E3

Question 1

The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system
A) peripheral
B) somatic
C) central
D) autonomic
E) afferent

Answer 1

Central

Question 2

The adult spinal cord typically ends between vertebrae ____
A) T12-L1.
B) S4-S5.
C) L5-S1.
D) L1-L2.
E) S5-Co1

Answer 2

L1-L2

Question 3

Arrange the spinal meninges from innermost layer to outermost layer.
A) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
B) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
C) arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater
D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
E) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

Answer 3

pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

Question 4

Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise.
A) cervical enlargement
B) lumbar enlargement
C) thoracic region
D) conus medullaris
E) sacral region

Answer 4

cervical enlargement

Question 5

These structures extending from the pia mater through to the dura mater support the spinal cord by preventing lateral movement.
A) coccygeal ligament
B) rami communicantes
C) cauda equina
D) denticulate ligaments
E) spinal ligaments

Answer 5

denticulate ligaments

Question 6

The conus medullaris anchors the spinal cord to the coccygeal ligament via a strand of fibrous tissue called the _____
A) denticulate ligament.
B) filum terminale.
C) spinal ligament.
D) meningeal ligament.
E) dura mater.

Answer 6

filum terminale

Question 7

Spinal nerves are ____
A) purely sensory.
B) purely motor.
C) both sensory and motor.
D) interneuronal.
E) involuntary.

Answer 7

both sensory and motor

Question 8

The spinal cord consists of four regions and ________ pairs of spinal nerves
A) five
B) twelve
C) twenty-five
D) thirty-one
E) The number varies widely among individuals.

Answer 8

thirty-one

Question 9

The posterior root ganglia mainly contain _____
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) synapses.

Answer 9

cell bodies of sensory neurons

Question 10

The posterior root of a spinal nerve contains _____
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) interneurons.

Answer 10

axons of sensory neurons

Question 11

The anterior root of a spinal nerve contains _____
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) interneurons.

Answer 11

axons of motor neurons

Question 12

The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the ____
A) arachnoid mater.
B) pia mater.
C) dura mater.
D) coccygeal ligament.
E) periosteum.

Answer 12

dura mater

Question 13

If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed, ____
A) output to skeletal muscles would be blocked.
B) output to visceral organs would be blocked.
C) efferent fibers would be blocked.
D) the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord.
E) sensory input would be blocked.

Answer 13

sensory input would be blocked

Question 14

The subdural space lies between _____
A) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
B) the pia mater and the dura mater.
C) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
D) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space.
E) the endosteum and the periosteum.

Answer 14

the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

Question 15

The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the _______
A) dura mater.
B) subarachnoid space.
C) arachnoid mater.
D) pia mater.
E) choroid plexus.

Answer 15

pia mater

Question 16

A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a _____
A) cervical enlargement.
B) lumbar enlargement.
C) spinal nerve.
D) denticulate ligament.
E) spinal ganglion.

Answer 16

spinal nerve

Question 17

Which of the following is not true of meningitis?
A) Inflammation of the meninges occurs.
B) Bacteria can be the cause.
C) Viruses can be the cause.
D) CSF flow can be disrupted.
E) It only affects spinal meninges.

Answer 17

It only affects spinal meninges

Question 18

Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block?
A) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery.
B) This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia.
C) It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected.
D) Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed.
E) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection.

Answer 18

This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia

Question 19

Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the______
A) filum terminale.
B) subarachnoid space.
C) dura mater.
D) pia mater.
E) arachnoid mater.

Answer 19

subarachnoid space

Question 20

The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age ______
A) 20 years.
B) 10 years.
C) 4 years.
D) 6 months.
E) 2 months.

Answer 20

4 years

Question 21

The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the ______
A) cranial meninges.
B) cranial mater.
C) spinal meninges.
D) spinal mater.
E) epidural membranes.

Answer 21

spinal meninges

Question 22

Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the ______
A) pia mater.
B) dura mater.
C) epidural space.
D) subdural space.
E) arachnoid mater.

Answer 22

pia mater

Question 23

Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the ____
A) dura mater.
B) arachnoid mater.
C) epidural space.
D) subarachnoid space.
E) cerebral ventricles.

Answer 23

subarachnoid space

Question 24

In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about _____
A) T6.
B) T10.
C) L1.
D) L5.
E) C8.

Answer 24

L1

Question 25

The dura mater tapers inferiorly to form the
A) coccygeal ligament.
B) conus medullaris.
C) cauda equina.
D) subarachnoid space.
E) denticulate ligament.

Answer 25

coccygeal ligament

Question 26

The condition in which a person loses all feeling and movement of the arms and legs due to spinal cord injury is termed ______
A) paraplegia.
B) hemiplegia.
C) spinal shock.
D) quadriplegia.
E) spinal transection.

Answer 26

quadriplegia

Question 27

The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed _____
A) paraplegia.
B) hemiplegia.
C) spinal shock.
D) quadriplegia.
E) spinal transection.

Answer 27

paraplegia

Question 28

During the procedure known as a(n) ________, a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space in the inferior lumbar region.
A) myelography
B) encephalomyelogram
C) laminectomy
D) lumbar puncture
E) thoracic tap

Answer 28

lumbar puncture

Question 29

Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect?
A) loss of sensation in his torso
B) inability to breathe
C) problems with moving his arms
D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet
E) problems moving his legs

Answer 29

loss of sensation in his torso

Question 30

Masses of gray matter within the central nervous system are _______
A) ganglia.
B) columns.
C) nuclei.
D) commissures.
E) horns.

Answer 30

nuclei

Question 31

Bundles of axons in the central nervous system are known as ______
A) tracts.
B) ganglia.
C) nuclei.
D) horns.
E) commissures.

Answer 31

tracts

Question 32

Axons cross from one side of the spinal cord to the other through the _______
A) lateral white column.
B) posterior gray horn.
C) central canal.
D) posterior median sulcus.
E) anterior white commissure.

Answer 32

anterior white commissure

Question 33

The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly ______
A) unmyelinated axons.
B) neuroglia.
C) Schwann cells.
D) myelinated axons.
E) nodes of Ranvier.

Answer 33

myelinated axons

Question 34

The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly ______
A) nerve tracts.
B) columns.
C) meninges.
D) neuron cell bodies.
E) funiculi.

Answer 34

neuron cell bodies

Question 35

The large anterior gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly ______
A) somatic sensory nuclei.
B) somatic motor nuclei.
C) visceral motor nuclei.
D) visceral sensory nuclei.
E) sympathetic nuclei.

Answer 35

somatic motor nuclei

Question 36

Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the ______
A) central canal.
B) posterior gray horns.
C) gray commissures.
D) white columns.
E) anterior gray horns.

Answer 36

white columns

Question 37

In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as _____
A) nuclei.
B) ganglia.
C) columns.
D) nerves.
E) horns.

Answer 37

columns

Question 38

The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord, seen easily in microscopic spinal cord cross sections, are called ______
A) wings.
B) horns.
C) pyramids.
D) fibers.
E) tracts.

Answer 38

horns

Question 39

Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the ______
A) anterior gray horns.
B) lateral gray horns.
C) posterior gray horns.
D) gray commissures.
E) white commissures.

Answer 39

gray commissures

Question 40

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions:

Ascending and descending tracts can be found in which area(s) of the spinal cord?
A) 9
B) 8
C) 11, 12, 13, 14
D) 1, 2, 3
E) 4, 5, 6

Answer 40

1, 2, 3

Question 41

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions:

Identify the structure labeled “1.”
A) anterior white column
B) lateral white column
C) lateral white horn
D) median commissure
E) posterior white column

Answer 41

posterior white column

Question 42

The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
A) autonomic
B) peripheral
C) central
D) efferent
E) afferent

Answer 42

central

Question 43

The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) afferent
D) somatic
E) autonomic

Answer 43

somatic

Question 44

The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated
A) motor.
B) afferent.
C) efferent.
D) autonomic.
E) somatic

Answer 44

afferent.

Question 45

The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates ________ cells.
A) skeletal muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) heart muscle
D) glandular
E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer 45

All of the answers are correct.

Question 46

The nervous tissue outside of the central nervous system composes the ________ nervous system.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) parasympathetic

Answer 46

peripheral

Question 47

The ________ division of the peripheral nervous system brings sensory information to the central nervous system.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) parasympathetic

Answer 47

afferent

Question 48

The ________ division of the nervous system carries
motor commands to muscles and glands.
A) spinal
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) efferent

Answer 48

efferent

Question 49

The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) motor

Answer 49

autonomic

Question 50

________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors.
A) Unipolar neurons
B) Efferent neurons
C) Multipolar neurons
D) Afferent neurons
E) Interneurons

Answer 50

Efferent neurons

Question 51

________ nerves are nerves that connect to the spinal cord.
A) Spinal
B) Cranial
C) Afferent
D) Multipolar
E) Autonomic

Answer 51

Spinal

Question 52

_______ nerves are nerves that connect to the brain.
A) Spinal
B) Unmyelinated
C) Myelinated
D) Cranial
E) Interneural

Answer 52

Cranial

Question 53

The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following?
A) neurotubules
B) mitochondria
C) vesicles
D) neurofibrils
E) All of the answers are correct

Answer 53

All of the answers are correct

Question 54

Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons?
A) anaxonic
B) bipolar
C) multipolar
D) pseudopolar
E) unipolar

Answer 54

pseudopolar

Question 55

The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is
A) anaxonic.
B) bipolar.
C) multipolar.
D) pseudopolar.
E) unipolar.

Answer 55

multipolar.

Question 56

The cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus of a neuron is called the
A) protoplasm.
B) nucleoplasm.
C) sarcoplasm.
D) neuroplasm.
E) perikaryon

Answer 56

perikaryon

Question 57

Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called
A) neurofilaments.
B) neurofibrils.
C) perikaryon.
D) Nissl bodies.
E) microglia

Answer 57

Nissl bodies.

Question 58

The axon is connected to the soma at the
A) telodendria.
B) synaptic terminal.
C) collaterals.
D) axon hillock.
E) synapse.

Answer 58

axon hillock.

Question 59

Branches that may occur along an axon are called
A) telodendria.
B) synaptic terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) hillocks.
E) synapses

Answer 59

collaterals.

Question 60

Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as
A) telodendria.
B) terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) dendrites.
E) synapses

Answer 60

telodendria.

Question 61

The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the
A) telodendria.
B) axolemma.
C) collateral
D) hillock.
E) synapse.

Answer 61

synapse.

Question 62

The rabies virus travels to the CNS via
A) anterograde axoplasmic transport.
B) retrograde axoplasmic transport.
C) blood vessels.
D) subcutaneous connective tissue.
E) cerebrospinal fluid

Answer 62

retrograde axoplasmic transport.

Question 63

Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E)multipolar

Answer 63

anaxonic.

Question 64

Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.

Answer 64

unipolar.

Question 65

Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar

Answer 65

bipolar.

Question 66

Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.

Answer 66

multipolar.

Question 67

Sensory neurons of the PNS are
A) unipolar.
B) bipolar.
C) anaxonic.
D) multipolar.
E) tripolar

Answer 67

unipolar.

Question 68

Which of the following activities or sensations is/are not monitored by interoceptors?
A) sight
B) pain
C)activities of the digestive system
D) cardiovascular activities
E) urinary activities

Answer 68

sight

Question 69

________ are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS.
A) Sensory neurons
B) Motor neurons
C)Unipolar neurons
D) Bipolar neurons
E) Interneurons

Answer 69

Interneurons

Question 70

How does blocking retrograde axoplasmic transport in an axon affect the activity of a neuron?
A) The neuron becomes unable to produce neurotransmitters.
B) The neuron becomes unable to produce action potentials.
C) The soma becomes unable to export products to the synaptic terminals.
D) The soma becomes unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon.
E) The neuron becomes unable to depolarize when stimulated

Answer 70

The soma becomes unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon.

Question 71

The structures labeled “1” are dendrites. Their membranes contain numerous chemically-gated ion channels.
A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false

Answer 71

Both statements are true.

Question 72

The structure labeled “2” is a(n)
A) neurofilament.
B) dendrite.
C) initial segment.
D) perikaryon.
E) axon

Answer 72

neurofilament.

Question 73

Which type of membrane channels are found at label “3”?
A) voltage-gated Na+channels
B) voltage-gated K+channels
C) chemically-gated Na+ and K+ channels
D) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
E) both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels

Answer 73

both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels

Question 74

Identify the structure labeled “4.”
A) synaptic terminals
B) telodendria
C) dendritic spines
D) collateral branches
E) axons

Answer 74

telodendria

Question 75

Identify the structure labeled “5.”
A) axons
B) telodendria
C) dendritic spines
D) synaptic terminals
E) collateral branch

Answer 75

synaptic terminals

Question 76

What is contained inside the structure labeled “5”?
A) neuroglia
B) sodium ions
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) calcium ions
E) neurotransmitter molecules

Answer 76

neurotransmitter molecules

Question 77

Which part(s) of the neuron can propagate an action potential?
A) 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 3

Answer 77

3

Question 78

On which structure do most neuron to neuron communications occur?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

Answer 78

1

Question 79

________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
A) Proprioceptors
B) Internoceptors
C) Photoreceptors
D) Exteroceptors
E) Pressoreceptors

Answer 79

Proprioceptors

Question 80

________ carry sensory information to the CNS.
A) Motor neurons
B) Efferent neurons
C) Multipolar neurons
D) Afferent neurons
E) Interneurons

Answer 80

Afferent neurons

Question 81

________ provide information about the external environment.
A) Spinal nerves
B) Anaxonic neurons
C) Internoceptors
D) Exteroceptors
E) Proprioceptors

Answer 81

Exteroceptors

Question 82

________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.
A) Spinal nerves
B) Unipolar neurons
C) Internoceptors
D) Exteroceptors
E) Proprioceptors

Answer 82

Internoceptors

Question 83

The plasma membrane of an axon is called the
A) axon terminal.
B) neurilemma.
C) myelin sheath.
D) sarcolemma.
E) axolemma

Answer 83

axolemma

Question 84

The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the
A) neuron.
B) axon.
C) nerve.
D) glial cell.
E) receptor.

Answer 84

neuron.

Question 85

The most common neuron of the nervous system is the
A) interneuron.
B) externoceptor.
C) bipolar neuron.
D) unipolar neuron.
E) microglial cell

Answer 85

interneuron.

Question 86

Most neurons lack ________ and so are permanently blocked from undergoing cell division.
A) ribosomes
B) endoplasmic reticula
C) a nucleus
D) centrioles
E) cytoplasm

Answer 86

centrioles

Question 87

Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called ________ degeneration.
A) neural
B) central
C) peripheral
D) Wallerian
E) conduction

Answer 87

Wallerian

Question 88

Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?
A) support
B) memory
C) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid
D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier
E) phagocytosis

Answer 88

memory

Question 89

Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system?
A) astrocytes
B) satellite cells
C) oligodendrocytes
D) microglia
E) ependymal cells

Answer 89

satellite cells

Question 90

The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.

Answer 90

astrocytes.

Question 91

Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except
A) maintaining the blood-brain barrier.
B) conducting action potentials.
C) guiding neuron development.
D) responding to neural tissue damage.
E) forming a three-dimensional framework for the CNS

Answer 91

conducting action potentials.

Question 92

_______ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system.
A) Axons
B) Dendrites
C) Neuroglia
D) Synapses
E) Efferent fibers

Answer 92

Neuroglia

Question 93

The neuroglial cells that participate in maintaining the blood-brain barrier are the
A) astrocytes.
B) ependymal cells.
C) microglia.
D) oligodendrocytes.
E) Schwann cells

Answer 93

astrocytes.

Question 94

The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells

Answer 94

oligodendrocytes.

Question 95

________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal.
A) Astrocytes
B) Satellite cells
C) Oligodendrocytes
D) Microglia
E) Ependymal cells

Answer 95

Ependymal cells

Question 96

Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.

Answer 96

microglia.

Question 97

The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) Schwann cells

Answer 97

Schwann cells

Question 98

Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells

Answer 98

satellite cells.

Question 99

Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the
A) formation of myelin sheaths.
B) formation of cerebrospinal fluid.
C) formation of ganglia.
D) repair of axons.
E) transport of neurotransmitters within axons

Answer 99

formation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 100

When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all of the following effects are possible except
A) a decrease in blood flow.
B) a decrease in available oxygen.
C) a change in neuron excitability.
D) glial cells degenerate.
E) neurons are triggered to divide.

Answer 100

neurons are triggered to divide.

Question 101

In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by
A) producing new axons.
B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons.
C) forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth.
D) clearing away cellular debris.
E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons

Answer 101

forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth.

Question 102

The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called
A) neurillema.
B) nodes of Ranvier.
C) axolemma.
D) terminals.
E) vesicles.

Answer 102

nodes of Ranvier

Question 103

Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter.
A) gray
B) white
C) neural
D) brain
E) ganglion

Answer 103

white

Question 104

Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter.
A) white
B) gray
C) neural
D) brain
E) ganglion

Answer 104

gray

Question 105

Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
A) They create a three dimensional framework for the CNS.
B) They maintain the blood-brain barrier.
C) They guide neuron development.
D) They rebuild injured neurons.
E) They adjust the composition of the interstitial tissue

Answer 105

They rebuild injured neurons.

Question 106

All of the following cause demyelination except
A) heavy-metal ion poisoning.
B) diphtheria.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) dopamine deficiency.
E) All of these cause demyelination

Answer 106

dopamine deficiency.

Question 107

Which of the following can cause demyelination?
A) arsenic poisoning
B) diphtheria
C) multiple sclerosis
D) mercury exposure
E) Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury

Answer 107

Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury

Question 108

Which of the following is not true regarding the establishment of a neuron’s resting membrane potential?
A) Chemical and electrical forces both favor sodium ions entering the cell.
B) Electrical forces do not push sodium ions into the cell.
C) The chemical gradient for potassium ions tends to drive them out of the cell.
D) Ion pumps in the plasma membrane eject sodium ions as fast as they cross the membrane.
E) Resting membrane permeability to Na+ is very low

Answer 108

Electrical forces do not push sodium ions into the cell.

Question 109

At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium-potassium exchange pump transports
A) 1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions.
B) 2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion.
C) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion.
D) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions.
E) 3 extracellular sodium ions for 2 intracellular potassium ions

Answer 109

3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions.

Question 110

Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.
A) active
B) gated
C) leak
D) regulated
E) local

Answer 110

leak

Question 111

Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes
A) depolarization.
B) repolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) increased negative charge inside the membrane.
E) inhibition

Answer 111

depolarization.

Question 112

Voltage-gated channels are present
A) at the motor end plate.
B) on the surface of dendrites.
C) in the membrane that covers axons.
D) on the soma of neurons.
E) along the perikaryon of neurons.

Answer 112

in the membrane that covers axons.

Question 113

The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump
A) must reestablish ion concentrations after each action potential.
B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization.
C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization.
D) moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients.
E) depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy.

Answer 113

moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients.

Question 114

________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules.
A) Leak channels
B) Activated channels
C) Chemically gated channels
D) Voltage-gated channels
E) Voltage-gated and chemically gated channels

Answer 114

Chemically gated channels

Question 115

________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface.
A) Voltage-gated
B) Chemically gated
C) Active
D) Mechanically gated
E) Leak

Answer 115

Mechanically gated

Question 116

Any stimulus that opens a ________ ion channel will produce a graded potential.
A) voltage-gated
B) chemically gated
C) sodium
D) mechanically gated
E) All of the answers are correct

Answer 116

All of the answers are correct

Question 117

If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases,
A) the membrane potential will repolarize.
B) the membrane potential will hyperpolarize.
C) inward movement of sodium ion will increase.
D) outward movement of sodium ion will decrease.
E) inward movement of sodium will increase and the membrane will depolarize.

Answer 117

inward movement of sodium will increase and the membrane will depolarize.

Question 118

Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell
C) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions
D) membrane permeability for potassium ions
greater than sodium ions
E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges

Answer 118

membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions

Question 119

If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur except
A) the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase.
B) the neuron will slowly depolarize.
C) the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials.
D) the inside of the membrane will have a resting membrane potential that is more positive than
normal.
E) the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase.

Answer 119

the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase.

Question 120

Graded potentials
A) produce an effect that increases with distance from the point of stimulation.
B) produce an effect that spreads actively across the membrane surface.
C) may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization.
D) are often all-or-none.
E) cause repolarization.

Answer 120

may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization.

Question 121

When potassium channels open and the ions diffuse through the membrane,
A) the inside of the membrane will become more positive.
B) the inside of the membrane will become more negative.
C) there will be almost no effect on tran
smembrane potential.
D) the membrane will become depolarized.
E) the membrane will depolarize to threshold.

Answer 121

the inside of the membrane will become more negative.

Question 122

Ions can move across the plasma membrane in which of the following ways?
A) through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential
B) through passive or leak channels
C) by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump
D) through chemically gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission
E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer 122

All of the answers are correct.

Question 123

Raising the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve cell will have what effect?
A) depolarize it
B) hyperpolarize it
C) increase the mag
nitude of the potassium equilibrium potential
D) decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential
E) both hyperpolarize it and decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential

Answer 123

both hyperpolarize it and decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential

Question 124

Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a(n) ________ gate.
A) inactivation
B) ion
C) swinging
D) repolarization
E) threshold

Answer 124

inactivation

Question 125

If acetylcholine (ACh) causes inhibition of a postsynaptic neuron, to what type of membrane channel did the ACh bind?
A) mechanically-regulated channel
B) voltage-regulated sodium channel
C) voltage-regulated calcium channel
D) chemically-regulated potassium channel
E) chemically-regulated sodium channel

Answer 125

chemically-regulated potassium channel

Question 126

A movement of charges in response to a potential difference is called
A) current.
B) depolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) action potential.
E) electricity.

Answer 126

current.

Question 127

The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its
A) permeability gradient.
B) thermodynamic difference.
C) electrochemical gradient.
D) action potential.
E) summation difference.

Answer 127

electrochemical gradient.

Question 128

A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called
A) potential difference.
B) depolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) polarization.
E) repolarization.

Answer 128

depolarization.

Question 129

The equilibrium potential of potassium is
A) -90mV.
B) -65mV.
C) -70mV.
D) +30mV.
E) +66mV

Answer 129

-90mV.

Question 130

The equilibrium potential of sodium is
A) -90mV.
B) -65mV.
C) -70mV.
D) +30mV.
E) +66mV.

Answer 130

+66mV.

Question 131

What is the proper sequence of these events?
A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1
B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5
C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5
E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1

Answer 131

4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5

Question 132

The all-or-none principle states that
A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential.
D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials

Answer 132

all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.

Question 133

Which of the following statements about the action potential is
false?
A) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions.
B) During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open.
C) During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive.
D) During the hyperpolarization phase, the ion pumps re-establish the sodium and potassium
concentrations across the cell membrane.
E) Repolarization occurs as potassium ions leave the axon.

Answer 133

The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions.

Question 134

How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels
failed to inactivate?
A) It would last indefinitely.
B) It would be much briefer.
C) It would be basically unaffected.

Answer 134

It would last indefinitely.

Question 135

During repolarization of a neuron
A) sodium ions move out of the cell.
B) potassium ions move out of the cell.
C) potassium ions move into the cell.
D) both sodium and potassium ions move into the cell.
E) sodium ions move into the cell.

Answer 135

potassium ions move out of the cell.

Question 136

How would a chemical that prevents the opening of voltage-regulated Na+ channels affect the function of a neuron?
A) The neuron will only be able to hyperpolarize.
B) The neuron will depolarize more rapidly.
C) Action potentials will lack a repolarization phase.
D) The neuron will automatically and repeatedly produce graded potentials.
E) The neuron will only be capable of producing graded potentials

Answer 136

The neuron will only be capable of producing graded potentials

Question 137

A threshold stimulus is the
A) depolarization necessary to cause an action potential.
B) peak of an action potential.
C) hyperpolarization of an axon.
D) resting membrane potential.
E) electrical current that crosses the synaptic cleft.

Answer 137

depolarization necessary to cause an action potential.

Question 138

Which of the following is true about threshold for an action potential?
A) It is more positive than the resting membrane potential.
B) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to close.
C) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open.
D) The membrane begins to hyperpolarize.
E) Threshold for a typical neuron is approximately -30 mV.

Answer 138

It is more positive than the resting membrane potential.

Question 139

Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?
A) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly.
B) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase.
C) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
D) The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
E) None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function

Answer 139

The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.

Question 140

What is occurring at the area labeled #4?
A) An inhibitory stimulus has occurred.
B) Chemically gated potassium channels have opened.
C) Excessive potassium has diffused out causing hyperpolarization.
D) Sodium ions have been pumped out of the neuron.
E) Excessive depolarization of the axon has occurred

Answer 140

Excessive potassium has diffused out causing hyperpolarization.

Question 141

What is occurring in the area between #2 and #3?
A) An excitatory graded potential is occurring.
B) Potassium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.
C) Chemically gated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the axon.
D) Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.
E) Repolarization of the axon due to sodium ions leaving the axon is occurring.

Answer 141

Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.

Question 142

Which area of the graph shows when chemically gated sodium channels are open?
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 5
E) 4

Answer 142

1

Question 143

Which area of the graph shows when voltage-gated sodium channels are open?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 5
E) 3

Answer 143

2

Question 144

Which area of the graph shows when potassium channels open?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer 144

3

Question 145

In which area of the graph do you see a sudden rush of sodium ions into the neuron?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer 145

2

Question 146

Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer 146

4

Question 147

Which point of the graph shows when potassium ion outflow exceeds sodium ion inflow?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer 147

3

Question 148

When is the neuron in the relative refractory period?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer 148

4

Question 149

Rapid impulse conduction from “node” to “node” is called
A) spatial propagation.
B) saltatory propagation.
C) divergent propagation.
D) synaptic transmission.
E) continuous propagation.

Answer 149

saltatory propagation.

Question 150

Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted?
A) length of the axon
B) presence or absence of a myelin sheath
C) diameter of the axon
D) presence or absence of nodes
E) whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS

Answer 150

whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS

Question 151

Which of the following types of nerve fiber possesses the fastest speed of impulse propagation?
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
E) type E

Answer 151

type A

Question 152

Type ________ fibers have the largest diameter axons.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) F
E) S

Answer 152

A

Question 153

Sensory information from skeletal muscles travels over ________ fibers.
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
E) type E

Answer 153

type A

Question 154

In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest?
A) a myelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter
B) a nonmyelinated fiber of 20-μm diameter
C) a myelinated fiber of 1-μm diameter
D) a nonmyelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter
E) It would be the same in all because of the all-or-none principle

Answer 154

a myelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter

Question 155

The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the
A) threshold.
B) all-or-none response.
C) potential.
D) incentive.
E) summation

Answer 155

threshold.

Question 156

The ________ principle states that the size and speed of the action potential are independent of the stimulus strength.
A) threshold
B) all-or-none
C) summation
D) polarization
E) potential

Answer 156

all-or-none

Question 157

The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the ________ period.
A) relative refractory
B) absolute refractory
C) resting
D) lag
E) stationary

Answer 157

absolute refractory

Question 158

The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the ________ period.
A) relative refractory
B) absolute refractory
C) resting
D) lag
E) stationary

Answer 158

relative refractory

Question 159

The presence of ________ dramatically increases the speed at which an action potential moves along an axon.
A) a capsule
B) plasma protein
C) neurilemma
D) glial cells
E) myelin

Answer 159

myelin

Question 160

Below are the events that occur during continuous propagation of action potential. Select the correct order in which the events occur.
1. Adjacent membrane segment depolarizes.
2. Local current spreads to adjacent voltage gated channel.
3. Threshold is met.
4. Local current develops due to sodium moving
in the cytosol.
A) 2,4,3,1
B) 2,4,1,3
C) 4,2,3,1
D) 4,2,1,3
E) 1,4,2,3

Answer 160

4,2,3,1

Question 161

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions:

42) Identify the structure labeled “4.”
A) posterior gray column
B) posterior gray ganglion
C) posterior white column
D) posterior gray horn
E) anterior gray horn

Answer 161

posterior gray horn

Question 162

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions:

43) Identify the structure labeled “9.”
A) anterior white commissure
B) anterior median fissure
C) anterior white column
D) anterior gray commissure
E) anterior white horn

Answer 162

anterior gray commissure

Question 163

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions:

What is the function of the structure labeled “11”?
A) somatic motor control
B) somatic sensory receiving
C) visceral sensory receiving
D) visceral motor control
E) ascending pathway

Answer 163

somatic sensory receiving

Question 164

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions:

Where do somatic motor neurons reside?
A) 9
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
E) 14

Answer 164

14

Question 165

Sensory information from visceral organs is carried by the _____
A) parasympathetic nerve.
B) sympathetic nerve.
C) anterior ramus.
D) posterior ramus.
E) rami communicantes.

Answer 165

sympathetic nerve

Question 166

Nerve plexuses are formed by interconnecting branches of the ______
A) posterior rami.
B) anterior rami.
C) posterior root.
D) anterior root.
E) white rami communicans.

Answer 166

anterior rami

Question 167

Regional loss of sensory or motor function from nerve trauma or compression is termed
A) shingles.
B) dermatome.
C) peripheral neuropathy.
D) hemisection.
E) areflexia.

Answer 167

peripheral neuropathy

Question 168

Large bundles of axons from several spinal nerves in the brachial plexus are termed
A) cords.
B) rami.
C) dermatomes.
D) trunks.
E) roots

Answer 168

trunks

Question 169

The largest peripheral nerve is the ________ nerve.
A) median
B) femoral
C) phrenic
D) obturator
E) sciatic

Answer 169

sciatic

Question 170

Loss of feeling in the thumb and first two fingers is most likely due to a damaged ________ nerve.
A) radial
B) musculocutaneous
C) ulnar
D) median
E) axillary

Answer 170

radial

Question 171

The outermost connective tissue covering of nerves is the ______
A) endoneurium.
B) endomysium.
C) perineurium.
D) epineurium.
E) epimysium.

Answer 171

epineurium

Question 172

The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord and carries visceral motor fibers that are myelinated form the ______
A) white rami communicantes.
B) gray rami communicantes.
C) posterior ramus.
D) anterior ramus.
E) dermatomes.

Answer 172

white rami communicantes

Question 173

The postganglionic fibers that innervate glands in the body wall or smooth muscles in limbs are
A) white rami communicantes.
B) gray rami communicantes.
C) posterior ramus.
D) anterior ramus.
E) dermatomes.

Answer 173

gray rami communicantes

Question 174

Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs are collectively called
A) posterior rami.
B) anterior rami.
C) white rami.
D) gray rami.
E) sympathetic nerves.

Answer 174

sympathetic nerves

Question 175

Which of the following associations is INCORRECT?
A) 8 cervical spinal nerves
B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves
C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves
D) 5 sacral spinal nerves
E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve

Answer 175

11 thoracic spinal nerves

Question 176

Muscles of the neck and shoulder are innervated by spinal nerves from the ________ region.
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) coccygeal

Answer 176

cervical

Question 177

The anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to T1 contribute fibers to the ________ plexus.
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) thoracic

Answer 177

brachial

Question 178

In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise?
A) cranial
B) cervical
C) brachial
D) lumbar
E) sacral

Answer 178

brachial

Question 179

In the condition ________, a virus infects posterior root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes.
A) myasthenia gravis
B) neuronal damage
C) shingles
D) chickenpox
E) Hodgkin’s disease

Answer 179

shingles

Question 180

The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the
A) perineurium.
B) epineurium.
C) endoneurium.
D) epimysium.
E) endosteum.

Answer 180

perineurium

Question 181

Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles.
A) shoulder
B) intercostal
C) abdominal
D) leg
E) facial

Answer 181

leg

Question 182

The ________ innervates the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the limbs.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) posterior rami
D) anterior rami
E) dermatomes

Answer 182

anterior rami

Question 183

A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will _______
A) lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis.
B) interfere with position sense.
C) mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense.
D) block autonomic regulation.
E) affect visceral motor function.

Answer 183

lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis

Question 184

The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the anterior rami of neighboring spinal nerves is termed a(n)
A) dermatome.
B) autonomic nerve.
C) lateral nerve.
D) tract.
E) plexus.

Answer 184

plexus

Question 185

Each of the following nerves originates in the lumbar plexus except the ________ nerve.
A) saphenous
B) sciatic
C) femoral
D) obturator
E) genitofemoral

Answer 185

sciatic

Question 186

The ________ nerve, which arises in the cervical plexus, innervates the diaphragm.
A) ansa cervicalis
B) lesser occipital
C) thoracic
D) phrenic
E) supraclaviculars

Answer 186

phrenic

Question 187

The layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a peripheral nerve is termed the ____
A) endoneurium.
B) perineurium.
C) epineurium.
D) metaneurium.
E) subneurium.

Answer 187

endoneurium

Question 188

If a person has a crush injury to the C3-C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he _______
A) might be unable to breathe on his own.
B) could walk without difficulty.
C) would have full range of motion in all extremities.
D) would be in a coma.
E) would have difficulty chewing and moving the tongue.

Answer 188

might be unable to breathe on his own

Question 189

Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed?
A) the anterior gray horns
B) the anterior gray commissures
C) ascending tracts
D) descending tracts
E) the anterior white commissures

Answer 189

ascending tracts

Question 190

The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the
A) radial.
B) median.
C) ulnar.
D) musculocutaneous.
E) phrenic.

Answer 190

phrenic

Question 191

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Identify the structure labeled “2.”
A) anterior root
B) posterior ramus
C) spinal nerve
D) anterior ramus
E) white ramus

Answer 191

anterior ramus

Question 192

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Identify the structure labeled “3.”
A) spinal nerve
B) gray ramus communicans
C) white ramus communicans
D) posterior ramus communicans
E) anterior ramus communicans

Answer 192

gray ramus communicans

Question 193

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Ken has a herniated disc which is pinching the structure labeled “10”. He is most likely experiencing impairment in which sensory pathway?
A) somatic sensory
B) visceral sensory
C) somatic and visceral sensory
D) somatic and visceral motor
E) visceral motor

Answer 193

somatic and visceral sensory

Question 194

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Damage to which structure would lead to paralysis of limbs?
A) 11
B) 2
C) 1
D) 7
E) 9

Answer 194

2

Question 195

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Identify the structure labeled “4.”
A) spinal nerve
B) gray ramus
C) white ramus
D) posterior ramus
E) anterior ramus

Answer 195

white ramus

Question 196

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Identify the structure labeled “6.”
A) autonomic nerve
B) sympathetic ganglion
C) posterior root ganglion
D) rami communicantes
E) anterior root

Answer 196

sympathetic ganglion

Question 197

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Identify the structure labeled “8.”
A) peripheral nerve
B) posterior ramus
C) spinal nerve
D) anterior root
E) posterior root

Answer 197

spinal nerve

Question 198

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

What is the function of the structure labeled “12”?
A) somatic motor control
B) visceral motor control
C) somatic sensory input
D) visceral sensory input
E) sensory receptor for pain

Answer 198

visceral motor control

Question 199

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

Which branch carries motor neurons to structures on the back of the body trunk?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 7
E) 11

Answer 199

1

Question 200

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:

In which structure are sensory cell bodies located?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 10
E) 12

Answer 200

10

Question 201

Suppose that you feel something brushing against your abdomen. The sensory information would be carried to the spinal cord over a(n) ________ ramus.
A) posterior
B) sympathetic
C) lateral
D) anterior
E) ascending

Answer 201

anterior

Question 202

The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a _______
A) root.
B) ramus.
C) trunk.
D) ganglion.
E) dermatome.

Answer 202

dermatome

Question 203

A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a _______
A) dermatome.
B) ramus.
C) plexus.
D) ganglion.
E) tract.

Answer 203

plexus

Question 204

Recognized neuronal circuit patterns include all of the following except _______
A) convergent.
B) divergent.
C) multipolar.
D) reverberating.
E) parallel processing.

Answer 204

multipolar

Question 205

You are sitting at a Mexican restaurant waiting for your food. The waiter brings a very hot plate, telling you to be careful about touching it. You touch it anyway, producing a pain sensation in your fingers, a withdrawal of your hand, and an auditory comment of what you are thinking. This scenario represents a ________ neuronal circuit.
A) parallel processing
B) reverberating
C) serial processing
D) convergent
E) divergent

Answer 205

parallel processing

Question 206

In ________, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons.
A) divergence
B) reverberation
C) serial processing
D) parallel processing
E) convergence

Answer 206

divergence

Question 207

A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the brain. This type of circuit is a ______
A) divergent circuit.
B) convergent circuit.
C) serial processing circuit.
D) parallel processing circuit.
E) reverberating circuit.

Answer 207

convergent circuit

Question 208

Which of the following is not a way that reflexes are classified?
A) innate/acquired
B) somatic/visceral
C) sympathetic/parasympathetic
D) monosynaptic/polysynaptic
E) spinal/cranial

Answer 208

sympathetic/parasympathetic

Question 209

All of the following are true of neural reflexes EXCEPT that they ______
A) are automatic motor responses.
B) are the simplest form of behavior.
C) help preserve homeostasis.
D) cannot be modified by the brain.
E) involve at least two neurons.

Answer 209

cannot be modified by the brain

Question 210

Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes.
A) visceral
B) innate
C) acquired
D) somatic
E) intersegmental

Answer 210

innate

Question 211

The neural “wiring” of a single reflex is called a(n)
A) reflex arc.
B) ramus.
C) ganglion.
D) tract.
E) circuit.

Answer 211

reflex arc

Question 212

________ reflexes activate skeletal muscles.
A) Involuntary
B) Cranial
C) Spinal
D) Autonomic
E) Somatic

Answer 212

Somatic

Question 213

The most complicated spinal reflexes are called _______
A) collateral reflex arcs.
B) ipsilateral reflex arcs.
C) intersegmental reflex arcs.
D) dermatomes.
E) spinal plexuses.

Answer 213

intersegmental reflex arcs

Question 214

All of the following are true of muscle spindles except they _______
A) are found within skeletal muscle.
B) consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers.
C) are found in tendons.
D) are the receptor for the stretch reflex.
E) are innervated by gamma motor neurons.

Answer 214

are found in tendons

Question 215

The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex.
A) stretch
B) tendon
C) flexor
D) crossed extensor
E) reciprocal

Answer 215

tendon

Question 216

Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called _______
A) a crossed extensor reflex.
B) a stretch reflex.
C) a tendon reflex.
D) reciprocal inhibition.
E) reverberating circuits.

Answer 216

reciprocal inhibition

Question 217

Which of the following is not true of polysynaptic reflexes?
A) They involve pools of interneurons.
B) They are intersegmental in distribution.
C) They involve reciprocal inhibition.
D) They involve one muscle group.
E) They have reverberating circuits.

Answer 217

They involve one muscle group

Question 218

Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order:
1) motor neuron activation
2) sensory neuron activation
3) sensory receptor activation
4) Information processing
5) effector response

A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
E) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

Answer 218

3, 2, 4, 1, 5

Question 219

The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles.
A) stretch
B) tendon
C) flexor
D) crossed extensor
E) reciprocal

Answer 219

crossed extensor

Question 220

The flexor reflex ________
A) prevents a muscle from overstretching.
B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension.
C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.
D) usually depends on cranial neurons.
E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.

Answer 220

moves a limb away from a painful stimulus

Question 221

Reflexes that activate muscles on the same side of the body as the stimulus are called _______
A) contralateral.
B) ipsilateral.
C) monosynaptic.
D) involuntary.
E) polysynaptic.

Answer 221

ipsilateral

Question 222

Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called ______
A) contralateral.
B) ipsilateral.
C) monosynaptic.
D) involuntary.
E) polysynaptic.

Answer 222

contralateral

Question 223

In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
A) monosynaptic
B) ipsilateral
C) commensual
D) contralateral
E) polysynaptic

Answer 223

monosynaptic

Question 224

A(n) ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neurons.
A) monosynaptic
B) ipsilateral
C) contralateral
D) involuntary
E) polysynaptic

Answer 224

polysynaptic

Question 225

Which of the following is not a reason a reflex response may fail during a clinical exam?
A) The person may consciously suppress the response.
B) The nerves may be damaged.
C) The person may be elderly and no longer have any reflexes.
D) The CNS may be damaged.
E) There may be nerve conduction problems.

Answer 225

The person may be elderly and no longer have any reflexes

Question 226

Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex?
A) normal in newborns
B) abnormal in adults
C) a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts
D) clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected
E) flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked

Answer 226

clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected

Question 227

What is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater? (Figure 13-3)
A) dura mater
B) subdural space
C) subarachnoid space
D) denticulate space
E) epidural space

Answer 227

subarachnoid space

Question 228

In which horn are somatic motor nuclei located? (Figure 13-5)
A) anterior horn
B) posterior horn
C) lateral horn
D) dorsal horn
E) central horn

Answer 228

anterior horn

Question 229

What are the four ways reflexes can be classified? (Figure 13-15)
A) monosynaptic, polysynaptic, monosegmental, polysegmental
B) flexor, extensor, crossed extensor, withdrawal
C) somatic, muscle, visceral, autonomic
D) development, response, complexity, processing site
E) dorsal, ventral, lateral, central

Answer 229

development, response, complexity, processing site

Question 230

A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called
A) the presynaptic neuron.
B) the motor neuron.
C) an oligodendrocyte.
D) a satellite cell.
E) the postsynaptic neuron.

Answer 230

the postsynaptic neuron.

Question 231

Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system?
A) chemical
B) electrical
C) mechanical
D) processing
E) radiative

Answer 231

chemical

Question 232

The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) magnesium.

Answer 232

calcium

Question 233

Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
A) norepinephrine.
B) adrenalin.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
E) GABA.

Answer 233

acetylcholine.

Question 234

The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. What is the correct sequence for these events?

1. Chemically-gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated.
2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal.
3. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes acetylcholine.
4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic terminal at the presynaptic membrane.
5. The pre-synaptic terminal reabsorbs choline.
6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis.
7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the pre- synaptic terminal.

Answer 234

4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5

Question 235

If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked,
A) synaptic transmission would fail.
B) release of neurotransmitter would stop.
C) smaller action potentials would result.
D) the presynaptic membrane would be unable to reach threshold.
E) the presynaptic neuron would release a different neurotransmitter

Answer 235

synaptic transmission would fail.

Question 236

The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane depends on the
A) frequency of neurotransmitter release.
B) nature of the neurotransmitter.
C) characteristics of the receptors.
D) quantity of neurotransmitters released.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer 236

All of the answers are correct.

Question 237

When cholinergic receptors are stimulated,
A) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.
B) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron.
C) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.
D) chloride ions leave the postsynaptic neuron.
E) norepinephrine deactivates acetylcholine.

Answer 237

sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.

Question 238

What triggers the release of acetylcholine from a synaptic terminal?
A) release of calcium ions from the synaptic vesicles
B) graded potentials in the synaptic terminal
C) synaptic vesicles fuse to dendrites
D) diffusion of sodium ions out of the synaptic terminal
E) diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic terminal

Answer 238

diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic terminal

Question 239

At a(n) ________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic membrane.
A) electrical
B) cell
C) chemical
D) osmotic
E) gap

Answer 239

chemical

Question 240

In a(n) ________ synapse, current flows directly between cells.
A) electrical
B) cell
C) chemical
D) osmotic
E) gap

Answer 240

electrical

Question 241

At a synapse the 0.2-0.5 milliseconds it takes for calcium influx and neurotransmitter release is called
A) latency period.
B) synaptic delay.
C) recovery period.
D) repolarization.
E) synaptic diffusion.

Answer 241

synaptic delay.

Question 242

Synaptic delay is caused by
A) neurotransmitter diffusion.
B) binding of acetylcholine to post-synaptic receptors.
C) calcium influx and neurotransmitter release.
D) production and transport of neurotransmitter within the neuron.
E) the lack of permeability of the post-synaptic membrane.

Answer 242

calcium influx and neurotransmitter release.

Question 243

Adrenergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) dopamine.
D) serotonin.
E) GABA

Answer 243

norepinephrine.

Question 244

Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is important in learning and memory?
A) glutamate
B) gamma aminobutyric acid
C) serotonin
D) noradrenaline
E) glycine

Answer 244

glutamate

Question 245

After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal
A) reabsorbs the acetylcholine.
B) reabsorbs the acetate.
C) reabsorbs the choline.
D) reabsorbs axoplasm.
E) pinches off and a new terminal grows.

Answer 245

reabsorbs the choline.

Question 246

A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinson’s-like symptoms?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) GABA
E) endorphins

Answer 246

dopamine

Question 247

Which neurotransmitter has a direct effect on opening chloride channels?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) GABA
E) endorphins

Answer 247

GABA

Question 248

Which neurotransmitter has widespread effects on a person’s attention and emotional state?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) GABA
E) endorphins

Answer 248

serotonin

Question 249

Which of the following neurotransmitters is a dissolved gas?
A) serotonin
B) glutamate
C) aspartate
D) nitric oxide
E) histamine

Answer 249

nitric oxide

Question 250

Which of the following neurotransmitters are known to bind to G-protein coupled receptors?
A) epinephrine
B) serotonin
C) dopamine
D) GABA
E) All of these bind to G-protein coupled receptors.

Answer 250

All of these bind to G-protein coupled receptors.

Question 251

The molecule responsible for making cyclic AMP is called
A) adenylate cyclase.
B) adenosine.
C) anandamide.
D) adenosine synthase.
E) G-protein.

Answer 251

adenylate cyclase.

Question 252

Which of the following is the primary second messenger in G-protein coupled post-synaptic cells?
A) NO
B) CO
C) cAMP
D) GABA
E) ATP

Answer 252

cAMP

Question 253

A postsynaptic neuron will have an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) when
A) chemically regulated potassium channels are open and potassium is diffusing out of the cell.
B) more calcium ions than usual diffuse into the neuron.
C) chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell.
D) the neuron is hyperpolarized.
E) more potassium ions than usual diffuse out of the neuron.

Answer 253

chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell.

Question 254

The site in the neuron where EPSPs and IPSPs are integrated is the
A) chemical synapse.
B) electrical synapse.
C) axon hillock.
D) dendritic membrane.
E) synaptic terminal.

Answer 254

axon hillock.

Question 255

EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when
A) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell.
B) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell.
C) chloride ions enter a cell.
D) extra sodium ions enter a cell.
E) hyperpolarizations occur.

Answer 255

extra sodium ions enter a cell.

Question 256

IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials)
A) are local depolarizations.
B) are local hyperpolarizations.
C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions.
D) block the efflux of potassium ions.
E) block the efflux of calcium ions.

Answer 256

are local hyperpolarizations.

Question 257

When a second EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs?
A) spatial summation
B) temporal summation
C) inhibition of the impulse
D) hyperpolarization
E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission

Answer 257

temporal summation

Question 258

Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated
A) spatial summation.
B) temporal summation.
C) inhibition of the impulse.
D) hyperpolarization.
E) impulse transmission.

Answer 258

spatial summation.

Question 259

A neuron whose membrane potential shifts closer to threshold is said to be
A) hyperpolarized.
B) depolarized.
C) facilitated.
D) repolarized.
E) at equilibrium.

Answer 259

facilitated.

Question 260

In ________, activity at an axoaxonic synapse increases the amount of neurotransmitter released when an action potential arrives at the axon terminus.
A) presynaptic inhibition
B) presynaptic facilitation
C) spatial summation
D) temporal summation
E) spatial facilitation

Answer 260

presynaptic facilitation

Question 261

In one form of presynaptic inhibition the release of ________ inhibits the opening of voltage gated calcium channels in the axon terminus.
A) glutamate
B) GABA
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
E) aspartate

Answer 261

GABA

Question 262

The release of GABA and subsequent inhibition of voltage gated calcium channels is associated with
A) presynaptic inhibition.
B) presynaptic facilitation.
C) spatial summation.
D) temporal summation.
E) spatial facilitation.

Answer 262

presynaptic inhibition.

Question 263

The axon hillock is a region between what two general regions of a neuron? (Figure 12-2)
A) dendrites and cell body
B) nucleolus and nucleus
C) axon and axon terminals
D) cell body and axon
E) dendrites and telodendria

Answer 263

cell body and axon

Question 264

Which neuroglia myelinate CNS axons and which neuroglia myelinate PNS axons?
(Figure 12-4)
A) oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
B) Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes
C) astrocytes; satellite cells
D) satellite cells; astrocytes
E) astrocytes; Schwann cells

Answer 264

oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells

Question 265

Which part of an acetylcholine (ACh) molecule undergoes reuptake by the axon terminal to be reused in another acetylcholine molecule? (Figure 12-16)
A) acetate
B) choline
C) coenzyme A
D) calcium
E) acetyl-CoA

Answer 265

choline

Question 266

The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, except
A) temperature.
B) taste.
C) touch.
D) vibration.
E) pain.

Answer 266

taste.

Question 267

The sensory receptors, neurons and pathways make up the ________ division of the nervous system.
A) voluntary
B) efferent
C) afferent
D) involuntary
E) somatic

Answer 267

afferent

Question 268

The general senses
A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure.
B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs.
C) are localized to specific areas of the body.
D) cannot generate action potentials.
E) include taste and smell.

Answer 268

involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure.

Question 269

The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles.
A) somatic
B) sympathetic
C) parasympathetic
D) afferent
E) autonomic

Answer 269

somatic

Question 270

The heart muscle is a ________ effector.
A) somatic
B) sympathetic
C) visceral
D) afferent
E) higher-order

Answer 270

visceral

Question 271

The conversion of the stimulus into an action potential to be interpreted by the brain is called
A) transformation.
B) transduction.
C) translation.
D) transcription.
E) transpotential.

Answer 271

transduction.

Question 272

Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to
A) receptor specificity.
B) accessory cells.
C) the fact that they are interoceptors.
D) receptor potentials.
E) receptor speciation.

Answer 272

receptor specificity.

Question 273

Using the two-point discrimination test you can fairly accurately determine whether you have been touched with one point or two because of the density of the
A) effectors.
B) perception.
C) labeled line.
D) receptor fields.
E) action potential.

Answer 273

receptor fields.

Question 274

General sense receptors are typically the
A) dendrites of motor neurons.
B) dendrites of sensory neurons.
C) axons of motor neurons.
D) axons of sensory neurons.
E) cell bodies of sensory neurons.

Answer 274

dendrites of sensory neurons.

Question 275

Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are
A) tonic receptors.
B) tonic receptors and slow-adapting.
C) phasic receptors and slow-adapting.
D) phasic receptors and fast-adapting.
E) nociceptors.

Answer 275

phasic receptors and fast-adapting.

Question 276

Which is an example of a slow-adapting receptor?
A) phasic
B) touch
C) smell
D) temperature
E) pain

Answer 276

pain

Question 277

In order for a sensation to become a perception,
A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex.
B) the individual must vocalize about it.
C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers.
D) the other senses must be silent.
E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus.

Answer 277

it must be received by the somatosensory cortex.

Question 278

All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except
A) the structure of the receptor cell.
B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane.
C) accessory cells that function with the receptor.
D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli.
E) the metabolism of the receptor cell.

Answer 278

the metabolism of the receptor cell.

Question 279

Central adaptation refers to
A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated.
B) a characteristic of phasic receptors.
C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.
D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus.
E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron.

Answer 279

inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.

Question 280

A receptor potential may cause all of the following responses except
A) increase neurotransmitter release.
B) decrease neurotransmitter release.
C) cause hyperpolarization.
D) cause depolarization.
E) turning off the original stimulus.

Answer 280

turning off the original stimulus.

Question 281

Peripheral adaptation ________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS.
A) decreases
B) increases
C) stabilizes
D) neutralizes
E) amplifies

Answer 281

decreases

Question 282

Which of the following statements is true about general senses?
A) They are distributed all over the body.
B) They are all mechanoreceptors.
C) All receptors involved in general sensation consist of free nerve endings.
D) They are located in sense organs.
E) The reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors.

Answer 282

They are distributed all over the body.

Question 283

Sensory encoding of the perceived location of a stimulus depends on
A) the frequency of action potentials.
B) which labeled line is active.
C) the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated.
D) the specific sensitivity of the peripheral receptor.
E) the number of receptors stimulated.

Answer 283

the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated.

Question 284

Action potentials from receptors involved in general sensations are interpreted in the
A) premotor cortex.
B) primary sensory cortex.
C) general interpretive area.
D) mesencephalon.
E) reticular activating system.

Answer 284

primary sensory cortex.

Question 285

Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to
A) the prefrontal cortex.
B) the cerebellum.
C) the primary motor cortex.
D) the somatosensory cortex.
E) Broca’s area.

Answer 285

the somatosensory cortex.

Question 286

The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as
A) transduction.
B) reception.
C) effection.
D) potential.
E) stimulation.

Answer 286

transduction.

Question 287

The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a(n)
A) efferent pathway.
B) spinocortical line.
C) sympathetic chain.
D) adaptation pathway.
E) labeled line.

Answer 287

labeled line.

Question 288

A ________ potential is a depolarization of a sensory dendrite that can lead to an afferent nerve impulse if strong enough.
A) resting
B) refractory
C) postsynaptic
D) generator
E) presynaptic

Answer 288

generator

Question 289

Sensory neurons that adapt quickly are called ________ receptors.
A) phasic
B) tonic
C) intracellular
D) chemical-channel
E) opioid

Answer 289

phasic

Question 290

A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as
A) transduction.
B) adaptation.
C) negation.
D) exhaustion.
E) transformation.

Answer 290

adaptation.

Question 291

Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors.
A) tonic
B) static
C) phasic
D) isometric
E) isotonic

Answer 291

tonic

Question 292

You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not have any ________ there.
A) chemoreceptors
B) nociceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) thermoreceptors
E) photoreceptors

Answer 292

proprioceptors

Question 293

Receptors in your stomach that determine when food enters because the pH changes would be classified as
A) mechanoreceptors.
B) nociceptors.
C) proprioceptors.
D) baroreceptors.
E) chemoreceptors.

Answer 293

chemoreceptors.

Question 294

Free nerve endings detect which stimulus/stimuli?
A) chemical
B) temperature, pain, stretch and touch
C) pain only
D) stretch
E) deep pressure

Answer 294

temperature, pain, stretch and touch

Question 295

Two types of receptors that are least likely to adapt are the
A) proprioceptors and nociceptors.
B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus.
C) tactile discs and the free nerve endings.
D) lamellar corpuscles and baroreceptors.
E) chemoreceptors and baroreceptors.

Answer 295

proprioceptors and nociceptors.

Question 296

Chemoreceptors of the general senses do not send information to the primary sensory cortex but instead send information to the ________ to control autonomic function.
A) cerebellum
B) cerebrum
C) brain stem
D) spinal cord
E) corpus callosum

Answer 296

brain stem

Question 297

A receptor that contains many mechanically-gated ion channels would function best as a
A) tactile receptor.
B) chemoreceptor.
C) photoceptor.
D) thermoreceptor.
E) light receptor.

Answer 297

tactile receptor.

Question 298

A mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a
A) tactile (Merkel) disc.
B) root hair plexus.
C) free nerve ending.
D) Bulbous corpuscle.
E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.

Answer 298

tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.

Question 299

Which of the following is/are sometimes called “prickling pain”?
A) mechanical damage
B) proprioception
C) extremes of temperature
D) fast pain
E) fast and slow pain

Answer 299

fast pain

Question 300

All of the following are true of fast pain sensations except that they
A) are carried by type A fibers.
B) reach the CNS quickly.
C) are interpreted by the pre-frontal cortex.
D) receive conscious attention.
E) often trigger somatic reflexes.

Answer 300

are interpreted by the pre-frontal cortex.

Question 301

Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by
A) nociceptors.
B) mechanoreceptors.
C) thermoreceptors.
D) chemoreceptors.
E) proprioceptors.

Answer 301

nociceptors.

Question 302

Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called
A) nociceptors.
B) chemoreceptors.
C) baroreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) thermoreceptors.

Answer 302

proprioceptors.

Question 303

Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called
A) nociceptors.
B) baroreceptors.
C) chemoreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) thermoreceptors.

Answer 303

baroreceptors.

Question 304

Tactile receptors located in the reticular dermis that are tonic and show little if any adaptation are called
A) Bulbous corpuscles.
B) lamellar corpuscles.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles.
D) tactile discs.
E) root hair plexuses.

Answer 304

Bulbous corpuscles.

Question 305

A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a
A) lamellar corpuscle.
B) Bulbous corpuscle.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
D) tactile (Merkel) disc.
E) root hair plexus.

Answer 305

tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.

Question 306

A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a
A) Bulbous corpuscle.
B) lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
D) tactile (Merkel) disc.
E) root hair plexus.

Answer 306

lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle.

Question 307

Sensations of burning or aching pain
A) are carried by type A fibers.
B) reach the CNS quickly.
C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus.
D) are well localized.
E) are fast adapting.

Answer 307

cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus.

Question 308

Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________.
A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors
B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
C) baroreceptors; nociceptors
D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors
E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

Answer 308

baroreceptors; chemoreceptors

Question 309

A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum basale is a
A) lamellar corpuscle.
B) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
C) Bulbous corpuscle.
D) tactile (Merkel) disc.
E) root hair plexus.

Answer 309

tactile (Merkel) disc.

Question 310

A sensory receptor characterized peripherally as a free nerve ending which centrally uses glutamate and/or substance P as neurotransmitters would most likely be a
A) chemoreceptor.
B) mechanoreceptor.
C) thermoreceptor.
D) nociceptor.
E) free receptor.

Answer 310

nociceptor.

Question 311

We are constantly bombarded by a variety of stimuli inside and outside of our bodies. Why are we not overwhelmed by sensory information?
A) We do not have receptors for most stimuli.
B) Stimuli are blocked from the receptors by our immune systems.
C) Most stimuli are external to our bodies and we have very few exteroceptors on the outside of the body.
D) A particular receptor type can have different sensitivities to different stimuli.
E) A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received

Answer 311

A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received

Question 312

Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________.
A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors
B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
C) baroreceptors; nociceptors
D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors
E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

Answer 312

nociceptors; thermoreceptors

Question 313

If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense.
A) smell
B) sight
C) balance
D) cold
E) hearing

Answer 313

cold

Question 314

________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure.
A) Chemoreceptors
B) Nociceptors
C) Baroreceptors
D) Proprioceptors
E) Hair cells

Answer 314

Baroreceptors

Question 315

Which of the following is a property of thermoreceptors?
A) involves specialized receptors
B) monitor heat stimuli, not cold
C) found in skin only
D) project to reticular formation
E) cold receptors are less numerous than warm receptors

Answer 315

project to reticular formation

Question 316

For the last few weeks, you have had an odd sensation on your upper thigh. When you touch the naked skin, it feels very strange, like you are touching your skin through layers of cloth. The surrounding area feels normal. Your doctor thinks that this may be related to spinal nerve damage related to a herniated disc. The doctor calls this change in sensation
A) paresthesia.
B) anesthesia.
C) hypesthesia.
D) synesthesia.
E) kinesthesia.

Answer 316

paresthesia.

Question 317

Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following except
A) carotid bodies.
B) aortic bodies.
C) the skin.
D) the organs of taste.
E) the organs of smell.

Answer 317

the skin.

Question 318

Why is it that one cannot identify the location of internal organs, although joints and bone location can be identified?
A) The internal organs have no proprioceptors like joints, bones, and muscles.
B) Internal organs have no pain receptors.
C) Although internal organs have some receptors, the information is not interpreted by the brain.
D) Internal organs have no receptors of any kind.
E) Sensory information from internal organs is processed by a different part of the brain than the joints, bones, and muscles.

Answer 318

The internal organs have no proprioceptors like joints, bones, and muscles.

Question 319

Sensory neurons synapse in the CNS with an interneuron known as a
A) first-order neuron.
B) second-order neuron.
C) third-order neuron.
D) motor neuron.
E) efferent neuron.

Answer 319

second-order neuron.

Question 320

All of the following pathways require third-order neurons synapsing in the thalamus except
A) the lateral spinothalamic tract.
B) the anterior spinothalamic tract.
C) the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.
D) the gracile fasciculus.
E) the cuneate fasciculus

Answer 320

the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.

Question 321

Which of the following is true of all the sensory pathways?
A) They all have third-order neurons.
B) They all synapse in the thalamus.
C) They all synapse in the cerebellum.
D) They all enter through dorsal roots.
E) Axons in each pathway decussate.

Answer 321

They all enter through dorsal roots.

Question 322

Activity of neurons in the spinothalamic pathway may still send signals even if the first order sensory receptor does not receive a signal such as in amputation. This situation might cause
A) referred pain.
B) phantom limb pain.
C) pain adaptation.
D) paresthesia.
E) anesthesia.

Answer 322

phantom limb pain.

Question 323

Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration?
A) corticobulbar
B) corticospinal
C) posterior (dorsal) column
D) spinothalamic
E) spinocerebellar

Answer 323

posterior (dorsal) column

Question 324

The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the
A) gracile fasciculus.
B) cuneate fasciculus.
C) posterior spinocerebellar.
D) lateral spinothalamic.
E) anterior spinothalamic.

Answer 324

lateral spinothalamic.

Question 325

Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain.
A) referred
B) phantom
C) psychosomatic
D) somatic
E) neurogenic

Answer 325

referred

Question 326

Stimulation of a neuron that terminates in the superior region of the left postcentral gyrus would produce
A) a sensation in the right leg.
B) a sensation in the lips.
C) a muscle twitch in the right leg.
D) a muscle twitch in the lips.
E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg.

Answer 326

a sensation in the right leg.

Question 327

The spinal tract that relays information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is the
A) gracile fasciculus.
B) cuneate fasciculus.
C) posterior spinocerebellar.
D) lateral spinothalamic.
E) anterior spinothalamic.

Answer 327

anterior spinothalamic.

Question 328

Each of the following is an ascending tract in the spinal cord except the
A) gracile fasciculus.
B) cuneate fasciculus.
C) posterior spinocerebellar.
D) reticulospinal tract.
E) anterior spinothalamic.

Answer 328

reticulospinal tract.

Question 329

The afferent neuron that carries the sensation and enters the CNS is a ________ neuron.
A) receptor
B) first-order
C) second-order
D) third-order
E) fourth-order

Answer 329

first-order

Question 330

What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side?
A) loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body
B) loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body
C) loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body
D) loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body
E) complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body

Answer 330

loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body

Question 331

Thalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex are ________ neurons.
A) receptor
B) first-order
C) second-order
D) third-order
E) fourth-order

Answer 331

third-order

Question 332

Which neuron delivers sensations to the CNS?
A) first-order
B) second-order
C) third-order
D) fourth-order
E) sensory receptor

Answer 332

first-order

Question 333

We can localize sensations that originate in different areas of the body because
A) sensory neurons carry only one modality.
B) sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions.
C) incoming sensory information is first processed by the thalamus.
D) different types of sensory receptors produce action potentials of different sizes and shapes.
E) of the many types of tactile receptors.

Answer 333

sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions.

Question 334

Identify the axon labeled “3.”
A) axon of a lower motor neuron
B) axon of a upper motor neuron
C) axon of a first-order neuron
D) axon of a second-order neuron
E) axon of a ganglionic neuron

Answer 334

axon of a second-order neuron

Question 335

Where in the spinal cord is the structure labeled “2” located?
A) anterior gray horns
B) dorsal root ganglion
C) anterior white column
D) anterior median fissure
E) posterior white column

Answer 335

anterior white column

Question 336

Identify the neuron labeled “1.”
A) lower motor neuron
B) upper motor neuron
C) first-order neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) ganglionic neuron

Answer 336

first-order neuron

Question 337

Identify the structure labeled “5.”
A) thalamus
B) cerebral cortex
C) primary motor cortex
D) primary sensory cortex
E) autonomic ganglion

Answer 337

thalamus

Question 338

The third-order neuron in this pathway synapses in what structure labeled “7”?
A) cerebellum
B) thalamus
C) primary sensory cortex
D) pons
E) medulla oblongata

Answer 338

primary sensory cortex

Question 339

Which structure conducts action potentials directly from a sensory receptor?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 7

Answer 339

1

Question 340

Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled “2.”
A) motor commands to skeletal muscles
B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex
C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex
D) crude touch and pressure sensations
E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle

Answer 340

crude touch and pressure sensations

Question 341

The sense of proprioception passes along the ________ pathway.
A) rubriocerebellar
B) corticospinal
C) spinocerebellar
D) decussation pathways
E) ganglion

Answer 341

spinocerebellar

Question 342

In the spinothalamic pathway, the sensory neuron that synapses with a neuron in the cerebral cortex is called the ________ neuron.
A) first-order
B) second-order
C) third-order
D) fourth-order
E) receptive

Answer 342

third-order

Question 343

Ascending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information.
A) sensory
B) motor
C) sensory and motor
D) only somatic
E) autonomic

Answer 343

sensory

Question 344

Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy?
A) cerebral palsy
B) stroke
C) paralysis
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E) multiple sclerosis

Answer 344

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Question 345

In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the
A) lower motor neuron.
B) upper motor neuron.
C) axon of the lower motor neuron.
D) axon of the upper motor neuron.
E) interneuron.

Answer 345

axon of the lower motor neuron.

Question 346

Which motor pathway does not end in the spinal cord?
A) corticobulbar tract
B) corticospinal tract
C) vestibulospinal tract
D) tectospinal tract
E) rubrospinal tract

Answer 346

corticobulbar tract

Question 347

The corticospinal pathway begins in which area of the brain?
A) somatosensory cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) midbrain
D) vestibular nuclei
E) red nuclei

Answer 347

primary motor cortex

Question 348

The motor homunculus shows larger structures in areas of the body that
A) have more surface area.
B) have more sensory receptors.
C) have bigger skeletal muscles.
D) are highly sensitive.
E) have more motor units.

Answer 348

have more motor units.

Question 349

The rubrospinal tracts originate in the
A) primary motor cortex.
B) vestibular nuclei.
C) thalamus.
D) red nuclei.
E) reticular formation.

Answer 349

red nuclei.

Question 350

Which areas of the brain monitor and adjust activities of the motor pathways?
A) basal nuclei
B) cerebellum
C) basal nuclei and cerebellum
D) midbrain
E) pons

Answer 350

basal nuclei and cerebellum

Question 351

The neurons of the primary motor cortex are ________ cells.
A) neuroglial
B) dendritic
C) pyramidal
D) cortical
E) astrocyte

Answer 351

pyramidal

Question 352

The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the medulla oblongata is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) anterior corticospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal

Answer 352

lateral corticospinal

Question 353

The spinal tract that normally plays a role in the subconscious regulation of the muscles of the arms is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) anterior corticospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal

Answer 353

rubrospinal

Question 354

Descending (motor) pathways always involve at least ________ motor neuron(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) spinal

Answer 354

two

Question 355

The spinal tract that unconsciously maintains balance and muscle tone is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) anterior corticospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal

Answer 355

vestibulospinal

Question 356

The medial pathway that controls involuntary movements of head, neck, and arm position in response to sudden visual and auditory stimuli is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) tectospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal

Answer 356

tectospinal

Question 357

The pyramidal system provides
A) voluntary control over skeletal muscles.
B) voluntary control over smooth muscles.
C) involuntary control over skeletal muscles.
D) involuntary control over smooth muscles.
E) involuntary control over cardiac muscle.

Answer 357

voluntary control over skeletal muscles.

Question 358

Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract synapse with neurons in
A) autonomic ganglia.
B) the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
C) the spinothalamic tract.
D) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
E) the dorsal root ganglia.

Answer 358

the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.

Question 359

The corticospinal system is often referred to as the
A) red nucleus.
B) reticular formation.
C) spinothalamic tracts.
D) pyramidal system.
E) medullary centers.

Answer 359

pyramidal system.

Question 360

The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional to the
A) size of the body area.
B) distance of the body area from the brain.
C) number of motor units in that region.
D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body.
E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body.

Answer 360

number of motor units in that region.

Question 361

Axons of the corticobulbar tract terminate in the
A) sensory neurons.
B) somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord.
C) autonomic motor neurons in the spinal cord.
D) motor nuclei of cranial nerves.
E) nuclei in the thalamus.

Answer 361

motor nuclei of cranial nerves.

Question 362

The ________ tract provides subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and movement and is part of the ________ pathway.
A) tectospinal; lateral
B) rubrospinal; lateral
C) reticulospinal; medial
D) vestibulospinal; lateral
E) corticobulbar; medial

Answer 362

rubrospinal; lateral

Question 363

Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor units involved?
A) tongue
B) face
C) hands
D) back trunk

Answer 363

back trunk

Question 364

The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the ________ tracts.
A) corticospinal
B) corticobulbar
C) reticulospinal
D) vestibulospinal
E) tectospinal

Answer 364

corticospinal

Question 365

The basal nuclei
A) initiate conscious motor activity.
B) activate spinal reflexes.
C) provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities.
D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons.
E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensorimotor activity.

Answer 365

provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities.

Question 366

The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the
A) vestibular nuclei.
B) reticular formation.
C) superior colliculi.
D) inferior colliculi.
E) mammillary bodies.

Answer 366

mammillary bodies.

Question 367

The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the
A) vestibular nuclei.
B) reticular formation.
C) superior colliculi.
D) inferior colliculi.
E) mammillary bodies.

Answer 367

mammillary bodies.

Question 368

A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely affected?
A) corticospinal tract
B) tectospinal tract
C) rubrospinal tract
D) corticobulbar tract
E) reticulospinal tract

Answer 368

corticobulbar tract

Question 369

Some neurons within the basal nuclei are known to
A) stimulate neurons with GABA.
B) inhibit neurons with GABA.
C) stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
D) stimulate neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
E) inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.

Answer 369

inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.

Question 370

Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect
A) perception of pain.
B) sight.
C) voluntary motor activity.
D) hearing.
E) balance.

Answer 370

voluntary motor activity.

Question 371

The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except
A) touch sensations.
B) visual information.
C) equilibrium-related sensations.
D) input from the motor cortex.
E) input from proprioceptors.

Answer 371

touch sensations.

Question 372

Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons.
A) upper motor
B) lower motor
C) preganglionic
D) postganglionic
E) somesthetic

Answer 372

lower motor

Question 373

Upper motor neurons are located in the
A) precentral gyrus.
B) postcentral gyrus.
C) brain stem.
D) spinal cord.
E) cerebral hemispheres and the brain stem.

Answer 373

cerebral hemispheres and the brain stem.

Question 374

Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with the ability to
A) position the arms.
B) monitor body position.
C) make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises.
D) control motor units located in the leg.
E) coordinate eating and swallowing movements.

Answer 374

make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises.

Question 375

Descending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information.
A) sensory
B) motor
C) sensory and motor
D) only somatic
E) autonomic

Answer 375

motor

Question 376

In the corticospinal pathway, the neuron that exits the spinal cord and enters the spinal nerve is called the ________ neuron.
A) upper sensory
B) lower sensory
C) upper motor
D) lower motor
E) pyramidal

Answer 376

lower motor

Question 377

Identify the origin of the axon labeled “2.”
A) lower motor neuron
B) upper motor neuron
C) decussation neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) ganglionic neuron

Answer 377

upper motor neuron

Question 378

The axon labeled “2” synapses with which structure?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

Answer 378

5

Question 379

Identify the structure labeled “5.”
A) ventral root
B) upper motor neuron
C) first-order neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) dorsal root

Answer 379

ventral root

Question 380

What occurs in this neural pathway at label “3”?
A) synapse
B) communication between sensory and motor neurons
C) amplification of motor signals
D) decussation
E) autonomic reflexes

Answer 380

decussation

Question 381

Identify the structure labeled “1.”
A) primary sensory cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) thalamus
D) autonomic motor center
E) basal nuclei

Answer 381

primary motor cortex

Question 382

Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled “4.”
A) motor commands to skeletal muscles
B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex
C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex
D) pain and crude touch sensations
E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle

Answer 382

motor commands to skeletal muscles

Question 383

Which motor pathway directs a faster response: voluntary or involuntary? (Figure 15-1)
A) voluntary
B) involuntary

Answer 383

involuntary

Question 384

Describe the receptive field. (Figure 15-2)
A) The area receptive to stimuli monitored by a single receptor cell.
B) The overlap where many receptors detect stimuli.
C) The distance the generator potential travels after receptor stimulation.
D) The distance covered by action potentials after receptor stimulation.
E) The areas of the brain that process the receptor stimuli.

Answer 384

The area receptive to stimuli monitored by a single receptor cell.

Question 385

Which tactile receptors are located in the dermis? (Figure 15-4)
A) free nerve endings and tactile corpuscles
B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus
C) tactile discs and tactile corpuscles
D) root hair plexus, bulbous corpuscle, and lamellar corpuscles
E) tactile discs and proprioceptors

Answer 385

root hair plexus, bulbous corpuscle, and lamellar corpuscles

Question 386

Which pathway or tract detects sensations of pain and temperature? (Figure 15-7)
A) posterior spinocerebellar
B) anterior spinocerebellar
C) posterior column pathway
D) anterior spinothalamic
E) lateral spinothalamic

Answer 386

lateral spinothalamic

Question 387

Identify the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord. (Figure 15-10)
A) anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, lateral spinothalamic
B) anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar, lateral spinocerebellar
C) lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal
D) gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus
E) medial lemniscus, anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar

Answer 387

lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal

Question 388

The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body’s neural tissue.
A) 15 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 68 percent
D) 97 percent
E) 35 percent

Answer 388

97 percent

Question 389

Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains.
A) larger
B) smaller
C) the same size
D) very smooth
E) more convoluted

Answer 389

larger

Question 390

During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum?
A) telencephalon
B) diencephalon
C) mesencephalon
D) metencephalon
E) myelencephalon

Answer 390

telencephalon

Question 391

Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain?
A) cerebrum
B) diencephalon
C) prosencephalon
D) brainstem
E) cerebellum

Answer 391

prosencephalon

Question 392

Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem?
A) medulla oblongata
B) pons
C) mesencephalon
D) diencephalon
E) cerebellum

Answer 392

diencephalon

Question 393

The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the
A) hypothalamus.
B) thalamus.
C) brain stem.
D) mesencephalon.
E) pons.

Answer 393

hypothalamus

Question 394

The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) mesencephalon.
D) diencephalon.
E) thalamus.

Answer 394

pons

Question 395

Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) diencephalon.
E) cerebellum.

Answer 395

medulla oblongata

Question 396

The cerebellum and pons develop from the
A) telencephalon.
B) diencephalon.
C) mesencephalon.
D) metencephalon.
E) myelencephalon.

Answer 396

metencephalon

Question 397

Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) thalamus.
E) cerebellum.

Answer 397

thalamus

Question 398

As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become
A) more complex.
B) simpler.
C) better understood.
D) more crucial to visceral functions.
E) critical to reflexes.

Answer 398

more complex

Question 399

The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems.
A) cerebellum
B) medulla oblongata
C) cerebrum
D) pons
E) hypothalamus

Answer 399

hypothalamus

Question 400

The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the
A) first.
B) second.
C) third.
D) fourth.
E) lateral.

Answer 400

fourth

Question 401

Which of the following is true about the cerebral cortex?
A) It is a deep layer of gray matter.
B) It is a superficial layer of gray matter.
C) It is a deep layer of white matter.
D) It is a superficial layer of white matter.
E) It is a deep layer of both white and gray matter.

Answer 401

It is a superficial layer of gray matter

Question 402

When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences?
A) thalamus
B) pons
C) midbrain
D) cerebellum
E) medulla oblongata

Answer 402

cerebellum

Question 403

During development, three primary brain vesicles form. The three vesicles are the
A) prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon.
B) telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon.
C) mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon.
D) cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain.
E) rhombencephalon, diencephalon, and telencephalon.

Answer 403

prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon

Question 404

The lateral ventricles are found
A) in the cerebellar hemispheres.
B) between the pons and the midbrain.
C) in the cerebral hemispheres.
D) in the diencephalon.
E) in the spinal cord.

Answer 404

in the cerebral hemispheres

Question 405

The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the
A) basal ganglia.
B) brain stem.
C) mesencephalon.
D) ventricles.
E) diencephalon.

Answer 405

brain stem

Question 406

The rounded elevations of the cerebrum that increase its surface area are called
A) sulci.
B) fissures.
C) cortical folds.
D) gyri.
E) dural sinuses.

Answer 406

gyri

Question 407

The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the
A) cerebral aqueduct.
B) fornix.
C) falx cerebri.
D) corpus callosum.
E) septum pellucidum.

Answer 407

septum pellucidum

Question 408

The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the
A) posterior foramen.
B) interventricular foramen.
C) cerebral aqueduct.
D) lateral foramen.
E) central canal.

Answer 408

interventricular foramen

Question 409

Specialized ________ form the secretory component of the choroid plexus.
A) epididymal cells
B) ependymal cells
C) arachnoid cells
D) astrocyte
E) blood cells

Answer 409

ependymal cells

Question 410

The dural venous sinuses are located in the
A) paranasal cavity.
B) arachnoid folds.
C) pia mater.
D) dural folds.
E) tentorium cerebelli.

Answer 410

dural folds

Question 411

What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain?
A) pia mater
B) arachnoid mater
C) dura mater
D) cranial plexus
E) choroid plexus

Answer 411

pia mater

Question 412

The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood to the brain are the
A) external carotid arteries.
B) facial arteries.
C) jugular veins.
D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries.
E) dural sinuses.

Answer 412

internal carotid and vertebral arteries

Question 413

Which of the following is not a property of the blood-brain barrier?
A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.
B) It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds.
C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.
D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.
E) It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs.

Answer 413

It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds

Question 414

The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the
A) dural sinus.
B) falx cerebri.
C) tentorium cerebelli.
D) falx cerebelli.
E) choroid plexus.

Answer 414

falx cerebri

Question 415

Cerebrospinal fluid
A) is secreted by ependymal cells.
B) is formed by a passive process.
C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed.
D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma.
E) contains blood cells and blood plasma.

Answer 415

is secreted by ependymal cells

Question 416

Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of the spinal cord and brain?
A) Spinal fluid is secreted both in the brain and in the spinal cord areas.
B) There is an epidural space associated with the spinal meninges, but not with the cranial meninges.
C) The meninges around the brain are not the same as those around the spinal cord.
D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges but not the cranial meninges.
E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord.

Answer 416

The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord

Question 417

The choroid plexus is composed of
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) blood vessels.
C) nerve fibers.
D) ganglia.
E) subarachnoid granulations.

Answer 417

blood vessels

Question 418

Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the
A) jugular veins.
B) central canal.
C) arachnoid granulations.
D) tentorium cerebelli.
E) frontal sinus.

Answer 418

arachnoid granulations

Question 419

What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows?
A) subdural space
B) dural sinus
C) falx cerebri
D) subarachnoid space
E) pia mater

Answer 419

subarachnoid space

Question 420

Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues
B) provides buoyant support for the brain
C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients
D) produces ATP for impulse transmission
E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

Answer 420

produces ATP for impulse transmission

Question 421

Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?
A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma.
B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person.
C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord.
D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus.
E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis.

Answer 421

If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus

Question 422

Hydrocephalus, or “water on the brain,” may result from
A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid.
B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid.
C) blockage of circulation of CSF.
D) excessive water intake.
E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production.

Answer 422

blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production

Question 423

To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the
A) subarachnoid space.
B) superior sagittal sinus.
C) carotid canal.
D) inferior sagittal sinus.
E) jugular foramen.

Answer 423

superior sagittal sinus

Question 424

In each ventricle is a blood vessel network called the ________ that produces cerebrospinal fluid.
A) choroid plexus
B) jugular vein
C) carotid artery
D) vertebral artery
E) dural sinus

Answer 424

choroid plexus

Question 425

Chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid are called
A) plexuses.
B) ganglia.
C) sinuses.
D) aqueducts.
E) ventricles.

Answer 425

ventricles

Question 426

Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the
A) cerebral aqueduct.
B) basal ganglia.
C) falx cerebri.
D) tentorium cerebelli.
E) septum pellucidum.

Answer 426

falx cerebri

Question 427

The dural sinuses form between which two layers of the cranial dura mater?
A) pia and arachnoid layers
B) periosteal and endosteal layers
C) meningeal and cranial layers
D) periosteal and meningeal layers
E) superior and inferior sagittal layers

Answer 427

periosteal and meningeal layers

Question 428

Tony hit his head in a car accident. The physicians diagnosed him with a subdural hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly states where the bleeding has occurred in his brain?
A) Blood is between the dura mater and the skull.
B) Blood is between the pia mater and arachnoid mater.
C) Blood is between the pia mater and the brain.
D) Blood is between the superior sagittal sinus and inferior sagittal sinus.
E) Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

Answer 428

Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

Question 429

How rapidly is the CSF volume replaced?
A) every 20 minutes
B) every 2 hours
C) every 8 hours
D) every 2 days
E) every week

Answer 429

every 8 hours

Question 430

Which dural fold separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum?
A) tentorium cerebelli
B) falx cerebelli
C) falx cerebri
D) longitudinal fissure
E) superior sagittal sinus

Answer 430

tentorium cerebelli

Question 431

A patient comes into the emergency room with weakness on one side and difficulty walking and talking. You determine that the brain has been deprived of oxygen due to lack of regional blood flow. You suspect that patient has most likely experienced
A) a subdural hemorrhage.
B) meningitis.
C) hydrocephalus.
D) cranial trauma.
E) a cerebrovascular accident.

Answer 431

a cerebrovascular accident

Question 432

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “1.”
A) choroid plexus
B) cerebral aqueduct
C) third ventricle
D) subarachnoid space
E) corpus callosum

Answer 432

choroid plexus

Question 433

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
Ependymal cells are most likely found at which structure?
A) 10
B) 2
C) 9
D) 3
E) 7

Answer 433

2

Question 434

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
CSF is absorbed into the venous circulation via arachnoid granulations. Identify an arachnoid granulation.
A) 8
B) 1
C) 10
D) 2
E) 4

Answer 434

8

Question 435

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled “3.”
A) lateral ventricles
B) corpora quadrigemina
C) cerebral aqueduct
D) pons
E) central canal

Answer 435

cerebral aqueduct

Question 436

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “4.”
A) cerebral aqueduct
B) lateral ventricle
C) sagittal sinus
D) 4th ventricle
E) choroid plexus

Answer 436

4th ventricle

Question 437

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “6.”
A) choroid plexus
B) fourth ventricle
C) lateral ventricle
D) cerebral aqueduct
E) subarachnoid space

Answer 437

subarachnoid space

Question 438

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “7.”
A) dura mater
B) lateral ventricle
C) fourth ventricle
D) subarachnoid space
E) filum terminale

Answer 438

dura mater

Question 439

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “9.”
A) dura mater
B) superior sagittal sinus
C) lateral ventricle
D) subarachnoid space
E) arachnoid granulation

Answer 439

superior sagittal sinus

Question 440

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “10.”
A) arbor vitae
B) central canal
C) corpus callosum
D) pons
E) diencephalon

Answer 440

central canal

Question 441

The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) diencephalon.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) thalamus.

Answer 441

medulla oblongata

Question 442

The medulla oblongata regulates
A) somatic motor contractions.
B) food intake.
C) auditory reflexes.
D) vision and hearing.
E) blood pressure and respiration.

Answer 442

blood pressure and respiration

Question 443

This structure of the medulla oblongata relays information from the red nuclei, midbrain, and the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum.
A) inferior olivary complex
B) reticular formation
C) nucleus gracilis
D) nucleus cuneatus
E) solitary nucleus

Answer 443

inferior olivary complex

Question 444

Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because
A) electrical activity originates within the medulla.
B) the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there.
C) the blood might not be able to circulate properly around the brain.
D) body temperature is controlled by the medulla.
E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla.

Answer 444

the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there

Question 445

Cardiovascular centers located in the ________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of cardiac contractions, and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues.
A) pons
B) medulla oblongata
C) prefrontal cortex
D) thalamus
E) midbrain

Answer 445

medulla oblongata

Question 446

The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated is
A) decussation.
B) contralateral.
C) ascending crossovers.
D) pyramidal tracts.
E) consensual tracts.

Answer 446

decussation

Question 447

Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has lost some sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial muscles for emotion and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some hearing loss and balance problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) medulla.
D) thalamus.
E) pons.

Answer 447

pons

Question 448

If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?
A) breathing
B) control of blood pressure
C) coordination
D) sleep patterns
E) judgment

Answer 448

breathing

Question 449

The nuclei of which cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain?
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) IV and V
E) V and VI

Answer 449

III and IV

Question 450

Descending fibers from the pons to the cerebellum pass through these structures of the midbrain?
A) substantia nigra
B) reticular formation
C) superior colliculus
D) corpora quadrigemina
E) cerebral peduncles

Answer 450

cerebral peduncles

Question 451

The medulla oblongata relays auditory stimuli to the
A) substantia nigra.
B) red nuclei.
C) cerebral peduncles.
D) superior colliculi.
E) inferior colliculi.

Answer 451

inferior colliculi

Question 452

The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the thalamus is the
A) midbrain.
B) cerebral aqueduct.
C) 4th ventricle.
D) basal ganglion.
E) cerebellum.

Answer 452

midbrain

Question 453

Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the
A) tectum.
B) corpora quadrigemina.
C) cerebral peduncles.
D) superior colliculi.
E) inferior colliculi.

Answer 453

cerebral peduncles

Question 454

The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the
A) four cerebral lobes.
B) superior and inferior colliculi.
C) first four cranial nerves.
D) cranial nerve IV.
E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles.

Answer 454

superior and inferior colliculi

Question 455

The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the mesencephalon. Which nuclei accomplish this?
A) substantia nigra
B) red nuclei
C) tectum
D) superior colliculi
E) inferior colliculi

Answer 455

inferior colliculi

Question 456

Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with
A) control of autonomic function.
B) regulation of body temperature.
C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.
D) conscious control of skeletal muscles.
E) control of breathing.

Answer 456

visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck

Question 457

Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the
A) nucleus gracilis.
B) nucleus cuneatus.
C) motor cortex.
D) substantia nigra.
E) cerebellar nucleus.

Answer 457

substantia nigra

Question 458

The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain.
A) cerebral peduncles
B) reticular formation
C) substantia nigra
D) choroid plexuses
E) corpora quadrigemina

Answer 458

corpora quadrigemina

Question 459

The mesencephalon contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention.
A) falx cerebri
B) Wernicke’s area
C) general association area
D) reticular activating system
E) basal ganglia

Answer 459

basal ganglia

Question 460

Which of the following tracts is correctly matched?
A) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the spinal cord
B) middle cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the pons
C) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the cerebrum
D) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the medulla oblongata
E) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the midbrain

Answer 460

middle cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the pons

Question 461

Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the
A) cerebrum.
B) thalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) pons.
E) medulla oblongata.

Answer 461

cerebellum

Question 462

The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the
A) flocculonodular lobe.
B) arbor vitae.
C) folia.
D) vermis.
E) pyramid.

Answer 462

vermis

Question 463

The white matter of the cerebellum forms the
A) flocculonodular lobe.
B) arbor vitae.
C) folia.
D) vermis.
E) pyramid.

Answer 463

arbor vitae

Question 464

The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the
A) pons.
B) medulla.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) cerebellar cortex.
E) arbor vitae.

Answer 464

cerebellar cortex

Question 465

The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily affected by drugs or alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known as
A) ataxia.
B) aphasia.
C) dysphagia.
D) Parkinson’s.
E) epilepsy.

Answer 465

ataxia

Question 466

The folds of the surface of the cerebellum
A) are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds.
B) form a network of blood vessels over the brain.
C) consist of axons and dendrites of neurons.
D) are bathed in spinal fluid.
E) are called sulci.

Answer 466

are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds

Question 467

Which of the following is not one of the thalamic nuclei?
A) ventral nuclei
B) medial nuclei
C) superior nuclei
D) anterior nuclei
E) dorsal nuclei

Answer 467

superior nuclei

Question 468

Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms?
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) preoptic area
C) autonomic nucleus
D) paraventricular nucleus
E) tuber cinereum

Answer 468

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Question 469

The hypothalamus produces which two hormones?
A) ADH and epinephrine
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine
C) ADH and oxytocin
D) growth hormone and melatonin
E) oxytocin and melatonin

Answer 469

ADH and oxytocin

Question 470

Which of the following is true regarding the pineal gland?
A) It is part of the epithalamus and secretes melatonin.
B) It is part of the hypothalamus and secretes oxytocin.
C) It is part of the thalamus.
D) It is part of the limbic system.
E) It controls heart rate and blood pressure.

Answer 470

It is part of the epithalamus and secretes melatonin

Question 471

The pineal gland is part of the
A) hypothalamus.
B) diencephalon.
C) midbrain.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) brainstem.

Answer 471

diencephalon

Question 472

Which of the following is not function of the hypothalamus?
A) produces ADH
B) secrete melatonin
C) regulates body temperature
D) secretes oxytocin
E) controls autonomic centers

Answer 472

secrete melatonin

Question 473

Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus?
A) contains the mammillary body
B) forms the roof of the diencephalon
C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum
D) forms the cerebrum
E) creates the lateral ventricles

Answer 473

forms the roof of the diencephalon

Question 474

The anterior nuclei of the thalamus
A) are part of the limbic system.
B) secrete pituitary hormones.
C) secrete melatonin.
D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve.
E) secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin.

Answer 474

are part of the limbic system

Question 475

The medial nuclei of the thalamus
A) are part of the limbic system.
B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe.
C) produce the hormone oxytocin.
D) process visual information.
E) process olfactory information.

Answer 475

connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe

Question 476

The dorsal/posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the
A) basal nuclei.
B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei.
C) mammillary body.
D) interthalamic adhesion.
E) red nucleus.

Answer 476

lateral and medial geniculate nuclei

Question 477

The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the
A) pulvinar nuclei.
B) lateral geniculate nuclei.
C) medial geniculate nuclei.
D) supraoptic nuclei.
E) paraventricular nuclei.

Answer 477

lateral geniculate nuclei

Question 478

Which of the following is a function of the thalamus?
A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid
B) secrete melatonin
C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum
D) store memories
E) regulate food intake

Answer 478

process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum

Question 479

The thalamus is often called the “air traffic controller” of the brain because it
A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight response.
B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood.
C) controls reflexes.
D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area.
E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum.

Answer 479

determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area

Question 480

The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus
A) regulate lactation.
B) secrete oxytocin.
C) control feeding reflexes.
D) control heart rate and blood pressure.
E) secrete antidiuretic hormone.

Answer 480

control feeding reflexes

Question 481

The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex.
A) cerebrum
B) thalamus
C) pons
D) medulla oblongata
E) cerebellum

Answer 481

thalamus

Question 482

Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem?
A) an intense thirst
B) an uncontrolled sex drive
C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature
D) an insatiable appetite
E) production of a large volume of urine

Answer 482

reduced ability to regulate body temperature

Question 483

Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located?
A) prefrontal cortex
B) postcentral gyrus
C) basal nuclei
D) hypothalamus
E) reticular formation

Answer 483

hypothalamus

Question 484

Stimulation of the ________ within the hypothalamus produces the sensation of hunger.
A) satiety center
B) feeding center
C) thirst center
D) limbic system
E) hormone center

Answer 484

feeding center

Question 485

The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.
A) hippocampus
B) infundibulum
C) supraoptic nucleus
D) basal ganglia
E) amygdala

Answer 485

infundibulum

Question 486

The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the
A) reticular activating system.
B) circadian system.
C) limbic system.
D) hypothalamic system.
E) apneustic system.

Answer 486

limbic system

Question 487

Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system?
A) primarily a functional grouping
B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather
C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon
D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brain stem
E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory

Answer 487

functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather

Question 488

The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories.
A) amygdaloid body
B) cingulate gyrus
C) mammillary bodies
D) hippocampus
E) fornix

Answer 488

hippocampus

Question 489

A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the
A) amygdaloid body.
B) cingulate gyrus.
C) mammillary bodies.
D) hippocampus.
E) fornix.

Answer 489

fornix

Question 490

Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged?
A) the prefrontal lobe
B) the general interpretive area
C) the limbic system
D) the preoptic area
E) the reticular activating system

Answer 490

the limbic system

Question 491

Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A) commissural fibers: interconnect the cerebral hemispheres
B) arcuate fibers: short association fibers
C) projection fibers: pass through the diencephalon
D) association fibers: interconnect areas within a single cerebral hemisphere
E) internal capsule: bands of association fibers

Answer 491

internal capsule: bands of association fibers

Question 492

Which of the following is not true regarding the lentiform nucleus?
A) It is part of the basal nuclei.
B) It contains white matter.
C) It controls subconscious control of skeletal muscle.
D) It contains the putamen and the globus pallidus.
E) It is located deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle on each cerebral hemisphere.

Answer 492

It contains white matter

Question 493

The olfactory cortex is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) cerebellum.

Answer 493

temporal lobe

Question 494

A person touches you lightly with a feather. What two areas of the brain allow you to feel and interpret this touch?
A) primary motor cortex and the primary sensory cortex
B) primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area
C) primary sensory cortex and the visceral sensory association area
D) primary motor cortex and the somatic motor association area
E) gustatory cortex and the gustatory association area

Answer 494

primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area

Question 495

In order to take notes the primary motor cortex must receive input from the ________ first.
A) postcentral gyrus
B) primary sensory cortex
C) somatic sensory association area
D) premotor cortex
E) olfactory association area

Answer 495

premotor cortex

Question 496

The complex integration of sensory information with visual and auditory memories occurs in this area near the auditory cortex?
A) somatosensory area
B) precentral gyrus
C) premotor cortex
D) Wernicke’s area
E) Broca’s area

Answer 496

Wernicke’s area

Question 497

Following a head injury, Kevin can think of the word he wants to say but cannot make his mouth form the correct sounds to produce the word. He is most likely suffering from damage to
A) Wernicke’s area.
B) Broca’s area.
C) Brodmann’s area.
D) the general interpretive area.
E) the basal nuclei.

Answer 497

Broca’s area

Question 498

Which of the following is not true regarding hemispheric lateralization?
A) Sensory analysis occurs in the right hemisphere.
B) Emotional recognition of facial expressions occurs in the right hemisphere.
C) Speech and language control is in the left hemisphere.
D) Analytic tasks like math and decision making occurs in the right hemisphere.
E) Reading and writing control is in the left hemisphere.

Answer 498

Analytic tasks like math and decision making occurs in the right hemisphere

Question 499

Which EEG wave if seen in an awake adult may indicate a pathological condition?
A) alpha
B) beta
C) theta
D) delta
E) No waves should be seen in awake adults.

Answer 499

delta

Question 500

Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of
A) Parkinson’s disease.
B) rabies.
C) Alzheimer’s disease.
D) myasthenia gravis.
E) tetanus.

Answer 500

Parkinson’s disease

Question 501

The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the
A) longitudinal fissure.
B) central sulcus.
C) transverse fissure.
D) parieto-occipital sulcus.
E) postcentral sulcus.

Answer 501

longitudinal fissure

Question 502

Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are
A) fissures.
B) sinuses.
C) lobes.
D) sulci.
E) gyri.

Answer 502

lobes

Question 503

The cerebral lobe posterior to the central sulcus is the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.

Answer 503

parietal lobe

Question 504

The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is/are the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) parietal and frontal lobes.

Answer 504

parietal and frontal lobes

Question 505

The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.

Answer 505

insula

Question 506

The primary motor cortex is the surface of the
A) insula.
B) precentral gyrus.
C) postcentral gyrus.
D) arcuate gyrus.
E) corpus callosum.

Answer 506

precentral gyrus

Question 507

The corpus callosum is composed of
A) arcuate fibers.
B) longitudinal fasciculi.
C) association fibers.
D) commissural fibers.
E) projection fibers.

Answer 507

commissural fibers

Question 508

The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.
A) primary sensory
B) primary motor
C) visual
D) olfactory
E) auditory

Answer 508

primary sensory

Question 509

Commissural fibers
A) carry pain information to the correct brain structure.
B) are divided by the longitudinal fissure.
C) link the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon.
D) interconnect and allow communication between cerebral hemispheres.
E) connect the frontal lobe to other lobes of the same hemisphere.

Answer 509

interconnect and allow communication between cerebral hemispheres

Question 510

The visual cortex is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.

Answer 510

occipital lobe

Question 511

The auditory cortex is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.

Answer 511

temporal lobe

Question 512

Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas.
A) commissural
B) sensory
C) association
D) somesthetic
E) processing

Answer 512

association

Question 513

The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the
A) prefrontal cerebral cortex.
B) occipital association cortex.
C) reticular formation.
D) temporal lobe.
E) premotor cortex.

Answer 513

prefrontal cerebral cortex

Question 514

Parkinson’s disease is the result of
A) excess production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei.
B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra.
C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons.
D) hyperactivity of the limbic system.
E) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon.

Answer 514

inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons

Question 515

After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe.
A) right frontal
B) left frontal
C) right temporal
D) left temporal
E) occipital

Answer 515

left frontal

Question 516

After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the
A) frontal lobe.
B) postcentral gyrus.
C) temporal lobe.
D) limbic system.
E) occipital lobe.

Answer 516

occipital lobe

Question 517

Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to
A) the prefrontal cortex.
B) the general interpretive area.
C) Broca’s area.
D) Wernicke’s area.
E) the postcentral gyrus.

Answer 517

the prefrontal cortex

Question 518

Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the
A) anterior commissures.
B) basal nuclei.
C) motor association areas.
D) visual cortex.
E) auditory cortex.

Answer 518

basal nuclei

Question 519

Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities?
A) Broca’s area
B) Brodmann area
C) prefrontal cortex
D) Wernicke’s area
E) general interpretive area

Answer 519

prefrontal cortex

Question 520

The highest levels of information processing occur in the
A) cerebrum.
B) diencephalon.
C) cerebellum.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) corpus callosum.

Answer 520

cerebrum

Question 521

A person with a damaged visual association area may be
A) unable to see rows of letters.
B) declared legally blind.
C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings.
D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words.
E) unable to understand spoken words.

Answer 521

able to see letters but unable to associate them into words

Question 522

Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to
A) speak.
B) move her left arm.
C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand.
D) recognize written words.
E) touch her nose with her eyes closed.

Answer 522

verbally identify an object placed in her left hand

Question 523

________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech.
A) Frontal
B) Integrative
C) Communication
D) Terminal
E) Vocal

Answer 523

Integrative

Question 524

What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with damage to the basal nuclei?
A) inability to process thoughts in a rational way
B) visual problems
C) facial tics
D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles
E) anger problems

Answer 524

problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles

Question 525

Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his
A) somatosensory association area.
B) general interpretive area.
C) speech center.
D) prefrontal lobe.
E) temporal lobe.

Answer 525

general interpretive area

Question 526

Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to
A) understand written words.
B) understand spoken words.
C) understand visual images.
D) play the piano.
E) sense the texture of velvet.

Answer 526

play the piano

Question 527

________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior.
A) Dyslexia
B) Apraxia
C) Aphasia
D) Parkinson’s disease
E) A seizure

Answer 527

A seizure

Question 528

A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain’s electrical activity over a period of time.
A) electrocardiogram
B) electroencephalogram
C) x-ray
D) MRI
E) CT scan

Answer 528

electroencephalogram

Question 529

________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read.
A) Aphasia
B) Ataxia
C) Apraxia
D) Bell’s palsy
E) Dysphagia

Answer 529

Aphasia

Question 530

The basal nuclei
A) initiate voluntary muscle activity.
B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.
C) coordinate sensory information.
D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland.
E) control respiration and blood pressure.

Answer 530

provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking

Question 531

In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in
A) the left cerebral hemisphere.
B) the right cerebral hemisphere.
C) neither of the cerebral hemispheres.
D) both of the cerebral hemispheres.
E) the cerebellum.

Answer 531

the left cerebral hemisphere

Question 532

The dominant cerebral hemisphere of the brain
A) is for emotional status.
B) is for interpretation of art and music.
C) performs analytical tasks.
D) controls vital functions such as blood pressure and heart rate.
E) controls emotions.

Answer 532

performs analytical tasks

Question 533

Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas.
A) association
B) motor
C) cranial
D) sensory
E) intercalated

Answer 533

association

Question 534

The white structure that connects the cerebral hemispheres is the
A) geniculate nucleus.
B) basal ganglia.
C) amygdala.
D) arbor vitae.
E) corpus callosum.

Answer 534

corpus callosum

Question 535

The only sensation that is received directly by the cerebrum is
A) olfaction.
B) gustation.
C) hearing.
D) vision.
E) dizziness.

Answer 535

olfaction

Question 536

Which of the following nerves is purely sensory?
A) vagus
B) trochlear
C) abducens
D) optic
E) hypoglossal

Answer 536

optic

Question 537

A patient suffers an inability to shrug their shoulders. The nerve most likely to be damaged is the
A) vagus.
B) accessory.
C) facial.
D) trigeminal.
E) vestibulocochlear.

Answer 537

accessory

Question 538

Which cranial nerve sends balance sensations to the brain?
A) facial
B) trigeminal
C) olfactory
D) vagus
E) vestibulocochlear

Answer 538

vestibulocochlear

Question 539

Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue?
A) hypoglossal
B) vagus
C) facial
D) glossopharyngeal
E) abducens

Answer 539

hypoglossal

Question 540

________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve.
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Bell’s palsy
C) Addison’s disease
D) Gout
E) Tic douloureux

Answer 540

Bell’s palsy

Question 541

There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 12
D) 22
E) 31

Answer 541

12

Question 542

Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve.
A) optic
B) oculomotor
C) trochlear
D) olfactory
E) facial

Answer 542

oculomotor

Question 543

The cranial nerves that innervate the extrinsic eye muscles are
A) I, II, and III.
B) III, IV, and VI.
C) II, III, and IV.
D) II and VI.
E) III and V.

Answer 543

III, IV, and VI

Question 544

The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the
A) abducens.
B) facial.
C) vagus.
D) trigeminal.
E) glossopharyngeal.

Answer 544

trigeminal

Question 545

Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve.
A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal
B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal
C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal
D) glossopharyngeal
E) hypoglossal

Answer 545

mandibular branch of the trigeminal

Question 546

Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)?
A) vagus
B) facial
C) glossopharyngeal
D) hypoglossal
E) glossopharyngeal and vagus

Answer 546

glossopharyngeal and vagus

Question 547

A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ reflex.
A) corneal
B) tympanic
C) auditory
D) vestibulocochlear
E) spinal

Answer 547

corneal

Question 548

Which sensation(s) does the vestibulocochlear nerve carry?
A) hearing
B) balance
C) atmospheric pressure
D) hearing and balance
E) hearing, balance, and taste

Answer 548

hearing and balance

Question 549

Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb?
A) trochlear
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) glossopharyngeal
E) hypoglossal

Answer 549

trigeminal

Question 550

You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve when he is unable to
A) smell his food.
B) smile.
C) blink his eyes.
D) nod his head.
E) hear your voice.

Answer 550

smell his food

Question 551

Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the
A) medulla.
B) thalamus.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) olfactory bulb.
E) olfactory tract.

Answer 551

olfactory bulb

Question 552

At the optic chiasm,
A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross.
B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross.
C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half.
D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain.
E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum.

Answer 552

axons from the medial halves of each retina cross

Question 553

A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?
A) glossopharyngeal
B) hypoglossal
C) vagus
D) spinal accessory
E) trigeminal

Answer 553

hypoglossal

Question 554

Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve?
A) loss of the sense of taste
B) tooth pain
C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) lack of facial expression
E) dry mouth from lack of saliva

Answer 554

weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

Question 555

The patient has the following symptoms: change in vocal tone, problems swallowing, inability to control urination, erratic heart rate, and gastric problems. You would identify the problem as being related to the
A) vagus nerve.
B) accessory nerve.
C) abducens nerve.
D) trigeminal nerve.
E) hypoglossal nerve.

Answer 555

vagus nerve

Question 556

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “1.”
A) mammillary body
B) infundibulum
C) oculomotor nerve
D) olfactory bulb
E) optic nerve

Answer 556

optic nerve

Question 557

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions:
Identify the nerve labeled “3.”
A) facial
B) abducens
C) trochlear
D) trigeminal
E) vagus

Answer 557

abducens

Question 558

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the nerve labeled “4”?
A) vision
B) olfaction
C) taste
D) hearing and balance
E) eye movement

Answer 558

hearing and balance

Question 559

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the nerve labeled “5”?
A) movement of the tongue
B) facial expression
C) vision
D) taste
E) visceral sensation and motor control

Answer 559

visceral sensation and motor control

Question 560

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: What is the function of the structure labeled “7”?
A) vision
B) olfaction
C) taste
D) auditory
E) eye movement

Answer 560

olfaction

Question 561

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the nerve labeled “11.”
A) oculomotor
B) trigeminal
C) trochlear
D) abducens
E) optic

Answer 561

trigeminal

Question 562

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the nerve labeled “12.”
A) trochlear
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) abducens
E) vagus

Answer 562

facial

Question 563

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: Identify the spinal accessory nerve (XI).
A) 10
B) 11
C) 9
D) 6
E) 3

Answer 563

6

Question 564

Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions:Identify the nerve that goes beyond the head and neck to innervate the thorax and abdomen.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
E) 2

Answer 564

5

Question 565

What structures make up the brainstem? (Figure 14-1)
A) cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon
B) diencephalon, midbrain, cerebellum
C) midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
D) hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus
E) pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum

Answer 565

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

Question 566

List the maters surrounding the brain from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer. (Figure 14-3)
A) dura, arachnoid, pia
B) pia, arachnoid, dura
C) arachnoid, dura, pia
D) arachnoid, pia, dura
E) pia, dura, arachnoid

Answer 566

pia, arachnoid, dura

Question 567

What makes up the gray matter in the cerebellum? (Figure 14-9)
A) superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles
B) transverse pontine fibers and arbor vitae
C) arbor vitae and superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles
D) transverse pontine fibers and cerebellar nuclei
E) cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei

Answer 567

cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei

Question 568

The central sulcus divides which two lobes? (Figure 14-13)
A) left parietal lobe and right parietal lobe
B) occipital lobe and parietal lobe
C) frontal lobe and parietal lobe
D) frontal lobe and temporal lobe
E) parietal lobe and temporal lobe

Answer 568

frontal lobe and parietal lobe

Question 569

Which portion of the lentiform nucleus is more medial and which portion is more lateral? (Figure 14-15)
A) putamen is more medial; globus pallidus is more lateral
B) globus pallidus is more medial; putamen is more lateral
C) claustrum is medial; septum pellucidum is lateral
D) septum pellucidum is medial; claustrum is lateral
E) insula is medial; caudate nucleus is lateral

Answer 569

globus pallidus is more medial; putamen is more lateral

Question 570

Which structure receives visual information before it reaches the visual cortex? (Figure 14-20)
A) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
B) medial geniculate body of the thalamus
C) ventral nucleus of the thalamus
D) paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
E) supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus

Answer 570

lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

Question 571

What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve? (Figure 14-22)
A) lingual, mental, salivary
B) optic, auditory, buccal
C) temporal, zygomatic, buccal
D) ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular
E) otic, ophthalmic, vestibular

Answer 571

ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular