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AT354 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

takeoff weight

A

28,000

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2
Q

landing weight

A

23350

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3
Q

Ramp Weight

A

28120

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4
Q

Emergency Descent Items

A

Thrust Levers - close
Speed - Mmo/Vmo unless structural damage is suspected
Air Brakes - Open

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5
Q

Electrical Smoke/Fire

A

Crew Oxygen - don masks - 100% or emerg
Mic Selector - Oxy-Mic
Cabin Notices - ON

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6
Q

Engine Fire on Ground

A

Start PWR Switch(starting only) - Push For Abort
HP Cock (affected engine) - Close
LP Cock (affected engine) - close
ENG EXT (affected engine) - Shot 1

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7
Q

Double Eng Failure

A

Thrust Levers - Close
Crew Oxygen - Don Masks if above 15,000 FT
Mic Selector - Oxy-Mic if above 15,000 FT
Engine Indication - monitor

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8
Q

Vmo
ventral tank full

A

335

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9
Q

Vmo
ventral tank empty

A

280

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10
Q

Mmo

A

.8 mach

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11
Q

an over-voltage of ___ or higher will cause the GCU (generator control unit) to automatically open the GLC

A

32.5

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12
Q

What does the GCU do

A

provide output stabilization and load equalization
automatically switches from starter mode to generator mode
in generator mode, it will act as a voltage regulator
controls the generator by directly controlling the GLC (generator line contactor)
provides reverse current flow protection

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13
Q

Why are our batteries 24v but our system is 28v

A

The voltage all together needs to be greater so that the batteries can charge off of the extra voltage

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14
Q

How is the electricity in the electric system distributed

A

busses

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15
Q

How do we test the volts for our battery

A

the battery pushbutton connects ammeters to batteries to show the charge rate of the batteries.
it is hot-wired to the battery so there is no need to turn anything on. just turn a knob so that we are looking at it specifically.

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16
Q

What should our battery amps be at for takeoff

A

needs to be below 20 amps

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17
Q

GPU (ground power unit)

A

standard 3 pin, 28 volt DC ground power receptacle located on right rear fuselage

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18
Q

what is the only thing that can run everything with engines off

A

GPU

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19
Q

What information does the cabin triple indicator give us

A

cabin altitude
differential pressure
rate of change

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20
Q

Cabin pressure at FL 410

A

7500
8.55 PSI

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21
Q

How do we control cabin pressure

A

pressurization is achieved by supplying bleed air into pressure vessel and controlling the outflow

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22
Q

Max cabin pressure differential

A

8.55

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23
Q

Max Negative Cabin Pressure

A

-.5

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24
Q

Max Cabin Over Pressure

A

8.6-8.8

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25
Q

What is the limitation with engine bleed air ad APU bleed

A

can both be on for no more than 1 minute

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26
Q

What keeps the outflow valves open on the ground

A

venturi

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27
Q

when will the cabin high annunciator go off

A

9300 +/- 300
high datum - 14000 +/- 300

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28
Q

what color is the cabin high annunciator

A

red - it will set the master warning lights off

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29
Q

Will an annunciator extinguish after it has alluminated

A

yes, if the reason it went off goes away

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30
Q

what bus powers the MWS system

A

PE

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31
Q

3 ways and examples the aircraft talks to us

A

visually - annucniators
Audibly - bells and chimes
Tactically - stick pusher/stick shaker

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32
Q

how do we test all annunciators to max intensity

A

annunciator test button

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33
Q

Fuel pump types

A

Jet pumps - 4 - no moving parts - just moves fuel through the inner tank parts
Boost pumps- 2 - moves ventral fuel - helps move fuel from tanks to engine
engine driven - 2 - automizes fuel - if it dies we die

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34
Q

Boost pump locations

A

1 in each wing

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35
Q

max fuel imbalance

A

500 pounds in between the wings

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36
Q

What must be working for ventral tank transfer

A

boost pumps

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37
Q

stator vs compressor

A

stationary - stationary
compressor - rotating (rotary)

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38
Q

Why do we put the APR in armed position

A

activates when uncommanded split in N2 occurs of 15% or more

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39
Q

spool

A

twin stool engine (N1 and N2) compressor and turbine connected on a single shaft - we have 2

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40
Q

Axial Flow

A

low pressure compressor - 4 rows or compressors (spin/move) 4 rows of stators (stationary)

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41
Q

CZI vs MPI inspections

A

CZI - every 6000 hours - much more in depth and costly - complete disassembly of engine - compressor zone inspection - confused with overhaul
MPI - every 3000 hours - looks primarily at turbine section - a lot like a hot section - major periodic inspection
both are more complex than what they are associated with

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42
Q

For maximum T/O thrust what is the N1, N2, ITT and time limit

A

N1- 100
N2 - 101
ITT - 1022
5 minutes

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43
Q

what is on the accessory case

A

oil pump, fuel pump, starter generator, alternator, fuel control unit, hydraulic pump

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44
Q

when do we get notified the TKS fluid is low

A

30 minutes remaining

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45
Q

Vibrometer explianed

A

an electrical pulse is sent thorugh a probe making it vibrate. as you fly ice collects making the probe heavier and the vibrations slower. As it slows it talks to th aircraft saying ice is forming

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46
Q

Our icing system

A

rotary ice cutter on the forward left fuselage as ice forms it is being cut off causing the rotation to slow due to the friction. As this friction grows and the turn slows it talks to the airplane letting it know ice is forming

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47
Q

TKS anti-ice system

A

TKS fluid is pumped out of the front of the wings and the horizontal stabilizer
it is pushed over the wing and elevator by wind going over the surfaces preventing from ice build up

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48
Q

Hot wings

A

hot bleed air from engine is pushed to the front, top, and bottom of wings warming the surface of the aircraft and melting/ preventing ice on the surface

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49
Q

WIng boots

A

inflatable boots on the front of wings that after ice has formed you will inflate to knock already formed ice off of the wing

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50
Q

when will you get anti-ice low pressure system

A

low system pressure with pump on

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51
Q

what do the alternators do for anti-ice

A

2 engine driven alternators heat the windscreens-sidescreens - stall vanes electrically

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52
Q

Alternator 1 heats

A

left windscreen, right sidescreen, left stall vane

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53
Q

Alternator 2 heats

A

Right windscreen, left sidescreen, right stall vane

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54
Q

what does the fire annunciator tell us

A

something is very hot - just because it goes off does not mean there IS a fire

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55
Q

how do we choose which side our extinguishers go to

A

by choosing shot 1 or 2 on the engine ext button for the engine that is having the overheat/fire alarm

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56
Q

what does shot 2 run off of

A

PS2

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57
Q

at does shot 1 run off of

A

PE

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58
Q

where are the fire extinguisher shots located

A

aft equipment bay

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59
Q

when would we have the emergency brakes on

A

when we attempt to brake and have no braking authority

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60
Q

how do we turn the emergency brakes on

A

pull the wheel lever back 1 notch

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61
Q

Hawker Anti-Skid

A

only provided during normal braking
called maxaret
fully mechanical
wheels must be moving

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62
Q

lift dump limitations

A

must be on the ground
flaps must be “selected” 45

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63
Q

where does the APU get its fuel from

A

left tank at .5 gallon an hour

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64
Q

What does the APY do

A

provides power and bleed air on ground and in flight

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65
Q

who monitors the APU

A

it monitors itself

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66
Q

what happens for APU fire

A

APU overheat detector go off
fire bell and annunciator go off
single shot fire extinguisher can be set off by pilots or after 5 seconds after APU auto-shutdown due to overheating it will not automatically go off

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67
Q

Master supply valve

A

allows oxygen into entire oxygen system
pilots need it open/passengers neet it open

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68
Q

emergency passenger supply valve

A

deploys passenger masks manually

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69
Q

Cabin oxygen

A

supplies passengers with oxygen
knob located behind pilots head

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70
Q

Barometric Valve

A

supplies masks and oxygen to passengers at cabin altitude of 14500+/- 500 ft

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71
Q

The emergency escape hatch is on the ____ side, _____ window

A

Right; fourth

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72
Q

to recieve external power, the ground power unit must be plugged in to the ground power receptacle on the

A

right rear fuselage

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73
Q

This color annunciator indicates a condition that requires immediate crew action

A

red

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74
Q

electrical heating is provided for

A

forward static plates
pitot heads
windshields

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75
Q

when the cabin door is not in the fully locked position, microswitches connected to the master warning system illuminate the ___________ annunciator

A

yellow ENT DOOR UNLOCKED

76
Q

the batteries will maintain essential service during a dual generator failure for

A

30 minutes minimum

77
Q

the maximum battery amps for takeoff is

A

20 amps

78
Q

when a generator si off-line and the GEN FAIL and ELECT look up annunciators are illuminated, the generator can be reinstated by

A

positioning the GEN switch to CLOSE for five seconds then releasing it

79
Q

the battery-charging rate can be monitored by

A

Depressing the BATT ammeter pushboutton

80
Q

for engine starting, the ground power unit must produce

A

28 volts, 1,500 amps with 1,100-amp current limiter

81
Q

circuit breakers protecting unswitched PE circuits are marked to ease isolation in the event of smoke or fire with

A

a white background

82
Q

when either the BATT 1 CNTCTR or BATT 2 CNTCTR annunciator illuminates it indicates that the respective

A

battery contactor or emergency contacctor is open

83
Q

power for the EMERG-OFF-STORM switch (EMERG position) is controlled by the _____ bus bar

A

PE

84
Q

the entry light switch is on the

A

left bulkhead sidewall

85
Q

if the NO SMKG swithc is positioned in AUTO the NO SMOKING light illuminates when:

A

the nose gear locks down during extension

86
Q

For normal operation, the EMERG lights switch on the roof panel should be positioned to

A

arm

87
Q

the _______ switch provides circuit control for the instruments, pedestal lighting, and display panels

A

LTS MASTER

88
Q

The MWS annunciator can be dimmed:

A

by pressing the face of either red MWS glareshield annunciator

89
Q

With the exception fo the DUCT OVHT look up annunciator, the arrows on the center annunciator panel flashsers signify

A

that a roof panel annunciator is illuminated

90
Q

the white annunciators indicate

A

completed operations and/or system status

91
Q

the bus bar that powers the master warning system is

A

PE

92
Q

the master warning flashing lights on the glare shield can be extinguished by

A

pressing the face of either red MWS annunciator

93
Q

to illuminate all MWS annunciators at maximum intensity

A

press the ANNUN switch

94
Q

to bypass the DIM circuit

A

position the DIM OVRD switch to OVRD

95
Q

boost pumps are located in the

A

left and right wing tanks

96
Q

when the ventral tank contains fuel, a low Vmo speed warning will sound whenever aircraft speed exceeds

A

280 kias

97
Q

the maximum lateral imbalance permitted is

A

500 punds

98
Q

with boost pumps inoperative

A

ventral tank fuel can not be transferred

99
Q

if the ventral tank is to be used in flight, it must be full, and each wing must contain more than

A

3,450 pounds of fuel

100
Q

the aircraft fuel sustem accepts a maximum refueling supply pressure of

A

50 psi

101
Q

the function of the APU is to supply

A

bleed air and DC electrical power for ground operations and in flight operations

102
Q

do not operate APU bleed air and marine engine bleed air simultaneously for longer than

A

1 minute

103
Q

normal APU shut down is accomplished by

A

depressing the red STOP button on the APU control panel

104
Q

the _____ supplies fuel for the APU

A

left main tank

105
Q

the powerplant classification on Hawker 900 XP series aircraft is:

A

single-spool turbojet

106
Q

When the aircraft is static on a standard day at sea level, each engine develops

A

4660 pounds of thrust

107
Q

the primary overspeed rpm-limiting device on the 731 series engine is the:

A

mechanical governor in FCU

108
Q

the maximum HP rotor (N2) overspeed is:

A

102% for 10 seconds

109
Q

the maximum oil pressure for power at or above idle rpm without a time limit is

A

80psi

110
Q

the maximum interturbine temperature for engine starting or relight is

A

994C

111
Q

the maximum transient oil pressure permissible is

A

100psi

112
Q

if the MWS reverser annunciator illuminates during the deploy cycle, it indicates

A

rudder bias not inhibited

113
Q

to facilitate an accurate setting of climb power:

A

CLIMB in green displayed on the MFD engine display

114
Q

the APR system is available

A

to any engine with an operative computer

115
Q

engine fire bottles are in the

A

rear equipment bay

116
Q

the exterior preflight check fo the fire extenguisher includes

A

Checking the condition of two engine discharge indicators

117
Q

the engien fire bell can be silenced

A

by pressing the BELL CANCEL switch

118
Q

which statement is true regarding discharge fo the fire bottles

A

When a visual fire warning appears, discharge SHOT 1 first. If necessary, then discharge SHOT 2.

119
Q

the following bus bar(s) provide(s) DC power for engine fire extenguisher operation:

A

PE and PS2

120
Q

a portable handheld fire extinguisher is stowed in the

A

cockpit
baggage compartment

121
Q

for a fire in the APU:

A

a switch on the APU control panel controls the firing of a separate fire exinguisher

122
Q

the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharges _____ seconds after the detection of the APU fire alarm

A

5

123
Q

The HP bleed air supplements the LF bleed air at the mixing valve when both main air valves switches are selected to OPEN and:

A

LP bleed-air pressure drops to 27 psi

124
Q

Prior to takeoff and landing, ensure that the flight deck valve and the main air valves are set to the _________ position

A

close

125
Q

This occurs when a main air valve switch si moved from the CLOSE position to the LP ON position

A

the main air valve opens, but HP air augmentation is not allowed

126
Q

the position fo the MAIN AIR VLV 1 or 2 switch in which electrical power is applied to a pressure switch is

A

OPEN

127
Q

when placed in the “open” circuit, the No. 1 MAV has a time delay of approximately _____ before it reaches the fully open position:

A

20 seconds

128
Q

the following component(s) is/are anti-iced by the use of hot bleed air

A

Engine inlet cowling

129
Q

for takeoff or landing approach in icing conditions, the following switches must be turned on:

A

ENG IGNITION, ENG ANTICE, WING/TAIL ANTICE

130
Q

the following switches provide DC power to the rudder bias heater muffs:

A

PITOT/VANE HEAT

131
Q

the following statement is/are true

A

the engien inlet cowling is heated by bleed air
with the ENG ANTICE switch energized and the computer switch in AUTO, electrical power is supplied to heating elements don’t eh P2T2 sensor
when not in icing conditions, engine anti-icing must not be used or more than 10 seconds in ambient air temperatures above 10C

132
Q

the ICE PROT look up annunciator on the MWS panel does not illuminate when

A

PITOT/VANE HEAT is on and operating normally

133
Q

the following component may fail to operate satisfactorily when the left pitot heat is inoperative

A

ADC No. 1

134
Q

the ENG 1 (or2) A/ICE annunciator (when illuminated) indicates:

A

that anit-icing air pressure is not available at sufficient pressure

135
Q

The PITOT AMPS ammeter checks amperage of:

A

the left or right pitot heating elements (as selected)

136
Q

the forward static plates are heated:

A

only when airborne

137
Q

engine anti-icing si required, the ENG ANTICE switches should be turned on:

A

before takeoff power is set

138
Q

the TKS fluid supply lasts for approximately

A

108 minutes

139
Q

the airframe anti-icing system:

A

should be primed before flight

140
Q

The following ICE PROTECTION switches shall always be switched on before takeoff and remain on throughout the flight:

A

PITOT/VANE HEAT and SCREEN HEAT

141
Q

which component in the air conditioning system determines the temperature of the air after entering the water separator

A

low-limit temperature control

142
Q

the duct temperature limiter senses a duct temperature of 116C:

A

the limiter illuminates the DUCT oVHT look up annunciator and automatically gives reduction in duct temperature

143
Q

in delivery air temperature is controlled by operation of the:

A

Cabin temperature control valve

144
Q

a pressure switch downstream of the PRSOV protects the ACM from overspeed if pressure rises above

A

40 psi

145
Q

when too much air pressure is present, the 40-psi pressure switch protects the ACM from overspeed by closing:

A

the No. 2 main air vlave

146
Q

the switch that controls the auxiliary heating valve to provide additional heating to the cockpit is the:

A

F/DK VLV switch

147
Q

the ______ bus powers the CABIN TEMP-MANUAL mode

A

PE

148
Q

the pressurization system is capable fo maintaining a cabin altitude of 7,500 feet when the airplane altitude is

A

41,000 feet

149
Q

the pressurization system can maintain a maximum cabin differential pressure of

A

8.55 psi

150
Q

the maximum allowable negatice cabin differential pressure is

A

-.5 psi

151
Q

the fan-operated ventrui will provide suction to open:

A

both outflow valves

152
Q

with the CABIN HIGH DATUM not selected the CABIN ALTITUDE warning annunciator illuminates and the warning horn sounds at __________________

A

9,300 +/- 300

153
Q

if one hydraulic engine-driven pump fails:

A

the hydraulic pressure indicator will display 3,000psi, and the applicable low-pressure annunciator will illuminate

154
Q

if both hydraulic engine-driven pumps fail:

A

indicated pressure is 2,300psi, and both low-pressure annunciators are illuminated

155
Q

the main hydraulic reservoir is pressurized to prevent:

A

pump cavitation

156
Q

the first step in operating the auxiliary hydraulic system is to:

A

pull the AUX HYD SYSTEM lever

157
Q

the purpose of the pressure-maintaining valve in the main hydraulic system is:

A

to maintain 2,399 psi in the main accumulator for normal brake operation

158
Q

if one hydraulic engine-driven pump fails:

A

the remaining pump is capable fo actuating all subsystems

159
Q

inadvertent landing gear retraction on the ground is prevented by:

A

A solenoid-operated device engaging the selector lever.

160
Q

when all landing gear are up and locked, position indications are:

A

no green or red annunciators illuminated

161
Q

the main landing gear inboard doors are closed

A

when the gear is in either the extended with the auxiliary system

162
Q

the landing gear warning horn will sound when:

A

the gear is not locked down with flaps selected to 25
the gear is not locked down with either power lever between 60% and 70% N1, and airspeed is below 150 knots
the gear is down and locked, the LANDING GEAR lever is not selected down, and start power is selected

163
Q

an indication of landing gear down and locked (3 green annunciators) accompanied by 3 red annunciators indicates:

A

the LANDING GEAR lever is not in the down position and the landing gear is down and locked

164
Q

if the nose gear does not lock down during extension, the indication is that:

A

the red N GEAR annunciator on the panel is illuminated, and the mechanical indicator on the pedestal is not extended

165
Q

nosewheel steering with the gear retracted is prevented by:

A

a mechanically actuated hydraulic shut-off valve

166
Q

The EMERG (or EMERG) BRK LO PRESS annunciator illuminates

A

When emergency brake accumulator pressure drops to 2,250 psi and below

167
Q

Antiskid protection is available:

A

when braking is from the normal system

168
Q

In order to select emergency brakes, the WHEEL BRAKE lever must be positioned:

A

to the first aft notch marked in red

169
Q

the elevator trim tabs can be actuated:

A

mechanically and electrically

170
Q

the purpose of the rudder bias system is:

A

to automatically counteract asymmetrical thrust due to engine failure

171
Q

if takeoff is attempted with the aileron/elevator gust lock engaged:

A

only one throttle can be advanced to full power

172
Q

the guard is removed from a pitch trim switch

A

during testing, to ascertain the trimming cannot be accomplished with one element of the switch

173
Q

the flight control surfaces that are hydraulically actuated are:

A

flaps and airbrakes

174
Q

asymmetrical flap operation is prevented by:

A

A synchronizing cable arrangement that isolates the hydraulic supply to the flap motor, stopping the flaps

175
Q

the purpose of lift dump is:

A

to increase drag and decrease lift on the ground

176
Q

stall warning is provided by:

A

the stick shaker

177
Q

stall identification is provided by:

A

the stick pusher

178
Q

in the stall warning and identification system:

A

Flap position is integrated with angle-of-attack signals to determine critical angle of attack of the wing

179
Q

inadvertent stick pusher operation can be prevented by inhibiting

A

both channel 1 and channel 2 at the same time

180
Q

the RUDDER BIAS annunciator extinguishes when:

A

Both RUDDER BIAS switches are on

181
Q

engine indications are normally displayed on the:

A

pilot MFD

182
Q

aircraft attitude and dynamic flight data are normally displayed on the:

A

pilot mfd

183
Q

if one of the AFDs becomes unusable due to a failure, the same display can be moved to a different display unit by using the controls on the:

A

reversionary control panel

184
Q

which of the following is not a lateral ode of flight guidance system

A

flight level change

185
Q

RA MIN, BARO MIN, and V-speeds can be set manually in the ______ menu pages on the PFD

A

REFS

186
Q

the display control panels are located

A

Above the PFD and MFD

187
Q

If a PFD failure were to occur:

A

Power down the failed PFD by pushing the MFD REV switch. A composite PFD/MFD format will display on the MFD

AT354 (9 decks)

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