Final Flashcards

1
Q

30% of COVID patients experience long lasting effects that do NOT include

A

anaphylaxis

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2
Q

mask most effective for personal protection and droplet source control

A

N95

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3
Q

a well fitted surgical mask is more effective at protecting others than it is as personal protection

A

true

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4
Q

what activity spreads respiratory droplets over the greatest area

A

singing

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5
Q

if a pathology reports states that tumor cells are well differentiated, this means the tumor..

A

has a low grade

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6
Q

malignant form of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma

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7
Q

a benign tumor

A

lipoma

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8
Q

the tumor suppressor protein pRb that is often mutated in cases of retinoblastoma normally functions to

A

bind and inhibit transcription factors that promote the cell cycle

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9
Q

what is a malignant cancer of glandular origin

A

adrenocarcinoma

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10
Q

what is NOT a carcinogen

A

large amounts of vitamin C

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11
Q

largest secondary lymphoid organ that is largely responsible for the removal of aged erythrocytes

A

spleen

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12
Q

major physiological consequence of anemia

A

tissue hypoxia

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13
Q

form of anemia most closely associated w dietary iron deficiency

A

microcyctic and hypochromatic

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14
Q

NOT accurate statement about human blood

A

all human blood cells fit into one of two categories: erythrocytes or lymphocytes

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15
Q

erythrocytes

A

are derived from stem cells found in the bone marrow of adults

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16
Q

thrombocytes

A

formed elements of the blood that are not considered cells, but disk shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting

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17
Q

albumin

A

most abundant plasma protein, largely accounting for the plasma oncotic pressure

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18
Q

least likely symptom to result from anemia

A

liver cirrhosis

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19
Q

least likely to cause jaundice

A

iron deficiency

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20
Q

platelets participate in hemostasis by

A

aggregating to form a plug (thereby preventing petechial hemorrhages)

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21
Q

erythropoiesis is most directly stimulated by

A

erythropoetin

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22
Q

dehydration is most closely associated with

A

relative polycythemia

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23
Q

what causes increased affinity for oxygen or a shift to the left of the curve

A

alkalosis

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24
Q

distinguishing characteristics of veins include

A

all veins carry blood toward the heart

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25
Q

false statement about vasculature

A

gas exchange between blood and tissue fluid occurs primarily across the walls of veins

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26
Q

false statement about blood vessel structure

A

arterioles, capillaries, and veins all have valves that allow only one way flow of blood

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27
Q

what most accurately descsribes blood pressure

A

BP= CO x SVR

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28
Q

capillary permeability is greatest in the

A

fenestrated capillaries of an endocrine gland

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29
Q

blood pressure is generally highest in the

A

aorta

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30
Q

least accurate statement concerning human arteries

A

arteries always transport oxygenated blood

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31
Q

what will NOT result in edema

A

elevated plasma protein concentrations

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32
Q

flow through a blood vessel is primarily regulated by alteration of its

A

radius

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33
Q

thrombus in the arterial system is most likely to produce

A

ischemia

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34
Q

oxygenated blood flows through the

A

pulmonary veins

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35
Q

what makes up the tunica intima

A

the layer of endothelial cells

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36
Q

a local state in which cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply is defined as

A

ischemia

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37
Q

which elevated value is most closely associated with the development of atherosclerosis

A

low density lipoproteins

38
Q

dissecting saccular aneurysm

A
39
Q

what pathology is most closely associated with the combined vasoconstrictive effects of nicotine and testosterone

A

thromboangititis obliterans

40
Q

what pathology is most closely associated with bronchogenic carcinoma or goiter

A

superior vena cava syndrome

41
Q

the pacemaker of the heart is normally the

A

sinoatrial node

42
Q

severe pericardial effusion increasing the pressure of the pericardial fluid may cause

A

cardiac tamponade

43
Q

main objective when treating CAD with angioplasty or bypass surgery are to

A

reduce myocardial ischemia

44
Q

the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood and contract because the

A

increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close

45
Q

the hallmark of what form of cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum and left ventricular myocardium

A

hypertrophic

46
Q

the function of a fetal opening between the left and right atria is that it allows

A

right to left shunting

47
Q

What is a characteristic of upper motor neurons?

A

They influence and modify spinal reflex arcs.

48
Q

Diabetes is associated with micro- and macrovascular complications that include

A

coronary artery disease

49
Q

A patient is diagnosed with agnosia after a stroke. A nurse should understand that this patient:

A

will not recognize familiar objects

50
Q

Elaboration of thought and goal-oriented behavior are functions of the _____ area of the brain.

A

prefrontal

51
Q

Hormone release is regulated by

A

chemical factors influencing feedback loops

52
Q

neoplasticity means that

A

The brain can partially adapt to the damage caused by a stroke by making new connections between the neurons that survive.

53
Q

Graves disease is caused by an

A

autoimmune response

54
Q

_____ pathways carry sensory information toward the central nervous system (CNS)

A

ascending

55
Q

In a person with diabetes, exercise:

A

lowers triglycerides

56
Q

Which tissue does NOT require insulin signaling for glucose uptake

A

brain

57
Q

Clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism

A

Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

58
Q

Overproduction of gels by fibroblasts in connective tissue due to hypothyroidism is known as:

A

myxedema

59
Q

A type II hypersensitivity disorder that results in excess production of thyroid hormone is known as:

A

Graves disease

60
Q

The region of the pancreas that contains the endocrine cells is:

A

islets of langerhans

61
Q

Which of the following is true of Parkinson’s disease?

A

it is a degenerative disease of the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra

62
Q

Which of the following statements about the blood-brain barrier (BBB) are false?

A

The BBB is produced by projections of glial cells known as ependymal cells

63
Q

Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located:

A

inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm

64
Q

Which of the following neurologic disorders are best characterized by cortical nerve cell processes that have become twisted and tangled as well as beta-amyloid plaques outside of neurons?

A

Alzheimer disease

65
Q

Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in the:

A

basal ganglia

66
Q

Hitting your thumb with a hammer will allow you to experience rapid and sharp _______ pain.

A

nociceptive

67
Q

Inflammation, oligodendrocyte injury, demyelination, and axonal degeneration characterize:

A

multiple sclerosis

68
Q

Which of the following meninges closely adhere to the surface of the brain and spinal cord and follow sulci and fissures?

A

pia mater

69
Q

Insulin is an example of a(n):

A

peptide hormone

70
Q

A person with a fractured femur only reports severe pain in the leg even though there are other serious injuries. The experienced health care provider recognizes that:

A

this is due to perceptual dominance

71
Q

Which of the following are NOT hormones produced by the thyroid gland?

A

aldosterone

72
Q

Pain _____ is the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding.

A

tolerance

73
Q

Chemical synapses between neurons can send messages in both directions.

A

false

74
Q

The cells which produce insulin are

A

beta cells

75
Q

Which of the following statements about axon myelination is FALSE?

A

all animals have myelinated axons

76
Q

Which of the following types of cells is considered to be glial?

A

oligodendrocytes

77
Q

Seizures are initiated by:

A

hypersynchronization and bursts of action potentials

78
Q

calcitonin

A

reduces serum calcium concentration

79
Q

What type of post-synaptic potential does acetylcholine generate on target cells?

A

It depends on the type of receptor to which it binds

80
Q

Following a stroke, a man has been diagnosed with hemiparesis. Which of the following best describe this man’s condition?

A

weakness on one side of the body

81
Q

Depolarization of neuronal axons occurs when:

A

voltage-regulated Na+ channels open and Na+ rapidly floods into the cell

82
Q

neurotransmitters

A

diffuse across the synaptic cleft and act on postsynaptic receptors.

83
Q

the subarachnoid space

A

contains cerebrospinal fluid

84
Q

Unlike polypeptide hormones, steroid hormones:

A

Are more likely to have an associated receptor in the cytosol or nucleus

85
Q

Which of the following neurologic disorders is LEAST likely to be associated with intellectual disability / dementia?

A

Parkinson’s disease

86
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately summarize “Wallerian degeneration?”

A

When a neuron is cut or otherwise damaged the part of the axon distal (farther from the soma) degenerates because it is cut off from the nucleus.

87
Q

steroid hormones bind to

A

intracellular receptors

88
Q

A person with diabetes arrives at the emergency department after an abrupt decrease in level of consciousness. The person has tachycardia, diaphoresis, irritability, tremors, and confusion. The nurse suspects the person has:

A

hypoglycemia

89
Q

Which of the following patients are fully aware of their surroundings but are unable to vocally respond?

A

a patient with “locked in” syndrome

90
Q

Which of the following terms are most closely associated with a defect in planned movement?

A

apraxia

91
Q

An enzyme commonly found in cellular signal transduction pathways that phosphorylates targets proteins is:

A

kinase