypothalamus
B) NMDA; hippocampus
C) NMDA; midbrain
D) serotonin; midbrain
E) norepinephrine; hippocampus
NMDA; hippocampus
147
Which of the following is an inherited disease characterized by destruction of ACh-secreting and GABA-secreting neurons in the basal nuclei causing difficulty controlling movements?
A) schizophrenia
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Huntington's disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
E) senile dementia
Huntington's disease
148
Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called
A) memory conversion.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) memory programming.
D) memory consolidation.
E) memory engraving
memory consolidation.
149
The conscious state is maintained by the
A) prefrontal lobes.
B) general interpretive area.
C) limbic system.
D) reticular activating system.
E) nucleus gracilis
reticular activating system.
150
Based on stimulation studies, the "headquarters" of the reticular activating system appears to be based in the
A) medulla.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) diencephalon.
E) cerebrum
midbrain.
151
A state of unconsciousness in which an individual cannot be aroused even by strong stimuli is
A) somnolence.
B) sleep.
C) stupor.
D) coma.
E) a chronic vegetative state
coma.
152
The brain waves produced by normal adults while resting with their eyes closed are
________ waves.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) theta
D) delta
E) gamma
alpha
153
The regulation of awake-asleep cycles appears to involve an interplay between brain stem
nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. The one that favors alertness is ________ and the
other promoting deep sleep is
________.
A) acetylcholine; serotonin
B) serotonin; norepinephrine
C) norepinephrine; serotonin
D) dopamine; GABA
E) glutamate; serotonin
norepinephrine; serotonin
154
During ________ sleep, dreaming occurs.
A) REM
B) deep
C) beta
D) stage 1
E) stage 2
REM
155
Hallucinogenic drugs, such as LSD, function by
A) stimulating receptors for norepinephrine.
B) blocking acetylcholine receptors.
C) increasing the production of GABA.
D) stimulating serotonin receptors.
E) mimicking the action of dopamine
stimulating serotonin receptors.
156
The inherited brain disorder Huntington's disease is caused by the destruction of basal nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. One neurotransmitter is ________ and the other is ________.
A) acetylcholine; serotonin
B) serotonin; norepinephrine
C) norepinephrine; serotonin
D) acetylcholine; GABA
E) glutamate; serotonin
acetylcholine; GABA
157
What mental illness is often improved by drugs that block serotonin re-uptake?
A) agitation
B) hallucinations
C) depression
D) Parkinson's
E) Huntington's
depression
158
An age-related decline in mental function characterized by difficulties with spatial
orientation, memory, language, and personality is called
A) delirium agitans.
B) senile dementia.
C) persistent vegetative state.
D) somnolence of the aged.
E) progressive cerebral dysfunction.
senile dementia.
159
Changes in the central nervous system that accompany aging include all of the following
except
A) reduction in brain size and weight.
B) decrease in the number of neurons.
C) decreased blood flow to the brain.
D) changes in synaptic organization in the brain.
E) increased memory storage
increased memory storage
160
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by all of the following except that it
A) is the most common cause of senile dementia.
B) is characterized by a progressive loss of memory.
C) has a clear genetic basis.
D) is associated with the formation of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
E) may be associated with damage to the nucleus basalis.
has a clear genetic basis.
161
The somatic nervous system affects skeletal muscles. Name effectors of the autonomic
nervous system. (Figure 16-1)
A) bone and spinal cord
B) smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, adipocytes
C) bone and joints
D) spinal cord and brainstem
E) cerebrum and cerebellum
smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, adipocytes
162
Which type of ganglionic
neuron innervates visceral organs in the abdominopelvic cavity?
(Figure 16-3)
A) adrenal medullary neurons
B) sympathetic chain ganglionic neurons
C) collateral ganglionic neurons
D) sacral ganglionic neurons
E) cervical ganglionic neurons
collateral ganglionic neurons
163
What neurotransmitter is released from most varicosities in the sympathetic division? (Figure
16-4)
A) dopamine
B) serotonin
C) epinephrine
D) norepinephrine
E) GABA
norepinephrine
164
The short reflex bypasses what part of the nervous system? (Figure 16-7)
A) peripheral nervous system
B) enteric nervous system
C) spinal cord
D) brainstem
E) central nervous system
central nervous system
165
Special sensory inputs arrive by which cranial nerves? (Figure 16-11)
A) I and II
B) II and IV
C) II and VIII
D) V and VII
E) VII and VII
II and VIII
166
All of the following are true of the fibrous layer of the eye EXCEPT that it
A) consists of the sclera and cornea.
B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye.
C) produces aqueous humor.
D) contributes substantial focusing power.
E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert.
produces aqueous humor
167
What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision?
A) aqueous humor
B) ciliary body
C) iris
D) extrinsic eye muscles
E) macula
ciliary body
168
The eyelids are connected at the
A) palpebral fissure.
B) medial and lateral angles.
C) lacrimal caruncle.
D) chalazion.
E) conjunctiva.
medial and lateral angles
169
The space between the iris and the lens is the
A) anterior chamber.
B) posterior chamber.
C) pupil.
D) scleral venous sinus.
E) vitreous body.
posterior chamber
170
All of the following are true of the neural layer of the eye EXCEPT that it
A) contains ganglion cells.
B) contains the photoreceptor cells.
C) contains bipolar cells.
D) is the innermost layer of the eyeball.
E) consists of dense fibrous connective tissue.
consists of dense fibrous connective tissue
171
The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by
A) moving up and down.
B) moving in and out.
C) changing shape.
D) opening and closing.
E) dilating and constricting.
changing shape
172
A structure that is located at the medial angle and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the
A) palpebra.
B) lacrimal caruncle.
C) chalazion.
D) tarsal gland.
E) conjunctiva.
lacrimal caruncle
173
Which of the following produces a lipid-rich secretion that prevents the upper and lower eyelids from sticking together at their edges?
A) palpebra
B) lacrimal caruncle
C) chalazion
D) tarsal gland
E) conjunctiva
tarsal gland
174
The vitreous body
A) fills the anterior chamber.
B) helps to stabilize the eye and holds the retina up against the eyewall.
C) is replaced at the rate of 20 percent per year until middle age.
D) circulates through the pupil.
E) holds the retina against the lens for proper refraction.
helps to stabilize the eye and holds the retina up against the eyewall
175
The space between the cornea and the iris is the
A) anterior chamber.
B) posterior chamber.
C) scleral venous sinus.
D) aqueous humor.
E) pupil.
anterior chamber
176
The shape of the lens is controlled by the
A) pupillary sphincter muscles.
B) pupillary radial muscles.
C) ciliary muscles.
D) iris.
E) cornea.
ciliary muscles
177
The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye.
A) conjunctiva
B) cornea
C) iris
D) anterior chamber
E) caruncle
conjunctiva
178
The transparent portion of the fibrous layer is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) pupil.
E) angle.
cornea
179
The part of the eye that determines eye color is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) pupil.
E) scleral venous sinus.
iris
180
The opening in the iris through which light passes is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) pupil.
D) anterior chamber.
E) posterior chamber.
pupil
181
An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the
A) outer segment.
B) inner segment.
C) fovea.
D) optic disc.
E) tapetum lucidum.
fovea
182
A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order?
A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina
B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea
C) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina
D) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina
E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid
conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina
183
The cornea is part of the
A) iris.
B) fibrous layer.
C) neural layer.
D) uvea.
E) choroid.
fibrous layer
184
The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the
A) vitreous humor.
B) aqueous humor.
C) ora serrata.
D) perilymph.
E) posterior cavity.
vitreous humor
185
Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________.
A) dilation; constriction
B) dilation; dilation
C) constriction; dilation
D) constriction; constriction
E) vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction
constriction; dilation
186
Trace the circulation of aqueous humor from the site of production to the site of where it is reabsorbed.
1. posterior chamber
2. anterior chamber
3. ciliary body
4. scleral venous sinus
5. pupil
A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
B) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
3, 1, 5, 2, 4
187
What structure regulates the amount of light that passes to the photoreceptors of the eye?
A) vitreous body
B) cornea
C) ciliary muscle
D) iris
E) lens
iris
188
The optic disc is a blind spot because
A) there are no photoreceptors in that area.
B) the retina lacks nerves in the optic disc.
C) humans are unable to focus light on that area of the retina.
D) the vitreous body is too thick in this area for the passage of light.
E) the fovea prevents light from striking the optic disc.
there are no photoreceptors in that area
189
Modified sebaceous glands located along the margin of the eyelid that secrete a lipid-rich product are called ________ glands.
A) carpal
B) mucous
C) optic
D) ocular
E) tarsal
tarsal
190
A(n) ________ is an infection in one of the glands on the eyelids.
A) sty
B) furuncle
C) abscess
D) lesion
E) carbuncle
sty
191
The abnormality that develops when a lens loses its transparency is known as
A) glaucoma.
B) myopia.
C) macular degeneration.
D) a cataract.
E) Fuch's dystrophy.
a cataract
192
________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
A) Bipolar
B) Ganglion
C) Amacrine
D) Cone
E) Rod
Bipolar
193
Amacrine and ________ cells facilitate or inhibit communication between photoreceptors and ganglion cells.
A) bipolar
B) ganglion
C) nuclear
D) hair
E) horizontal
horizontal
194
________, or pinkeye, results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface.
A) Fuch's dystrophy
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Glaucoma
D) Myopia
E) Uveitis
Conjunctivitis
195
An abnormal blind spot appearing in vision is called a(n)
A) astigmatism.
B) cataract.
C) scotoma.
D) chalazion.
E) sty.
scotoma
196
Light refraction takes place at the
A) cornea and lens.
B) lens only.
C) optic disc.
D) cornea and optic disc.
E) cornea only.
cornea and lens
197
Which of the following is not true regarding image formation?
A) The greatest amount of refraction occurs at the cornea.
B) The focal distance must equal the distance between the center of the lens and the retina to form a sharp image.
C) A round lens has a short focal distance.
D) Images arrive at the retina upside down and reversed.
E) To view a distant object the lens will become rounder.
To view a distant object the lens will become rounder
198
The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of
A) 700 and 1000 nm.
B) 100 and 200 nm.
C) 200 and 400 nm.
D) 2000 and 2500 nm.
E) 400 and 700 nm.
400 and 700 nm
199
In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the
A) iris.
B) cornea.
C) lens.
D) aqueous humor.
E) vitreous humor.
cornea
200
The ciliary muscle contracts to
A) control the amount of light reaching the retina.
B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision.
C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.
D) control the production of aqueous humor.
E) adjust the shape of the cornea.
adjust the shape of the lens for near vision
201
If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see
A) 20-point font at 15 feet.
B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet.
C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet.
D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet.
E) objects that are 20 feet or less away.
objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet
202
During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move ________ and apply ________ tension on the lens.
A) relaxes; toward the lens; more
B) contracts; toward the lens; less
C) contracts; away from the lens; more
D) relaxes; inward; less
E) contracts; away from the lens; less
contracts; toward the lens; less
203
When light encounters a medium of different density, it is
A) refracted.
B) diffracted.
C) reflected.
D) angled.
E) absorbed.
refracted
204
An irregularity in curvature in the cornea or lens, called ________, causes a reduction in visual acuity.
A) astigmatism
B) glaucoma
C) a cataract
D) macular degeneration
E) corneal atrophy
astigmatism
205
A person suffering from ________ can see objects that are close, but distant objects appear blurred.
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) emmetropia
D) presbyopia
E) diplopia
myopia
206
A person suffering from ________ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close.
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) emmetropia
D) presbyopia
E) diplopia
hyperopia
207
A type of farsightedness that results from a loss of lens elasticity with age is
A) myopia.
B) hyperopia.
C) emmetropia.
D) presbyopia.
E) diplopia.
presbyopia
208
Old discs shed from rods and cones are phagocytosed by
A) the outer segment.
B) the inner segment.
C) the pigment epithelium.
D) the bipolar cells.
E) the ganglion cells.
the pigment epithelium
209
Which of the following is not true about the resting state of rods?
A) It is during darkness.
B) Retinal is in 11-cis form.
C) Gated sodium channels are open.
D) Bleaching occurs.
E) Membrane potential is around -40mV.
Bleaching occurs
210
Rods exposed to a phosphodiesterase inhibitor would
A) remain in the resting state.
B) return to resting membrane potential.
C) break down rhodopsin.
D) cause bleaching to occur.
E) decrease neurotransmitter release.
remain in the resting state
211
Dietary deficiency of vitamin A is likely to cause
A) retinitis pigmentosa.
B) color blindness.
C) night blindness.
D) retinal detachment.
E) altered depth perception.
night blindness
212
A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause
A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles.
B) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles.
C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal.
D) an increase in the size of the pupil.
E) parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil.
contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles
213
In the light-adapted state,
A) photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation.
B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation.
C) we can only see color, and not black and white.
D) we would see better in the dark.
E) colors are dull.
photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation
214
Under which condition would the release of neurotransmitter by photoreceptors be greatest?
A) under normal room light
B) in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes
C) immediately after going outside in bright sunlight
D) focusing intently on a close object
E) focusing intently on a distant object
in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes
215
There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated
A) red, yellow, blue.
B) red, green, blue.
C) red, green, yellow.
D) yellow, red, blue.
E) red, white, blue.
red, green, blue
216
The cell of the retina that produces an action potential that goes to the brain is a(n)
A) bipolar cell.
B) photoreceptor.
C) ganglion cell.
D) amacrine cell.
E) horizontal cell.
ganglion cell
217
When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive
A) red.
B) blue.
C) green.
D) white.
E) black.
white
218
The first step in the process of photoreception is
A) the bleaching of rods.
B) the bleaching of cones.
C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment.
D) inhibition of the sodium pumps.
E) release of neurotransmitter.
absorption of a photon by a visual pigment
219
Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound
A) retinal.
B) opsin.
C) rhodopsin.
D) transducin.
E) cGMP.
rhodopsin
220
The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps?
1. Membrane sodium channels close.
2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.
3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.
4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.
5. Opsin activates transducin.
6. Opsin activation occurs.
A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3
B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4
C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4
E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2
3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4
221
A period of adjustment is required when moving from a dark room into bright light because
A) the breakdown of rhodopsin to opsin occurs slowly.
B) the lens requires time to accommodate dim light.
C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin.
D) rhodopsin does not function in dim light.
E) only cones function in dim light.
rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin
222
Where are the visual pigments located in the rods and cones?
A) in the inner segment of photoreceptors
B) in mitochondria located in the outer segment
C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment
D) inside a photosensitive nucleus
E) sandwiched in the cell membrane of the photoreceptors
inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment
223
A young child has been diagnosed with a recessive hereditary disease that results in destruction of the lateral geniculate body. The result of this would be
A) inability to change the focus with your lens.
B) excessive light bouncing around within the posterior portion of the eyeball.
C) total blindness.
D) no production of rhodopsin.
E) partial loss of vision.
total blindness
224
Photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light are
A) rods.
B) cones.
C) amacrine cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) bipolar cells.
rods
225
Photoreceptors that convey our ability to see color are
A) rods.
B) cones.
C) amacrine cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) bipolar cells.
cones
226
Color blindness is a(n)
A) hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones.
B) nutritional disease related to a deficiency of vitamin A.
C) progressive deterioration of the ganglion cells of the retina.
D) inflammatory reaction causing damage to the photoreceptors.
E) infection of the retina, resulting in destruction of the cones.
hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones
227
Otitis media is
A) an infection of the pinna.
B) also known as swimmer's ear.
C) an infection of the middle ear.
D) an infection of semicircular canals.
E) a ringing in the ears.
an infection of the middle ear
228
Our inner ear is protected from very loud noises by
A) the tensor tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane.
B) the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes.
C) the tensory tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane and the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes.
D) cerumen in the auditory canal.
E) contraction of the auditory tube.
the tensory tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane and the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes
229
Between the bony and membranous labyrinth flows ________, while the membranous labyrinth contains ________.
A) perilymph; endolymph
B) endolymph; perilymph
C) endolymph; air
D) cerebrospinal fluid; perilymph
E) perilymph; air
perilymph; endolymph
230
The vestibular complex includes the
A) cochlea and organ of Corti.
B) cochlea and tympanic membrane.
C) vestibule and semicircular canals.
D) vestibule and cochlea.
E) auditory ossicles and oval window.
vestibule and semicircular canals
231
Conflicting sensory information from visual and movement signals may cause
A) ringing in the ears.
B) temporary deafness.
C) difficulty hearing low tones.
D) motion sickness.
E) enhanced hearing.
motion sickness
232
Shaking your head "no" will stimulate the hair cells of the
A) anterior semicircular duct.
B) lateral semicircular duct.
C) posterior semicircular duct.
D) utricle.
E) saccule.
lateral semicircular duct
233
Vertical movement is detected by which structure?
A) ampullary crest of the lateral semicircular canal
B) ampullary crest of the anterior semicircular canal
C) ampullary crest of the posterior semicircular canal
D) macula in the utricle
E) macula in the saccule
macula in the saccule
234
The cochlear duct lies between which two structures?
A) utricle and saccule
B) vestibule and semicircular canals
C) basilar and tectorial membranes
D) scala vestibuli and scala tympani
E) ganglion cells and the cochlear nerve
scala vestibuli and scala tympani
235
When the tympanic membrane vibrates with the same frequency as the incoming sound waves it is known as
A) resonance.
B) amplitude.
C) pitch.
D) hertz.
E) cycles.
resonance
236
As the stapes vibrates the oval window, pressure waves first begin
A) in the endolymph of the scala vestibuli.
B) in the endolymph of the scala tympani.
C) in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli.
D) in the perilymph of the scala tympani.
E) in the endolymph of the cochlear duct.
in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli
237
Which structure of the brain does not receive any auditory input?
A) superior olivary nucleus of the pons
B) inferior colliculi of the midbrain
C) auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
D) medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
E) pineal gland of the epithalamus
pineal gland of the epithalamus
238
The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which contains auditory ossicles.
A) inner; middle
B) outer; middle
C) outer; inner
D) middle; inner
E) superficial; deep
outer; middle
239
The external acoustic meatus ends at the
A) tympanic membrane.
B) auditory ossicles.
C) cochlea.
D) pinna.
E) vestibule.
tympanic membrane
240
Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane?
A) moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph
B) transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
C) supports the olfactory organ
D) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
E) covers over the oval window
moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph
241
The ________ convey(s) information about head position with respect to gravity.
A) cochlea
B) utricle
C) ampulla
D) saccule
E) utricle and the saccule
utricle and the saccule
242
A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would
A) be very loud.
B) be barely audible.
C) be high-pitched.
D) be low-pitched.
E) damage the tympanic membrane.
be high-pitched
243
Which of the following descriptions best matches the term otoliths?
A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth
B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells
D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
E) seal the oval window
tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
244
The auditory ossicles connect the
A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
B) tympanic membrane to the round window.
C) oval window to the round window.
D) stapedius to the tympanic membrane.
E) otitis to the media.
tympanic membrane to the oval window
245
The structure that forms the "roof" of the spiral organ is the
A) basilar membrane.
B) tectorial membrane.
C) stapedius.
D) perilymph.
E) endolymph.
tectorial membrane
246
The structure that supports the spiral organ is the
A) tectorial membrane.
B) basilar membrane.
C) membranous labyrinth.
D) vestibular duct.
E) tympanic membrane.
basilar membrane
247
Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the
A) semicircular canals.
B) cochlea.
C) scala tympani.
D) saccule and utricle.
E) spiral organ.
saccule and utricle
248
The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the
A) saccules.
B) ampullary crest.
C) perilymph.
D) utricles.
E) basilar membrane.
ampullary crest
249
The region of the ampulla that contains the receptors for rotational (dynamic) equilibrium are called
A) utricles.
B) ampullary crests.
C) saccules.
D) fovea.
E) maculae.
ampullary crests
250
The superficial hard part of the inner ear is called the ________ and contains ________.
A) bony labyrinth; perilymph
B) membranous labyrinth; perilymph
C) membranous labyrinth; endolymph
D) cochlea; perilymph
E) bony labyrinth; endolymph
bony labyrinth; perilymph
251
Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals
A) produces a rushing sound.
B) allows us to hear low tones.
C) signals rotational movements.
D) signals body position with respect to gravity.
E) signals linear acceleration.
signals rotational movements
252
The structure attached to the oval window that transmits vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is the
A) malleus.
B) basilar membrane.
C) incus.
D) stapes.
E) auditory tube.
stapes
253
Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane?
A) area close to the round window
B) the entire membrane
C) the distal end
D) the middle region
E) area close to the oval window
the distal end
254
The energy from a pressure wave in the cochlear fluid is released by the bulging and stretching of the
A) tectorial membrane.
B) cochlear duct.
C) round window.
D) vestibular membrane.
E) oval window.
round window
255
The function of the auditory tube is to
A) help maintain equilibrium.
B) amplify sounds.
C) equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.
D) redistribute endolymph after hearing a sound.
E) provide a passageway for sound waves to enter the ear.
equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane
256
Standing still in an elevator that suddenly lowers will stimulate receptors in the
A) basilar membrane.
B) spiral organ.
C) semicircular canals.
D) bony labyrinth.
E) utricle and saccule.
utricle and saccule
257
An infection that damages the vestibular nerve could result in a loss of
A) hearing and equilibrium.
B) olfaction.
C) visual acuity.
D) hearing.
E) equilibrium.
equilibrium
258
The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in
A) ampullae.
B) cristae.
C) ampullary cupulae.
D) maculae.
E) otoconia.
maculae
259
The frequency of a perceived sound depends on
A) the frequency of stereocilia vibration.
B) the number of hair cells that are stimulated.
C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated.
D) the movement of perilymph in the cochlear duct.
E) the frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane.
which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated
260
The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. What is the proper sequence for these steps?
1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window.
2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus.
3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve.
4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes.
5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the spiral organ to vibrate against the tectorial membrane.
6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli.
A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3
B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1
C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3
D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3
E) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3
2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3
261
Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on
A) changes in the pressure exerted by the ampullary cupula on hair cells.
B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells.
C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae.
D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals.
E) the bending of hair cells in the ampullae.
the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae
262
Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the
A) auditory ossicles.
B) cochlea.
C) oval window.
D) round window.
E) tympanic membrane.
tympanic membrane
263
The cell bodies of sensory neurons that innervate the hair cells of the cochlea form the ________ ganglion.
A) vestibular
B) spiral
C) cochlear
D) acoustic
E) auditory
spiral
264
The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except
A) integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head.
B) relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum.
C) relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex.
D) sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.
E) sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear.
sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear
265
Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stereocilia?
A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth
B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells
D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
E) seal the oval window
bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells
266
The elevated ridges within the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as
A) ampullary crests.
B) maculae.
C) canals.
D) vestibules.
E) otoliths.
ampullary crests
267
________ fills the membranous labyrinth.
A) Perilymph
B) CSF
C) Interstitial fluid
D) Endolymph
E) Blood
Endolymph
268
The ________ is a region of dense bone that surrounds and protects the membranous labyrinth.
A) sella turcica
B) ossicle
C) auditory canal
D) membranous labyrinth
E) bony labyrinth
bony labyrinth
269
________ is a fluid similar to cerebrospinal fluid that fills the space between the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth.
A) Perilymph
B) Endoplasma
C) Interstitial fluid
D) Endolymph
E) Blood
Perilymph
270
The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the
A) spiral organ.
B) ossicles.
C) ampullary crest.
D) utricle.
E) saccule.
spiral organ
271
________ deafness results from conditions in the outer or middle ear that block the transfer of vibrations from the environment to the tympanic membrane or to the oval window.
A) Sensory
B) Nerve
C) Conductive
D) Mechanical
E) Macular
Conductive
272
________ deafness occurs because of a problem in the cochlea or somewhere along the auditory pathway.
A) Vibrational
B) Nerve
C) Conductive
D) Mechanical
E) Macular
Nerve
273
Abnormal jumpy eye movements that may appear after brain stem or inner ear damage are called
A) tinnitus.
B) vertigo.
C) strabismus.
D) nystagmus.
E) trismus.
nystagmus
274
________ sensations inform us of the position of the head in space by monitoring gravity, linear acceleration, and rotation.
A) Nociceptor
B) Proprioceptor
C) Olfactory
D) Gustatory
E) Vestibular
Vestibular
275
When you spin quickly, you may feel dizzy. Which component of the inner ear generates the sensations that can lead to this feeling?
A) spiral organ
B) maculae
C) otoliths
D) semicircular canals
E) ossicles
semicircular canals
276
Which of the following is true of the endocrine system?
A) It responds rapidly to stimuli.
B) It responds specifically to digestive stimuli.
C) It communicates by the release of neurotransmitters.
D) It responds with motor output.
E) It responds slowly but effectively for maintaining homeostatic functions.
E) It responds slowly but effectively for maintaining homeostatic functions.
277
Endocrine cells
A) are a type of nerve cell.
B) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface.
C) release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood.
D) contain few vesicles.
E) are modified connective tissue cells.
C) release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood.
278
________ are chemical messengers that are released by cells and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues.
A) Hormones
B) Neuropeptides
C) Neurotransmitters
D) Humoral antibodies
A) Hormones
279
A hormone might
A) alter a membrane channel by changing its shape, thereby affecting what can go through
it.
B) depolarize a skeletal muscle cell.
C) interfere with norepinephrine at a neuronal synapse.
D) inactivate glucose so it cannot be used by a cell.
E) block the production of a cell membrane.
A) alter a membrane channel by changing its shape, thereby affecting what can go through
it.
280
Which of the following is not true regarding target cells?
A) They have receptors for a specific hormone.
B) They can be anywhere in the body.
C) They are associated with synapses.
D) They can respond to more than one hormone if they have receptors for each one.
E) If a target cell lacks receptors for a hormone then it cannot bind that hormone.
C) They are associated with synapses.
281
Hormones known as ʺcatecholaminesʺ are
A) lipids.
B) peptides.
C) steroids.
D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
E) derivatives of reproductive glands.
D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
282
Peptide hormones are
A) composed of amino acids.
B) produced by the adrenal glands.
C) derived from the amino acid tyrosine.
D) lipids.
E) chemically related to cholesterol.
A) composed of amino acids.
283
A kinase is an enzyme that performs
A) phosphorylation.
B) as a membrane channel.
C) active transport.
D) protein synthesis.
E) as an antibody.
A) phosphorylation.
284
Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein
A) calcitonin.
B) calcitriol.
C) calmodulin.
D) calcium-binding globulin.
E) calcitropin.
C) calmodulin.
285
Which of the following substances activates protein kinases and thus acts as a second messenger?
A) insulin
B) ACTH
C) epinephrine
D) cyclic AMP
E) TSH
D) cyclic AMP
286
All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they
A) are produced by the adrenal medulla.
B) are derived from cholesterol.
C) are produced by reproductive glands.
D) bind to receptors within the cell.
E) are lipids.
A) are produced by the adrenal medulla.
287
Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except
A) epinephrine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) thyroid hormone.
D) testosterone.
E) melatonin.
D) testosterone.
288
Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones?
A) catecholamines
B) peptide hormones
C) eicosanoids
D) thyroid
E) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids
E) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids
289
Steroid hormones
A) are proteins.
B) cannot diffuse through cell membranes.
C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells.
D) act on target cells by activating second messenger cascades.
E) are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma.
C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells.
290
When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the
A) hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm.
B) cell membrane becomes depolarized.
C) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.
D) cell becomes inactive.
E) hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.
C) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.
291
Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. These categories include all of the following except
A) peptides.
B) steroids.
C) eicosanoids.
D) amino acid derivatives.
E) acetylcholine derivatives.
E) acetylcholine derivatives.
292
Hormonal actions on cells affect all of the following except
A) quantities of enzymes.
B) activities of enzymes.
C) synthesis of enzymes.
D) gating of ion channels.
E) thickness of the plasma membrane.
E) thickness of the plasma membrane.
293
The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually
A) cAMP.
B) cGMP.
C) adenyl cyclase.
D) a G protein.
E) calcium ion levels.
D) a G protein.
294
When adenyl cyclase is activated,
A) ATP is consumed.
B) cAMP is formed.
C) cAMP is broken down.
D) ATP is produced.
E) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed.
E) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed.
295
After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex,
A) adenyl cyclase is activated.
B) cyclic nucleotides are formed.
C) G proteins are phosphylated.
D) gene transcription is initiated.
E) protein kinases are activated.
D) gene transcription is initiated.
296
The humoral control of hormone release may be triggered which of the following factors?
A) blood level of an ion like calcium
B) blood level of a pituitary hormone
C) blood level of a hypothalamic hormone
D) nervous stimuli
E) neurotransmitter activation
A) blood level of an ion like calcium
297
Which of the following hormones is/are water soluble and therefore bind(s) to extracellular receptors?
A) insulin
B) epinephrine
C) cortisol
D) calcitriol
E) insulin and epinephrine
E) insulin and epinephrine
298
If the adenyl cyclase activity of liver cells were missing, which of these hormones could no longer stimulate release of glucose?
A) progesterone
B) glucagon
C) cortisol
D) thyroxine
E) leptin
B) glucagon
299
Increased activity of phosphodiesterase in a target cell would decrease its level of
A) testosterone.
B) estrogen.
C) thyroid hormone.
D) cAMP.
E) progesterone.
D) cAMP.
300
The intracellular protein ________ binds calcium ion. This complex can then activate enzymes.
A) prostaglandin
B) phosphodiesterase
C) cyclic AMP
D) calmodulin
E) kinase
D) calmodulin
301
Receptors for ________, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids are found in the cell membranes of target cells.
A) catecholamines
B) carbohydrates
C) kinases
D) genes
E) acetylcholine
A) catecholamines
302
Cells that respond to a hormone are called ________ cells.
A) stem
B) pluripotent
C) germ
D) target
E) peripheral
D) target
303
One cause for insulin resistance in non-insulin dependent (Type II) diabetes is
A) insulin receptor up-regulation.
B) decreased insulin secretion.
C) decreased cortisol secretion.
D) insulin receptor down-regulation.
E) cortisol receptor up-regulation.
D) insulin receptor down-regulation.
304
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the second-messenger mechanism of hormone action?
A) Hormone effects are amplified.
B) G proteins and cAMP are used.
C) Receptors are on the cell surface.
D) Cellular operations are altered by direct stimulation of a gene.
E) Kinases may phosphorylate proteins.
D) Cellular operations are altered by direct stimulation of a gene.
305
Upon binding of a single first messenger to a plasma membrane, thousands of second messengers may become activated. This effect is known as
A) receptor down-regulation.
B) receptor up-regulation.
C) amplification.
D) humoral stimuli.
E) synergism.
C) amplification.
306
Intracellular calcium stores open in response to intracellular activation of
A) protein kinase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol triphosphate.
B) calmodulin.
C) leukotrienes.
D) adenylate cyclase.
E) phosphodiesterase, adenylate cyclase, and prostacyclins.
A) protein kinase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol triphosphate.
307
Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and thromboxanes are all examples of
A) amino acid derivatives.
B) eicosanoids.
C) tyrosine derivatives.
D) glycoproteins.
E) steroid hormones.
B) eicosanoids.
308
Which hormone is not correctly matched?
A) epinephrine: amino acid derivative
B) insulin: peptide hormone
C) testosterone: amino acid derivative
D) cortisol: lipid derivative
E) eicosanoids: lipid derivative
C) testosterone: amino acid derivative
