E3 Flashcards by Tim A

The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system
A) peripheral
B) somatic
C) central
D) autonomic
E) afferent

Central

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The adult spinal cord typically ends between vertebrae ____
A) T12-L1.
B) S4-S5.
C) L5-S1.
D) L1-L2.
E) S5-Co1

L1-L2

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Arrange the spinal meninges from innermost layer to outermost layer.
A) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
B) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
C) arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater
D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
E) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

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Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise.
A) cervical enlargement
B) lumbar enlargement
C) thoracic region
D) conus medullaris
E) sacral region

cervical enlargement

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These structures extending from the pia mater through to the dura mater support the spinal cord by preventing lateral movement.
A) coccygeal ligament
B) rami communicantes
C) cauda equina
D) denticulate ligaments
E) spinal ligaments

denticulate ligaments

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The conus medullaris anchors the spinal cord to the coccygeal ligament via a strand of fibrous tissue called the _____
A) denticulate ligament.
B) filum terminale.
C) spinal ligament.
D) meningeal ligament.
E) dura mater.

filum terminale

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Spinal nerves are ____
A) purely sensory.
B) purely motor.
C) both sensory and motor.
D) interneuronal.
E) involuntary.

both sensory and motor

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The spinal cord consists of four regions and ________ pairs of spinal nerves
A) five
B) twelve
C) twenty-five
D) thirty-one
E) The number varies widely among individuals.

thirty-one

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The posterior root ganglia mainly contain _____
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) synapses.

cell bodies of sensory neurons

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The posterior root of a spinal nerve contains _____
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) interneurons.

axons of sensory neurons

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The anterior root of a spinal nerve contains _____
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) interneurons.

axons of motor neurons

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The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the ____
A) arachnoid mater.
B) pia mater.
C) dura mater.
D) coccygeal ligament.
E) periosteum.

dura mater

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If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed, ____
A) output to skeletal muscles would be blocked.
B) output to visceral organs would be blocked.
C) efferent fibers would be blocked.
D) the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord.
E) sensory input would be blocked.

sensory input would be blocked

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The subdural space lies between _____
A) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
B) the pia mater and the dura mater.
C) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
D) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space.
E) the endosteum and the periosteum.

the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

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The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the _______
A) dura mater.
B) subarachnoid space.
C) arachnoid mater.
D) pia mater.
E) choroid plexus.

pia mater

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A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a _____
A) cervical enlargement.
B) lumbar enlargement.
C) spinal nerve.
D) denticulate ligament.
E) spinal ganglion.

spinal nerve

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Which of the following is not true of meningitis?
A) Inflammation of the meninges occurs.
B) Bacteria can be the cause.
C) Viruses can be the cause.
D) CSF flow can be disrupted.
E) It only affects spinal meninges.

It only affects spinal meninges

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Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block?
A) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery.
B) This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia.
C) It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected.
D) Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed.
E) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection.

This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia

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Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the______
A) filum terminale.
B) subarachnoid space.
C) dura mater.
D) pia mater.
E) arachnoid mater.

subarachnoid space

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The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age ______
A) 20 years.
B) 10 years.
C) 4 years.
D) 6 months.
E) 2 months.

4 years

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The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the ______
A) cranial meninges.
B) cranial mater.
C) spinal meninges.
D) spinal mater.
E) epidural membranes.

spinal meninges

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Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the ______
A) pia mater.
B) dura mater.
C) epidural space.
D) subdural space.
E) arachnoid mater.

pia mater

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Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the ____
A) dura mater.
B) arachnoid mater.
C) epidural space.
D) subarachnoid space.
E) cerebral ventricles.

subarachnoid space

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In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about _____
A) T6.
B) T10.
C) L1.
D) L5.
E) C8.

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The dura mater tapers inferiorly to form the A) coccygeal ligament. B) conus medullaris. C) cauda equina. D) subarachnoid space. E) denticulate ligament.

coccygeal ligament

The condition in which a person loses all feeling and movement of the arms and legs due to spinal cord injury is termed ______ A) paraplegia. B) hemiplegia. C) spinal shock. D) quadriplegia. E) spinal transection.

quadriplegia

The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed _____ A) paraplegia. B) hemiplegia. C) spinal shock. D) quadriplegia. E) spinal transection.

paraplegia

During the procedure known as a(n) ________, a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space in the inferior lumbar region. A) myelography B) encephalomyelogram C) laminectomy D) lumbar puncture E) thoracic tap

lumbar puncture

Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect? A) loss of sensation in his torso B) inability to breathe C) problems with moving his arms D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet E) problems moving his legs

loss of sensation in his torso

Masses of gray matter within the central nervous system are _______ A) ganglia. B) columns. C) nuclei. D) commissures. E) horns.

nuclei

Bundles of axons in the central nervous system are known as ______ A) tracts. B) ganglia. C) nuclei. D) horns. E) commissures.

tracts

Axons cross from one side of the spinal cord to the other through the _______ A) lateral white column. B) posterior gray horn. C) central canal. D) posterior median sulcus. E) anterior white commissure.

anterior white commissure

The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly ______ A) unmyelinated axons. B) neuroglia. C) Schwann cells. D) myelinated axons. E) nodes of Ranvier.

myelinated axons

The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly ______ A) nerve tracts. B) columns. C) meninges. D) neuron cell bodies. E) funiculi.

neuron cell bodies

The large anterior gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly ______ A) somatic sensory nuclei. B) somatic motor nuclei. C) visceral motor nuclei. D) visceral sensory nuclei. E) sympathetic nuclei.

somatic motor nuclei

Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the ______ A) central canal. B) posterior gray horns. C) gray commissures. D) white columns. E) anterior gray horns.

white columns

In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as _____ A) nuclei. B) ganglia. C) columns. D) nerves. E) horns.

columns

The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord, seen easily in microscopic spinal cord cross sections, are called ______ A) wings. B) horns. C) pyramids. D) fibers. E) tracts.

horns

Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the ______ A) anterior gray horns. B) lateral gray horns. C) posterior gray horns. D) gray commissures. E) white commissures.

gray commissures

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: Ascending and descending tracts can be found in which area(s) of the spinal cord? A) 9 B) 8 C) 11, 12, 13, 14 D) 1, 2, 3 E) 4, 5, 6

1, 2, 3

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "1." A) anterior white column B) lateral white column C) lateral white horn D) median commissure E) posterior white column

posterior white column

The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord. A) autonomic B) peripheral C) central D) efferent E) afferent

central

The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) afferent D) somatic E) autonomic

somatic

The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated A) motor. B) afferent. C) efferent. D) autonomic. E) somatic

afferent.

The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates ________ cells. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) heart muscle D) glandular E) All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

The nervous tissue outside of the central nervous system composes the ________ nervous system. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic

peripheral

The ________ division of the peripheral nervous system brings sensory information to the central nervous system. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic

afferent

The ________ division of the nervous system carries motor commands to muscles and glands. A) spinal B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) efferent

efferent

The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) motor

autonomic

________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors. A) Unipolar neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Multipolar neurons D) Afferent neurons E) Interneurons

Efferent neurons

________ nerves are nerves that connect to the spinal cord. A) Spinal B) Cranial C) Afferent D) Multipolar E) Autonomic

Spinal

_______ nerves are nerves that connect to the brain. A) Spinal B) Unmyelinated C) Myelinated D) Cranial E) Interneural

Cranial

The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following? A) neurotubules B) mitochondria C) vesicles D) neurofibrils E) All of the answers are correct

All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons? A) anaxonic B) bipolar C) multipolar D) pseudopolar E) unipolar

pseudopolar

The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is A) anaxonic. B) bipolar. C) multipolar. D) pseudopolar. E) unipolar.

multipolar.

The cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus of a neuron is called the A) protoplasm. B) nucleoplasm. C) sarcoplasm. D) neuroplasm. E) perikaryon

perikaryon

Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called A) neurofilaments. B) neurofibrils. C) perikaryon. D) Nissl bodies. E) microglia

Nissl bodies.

The axon is connected to the soma at the A) telodendria. B) synaptic terminal. C) collaterals. D) axon hillock. E) synapse.

axon hillock.

Branches that may occur along an axon are called A) telodendria. B) synaptic terminals. C) collaterals. D) hillocks. E) synapses

collaterals.

Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as A) telodendria. B) terminals. C) collaterals. D) dendrites. E) synapses

telodendria.

The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the A) telodendria. B) axolemma. C) collateral D) hillock. E) synapse.

synapse.

The rabies virus travels to the CNS via A) anterograde axoplasmic transport. B) retrograde axoplasmic transport. C) blood vessels. D) subcutaneous connective tissue. E) cerebrospinal fluid

retrograde axoplasmic transport.

Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E)multipolar

anaxonic.

Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar.

unipolar.

Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar

bipolar.

Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar.

multipolar.

Sensory neurons of the PNS are A) unipolar. B) bipolar. C) anaxonic. D) multipolar. E) tripolar

unipolar.

Which of the following activities or sensations is/are not monitored by interoceptors? A) sight B) pain C)activities of the digestive system D) cardiovascular activities E) urinary activities

sight

________ are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS. A) Sensory neurons B) Motor neurons C)Unipolar neurons D) Bipolar neurons E) Interneurons

Interneurons

How does blocking retrograde axoplasmic transport in an axon affect the activity of a neuron? A) The neuron becomes unable to produce neurotransmitters. B) The neuron becomes unable to produce action potentials. C) The soma becomes unable to export products to the synaptic terminals. D) The soma becomes unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon. E) The neuron becomes unable to depolarize when stimulated

The soma becomes unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon.

The structures labeled "1" are dendrites. Their membranes contain numerous chemically-gated ion channels. A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false. B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true. C) Both statements are true. D) Both statements are false

Both statements are true.

The structure labeled "2" is a(n) A) neurofilament. B) dendrite. C) initial segment. D) perikaryon. E) axon

neurofilament.

Which type of membrane channels are found at label "3"? A) voltage-gated Na+channels B) voltage-gated K+channels C) chemically-gated Na+ and K+ channels D) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels E) both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels

both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels

Identify the structure labeled "4." A) synaptic terminals B) telodendria C) dendritic spines D) collateral branches E) axons

telodendria

Identify the structure labeled "5." A) axons B) telodendria C) dendritic spines D) synaptic terminals E) collateral branch

synaptic terminals

What is contained inside the structure labeled "5"? A) neuroglia B) sodium ions C) acetylcholinesterase D) calcium ions E) neurotransmitter molecules

neurotransmitter molecules

Which part(s) of the neuron can propagate an action potential? A) 1 B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 3

On which structure do most neuron to neuron communications occur? A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints. A) Proprioceptors B) Internoceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Pressoreceptors

Proprioceptors

________ carry sensory information to the CNS. A) Motor neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Multipolar neurons D) Afferent neurons E) Interneurons

Afferent neurons

________ provide information about the external environment. A) Spinal nerves B) Anaxonic neurons C) Internoceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Proprioceptors

Exteroceptors

________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems. A) Spinal nerves B) Unipolar neurons C) Internoceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Proprioceptors

Internoceptors

The plasma membrane of an axon is called the A) axon terminal. B) neurilemma. C) myelin sheath. D) sarcolemma. E) axolemma

axolemma

The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the A) neuron. B) axon. C) nerve. D) glial cell. E) receptor.

neuron.

The most common neuron of the nervous system is the A) interneuron. B) externoceptor. C) bipolar neuron. D) unipolar neuron. E) microglial cell

interneuron.

Most neurons lack ________ and so are permanently blocked from undergoing cell division. A) ribosomes B) endoplasmic reticula C) a nucleus D) centrioles E) cytoplasm

centrioles

Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called ________ degeneration. A) neural B) central C) peripheral D) Wallerian E) conduction

Wallerian

Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia? A) support B) memory C) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier E) phagocytosis

memory

Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system? A) astrocytes B) satellite cells C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia E) ependymal cells

satellite cells

The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells.

astrocytes.

Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except A) maintaining the blood-brain barrier. B) conducting action potentials. C) guiding neuron development. D) responding to neural tissue damage. E) forming a three-dimensional framework for the CNS

conducting action potentials.

_______ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system. A) Axons B) Dendrites C) Neuroglia D) Synapses E) Efferent fibers

Neuroglia

The neuroglial cells that participate in maintaining the blood-brain barrier are the A) astrocytes. B) ependymal cells. C) microglia. D) oligodendrocytes. E) Schwann cells

astrocytes.

The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells

oligodendrocytes.

________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal. A) Astrocytes B) Satellite cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Microglia E) Ependymal cells

Ependymal cells

Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells.

microglia.

The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) Schwann cells

Schwann cells

Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells

satellite cells.

Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the A) formation of myelin sheaths. B) formation of cerebrospinal fluid. C) formation of ganglia. D) repair of axons. E) transport of neurotransmitters within axons

formation of cerebrospinal fluid.

When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all of the following effects are possible except A) a decrease in blood flow. B) a decrease in available oxygen. C) a change in neuron excitability. D) glial cells degenerate. E) neurons are triggered to divide.

neurons are triggered to divide.

In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by A) producing new axons. B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons. C) forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth. D) clearing away cellular debris. E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons

forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth.

The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called A) neurillema. B) nodes of Ranvier. C) axolemma. D) terminals. E) vesicles.

nodes of Ranvier

Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter. A) gray B) white C) neural D) brain E) ganglion

white

Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter. A) white B) gray C) neural D) brain E) ganglion

gray

Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A) They create a three dimensional framework for the CNS. B) They maintain the blood-brain barrier. C) They guide neuron development. D) They rebuild injured neurons. E) They adjust the composition of the interstitial tissue

They rebuild injured neurons.

All of the following cause demyelination except A) heavy-metal ion poisoning. B) diphtheria. C) multiple sclerosis. D) dopamine deficiency. E) All of these cause demyelination

dopamine deficiency.

Which of the following can cause demyelination? A) arsenic poisoning B) diphtheria C) multiple sclerosis D) mercury exposure E) Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury

Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury

Which of the following is not true regarding the establishment of a neuron's resting membrane potential? A) Chemical and electrical forces both favor sodium ions entering the cell. B) Electrical forces do not push sodium ions into the cell. C) The chemical gradient for potassium ions tends to drive them out of the cell. D) Ion pumps in the plasma membrane eject sodium ions as fast as they cross the membrane. E) Resting membrane permeability to Na+ is very low

Electrical forces do not push sodium ions into the cell.

At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium-potassium exchange pump transports A) 1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions. B) 2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. C) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. D) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions. E) 3 extracellular sodium ions for 2 intracellular potassium ions

3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions.

Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels. A) active B) gated C) leak D) regulated E) local

leak

Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes A) depolarization. B) repolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) increased negative charge inside the membrane. E) inhibition

depolarization.

Voltage-gated channels are present A) at the motor end plate. B) on the surface of dendrites. C) in the membrane that covers axons. D) on the soma of neurons. E) along the perikaryon of neurons.

in the membrane that covers axons.

The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump A) must reestablish ion concentrations after each action potential. B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization. C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization. D) moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients. E) depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy.

moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients.

________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules. A) Leak channels B) Activated channels C) Chemically gated channels D) Voltage-gated channels E) Voltage-gated and chemically gated channels

Chemically gated channels

________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface. A) Voltage-gated B) Chemically gated C) Active D) Mechanically gated E) Leak

Mechanically gated

Any stimulus that opens a ________ ion channel will produce a graded potential. A) voltage-gated B) chemically gated C) sodium D) mechanically gated E) All of the answers are correct

All of the answers are correct

If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases, A) the membrane potential will repolarize. B) the membrane potential will hyperpolarize. C) inward movement of sodium ion will increase. D) outward movement of sodium ion will decrease. E) inward movement of sodium will increase and the membrane will depolarize.

inward movement of sodium will increase and the membrane will depolarize.

Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting membrane potential of a neuron? A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell C) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions D) membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges

membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions

If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur except A) the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase. B) the neuron will slowly depolarize. C) the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials. D) the inside of the membrane will have a resting membrane potential that is more positive than normal. E) the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase.

the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase.

Graded potentials A) produce an effect that increases with distance from the point of stimulation. B) produce an effect that spreads actively across the membrane surface. C) may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization. D) are often all-or-none. E) cause repolarization.

may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization.

When potassium channels open and the ions diffuse through the membrane, A) the inside of the membrane will become more positive. B) the inside of the membrane will become more negative. C) there will be almost no effect on tran smembrane potential. D) the membrane will become depolarized. E) the membrane will depolarize to threshold.

the inside of the membrane will become more negative.

Ions can move across the plasma membrane in which of the following ways? A) through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential B) through passive or leak channels C) by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump D) through chemically gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission E) All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Raising the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve cell will have what effect? A) depolarize it B) hyperpolarize it C) increase the mag nitude of the potassium equilibrium potential D) decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential E) both hyperpolarize it and decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential

both hyperpolarize it and decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential

Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a(n) ________ gate. A) inactivation B) ion C) swinging D) repolarization E) threshold

inactivation

If acetylcholine (ACh) causes inhibition of a postsynaptic neuron, to what type of membrane channel did the ACh bind? A) mechanically-regulated channel B) voltage-regulated sodium channel C) voltage-regulated calcium channel D) chemically-regulated potassium channel E) chemically-regulated sodium channel

chemically-regulated potassium channel

A movement of charges in response to a potential difference is called A) current. B) depolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) action potential. E) electricity.

current.

The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its A) permeability gradient. B) thermodynamic difference. C) electrochemical gradient. D) action potential. E) summation difference.

electrochemical gradient.

A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called A) potential difference. B) depolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) polarization. E) repolarization.

depolarization.

The equilibrium potential of potassium is A) -90mV. B) -65mV. C) -70mV. D) +30mV. E) +66mV

-90mV.

The equilibrium potential of sodium is A) -90mV. B) -65mV. C) -70mV. D) +30mV. E) +66mV.

+66mV.

What is the proper sequence of these events? A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1 B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5 C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5 E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1

4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5

The all-or-none principle states that A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials. B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials. C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential. D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials. E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials

all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.

Which of the following statements about the action potential is false? A) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions. B) During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open. C) During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive. D) During the hyperpolarization phase, the ion pumps re-establish the sodium and potassium concentrations across the cell membrane. E) Repolarization occurs as potassium ions leave the axon.

The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions.

How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate? A) It would last indefinitely. B) It would be much briefer. C) It would be basically unaffected.

It would last indefinitely.

During repolarization of a neuron A) sodium ions move out of the cell. B) potassium ions move out of the cell. C) potassium ions move into the cell. D) both sodium and potassium ions move into the cell. E) sodium ions move into the cell.

potassium ions move out of the cell.

How would a chemical that prevents the opening of voltage-regulated Na+ channels affect the function of a neuron? A) The neuron will only be able to hyperpolarize. B) The neuron will depolarize more rapidly. C) Action potentials will lack a repolarization phase. D) The neuron will automatically and repeatedly produce graded potentials. E) The neuron will only be capable of producing graded potentials

The neuron will only be capable of producing graded potentials

A threshold stimulus is the A) depolarization necessary to cause an action potential. B) peak of an action potential. C) hyperpolarization of an axon. D) resting membrane potential. E) electrical current that crosses the synaptic cleft.

depolarization necessary to cause an action potential.

Which of the following is true about threshold for an action potential? A) It is more positive than the resting membrane potential. B) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to close. C) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open. D) The membrane begins to hyperpolarize. E) Threshold for a typical neuron is approximately -30 mV.

It is more positive than the resting membrane potential.

Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons? A) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly. B) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase. C) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal. D) The axon would be unable to generate action potentials. E) None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function

The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.

What is occurring at the area labeled #4? A) An inhibitory stimulus has occurred. B) Chemically gated potassium channels have opened. C) Excessive potassium has diffused out causing hyperpolarization. D) Sodium ions have been pumped out of the neuron. E) Excessive depolarization of the axon has occurred

Excessive potassium has diffused out causing hyperpolarization.

What is occurring in the area between #2 and #3? A) An excitatory graded potential is occurring. B) Potassium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization. C) Chemically gated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the axon. D) Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization. E) Repolarization of the axon due to sodium ions leaving the axon is occurring.

Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.

Which area of the graph shows when chemically gated sodium channels are open? A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 5 E) 4

Which area of the graph shows when voltage-gated sodium channels are open? A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 5 E) 3

Which area of the graph shows when potassium channels open? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

In which area of the graph do you see a sudden rush of sodium ions into the neuron? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Which point of the graph shows when potassium ion outflow exceeds sodium ion inflow? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

When is the neuron in the relative refractory period? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called A) spatial propagation. B) saltatory propagation. C) divergent propagation. D) synaptic transmission. E) continuous propagation.

saltatory propagation.

Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted? A) length of the axon B) presence or absence of a myelin sheath C) diameter of the axon D) presence or absence of nodes E) whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS

whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS

Which of the following types of nerve fiber possesses the fastest speed of impulse propagation? A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D E) type E

type A

Type ________ fibers have the largest diameter axons. A) A B) B C) C D) F E) S

Sensory information from skeletal muscles travels over ________ fibers. A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D E) type E

type A

In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest? A) a myelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter B) a nonmyelinated fiber of 20-μm diameter C) a myelinated fiber of 1-μm diameter D) a nonmyelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter E) It would be the same in all because of the all-or-none principle

a myelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter

The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the A) threshold. B) all-or-none response. C) potential. D) incentive. E) summation

threshold.

The ________ principle states that the size and speed of the action potential are independent of the stimulus strength. A) threshold B) all-or-none C) summation D) polarization E) potential

all-or-none

The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the ________ period. A) relative refractory B) absolute refractory C) resting D) lag E) stationary

absolute refractory

The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the ________ period. A) relative refractory B) absolute refractory C) resting D) lag E) stationary

relative refractory

The presence of ________ dramatically increases the speed at which an action potential moves along an axon. A) a capsule B) plasma protein C) neurilemma D) glial cells E) myelin

myelin

Below are the events that occur during continuous propagation of action potential. Select the correct order in which the events occur. 1. Adjacent membrane segment depolarizes. 2. Local current spreads to adjacent voltage gated channel. 3. Threshold is met. 4. Local current develops due to sodium moving in the cytosol. A) 2,4,3,1 B) 2,4,1,3 C) 4,2,3,1 D) 4,2,1,3 E) 1,4,2,3

4,2,3,1

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: 42) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) posterior gray column B) posterior gray ganglion C) posterior white column D) posterior gray horn E) anterior gray horn

posterior gray horn

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: 43) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) anterior white commissure B) anterior median fissure C) anterior white column D) anterior gray commissure E) anterior white horn

anterior gray commissure

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the structure labeled "11"? A) somatic motor control B) somatic sensory receiving C) visceral sensory receiving D) visceral motor control E) ascending pathway

somatic sensory receiving

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: Where do somatic motor neurons reside? A) 9 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13 E) 14

Sensory information from visceral organs is carried by the _____ A) parasympathetic nerve. B) sympathetic nerve. C) anterior ramus. D) posterior ramus. E) rami communicantes.

sympathetic nerve

Nerve plexuses are formed by interconnecting branches of the ______ A) posterior rami. B) anterior rami. C) posterior root. D) anterior root. E) white rami communicans.

anterior rami

Regional loss of sensory or motor function from nerve trauma or compression is termed A) shingles. B) dermatome. C) peripheral neuropathy. D) hemisection. E) areflexia.

peripheral neuropathy

Large bundles of axons from several spinal nerves in the brachial plexus are termed A) cords. B) rami. C) dermatomes. D) trunks. E) roots

trunks

The largest peripheral nerve is the ________ nerve. A) median B) femoral C) phrenic D) obturator E) sciatic

sciatic

Loss of feeling in the thumb and first two fingers is most likely due to a damaged ________ nerve. A) radial B) musculocutaneous C) ulnar D) median E) axillary

radial

The outermost connective tissue covering of nerves is the ______ A) endoneurium. B) endomysium. C) perineurium. D) epineurium. E) epimysium.

epineurium

The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord and carries visceral motor fibers that are myelinated form the ______ A) white rami communicantes. B) gray rami communicantes. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes.

white rami communicantes

The postganglionic fibers that innervate glands in the body wall or smooth muscles in limbs are A) white rami communicantes. B) gray rami communicantes. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes.

gray rami communicantes

Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs are collectively called A) posterior rami. B) anterior rami. C) white rami. D) gray rami. E) sympathetic nerves.

sympathetic nerves

Which of the following associations is INCORRECT? A) 8 cervical spinal nerves B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves D) 5 sacral spinal nerves E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve

11 thoracic spinal nerves

Muscles of the neck and shoulder are innervated by spinal nerves from the ________ region. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal

cervical

The anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to T1 contribute fibers to the ________ plexus. A) cervical B) brachial C) lumbar D) sacral E) thoracic

brachial

In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise? A) cranial B) cervical C) brachial D) lumbar E) sacral

brachial

In the condition ________, a virus infects posterior root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes. A) myasthenia gravis B) neuronal damage C) shingles D) chickenpox E) Hodgkin's disease

shingles

The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the A) perineurium. B) epineurium. C) endoneurium. D) epimysium. E) endosteum.

perineurium

Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles. A) shoulder B) intercostal C) abdominal D) leg E) facial

leg

The ________ innervates the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the limbs. A) white rami communicantes B) gray rami communicantes C) posterior rami D) anterior rami E) dermatomes

anterior rami

A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will _______ A) lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis. B) interfere with position sense. C) mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense. D) block autonomic regulation. E) affect visceral motor function.

lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis

The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the anterior rami of neighboring spinal nerves is termed a(n) A) dermatome. B) autonomic nerve. C) lateral nerve. D) tract. E) plexus.

plexus

Each of the following nerves originates in the lumbar plexus except the ________ nerve. A) saphenous B) sciatic C) femoral D) obturator E) genitofemoral

sciatic

The ________ nerve, which arises in the cervical plexus, innervates the diaphragm. A) ansa cervicalis B) lesser occipital C) thoracic D) phrenic E) supraclaviculars

phrenic

The layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a peripheral nerve is termed the ____ A) endoneurium. B) perineurium. C) epineurium. D) metaneurium. E) subneurium.

endoneurium

If a person has a crush injury to the C3-C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he _______ A) might be unable to breathe on his own. B) could walk without difficulty. C) would have full range of motion in all extremities. D) would be in a coma. E) would have difficulty chewing and moving the tongue.

might be unable to breathe on his own

Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed? A) the anterior gray horns B) the anterior gray commissures C) ascending tracts D) descending tracts E) the anterior white commissures

ascending tracts

The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the A) radial. B) median. C) ulnar. D) musculocutaneous. E) phrenic.

phrenic

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "2." A) anterior root B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior ramus E) white ramus

anterior ramus

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "3." A) spinal nerve B) gray ramus communicans C) white ramus communicans D) posterior ramus communicans E) anterior ramus communicans

gray ramus communicans

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Ken has a herniated disc which is pinching the structure labeled "10". He is most likely experiencing impairment in which sensory pathway? A) somatic sensory B) visceral sensory C) somatic and visceral sensory D) somatic and visceral motor E) visceral motor

somatic and visceral sensory

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Damage to which structure would lead to paralysis of limbs? A) 11 B) 2 C) 1 D) 7 E) 9

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "4." A) spinal nerve B) gray ramus C) white ramus D) posterior ramus E) anterior ramus

white ramus

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "6." A) autonomic nerve B) sympathetic ganglion C) posterior root ganglion D) rami communicantes E) anterior root

sympathetic ganglion

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "8." A) peripheral nerve B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior root E) posterior root

spinal nerve

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the structure labeled "12"? A) somatic motor control B) visceral motor control C) somatic sensory input D) visceral sensory input E) sensory receptor for pain

visceral motor control

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: Which branch carries motor neurons to structures on the back of the body trunk? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 7 E) 11

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: In which structure are sensory cell bodies located? A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 10 E) 12

Suppose that you feel something brushing against your abdomen. The sensory information would be carried to the spinal cord over a(n) ________ ramus. A) posterior B) sympathetic C) lateral D) anterior E) ascending

The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a _______ A) root. B) ramus. C) trunk. D) ganglion. E) dermatome.

dermatome

A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a _______ A) dermatome. B) ramus. C) plexus. D) ganglion. E) tract.

plexus

Recognized neuronal circuit patterns include all of the following except _______ A) convergent. B) divergent. C) multipolar. D) reverberating. E) parallel processing.

multipolar

You are sitting at a Mexican restaurant waiting for your food. The waiter brings a very hot plate, telling you to be careful about touching it. You touch it anyway, producing a pain sensation in your fingers, a withdrawal of your hand, and an auditory comment of what you are thinking. This scenario represents a ________ neuronal circuit. A) parallel processing B) reverberating C) serial processing D) convergent E) divergent

parallel processing

In ________, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons. A) divergence B) reverberation C) serial processing D) parallel processing E) convergence

divergence

A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the brain. This type of circuit is a ______ A) divergent circuit. B) convergent circuit. C) serial processing circuit. D) parallel processing circuit. E) reverberating circuit.

convergent circuit

Which of the following is not a way that reflexes are classified? A) innate/acquired B) somatic/visceral C) sympathetic/parasympathetic D) monosynaptic/polysynaptic E) spinal/cranial

sympathetic/parasympathetic

All of the following are true of neural reflexes EXCEPT that they ______ A) are automatic motor responses. B) are the simplest form of behavior. C) help preserve homeostasis. D) cannot be modified by the brain. E) involve at least two neurons.

cannot be modified by the brain

Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes. A) visceral B) innate C) acquired D) somatic E) intersegmental

innate

The neural "wiring" of a single reflex is called a(n) A) reflex arc. B) ramus. C) ganglion. D) tract. E) circuit.

reflex arc

________ reflexes activate skeletal muscles. A) Involuntary B) Cranial C) Spinal D) Autonomic E) Somatic

Somatic

The most complicated spinal reflexes are called _______ A) collateral reflex arcs. B) ipsilateral reflex arcs. C) intersegmental reflex arcs. D) dermatomes. E) spinal plexuses.

intersegmental reflex arcs

All of the following are true of muscle spindles except they _______ A) are found within skeletal muscle. B) consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers. C) are found in tendons. D) are the receptor for the stretch reflex. E) are innervated by gamma motor neurons.

are found in tendons

The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex. A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal

tendon

Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called _______ A) a crossed extensor reflex. B) a stretch reflex. C) a tendon reflex. D) reciprocal inhibition. E) reverberating circuits.

reciprocal inhibition

Which of the following is not true of polysynaptic reflexes? A) They involve pools of interneurons. B) They are intersegmental in distribution. C) They involve reciprocal inhibition. D) They involve one muscle group. E) They have reverberating circuits.

They involve one muscle group

Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order: 1) motor neuron activation 2) sensory neuron activation 3) sensory receptor activation 4) Information processing 5) effector response A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 D) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 E) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

3, 2, 4, 1, 5

The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles. A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal

crossed extensor

The flexor reflex ________ A) prevents a muscle from overstretching. B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. D) usually depends on cranial neurons. E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.

moves a limb away from a painful stimulus

Reflexes that activate muscles on the same side of the body as the stimulus are called _______ A) contralateral. B) ipsilateral. C) monosynaptic. D) involuntary. E) polysynaptic.

ipsilateral

Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called ______ A) contralateral. B) ipsilateral. C) monosynaptic. D) involuntary. E) polysynaptic.

contralateral

In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron. A) monosynaptic B) ipsilateral C) commensual D) contralateral E) polysynaptic

monosynaptic

A(n) ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neurons. A) monosynaptic B) ipsilateral C) contralateral D) involuntary E) polysynaptic

polysynaptic

Which of the following is not a reason a reflex response may fail during a clinical exam? A) The person may consciously suppress the response. B) The nerves may be damaged. C) The person may be elderly and no longer have any reflexes. D) The CNS may be damaged. E) There may be nerve conduction problems.

The person may be elderly and no longer have any reflexes

Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex? A) normal in newborns B) abnormal in adults C) a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts D) clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected E) flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked

clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected

What is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater? (Figure 13-3) A) dura mater B) subdural space C) subarachnoid space D) denticulate space E) epidural space

subarachnoid space

In which horn are somatic motor nuclei located? (Figure 13-5) A) anterior horn B) posterior horn C) lateral horn D) dorsal horn E) central horn

anterior horn

What are the four ways reflexes can be classified? (Figure 13-15) A) monosynaptic, polysynaptic, monosegmental, polysegmental B) flexor, extensor, crossed extensor, withdrawal C) somatic, muscle, visceral, autonomic D) development, response, complexity, processing site E) dorsal, ventral, lateral, central

development, response, complexity, processing site

A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called A) the presynaptic neuron. B) the motor neuron. C) an oligodendrocyte. D) a satellite cell. E) the postsynaptic neuron.

the postsynaptic neuron.

Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system? A) chemical B) electrical C) mechanical D) processing E) radiative

chemical

The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) chloride. E) magnesium.

calcium

Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter A) norepinephrine. B) adrenalin. C) serotonin. D) acetylcholine. E) GABA.

acetylcholine.

The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. What is the correct sequence for these events? 1. Chemically-gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated. 2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal. 3. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes acetylcholine. 4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic terminal at the presynaptic membrane. 5. The pre-synaptic terminal reabsorbs choline. 6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis. 7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the pre- synaptic terminal.

4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5

If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked, A) synaptic transmission would fail. B) release of neurotransmitter would stop. C) smaller action potentials would result. D) the presynaptic membrane would be unable to reach threshold. E) the presynaptic neuron would release a different neurotransmitter

synaptic transmission would fail.

The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane depends on the A) frequency of neurotransmitter release. B) nature of the neurotransmitter. C) characteristics of the receptors. D) quantity of neurotransmitters released. E) All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

When cholinergic receptors are stimulated, A) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. B) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. C) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. D) chloride ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. E) norepinephrine deactivates acetylcholine.

sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.

What triggers the release of acetylcholine from a synaptic terminal? A) release of calcium ions from the synaptic vesicles B) graded potentials in the synaptic terminal C) synaptic vesicles fuse to dendrites D) diffusion of sodium ions out of the synaptic terminal E) diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic terminal

diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic terminal

At a(n) ________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic membrane. A) electrical B) cell C) chemical D) osmotic E) gap

chemical

In a(n) ________ synapse, current flows directly between cells. A) electrical B) cell C) chemical D) osmotic E) gap

electrical

At a synapse the 0.2-0.5 milliseconds it takes for calcium influx and neurotransmitter release is called A) latency period. B) synaptic delay. C) recovery period. D) repolarization. E) synaptic diffusion.

synaptic delay.

Synaptic delay is caused by A) neurotransmitter diffusion. B) binding of acetylcholine to post-synaptic receptors. C) calcium influx and neurotransmitter release. D) production and transport of neurotransmitter within the neuron. E) the lack of permeability of the post-synaptic membrane.

calcium influx and neurotransmitter release.

Adrenergic synapses release the neurotransmitter A) acetylcholine. B) norepinephrine. C) dopamine. D) serotonin. E) GABA

norepinephrine.

Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is important in learning and memory? A) glutamate B) gamma aminobutyric acid C) serotonin D) noradrenaline E) glycine

glutamate

After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal A) reabsorbs the acetylcholine. B) reabsorbs the acetate. C) reabsorbs the choline. D) reabsorbs axoplasm. E) pinches off and a new terminal grows.

reabsorbs the choline.

A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinson's-like symptoms? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins

dopamine

Which neurotransmitter has a direct effect on opening chloride channels? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins

GABA

Which neurotransmitter has widespread effects on a person's attention and emotional state? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins

serotonin

Which of the following neurotransmitters is a dissolved gas? A) serotonin B) glutamate C) aspartate D) nitric oxide E) histamine

nitric oxide

Which of the following neurotransmitters are known to bind to G-protein coupled receptors? A) epinephrine B) serotonin C) dopamine D) GABA E) All of these bind to G-protein coupled receptors.

All of these bind to G-protein coupled receptors.

The molecule responsible for making cyclic AMP is called A) adenylate cyclase. B) adenosine. C) anandamide. D) adenosine synthase. E) G-protein.

adenylate cyclase.

Which of the following is the primary second messenger in G-protein coupled post-synaptic cells? A) NO B) CO C) cAMP D) GABA E) ATP

cAMP

A postsynaptic neuron will have an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) when A) chemically regulated potassium channels are open and potassium is diffusing out of the cell. B) more calcium ions than usual diffuse into the neuron. C) chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell. D) the neuron is hyperpolarized. E) more potassium ions than usual diffuse out of the neuron.

chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell.

The site in the neuron where EPSPs and IPSPs are integrated is the A) chemical synapse. B) electrical synapse. C) axon hillock. D) dendritic membrane. E) synaptic terminal.

axon hillock.

EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when A) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell. B) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell. C) chloride ions enter a cell. D) extra sodium ions enter a cell. E) hyperpolarizations occur.

extra sodium ions enter a cell.

IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) A) are local depolarizations. B) are local hyperpolarizations. C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions. D) block the efflux of potassium ions. E) block the efflux of calcium ions.

are local hyperpolarizations.

When a second EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs? A) spatial summation B) temporal summation C) inhibition of the impulse D) hyperpolarization E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission

temporal summation

Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated A) spatial summation. B) temporal summation. C) inhibition of the impulse. D) hyperpolarization. E) impulse transmission.

spatial summation.

A neuron whose membrane potential shifts closer to threshold is said to be A) hyperpolarized. B) depolarized. C) facilitated. D) repolarized. E) at equilibrium.

facilitated.

In ________, activity at an axoaxonic synapse increases the amount of neurotransmitter released when an action potential arrives at the axon terminus. A) presynaptic inhibition B) presynaptic facilitation C) spatial summation D) temporal summation E) spatial facilitation

presynaptic facilitation

In one form of presynaptic inhibition the release of ________ inhibits the opening of voltage gated calcium channels in the axon terminus. A) glutamate B) GABA C) serotonin D) dopamine E) aspartate

GABA

The release of GABA and subsequent inhibition of voltage gated calcium channels is associated with A) presynaptic inhibition. B) presynaptic facilitation. C) spatial summation. D) temporal summation. E) spatial facilitation.

presynaptic inhibition.

The axon hillock is a region between what two general regions of a neuron? (Figure 12-2) A) dendrites and cell body B) nucleolus and nucleus C) axon and axon terminals D) cell body and axon E) dendrites and telodendria

cell body and axon

Which neuroglia myelinate CNS axons and which neuroglia myelinate PNS axons? (Figure 12-4) A) oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells B) Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes C) astrocytes; satellite cells D) satellite cells; astrocytes E) astrocytes; Schwann cells

oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells

Which part of an acetylcholine (ACh) molecule undergoes reuptake by the axon terminal to be reused in another acetylcholine molecule? (Figure 12-16) A) acetate B) choline C) coenzyme A D) calcium E) acetyl-CoA

choline

The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, except A) temperature. B) taste. C) touch. D) vibration. E) pain.

taste.

The sensory receptors, neurons and pathways make up the ________ division of the nervous system. A) voluntary B) efferent C) afferent D) involuntary E) somatic

afferent

The general senses A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure. B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs. C) are localized to specific areas of the body. D) cannot generate action potentials. E) include taste and smell.

involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure.

The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles. A) somatic B) sympathetic C) parasympathetic D) afferent E) autonomic

somatic

The heart muscle is a ________ effector. A) somatic B) sympathetic C) visceral D) afferent E) higher-order

visceral

The conversion of the stimulus into an action potential to be interpreted by the brain is called A) transformation. B) transduction. C) translation. D) transcription. E) transpotential.

transduction.

Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to A) receptor specificity. B) accessory cells. C) the fact that they are interoceptors. D) receptor potentials. E) receptor speciation.

receptor specificity.

Using the two-point discrimination test you can fairly accurately determine whether you have been touched with one point or two because of the density of the A) effectors. B) perception. C) labeled line. D) receptor fields. E) action potential.

receptor fields.

General sense receptors are typically the A) dendrites of motor neurons. B) dendrites of sensory neurons. C) axons of motor neurons. D) axons of sensory neurons. E) cell bodies of sensory neurons.

dendrites of sensory neurons.

Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are A) tonic receptors. B) tonic receptors and slow-adapting. C) phasic receptors and slow-adapting. D) phasic receptors and fast-adapting. E) nociceptors.

phasic receptors and fast-adapting.

Which is an example of a slow-adapting receptor? A) phasic B) touch C) smell D) temperature E) pain

pain

In order for a sensation to become a perception, A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex. B) the individual must vocalize about it. C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers. D) the other senses must be silent. E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus.

it must be received by the somatosensory cortex.

All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except A) the structure of the receptor cell. B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane. C) accessory cells that function with the receptor. D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli. E) the metabolism of the receptor cell.

the metabolism of the receptor cell.

Central adaptation refers to A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated. B) a characteristic of phasic receptors. C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway. D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus. E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron.

inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.

A receptor potential may cause all of the following responses except A) increase neurotransmitter release. B) decrease neurotransmitter release. C) cause hyperpolarization. D) cause depolarization. E) turning off the original stimulus.

turning off the original stimulus.

Peripheral adaptation ________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS. A) decreases B) increases C) stabilizes D) neutralizes E) amplifies

decreases

Which of the following statements is true about general senses? A) They are distributed all over the body. B) They are all mechanoreceptors. C) All receptors involved in general sensation consist of free nerve endings. D) They are located in sense organs. E) The reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors.

They are distributed all over the body.

Sensory encoding of the perceived location of a stimulus depends on A) the frequency of action potentials. B) which labeled line is active. C) the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated. D) the specific sensitivity of the peripheral receptor. E) the number of receptors stimulated.

the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated.

Action potentials from receptors involved in general sensations are interpreted in the A) premotor cortex. B) primary sensory cortex. C) general interpretive area. D) mesencephalon. E) reticular activating system.

primary sensory cortex.

Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the cerebellum. C) the primary motor cortex. D) the somatosensory cortex. E) Broca's area.

the somatosensory cortex.

The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as A) transduction. B) reception. C) effection. D) potential. E) stimulation.

transduction.

The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a(n) A) efferent pathway. B) spinocortical line. C) sympathetic chain. D) adaptation pathway. E) labeled line.

labeled line.

A ________ potential is a depolarization of a sensory dendrite that can lead to an afferent nerve impulse if strong enough. A) resting B) refractory C) postsynaptic D) generator E) presynaptic

generator

Sensory neurons that adapt quickly are called ________ receptors. A) phasic B) tonic C) intracellular D) chemical-channel E) opioid

phasic

A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as A) transduction. B) adaptation. C) negation. D) exhaustion. E) transformation.

adaptation.

Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors. A) tonic B) static C) phasic D) isometric E) isotonic

tonic

You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not have any ________ there. A) chemoreceptors B) nociceptors C) proprioceptors D) thermoreceptors E) photoreceptors

proprioceptors

Receptors in your stomach that determine when food enters because the pH changes would be classified as A) mechanoreceptors. B) nociceptors. C) proprioceptors. D) baroreceptors. E) chemoreceptors.

chemoreceptors.

Free nerve endings detect which stimulus/stimuli? A) chemical B) temperature, pain, stretch and touch C) pain only D) stretch E) deep pressure

temperature, pain, stretch and touch

Two types of receptors that are least likely to adapt are the A) proprioceptors and nociceptors. B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus. C) tactile discs and the free nerve endings. D) lamellar corpuscles and baroreceptors. E) chemoreceptors and baroreceptors.

proprioceptors and nociceptors.

Chemoreceptors of the general senses do not send information to the primary sensory cortex but instead send information to the ________ to control autonomic function. A) cerebellum B) cerebrum C) brain stem D) spinal cord E) corpus callosum

brain stem

A receptor that contains many mechanically-gated ion channels would function best as a A) tactile receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) photoceptor. D) thermoreceptor. E) light receptor.

tactile receptor.

A mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a A) tactile (Merkel) disc. B) root hair plexus. C) free nerve ending. D) Bulbous corpuscle. E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.

tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.

Which of the following is/are sometimes called "prickling pain"? A) mechanical damage B) proprioception C) extremes of temperature D) fast pain E) fast and slow pain

fast pain

All of the following are true of fast pain sensations except that they A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) are interpreted by the pre-frontal cortex. D) receive conscious attention. E) often trigger somatic reflexes.

are interpreted by the pre-frontal cortex.

Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by A) nociceptors. B) mechanoreceptors. C) thermoreceptors. D) chemoreceptors. E) proprioceptors.

nociceptors.

Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A) nociceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) baroreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors.

proprioceptors.

Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called A) nociceptors. B) baroreceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors.

baroreceptors.

Tactile receptors located in the reticular dermis that are tonic and show little if any adaptation are called A) Bulbous corpuscles. B) lamellar corpuscles. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles. D) tactile discs. E) root hair plexuses.

Bulbous corpuscles.

A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) Bulbous corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus.

tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.

A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a A) Bulbous corpuscle. B) lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus.

lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle.

Sensations of burning or aching pain A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus. D) are well localized. E) are fast adapting.

cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus.

Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

baroreceptors; chemoreceptors

A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum basale is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. C) Bulbous corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus.

tactile (Merkel) disc.

A sensory receptor characterized peripherally as a free nerve ending which centrally uses glutamate and/or substance P as neurotransmitters would most likely be a A) chemoreceptor. B) mechanoreceptor. C) thermoreceptor. D) nociceptor. E) free receptor.

nociceptor.

We are constantly bombarded by a variety of stimuli inside and outside of our bodies. Why are we not overwhelmed by sensory information? A) We do not have receptors for most stimuli. B) Stimuli are blocked from the receptors by our immune systems. C) Most stimuli are external to our bodies and we have very few exteroceptors on the outside of the body. D) A particular receptor type can have different sensitivities to different stimuli. E) A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received

A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received

Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

nociceptors; thermoreceptors

If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense. A) smell B) sight C) balance D) cold E) hearing

cold

________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure. A) Chemoreceptors B) Nociceptors C) Baroreceptors D) Proprioceptors E) Hair cells

Baroreceptors

Which of the following is a property of thermoreceptors? A) involves specialized receptors B) monitor heat stimuli, not cold C) found in skin only D) project to reticular formation E) cold receptors are less numerous than warm receptors

project to reticular formation

For the last few weeks, you have had an odd sensation on your upper thigh. When you touch the naked skin, it feels very strange, like you are touching your skin through layers of cloth. The surrounding area feels normal. Your doctor thinks that this may be related to spinal nerve damage related to a herniated disc. The doctor calls this change in sensation A) paresthesia. B) anesthesia. C) hypesthesia. D) synesthesia. E) kinesthesia.

paresthesia.

Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following except A) carotid bodies. B) aortic bodies. C) the skin. D) the organs of taste. E) the organs of smell.

the skin.

Why is it that one cannot identify the location of internal organs, although joints and bone location can be identified? A) The internal organs have no proprioceptors like joints, bones, and muscles. B) Internal organs have no pain receptors. C) Although internal organs have some receptors, the information is not interpreted by the brain. D) Internal organs have no receptors of any kind. E) Sensory information from internal organs is processed by a different part of the brain than the joints, bones, and muscles.

The internal organs have no proprioceptors like joints, bones, and muscles.

Sensory neurons synapse in the CNS with an interneuron known as a A) first-order neuron. B) second-order neuron. C) third-order neuron. D) motor neuron. E) efferent neuron.

second-order neuron.

All of the following pathways require third-order neurons synapsing in the thalamus except A) the lateral spinothalamic tract. B) the anterior spinothalamic tract. C) the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts. D) the gracile fasciculus. E) the cuneate fasciculus

the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.

Which of the following is true of all the sensory pathways? A) They all have third-order neurons. B) They all synapse in the thalamus. C) They all synapse in the cerebellum. D) They all enter through dorsal roots. E) Axons in each pathway decussate.

They all enter through dorsal roots.

Activity of neurons in the spinothalamic pathway may still send signals even if the first order sensory receptor does not receive a signal such as in amputation. This situation might cause A) referred pain. B) phantom limb pain. C) pain adaptation. D) paresthesia. E) anesthesia.

phantom limb pain.

Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration? A) corticobulbar B) corticospinal C) posterior (dorsal) column D) spinothalamic E) spinocerebellar

posterior (dorsal) column

The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic.

lateral spinothalamic.

Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain. A) referred B) phantom C) psychosomatic D) somatic E) neurogenic

referred

Stimulation of a neuron that terminates in the superior region of the left postcentral gyrus would produce A) a sensation in the right leg. B) a sensation in the lips. C) a muscle twitch in the right leg. D) a muscle twitch in the lips. E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg.

a sensation in the right leg.

The spinal tract that relays information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic.

anterior spinothalamic.

Each of the following is an ascending tract in the spinal cord except the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) reticulospinal tract. E) anterior spinothalamic.

reticulospinal tract.

The afferent neuron that carries the sensation and enters the CNS is a ________ neuron. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order

first-order

What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side? A) loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body B) loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body C) loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body D) loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body E) complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body

loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body

Thalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex are ________ neurons. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order

third-order

Which neuron delivers sensations to the CNS? A) first-order B) second-order C) third-order D) fourth-order E) sensory receptor

first-order

We can localize sensations that originate in different areas of the body because A) sensory neurons carry only one modality. B) sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions. C) incoming sensory information is first processed by the thalamus. D) different types of sensory receptors produce action potentials of different sizes and shapes. E) of the many types of tactile receptors.

sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions.

Identify the axon labeled "3." A) axon of a lower motor neuron B) axon of a upper motor neuron C) axon of a first-order neuron D) axon of a second-order neuron E) axon of a ganglionic neuron

axon of a second-order neuron

Where in the spinal cord is the structure labeled "2" located? A) anterior gray horns B) dorsal root ganglion C) anterior white column D) anterior median fissure E) posterior white column

anterior white column

Identify the neuron labeled "1." A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) ganglionic neuron

first-order neuron

Identify the structure labeled "5." A) thalamus B) cerebral cortex C) primary motor cortex D) primary sensory cortex E) autonomic ganglion

thalamus

The third-order neuron in this pathway synapses in what structure labeled "7"? A) cerebellum B) thalamus C) primary sensory cortex D) pons E) medulla oblongata

primary sensory cortex

Which structure conducts action potentials directly from a sensory receptor? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7

Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "2." A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) crude touch and pressure sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle

crude touch and pressure sensations

The sense of proprioception passes along the ________ pathway. A) rubriocerebellar B) corticospinal C) spinocerebellar D) decussation pathways E) ganglion

spinocerebellar

In the spinothalamic pathway, the sensory neuron that synapses with a neuron in the cerebral cortex is called the ________ neuron. A) first-order B) second-order C) third-order D) fourth-order E) receptive

third-order

Ascending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information. A) sensory B) motor C) sensory and motor D) only somatic E) autonomic

sensory

Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy? A) cerebral palsy B) stroke C) paralysis D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis E) multiple sclerosis

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the A) lower motor neuron. B) upper motor neuron. C) axon of the lower motor neuron. D) axon of the upper motor neuron. E) interneuron.

axon of the lower motor neuron.

Which motor pathway does not end in the spinal cord? A) corticobulbar tract B) corticospinal tract C) vestibulospinal tract D) tectospinal tract E) rubrospinal tract

corticobulbar tract

The corticospinal pathway begins in which area of the brain? A) somatosensory cortex B) primary motor cortex C) midbrain D) vestibular nuclei E) red nuclei

primary motor cortex

The motor homunculus shows larger structures in areas of the body that A) have more surface area. B) have more sensory receptors. C) have bigger skeletal muscles. D) are highly sensitive. E) have more motor units.

have more motor units.

The rubrospinal tracts originate in the A) primary motor cortex. B) vestibular nuclei. C) thalamus. D) red nuclei. E) reticular formation.

red nuclei.

Which areas of the brain monitor and adjust activities of the motor pathways? A) basal nuclei B) cerebellum C) basal nuclei and cerebellum D) midbrain E) pons

basal nuclei and cerebellum

The neurons of the primary motor cortex are ________ cells. A) neuroglial B) dendritic C) pyramidal D) cortical E) astrocyte

pyramidal

The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the medulla oblongata is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

lateral corticospinal

The spinal tract that normally plays a role in the subconscious regulation of the muscles of the arms is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

rubrospinal

Descending (motor) pathways always involve at least ________ motor neuron(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four E) spinal

two

The spinal tract that unconsciously maintains balance and muscle tone is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

vestibulospinal

The medial pathway that controls involuntary movements of head, neck, and arm position in response to sudden visual and auditory stimuli is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) tectospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

tectospinal

The pyramidal system provides A) voluntary control over skeletal muscles. B) voluntary control over smooth muscles. C) involuntary control over skeletal muscles. D) involuntary control over smooth muscles. E) involuntary control over cardiac muscle.

voluntary control over skeletal muscles.

Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract synapse with neurons in A) autonomic ganglia. B) the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. C) the spinothalamic tract. D) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. E) the dorsal root ganglia.

the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.

The corticospinal system is often referred to as the A) red nucleus. B) reticular formation. C) spinothalamic tracts. D) pyramidal system. E) medullary centers.

pyramidal system.

The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional to the A) size of the body area. B) distance of the body area from the brain. C) number of motor units in that region. D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body. E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body.

number of motor units in that region.

Axons of the corticobulbar tract terminate in the A) sensory neurons. B) somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord. C) autonomic motor neurons in the spinal cord. D) motor nuclei of cranial nerves. E) nuclei in the thalamus.

motor nuclei of cranial nerves.

The ________ tract provides subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and movement and is part of the ________ pathway. A) tectospinal; lateral B) rubrospinal; lateral C) reticulospinal; medial D) vestibulospinal; lateral E) corticobulbar; medial

rubrospinal; lateral

Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor units involved? A) tongue B) face C) hands D) back trunk

back trunk

The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the ________ tracts. A) corticospinal B) corticobulbar C) reticulospinal D) vestibulospinal E) tectospinal

corticospinal

The basal nuclei A) initiate conscious motor activity. B) activate spinal reflexes. C) provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities. D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons. E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensorimotor activity.

provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities.

The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the A) vestibular nuclei. B) reticular formation. C) superior colliculi. D) inferior colliculi. E) mammillary bodies.

mammillary bodies.

A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely affected? A) corticospinal tract B) tectospinal tract C) rubrospinal tract D) corticobulbar tract E) reticulospinal tract

corticobulbar tract

Some neurons within the basal nuclei are known to A) stimulate neurons with GABA. B) inhibit neurons with GABA. C) stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. D) stimulate neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. E) inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.

inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.

Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect A) perception of pain. B) sight. C) voluntary motor activity. D) hearing. E) balance.

voluntary motor activity.

The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except A) touch sensations. B) visual information. C) equilibrium-related sensations. D) input from the motor cortex. E) input from proprioceptors.

touch sensations.

Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons. A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somesthetic

lower motor

Upper motor neurons are located in the A) precentral gyrus. B) postcentral gyrus. C) brain stem. D) spinal cord. E) cerebral hemispheres and the brain stem.

cerebral hemispheres and the brain stem.

Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with the ability to A) position the arms. B) monitor body position. C) make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises. D) control motor units located in the leg. E) coordinate eating and swallowing movements.

make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises.

Descending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information. A) sensory B) motor C) sensory and motor D) only somatic E) autonomic

motor

In the corticospinal pathway, the neuron that exits the spinal cord and enters the spinal nerve is called the ________ neuron. A) upper sensory B) lower sensory C) upper motor D) lower motor E) pyramidal

lower motor

Identify the origin of the axon labeled "2." A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) decussation neuron D) second-order neuron E) ganglionic neuron

upper motor neuron

The axon labeled "2" synapses with which structure? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

Identify the structure labeled "5." A) ventral root B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) dorsal root

ventral root

What occurs in this neural pathway at label "3"? A) synapse B) communication between sensory and motor neurons C) amplification of motor signals D) decussation E) autonomic reflexes

decussation

Identify the structure labeled "1." A) primary sensory cortex B) primary motor cortex C) thalamus D) autonomic motor center E) basal nuclei

primary motor cortex

Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "4." A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) pain and crude touch sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle

motor commands to skeletal muscles

Which motor pathway directs a faster response: voluntary or involuntary? (Figure 15-1) A) voluntary B) involuntary

involuntary

Describe the receptive field. (Figure 15-2) A) The area receptive to stimuli monitored by a single receptor cell. B) The overlap where many receptors detect stimuli. C) The distance the generator potential travels after receptor stimulation. D) The distance covered by action potentials after receptor stimulation. E) The areas of the brain that process the receptor stimuli.

The area receptive to stimuli monitored by a single receptor cell.

Which tactile receptors are located in the dermis? (Figure 15-4) A) free nerve endings and tactile corpuscles B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus C) tactile discs and tactile corpuscles D) root hair plexus, bulbous corpuscle, and lamellar corpuscles E) tactile discs and proprioceptors

root hair plexus, bulbous corpuscle, and lamellar corpuscles

Which pathway or tract detects sensations of pain and temperature? (Figure 15-7) A) posterior spinocerebellar B) anterior spinocerebellar C) posterior column pathway D) anterior spinothalamic E) lateral spinothalamic

lateral spinothalamic

Identify the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord. (Figure 15-10) A) anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, lateral spinothalamic B) anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar, lateral spinocerebellar C) lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal D) gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus E) medial lemniscus, anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar

lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal

The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue. A) 15 percent B) 25 percent C) 68 percent D) 97 percent E) 35 percent

97 percent

Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains. A) larger B) smaller C) the same size D) very smooth E) more convoluted

larger

During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum? A) telencephalon B) diencephalon C) mesencephalon D) metencephalon E) myelencephalon

telencephalon

Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain? A) cerebrum B) diencephalon C) prosencephalon D) brainstem E) cerebellum

prosencephalon

Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem? A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) mesencephalon D) diencephalon E) cerebellum

diencephalon

The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the A) hypothalamus. B) thalamus. C) brain stem. D) mesencephalon. E) pons.

hypothalamus

The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) mesencephalon. D) diencephalon. E) thalamus.

pons

Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) cerebellum.

medulla oblongata

The cerebellum and pons develop from the A) telencephalon. B) diencephalon. C) mesencephalon. D) metencephalon. E) myelencephalon.

metencephalon

Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) thalamus. E) cerebellum.

thalamus

As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become A) more complex. B) simpler. C) better understood. D) more crucial to visceral functions. E) critical to reflexes.

more complex

The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems. A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) cerebrum D) pons E) hypothalamus

hypothalamus

The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the A) first. B) second. C) third. D) fourth. E) lateral.

fourth

Which of the following is true about the cerebral cortex? A) It is a deep layer of gray matter. B) It is a superficial layer of gray matter. C) It is a deep layer of white matter. D) It is a superficial layer of white matter. E) It is a deep layer of both white and gray matter.

It is a superficial layer of gray matter

When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences? A) thalamus B) pons C) midbrain D) cerebellum E) medulla oblongata

cerebellum

During development, three primary brain vesicles form. The three vesicles are the A) prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. B) telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon. C) mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon. D) cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain. E) rhombencephalon, diencephalon, and telencephalon.

prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon

The lateral ventricles are found A) in the cerebellar hemispheres. B) between the pons and the midbrain. C) in the cerebral hemispheres. D) in the diencephalon. E) in the spinal cord.

in the cerebral hemispheres

The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the A) basal ganglia. B) brain stem. C) mesencephalon. D) ventricles. E) diencephalon.

brain stem

The rounded elevations of the cerebrum that increase its surface area are called A) sulci. B) fissures. C) cortical folds. D) gyri. E) dural sinuses.

gyri

The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the A) cerebral aqueduct. B) fornix. C) falx cerebri. D) corpus callosum. E) septum pellucidum.

septum pellucidum

The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the A) posterior foramen. B) interventricular foramen. C) cerebral aqueduct. D) lateral foramen. E) central canal.

interventricular foramen

Specialized ________ form the secretory component of the choroid plexus. A) epididymal cells B) ependymal cells C) arachnoid cells D) astrocyte E) blood cells

ependymal cells

The dural venous sinuses are located in the A) paranasal cavity. B) arachnoid folds. C) pia mater. D) dural folds. E) tentorium cerebelli.

dural folds

What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain? A) pia mater B) arachnoid mater C) dura mater D) cranial plexus E) choroid plexus

pia mater

The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood to the brain are the A) external carotid arteries. B) facial arteries. C) jugular veins. D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries. E) dural sinuses.

internal carotid and vertebral arteries

Which of the following is not a property of the blood-brain barrier? A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions. B) It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds. C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries. D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus. E) It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs.

It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds

The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the A) dural sinus. B) falx cerebri. C) tentorium cerebelli. D) falx cerebelli. E) choroid plexus.

falx cerebri

Cerebrospinal fluid A) is secreted by ependymal cells. B) is formed by a passive process. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma. E) contains blood cells and blood plasma.

is secreted by ependymal cells

Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of the spinal cord and brain? A) Spinal fluid is secreted both in the brain and in the spinal cord areas. B) There is an epidural space associated with the spinal meninges, but not with the cranial meninges. C) The meninges around the brain are not the same as those around the spinal cord. D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges but not the cranial meninges. E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord.

The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord

The choroid plexus is composed of A) lymphatic vessels. B) blood vessels. C) nerve fibers. D) ganglia. E) subarachnoid granulations.

blood vessels

Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the A) jugular veins. B) central canal. C) arachnoid granulations. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) frontal sinus.

arachnoid granulations

What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows? A) subdural space B) dural sinus C) falx cerebri D) subarachnoid space E) pia mater

subarachnoid space

Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues B) provides buoyant support for the brain C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients D) produces ATP for impulse transmission E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

produces ATP for impulse transmission

Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid? A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma. B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person. C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord. D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus. E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis.

If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus

Hydrocephalus, or "water on the brain," may result from A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid. B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid. C) blockage of circulation of CSF. D) excessive water intake. E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production.

blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production

To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the A) subarachnoid space. B) superior sagittal sinus. C) carotid canal. D) inferior sagittal sinus. E) jugular foramen.

superior sagittal sinus

In each ventricle is a blood vessel network called the ________ that produces cerebrospinal fluid. A) choroid plexus B) jugular vein C) carotid artery D) vertebral artery E) dural sinus

choroid plexus

Chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid are called A) plexuses. B) ganglia. C) sinuses. D) aqueducts. E) ventricles.

ventricles

Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the A) cerebral aqueduct. B) basal ganglia. C) falx cerebri. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) septum pellucidum.

falx cerebri

The dural sinuses form between which two layers of the cranial dura mater? A) pia and arachnoid layers B) periosteal and endosteal layers C) meningeal and cranial layers D) periosteal and meningeal layers E) superior and inferior sagittal layers

periosteal and meningeal layers

Tony hit his head in a car accident. The physicians diagnosed him with a subdural hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly states where the bleeding has occurred in his brain? A) Blood is between the dura mater and the skull. B) Blood is between the pia mater and arachnoid mater. C) Blood is between the pia mater and the brain. D) Blood is between the superior sagittal sinus and inferior sagittal sinus. E) Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

How rapidly is the CSF volume replaced? A) every 20 minutes B) every 2 hours C) every 8 hours D) every 2 days E) every week

every 8 hours

Which dural fold separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum? A) tentorium cerebelli B) falx cerebelli C) falx cerebri D) longitudinal fissure E) superior sagittal sinus

tentorium cerebelli

A patient comes into the emergency room with weakness on one side and difficulty walking and talking. You determine that the brain has been deprived of oxygen due to lack of regional blood flow. You suspect that patient has most likely experienced A) a subdural hemorrhage. B) meningitis. C) hydrocephalus. D) cranial trauma. E) a cerebrovascular accident.

a cerebrovascular accident

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "1." A) choroid plexus B) cerebral aqueduct C) third ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) corpus callosum

choroid plexus

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Ependymal cells are most likely found at which structure? A) 10 B) 2 C) 9 D) 3 E) 7

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: CSF is absorbed into the venous circulation via arachnoid granulations. Identify an arachnoid granulation. A) 8 B) 1 C) 10 D) 2 E) 4

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "3." A) lateral ventricles B) corpora quadrigemina C) cerebral aqueduct D) pons E) central canal

cerebral aqueduct

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "4." A) cerebral aqueduct B) lateral ventricle C) sagittal sinus D) 4th ventricle E) choroid plexus

4th ventricle

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "6." A) choroid plexus B) fourth ventricle C) lateral ventricle D) cerebral aqueduct E) subarachnoid space

subarachnoid space

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "7." A) dura mater B) lateral ventricle C) fourth ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) filum terminale

dura mater

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "9." A) dura mater B) superior sagittal sinus C) lateral ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) arachnoid granulation

superior sagittal sinus

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "10." A) arbor vitae B) central canal C) corpus callosum D) pons E) diencephalon

central canal

The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) diencephalon. D) medulla oblongata. E) thalamus.

medulla oblongata

The medulla oblongata regulates A) somatic motor contractions. B) food intake. C) auditory reflexes. D) vision and hearing. E) blood pressure and respiration.

blood pressure and respiration

This structure of the medulla oblongata relays information from the red nuclei, midbrain, and the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum. A) inferior olivary complex B) reticular formation C) nucleus gracilis D) nucleus cuneatus E) solitary nucleus

inferior olivary complex

Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because A) electrical activity originates within the medulla. B) the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there. C) the blood might not be able to circulate properly around the brain. D) body temperature is controlled by the medulla. E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla.

the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there

Cardiovascular centers located in the ________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of cardiac contractions, and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues. A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) prefrontal cortex D) thalamus E) midbrain

medulla oblongata

The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated is A) decussation. B) contralateral. C) ascending crossovers. D) pyramidal tracts. E) consensual tracts.

decussation

Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has lost some sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial muscles for emotion and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some hearing loss and balance problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the A) cerebellum. B) cerebrum. C) medulla. D) thalamus. E) pons.

pons

If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected? A) breathing B) control of blood pressure C) coordination D) sleep patterns E) judgment

breathing

The nuclei of which cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain? A) I and II B) II and III C) III and IV D) IV and V E) V and VI

III and IV

Descending fibers from the pons to the cerebellum pass through these structures of the midbrain? A) substantia nigra B) reticular formation C) superior colliculus D) corpora quadrigemina E) cerebral peduncles

cerebral peduncles

The medulla oblongata relays auditory stimuli to the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi.

inferior colliculi

The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the thalamus is the A) midbrain. B) cerebral aqueduct. C) 4th ventricle. D) basal ganglion. E) cerebellum.

midbrain

Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the A) tectum. B) corpora quadrigemina. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi.

cerebral peduncles

The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the A) four cerebral lobes. B) superior and inferior colliculi. C) first four cranial nerves. D) cranial nerve IV. E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles.

superior and inferior colliculi

The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the mesencephalon. Which nuclei accomplish this? A) substantia nigra B) red nuclei C) tectum D) superior colliculi E) inferior colliculi

inferior colliculi

Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with A) control of autonomic function. B) regulation of body temperature. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck. D) conscious control of skeletal muscles. E) control of breathing.

visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck

Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the A) nucleus gracilis. B) nucleus cuneatus. C) motor cortex. D) substantia nigra. E) cerebellar nucleus.

substantia nigra

The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain. A) cerebral peduncles B) reticular formation C) substantia nigra D) choroid plexuses E) corpora quadrigemina

corpora quadrigemina

The mesencephalon contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention. A) falx cerebri B) Wernicke's area C) general association area D) reticular activating system E) basal ganglia

basal ganglia

Which of the following tracts is correctly matched? A) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the spinal cord B) middle cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the pons C) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the cerebrum D) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the medulla oblongata E) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the midbrain

middle cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the pons

Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the A) cerebrum. B) thalamus. C) cerebellum. D) pons. E) medulla oblongata.

cerebellum

The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the A) flocculonodular lobe. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid.

vermis

The white matter of the cerebellum forms the A) flocculonodular lobe. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid.

arbor vitae

The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the A) pons. B) medulla. C) cerebral cortex. D) cerebellar cortex. E) arbor vitae.

cerebellar cortex

The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily affected by drugs or alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known as A) ataxia. B) aphasia. C) dysphagia. D) Parkinson's. E) epilepsy.

ataxia

The folds of the surface of the cerebellum A) are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds. B) form a network of blood vessels over the brain. C) consist of axons and dendrites of neurons. D) are bathed in spinal fluid. E) are called sulci.

are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds

Which of the following is not one of the thalamic nuclei? A) ventral nuclei B) medial nuclei C) superior nuclei D) anterior nuclei E) dorsal nuclei

superior nuclei

Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms? A) suprachiasmatic nucleus B) preoptic area C) autonomic nucleus D) paraventricular nucleus E) tuber cinereum

suprachiasmatic nucleus

The hypothalamus produces which two hormones? A) ADH and epinephrine B) epinephrine and norepinephrine C) ADH and oxytocin D) growth hormone and melatonin E) oxytocin and melatonin

ADH and oxytocin

Which of the following is true regarding the pineal gland? A) It is part of the epithalamus and secretes melatonin. B) It is part of the hypothalamus and secretes oxytocin. C) It is part of the thalamus. D) It is part of the limbic system. E) It controls heart rate and blood pressure.

It is part of the epithalamus and secretes melatonin

The pineal gland is part of the A) hypothalamus. B) diencephalon. C) midbrain. D) medulla oblongata. E) brainstem.

diencephalon

Which of the following is not function of the hypothalamus? A) produces ADH B) secrete melatonin C) regulates body temperature D) secretes oxytocin E) controls autonomic centers

secrete melatonin

Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus? A) contains the mammillary body B) forms the roof of the diencephalon C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum D) forms the cerebrum E) creates the lateral ventricles

forms the roof of the diencephalon

The anterior nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) secrete pituitary hormones. C) secrete melatonin. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve. E) secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin.

are part of the limbic system

The medial nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe. C) produce the hormone oxytocin. D) process visual information. E) process olfactory information.

connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe

The dorsal/posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the A) basal nuclei. B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei. C) mammillary body. D) interthalamic adhesion. E) red nucleus.

lateral and medial geniculate nuclei

The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the A) pulvinar nuclei. B) lateral geniculate nuclei. C) medial geniculate nuclei. D) supraoptic nuclei. E) paraventricular nuclei.

lateral geniculate nuclei

Which of the following is a function of the thalamus? A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid B) secrete melatonin C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum D) store memories E) regulate food intake

process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum

The thalamus is often called the "air traffic controller" of the brain because it A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight response. B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood. C) controls reflexes. D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area. E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum.

determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area

The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus A) regulate lactation. B) secrete oxytocin. C) control feeding reflexes. D) control heart rate and blood pressure. E) secrete antidiuretic hormone.

control feeding reflexes

The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex. A) cerebrum B) thalamus C) pons D) medulla oblongata E) cerebellum

thalamus

Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem? A) an intense thirst B) an uncontrolled sex drive C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature D) an insatiable appetite E) production of a large volume of urine

reduced ability to regulate body temperature

Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located? A) prefrontal cortex B) postcentral gyrus C) basal nuclei D) hypothalamus E) reticular formation

hypothalamus

Stimulation of the ________ within the hypothalamus produces the sensation of hunger. A) satiety center B) feeding center C) thirst center D) limbic system E) hormone center

feeding center

The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. A) hippocampus B) infundibulum C) supraoptic nucleus D) basal ganglia E) amygdala

infundibulum

The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the A) reticular activating system. B) circadian system. C) limbic system. D) hypothalamic system. E) apneustic system.

limbic system

Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system? A) primarily a functional grouping B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brain stem E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory

functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather

The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories. A) amygdaloid body B) cingulate gyrus C) mammillary bodies D) hippocampus E) fornix

hippocampus

A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the A) amygdaloid body. B) cingulate gyrus. C) mammillary bodies. D) hippocampus. E) fornix.

fornix

Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged? A) the prefrontal lobe B) the general interpretive area C) the limbic system D) the preoptic area E) the reticular activating system

the limbic system

Which of the following is not correctly matched? A) commissural fibers: interconnect the cerebral hemispheres B) arcuate fibers: short association fibers C) projection fibers: pass through the diencephalon D) association fibers: interconnect areas within a single cerebral hemisphere E) internal capsule: bands of association fibers

internal capsule: bands of association fibers

Which of the following is not true regarding the lentiform nucleus? A) It is part of the basal nuclei. B) It contains white matter. C) It controls subconscious control of skeletal muscle. D) It contains the putamen and the globus pallidus. E) It is located deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle on each cerebral hemisphere.

It contains white matter

The olfactory cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) cerebellum.

temporal lobe

A person touches you lightly with a feather. What two areas of the brain allow you to feel and interpret this touch? A) primary motor cortex and the primary sensory cortex B) primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area C) primary sensory cortex and the visceral sensory association area D) primary motor cortex and the somatic motor association area E) gustatory cortex and the gustatory association area

primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area

In order to take notes the primary motor cortex must receive input from the ________ first. A) postcentral gyrus B) primary sensory cortex C) somatic sensory association area D) premotor cortex E) olfactory association area

premotor cortex

The complex integration of sensory information with visual and auditory memories occurs in this area near the auditory cortex? A) somatosensory area B) precentral gyrus C) premotor cortex D) Wernicke's area E) Broca's area

Wernicke's area

Following a head injury, Kevin can think of the word he wants to say but cannot make his mouth form the correct sounds to produce the word. He is most likely suffering from damage to A) Wernicke's area. B) Broca's area. C) Brodmann's area. D) the general interpretive area. E) the basal nuclei.

Broca's area

Which of the following is not true regarding hemispheric lateralization? A) Sensory analysis occurs in the right hemisphere. B) Emotional recognition of facial expressions occurs in the right hemisphere. C) Speech and language control is in the left hemisphere. D) Analytic tasks like math and decision making occurs in the right hemisphere. E) Reading and writing control is in the left hemisphere.

Analytic tasks like math and decision making occurs in the right hemisphere

Which EEG wave if seen in an awake adult may indicate a pathological condition? A) alpha B) beta C) theta D) delta E) No waves should be seen in awake adults.

delta

Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of A) Parkinson's disease. B) rabies. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) myasthenia gravis. E) tetanus.

Parkinson's disease

The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the A) longitudinal fissure. B) central sulcus. C) transverse fissure. D) parieto-occipital sulcus. E) postcentral sulcus.

longitudinal fissure

Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are A) fissures. B) sinuses. C) lobes. D) sulci. E) gyri.

lobes

The cerebral lobe posterior to the central sulcus is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula.

parietal lobe

The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is/are the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) parietal and frontal lobes.

parietal and frontal lobes

The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula.

insula

The primary motor cortex is the surface of the A) insula. B) precentral gyrus. C) postcentral gyrus. D) arcuate gyrus. E) corpus callosum.

precentral gyrus

The corpus callosum is composed of A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers.

commissural fibers

The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex. A) primary sensory B) primary motor C) visual D) olfactory E) auditory

primary sensory

Commissural fibers A) carry pain information to the correct brain structure. B) are divided by the longitudinal fissure. C) link the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon. D) interconnect and allow communication between cerebral hemispheres. E) connect the frontal lobe to other lobes of the same hemisphere.

interconnect and allow communication between cerebral hemispheres

The visual cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula.

occipital lobe

The auditory cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula.

temporal lobe

Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas. A) commissural B) sensory C) association D) somesthetic E) processing

association

The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the A) prefrontal cerebral cortex. B) occipital association cortex. C) reticular formation. D) temporal lobe. E) premotor cortex.

prefrontal cerebral cortex

Parkinson's disease is the result of A) excess production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei. B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra. C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons. D) hyperactivity of the limbic system. E) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon.

inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons

After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe. A) right frontal B) left frontal C) right temporal D) left temporal E) occipital

left frontal

After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the A) frontal lobe. B) postcentral gyrus. C) temporal lobe. D) limbic system. E) occipital lobe.

occipital lobe

Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the general interpretive area. C) Broca's area. D) Wernicke's area. E) the postcentral gyrus.

the prefrontal cortex

Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the A) anterior commissures. B) basal nuclei. C) motor association areas. D) visual cortex. E) auditory cortex.

basal nuclei

Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities? A) Broca's area B) Brodmann area C) prefrontal cortex D) Wernicke's area E) general interpretive area

prefrontal cortex

The highest levels of information processing occur in the A) cerebrum. B) diencephalon. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) corpus callosum.

cerebrum

A person with a damaged visual association area may be A) unable to see rows of letters. B) declared legally blind. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words. E) unable to understand spoken words.

able to see letters but unable to associate them into words

Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to A) speak. B) move her left arm. C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand. D) recognize written words. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed.

verbally identify an object placed in her left hand

________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech. A) Frontal B) Integrative C) Communication D) Terminal E) Vocal

Integrative

What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with damage to the basal nuclei? A) inability to process thoughts in a rational way B) visual problems C) facial tics D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles E) anger problems

problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles

Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his A) somatosensory association area. B) general interpretive area. C) speech center. D) prefrontal lobe. E) temporal lobe.

general interpretive area

Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to A) understand written words. B) understand spoken words. C) understand visual images. D) play the piano. E) sense the texture of velvet.

play the piano

________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior. A) Dyslexia B) Apraxia C) Aphasia D) Parkinson's disease E) A seizure

A seizure

A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a period of time. A) electrocardiogram B) electroencephalogram C) x-ray D) MRI E) CT scan

electroencephalogram

________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read. A) Aphasia B) Ataxia C) Apraxia D) Bell's palsy E) Dysphagia

Aphasia

The basal nuclei A) initiate voluntary muscle activity. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking. C) coordinate sensory information. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland. E) control respiration and blood pressure.

provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking

In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in A) the left cerebral hemisphere. B) the right cerebral hemisphere. C) neither of the cerebral hemispheres. D) both of the cerebral hemispheres. E) the cerebellum.

the left cerebral hemisphere

The dominant cerebral hemisphere of the brain A) is for emotional status. B) is for interpretation of art and music. C) performs analytical tasks. D) controls vital functions such as blood pressure and heart rate. E) controls emotions.

performs analytical tasks

Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas. A) association B) motor C) cranial D) sensory E) intercalated

association

The white structure that connects the cerebral hemispheres is the A) geniculate nucleus. B) basal ganglia. C) amygdala. D) arbor vitae. E) corpus callosum.

corpus callosum

The only sensation that is received directly by the cerebrum is A) olfaction. B) gustation. C) hearing. D) vision. E) dizziness.

olfaction

Which of the following nerves is purely sensory? A) vagus B) trochlear C) abducens D) optic E) hypoglossal

optic

A patient suffers an inability to shrug their shoulders. The nerve most likely to be damaged is the A) vagus. B) accessory. C) facial. D) trigeminal. E) vestibulocochlear.

accessory

Which cranial nerve sends balance sensations to the brain? A) facial B) trigeminal C) olfactory D) vagus E) vestibulocochlear

vestibulocochlear

Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue? A) hypoglossal B) vagus C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) abducens

hypoglossal

________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve. A) Cerebral palsy B) Bell's palsy C) Addison's disease D) Gout E) Tic douloureux

Bell's palsy

There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves. A) 2 B) 6 C) 12 D) 22 E) 31

Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) olfactory E) facial

oculomotor

The cranial nerves that innervate the extrinsic eye muscles are A) I, II, and III. B) III, IV, and VI. C) II, III, and IV. D) II and VI. E) III and V.

III, IV, and VI

The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the A) abducens. B) facial. C) vagus. D) trigeminal. E) glossopharyngeal.

trigeminal

Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve. A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal

mandibular branch of the trigeminal

Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)? A) vagus B) facial C) glossopharyngeal D) hypoglossal E) glossopharyngeal and vagus

glossopharyngeal and vagus

A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ reflex. A) corneal B) tympanic C) auditory D) vestibulocochlear E) spinal

corneal

Which sensation(s) does the vestibulocochlear nerve carry? A) hearing B) balance C) atmospheric pressure D) hearing and balance E) hearing, balance, and taste

hearing and balance

Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb? A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal

trigeminal

You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve when he is unable to A) smell his food. B) smile. C) blink his eyes. D) nod his head. E) hear your voice.

smell his food

Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the A) medulla. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract.

olfactory bulb

At the optic chiasm, A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross. B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross. C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half. D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain. E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum.

axons from the medial halves of each retina cross

A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected? A) glossopharyngeal B) hypoglossal C) vagus D) spinal accessory E) trigeminal

hypoglossal

Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve? A) loss of the sense of taste B) tooth pain C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle D) lack of facial expression E) dry mouth from lack of saliva

weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

The patient has the following symptoms: change in vocal tone, problems swallowing, inability to control urination, erratic heart rate, and gastric problems. You would identify the problem as being related to the A) vagus nerve. B) accessory nerve. C) abducens nerve. D) trigeminal nerve. E) hypoglossal nerve.

vagus nerve

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "1." A) mammillary body B) infundibulum C) oculomotor nerve D) olfactory bulb E) optic nerve

optic nerve

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the nerve labeled "3." A) facial B) abducens C) trochlear D) trigeminal E) vagus

abducens

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the nerve labeled "4"? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) hearing and balance E) eye movement

hearing and balance

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the nerve labeled "5"? A) movement of the tongue B) facial expression C) vision D) taste E) visceral sensation and motor control

visceral sensation and motor control

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the structure labeled "7"? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) auditory E) eye movement

olfaction

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the nerve labeled "11." A) oculomotor B) trigeminal C) trochlear D) abducens E) optic

trigeminal

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the nerve labeled "12." A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) abducens E) vagus

facial

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the spinal accessory nerve (XI). A) 10 B) 11 C) 9 D) 6 E) 3

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions:Identify the nerve that goes beyond the head and neck to innervate the thorax and abdomen. A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 10 E) 2

What structures make up the brainstem? (Figure 14-1) A) cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon B) diencephalon, midbrain, cerebellum C) midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata D) hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus E) pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

List the maters surrounding the brain from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer. (Figure 14-3) A) dura, arachnoid, pia B) pia, arachnoid, dura C) arachnoid, dura, pia D) arachnoid, pia, dura E) pia, dura, arachnoid

pia, arachnoid, dura

What makes up the gray matter in the cerebellum? (Figure 14-9) A) superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles B) transverse pontine fibers and arbor vitae C) arbor vitae and superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles D) transverse pontine fibers and cerebellar nuclei E) cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei

cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei

The central sulcus divides which two lobes? (Figure 14-13) A) left parietal lobe and right parietal lobe B) occipital lobe and parietal lobe C) frontal lobe and parietal lobe D) frontal lobe and temporal lobe E) parietal lobe and temporal lobe

frontal lobe and parietal lobe

Which portion of the lentiform nucleus is more medial and which portion is more lateral? (Figure 14-15) A) putamen is more medial; globus pallidus is more lateral B) globus pallidus is more medial; putamen is more lateral C) claustrum is medial; septum pellucidum is lateral D) septum pellucidum is medial; claustrum is lateral E) insula is medial; caudate nucleus is lateral

globus pallidus is more medial; putamen is more lateral

Which structure receives visual information before it reaches the visual cortex? (Figure 14-20) A) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus B) medial geniculate body of the thalamus C) ventral nucleus of the thalamus D) paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus E) supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus

lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve? (Figure 14-22) A) lingual, mental, salivary B) optic, auditory, buccal C) temporal, zygomatic, buccal D) ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular E) otic, ophthalmic, vestibular

ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular