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Diseases and Determinants > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What does a visual diagram or a socioecological model look like? Draw one that has the following levels: biological, behavioral, social environment, physical environment.

A

Draw

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2
Q

What are Professor Elder’s 4 tenets of a life course perspective? (Hint: E, T/T, R, C/A)
A

A
  1. life events
  2. timing/transitions
  3. relationships
  4. choices/agency
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3
Q

What does “linked lives” mean?

A

The events, changes, and developments in each of our lives affect the people within our social-network.

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4
Q

What does “stress proliferation” mean?

A

Often experiencing any one kind of stress is accompanied by the onset of many others
Describe a brief example you make up of stress proliferation or the role of stress proliferation in explaining a health-related phenomenon.

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5
Q

In the Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB), what single factor is the primary predictor of behavior? (Hint: I)

A

Intention

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6
Q

In the TPB, what are the three factors that together influence intention? (Hint: A, SN, PC)

A

attitude
subjective norm
perceived control

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7
Q

Attitude is a function of “behavioral belief” and “evaluation of behavioral outcome”
Define behavioral belief
Define evaluation of behavioral outcome
Explain how those two together determine attitude

A

Behavioral belief: An individual’s belief about the consequence of a behavior
Evaluation of behavioral outcome: How much value the consequence of doing a certain behavior holds for an individual.

Together: What outcome they interpret and whether or not they want that predicted outcome will greatly influence their attitude towards participating in the behavior

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8
Q

Subjective norm is a function of “normative belief” and “motivation to comply”
Define normative belief
Define motivation to comply
Explain how those two together determine subjective norm

A

Normative Belief: The perceived desires/opinions of a person’s close social circle as to whether or not they should do a certain behavior.
Motivation to comply: Whether or not an individual will act based on the perceived desires and opinions of those close to them about a certain behavior.

Together: Normative belief will greatly /not at all/or negatively influence whether or not a person completes a behavior based on their motivation to comply.

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9
Q

Perceived control is a function of “control belief” and “perceived power”
Define control belief
Define perceived power
Explain how those two together determine perceived control

A

Control Belief: An individuals beliefs about the obstacles that will prohibit them from completing a certain behavior.
Perceived Power: An individuals beliefs about whether or not they are capable of overcoming the obstacles and completing the behavior.

Together: The obstacles a person perceives and their perceived self strength to overcome or not overcome these obstacles will affect whether or not they participate in a behavior.

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10
Q

What is primordial prevention?

A

preventing development of or getting rid of causal factors for disease
(in people that are free of risk factors)

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11
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Preventing the occurrence of disease, a single intention can prevent multiple diseases
ex: health promotion/education, encouraging healthy practices
(people who may or may not have risk factors)

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12
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Identifying the disease at an early stage to minimize suffering. long-term effects, and chance of early death
before the patient is symptomatic
ex: screening
(people who are not known to have the disease and are presumably healthy)

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13
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Medical care/treatment for a diagnosed disease aimed at preventing long term consequences, death, or reduced quality of life
(in people who have the disease at various degrees of severity

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14
Q

What is quaternary prevention?

A

Preventing harm caused by medical care
ex: overmedication, overdiagnoses, uneccessary surgeries
(people who have the disease and are being treated)

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15
Q

😃 If I present a brief example of a particular prevention effort, be able to …
Classify its level
Explain why you classified it as such

A

practice

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16
Q

Prevalence

A

Number of people who have the disease at a certain point in time
Prevalence = existing cases / total population of interest (or at risk)

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17
Q

Incidence

A

Number of new cases of the disease at a point in time.
Incidence = new cases / total population of interest (or at risk) minus existing cases

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18
Q

Mortality

A

Number of deaths from a disease
Mortality = new deaths / total population of interest (or at risk)

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19
Q

Years of Life Lost (YLLs) - also called Years of Potential Life Lost (YPLLs)

A

Years of life lost because of premature death. Remaining life expectancy is predicted and then the number of years lost is calculated.
YLLs = mortality × average remaining life expectancy

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20
Q

Years Lived with Disability (YLDs)

A

Years of life lived with disability combined with the decided disability weight of that disability helps us determine the years of life this disability deprived an individual of.
YLDs = prevalence × disability weight

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21
Q

Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALYs)

A

YLL+YLD shows the total burden a disease or disability has on human life. Helps us understand what is most important to work towards solving/improving.
DALYS = YLLs + YLDs

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22
Q

If I present you with a graph or chart or table of health-related data, be able to …
Describe a pattern based on personal characteristics, such as differences by age, sex/gender, race/ethnicity, or other demographic identifiers
Describe a pattern based on place, such as differences by geographic location, state, country, urban/rural, etc
Describe a pattern based on time, such as increases or decreases over calendar time, seasonal cycles, etc

A

practice

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23
Q

Gene

A

sequence of DNA within a chromosome that is unique to each individual living thing.

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24
Q

Genome

A

all of the genes in the single cells of an organism.

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25
Q

Genetics

A

is the study and analysis of one singular gene.

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26
Q

Genomics

A

is the study of how all of the genes interact with and influence one another to
understand their composition and purpose.

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27
Q

Microbe

A

any microorganism

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28
Q

Bacteria

A

a single celled organism that can survive on its own. Unique in structure.

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29
Q

Fungi

A

organism that produces spores and feeds on organic material.

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30
Q

Protozoa

A

similar to bacteria in every way except that their cell structure more closely resembles
plants and animals.

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31
Q

Virus

A

Virus: Microbes that hold a small piece of DNA or RNA and infect a living host in order to survive
and replicate.

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32
Q

Microbiome (human microbiome)

A

the human body’s collection of microorganisms that are mostly involved in immune and digestive system functions.

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33
Q

Vertical transmission (of microbes from person to person)

A

from mother to baby during development, birth, and feeding

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34
Q

Horizontal transmission (of microbes from person to person)

A

from person to person through touch air liquid, etc.

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35
Q

What characterizes a “lifestyle” behavior, as opposed to other behaviors that would not be considered “lifestyle” behaviors?

A

Lifestyle behaviors are regularly repeated, planned, sustained patterns of complex behaviors long term or short term.
not lifestyle: smoking a cigarette for the first time
lifestyle: brushing your teeth every day

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36
Q

What are the six common pollutants known as “criteria air pollutants?”

A

Lead, CO, Ozone, NOx, SOx, Particulate Matter

37
Q

With regard to air pollution, what is an “attainment” area? What is a “nonattainment” area?

A

An attainment area is an area where the air is cleaner than the EPA air pollution limits while a
non-attainment area is an area where the air is too polluted to meet the EPA limits.

38
Q

Water Quality:

A

The nature and properties of a water that make it acceptable or unacceptable for its intended purpose.

39
Q

Water Pollution:

A

A change in water quality that negatively affects the living organisms that live in and use this water.

40
Q

Definition of “sanitation” that refers specifically to human waste (do not use vague definitions that omit reference to human waste)

A

Sanitation: For a household, … provision and ongoing operation and maintenance of a safe and easily accessible means of disposing of human excreta, garbage, and wastewater, and providing an effective barrier against waste-related and waterborne diseases.

41
Q

Definition of “hygiene” that refers specifically to germs/pathogens (do not use vague definitions that omit reference to germs/pathogens)

A

Hygiene: to interrupt the pathway by which infectious organisms are transferred from one person or animal to a second person or animal.

42
Q

EPA classifications/categories of hazardous waste
By properties of hazardous material
By source of hazardous material

A

How do we know if a waste is ignitable?
Flashpoint of less than 140 degrees fahrenheit, flammable through friction or chemical reaction under normal temp and pressure, burns vigorously and uncontrollably creating a hazard, ignitable compressed gas, classified as an oxidizer.
How do we know if a waste is corrosive?
“an aqueous waste with a pH equal to or less than 2.0 or greater than 12.5, or a liquid that will corrode carbon steel at a rate greater than 0.25 inches (0.64 cm) per year”
How do we know if a waste is reactive?
a substance which is normally unstable and undergoes violent physical or chemical change without being detonated; a substance that reacts violently with water (for example, sodium metal); a substance that forms a potentially explosive mixture when mixed with water; a substance that can generate harmful gases, vapors, or fumes when mixed with water; a cyanide- or sulfide-bearing waste that can generate harmful gases, vapors, or fumes when exposed to pH conditions between 2.0 and 12.5; a waste that, when subjected to a strong initiating source or when heated in confinement, will detonate or generate an explosive reaction; a substance that is readily capable of detonation at standard temperature and pressure.”
How do we know if a waste is toxic?
“has the properties such that an aqueous extract contains contamination in excess of that allowed (e.g., arsenic greater than 5 milligrams per liter, barium greater than 0.1 milligrams per liter, cadmium greater than 1 milligrams per liter, chromium greater than 5 milligrams per liter, lead greater than 5 milligrams per liter). Additional codes under toxicity include an acute hazardous waste with code H, a substance that has been found to be fatal to humans in low doses or has been found to be fatal in corresponding human concentrations in laboratory animals. Toxic waste (hazard code T) designates wastes that have been found through laboratory studies to be carcinogenic, mutagenic, or teratogenic to humans or other life forms.”

43
Q

What are the 5 processes involved in monitored natural attenuation?

A

Biodegradation occurs when very small
organisms, known as “microbes,” eat contaminants
and change them into small amounts of water
and gases during digestion. Microbes live in
soil and groundwater and some microbes use
contaminants for food and energy. (A Citizen’s
Guide to Bioremediation [EPA 542-F-12-003]
describes how microbes work.)
* Sorption causes contaminants to stick to
soil particles. Sorption does not destroy the
contaminants, but it keeps them from moving
deeper underground or from leaving the site with
groundwater flow.
* Dilution decreases the concentrations of
contaminants as they move through and mix with
clean groundwater.
* Evaporation causes some contaminants, like
gasoline and industrial solvents, to change from
liquids to gases within the soil. If these gases
escape to the air at the ground surface, air will
dilute them and sunlight may destroy them.
* Chemical reactions with natural substances
underground may convert contaminants into
less harmful forms. For example, in low-oxygen
environments underground, the highly toxic
“chromium 6” can be converted to a much less
toxic and mobile form called “chromium 3” when
it reacts with naturally occurring iron and water.

44
Q

What is the purpose of each organization – NIEHS, NIOSH, OSHA – which are “research” institutes and which is a “regulatory” agency?

A

NIOSH National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health
to serve as the research arm for occupational health within the US government.
Does/supports research for occupational safety standards and then implements the learned conclusions from their research into health standards in the workplace. Provides their website which has information on all occupational health risks, including their dangers and how to best handle them.
OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration
to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Americans by establishing and enforcing standards for good health and safety and to provide education, training, and assistance for workers and their employers.
Issues public standards for work health and safety and provides education and assistance to employees so they can be safer in their work environments.

NIEHS seeks to invest in the future of environmental health science by increasing awareness of the link between the environment and human health. Our website provides educators, students and scientists access to reliable tools, resources and classroom materials.

45
Q

What are 4 ways to reduce construction workers’ inhalation of respirable silica? (Hint, 3 of these are characteristics of the tools/vehicles workers use; the other 1 is something a worker wears)

A

Using water to wet down dust so it doesn’t spread in the air. Using vacuums at the point of dust formation to suck up the dust before it can be breathed in. Using PPE.
1 more find OUT

46
Q

Infectious disease:

A

Reduced health or illness caused by an external pathogen
Contagious Disease: Infectious diseases that are transmissible

47
Q

Outbreak:

A

more than expected new cases of a disease during a time period at a specific location.

48
Q

Epidemic:

A

is a period of time with a higher than expected incidence rate, but over a broader geographic region

49
Q

Pandemic:

A

is an epidemic where the disease is being actively transmitted on multiple continents.

50
Q

Endemic:
.

A

a region where there is a persistent baseline incidence rate.

51
Q

Eliminated:

A

a disease was endemic to a certain location, but no longer is, that disease has been

52
Q

Eradicated:

A

a disease is eliminated in every country in the world, then the disease is considered

53
Q

Incubation Period:

A

Time between exposure and showing symptoms where the pathogen is reproducing.

54
Q

Latency Period:

A

if the pathogen is not reproducing then this is called a latency period.

55
Q

Agent:

A

an infectious pathogen that spreads through direct contact, droplets, or contact with contaminated objects. Most can survive without a host organism, but their goal is to infect a host before they die and reproduce. Stopping them from getting a host while they are alive greatly reduces incidence of disease.

56
Q

Host:

A

When agents infect, the host has an immune response to protect itself. We receive antibodies from our mothers and then throughout our lives as we come in contact with different pathogens that aid in our immune response.

57
Q

Environment:

A

For any given pathogenic organism the range of tolerable environmental conditions may be wide or narrow. Any epidemic model of a specific disease must allow for these variations of the causative organism

58
Q

Ecology

A

Ecology is defined as the “study of factors influencing the abundance and distribution of organisms.” For
infections in public health, the organisms whose ecology we are interested in are pathogens. Disease
ecology includes disease dynamics (changes in rates over time and location) as well as more general
interactions between pathogens and their environments and hosts

59
Q

Networks – difference between a random network and a scale-free network (which is more realistic for human societies?)

A

A random network is exactly what it sounds like: a lot of people/things randomly connected to each
other with no rhyme or reason. A scale-free network1is where some nodes are
more highly connected than others (called hubs, colored gray in figure b, below). Human networks are scale-free. Random
networks are more hypothetical than real.

60
Q

Dynamics

A

how we describe infectious disease’ movements, patterns and behaviors over time and
geography.

61
Q

Herd Immunity

A

The ability of an agent to survive and infect many hosts in an environment depends on how well it can be transferred within that environment. When most of the hosts in the environment have a built up immunity to the agent it has less of a chance of successfully spreading and infecting members of the population.

62
Q

What are the fundamental modes of infectious disease transmission? (Be able to list 9 that were mentioned in the reading and describe what each one means in your own words)

A

airborne (respiratory droplets), water-borne, fecal-oral
(ingesting microscopic amounts of contaminated fecal matter), vector-borne (carried by non-host
species to host), fomite (touching surface, object or person), perinatal (mother to child), food-borne,
animal bites and sexual.

63
Q

What do the symbols S, I, and R stand for in the SIR model?

A

susceptible
infectious
recovered

64
Q

What do the symbols c, β (beta), λ (lambda), γ (gamma), and D stand for in calculations pertaining to the SIR model
Give a word or short phrase for each symbol

A

β = probability that a contact with an infectious person results in someone becoming infected, represented as P(infectious|contact) (you would say “the probability of becoming infectious, given that someone was contacted” if reading that notation)
γ= rate of recovery, the average duration is the reciprocal. (e.g. if each day 20% recover, then the reciprocal is 1/0.2 = 5. So the average time that someone is infectious is 5 days

65
Q

R0 – for now, just recognize that R0 = c × β / γ or R0 = c × β × D (because D = 1 / γ)

A

write equation

66
Q

R0, the “basic reproductive number,” is the number of … what?

A

the number of new cases likely stemming from one infectious case
This is the number of infected individuals one person is expected to infect while they are infectious

67
Q

For each of the following interventions …
Would the intervention reduce contacts (c)? Why/how?
Would the intervention reduce transmissibility (β)? Why/how?
Would the intervention increase recovery rate (γ)? Why/how?
Interventions to consider …
Handwashing
Staying at home if symptomatic
Vaccinations for people who have not been infected
Becoming partially immune against a repeat infection after recovering from initial infection
Mask-wearing
Physical distancing
Treatments for people who are infected

A

Practice

68
Q

What is the full name and acronym of the pathogen that causes AIDS? Is this pathogen a virus, bacteria, or parasite?

A

HIV Human immunodeficiency virus
AIDS Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
- virus

69
Q

List 4 common modes of transmission of HIV infection.

A

blood, bodily fluids, sexual contact, dirty needles

70
Q

What happens to the CD4 cell level in the blood during the acute, chronic, and AIDS stages of HIV infection? (In other words, describe how the level goes up or down over time; assume that level of CD4 cells is high in an uninfected person)

A

CD4 cells are reduced precipitously in acute HIV infection, but usually rebound in the blood over several weeks as HIV-specific CD8 T cells help to lower plasma viremia [7]. In the untreated patient, CD4 T cells subsequently decline over several years.
A CD4 count of 200 or fewer cells per cubic millimeter

71
Q

What happens to HIV viral load level in the blood during the acute, chronic, and AIDS stages of HIV infection? (In other words, describe how the level goes up or down over time; assume that level of HIV virus is zero in an uninfected person)

A

In the acute stage of infection, HIV multiplies rapidly and spreads throughout the body.
Chronice: HIV continues to multiply in the body but at very low levels.
People with AIDS can have a high viral load and may easily transmit HIV to others.

72
Q

What is the full name and acronym of the pathogen that causes malaria? Is this pathogen a virus, bacteria, or parasite?

A

Plasmodium falciparum
parasite

73
Q

List common modes of transmission of malaria infection.

A

Mosquitoes specifically: infected female Anopheles mosquitoes
also blood transfusion, organ transplant, or the shared use of needles or syringes contaminated with blood. Congenital:Malaria may also be transmitted from a mother to her unborn infant before or during delivery. Airplane transmission through bringing mosquitos on planes to different areas.

74
Q

Where does the Plasmodium parasite live in humans and in mosquitoes? Be able to briefly explain the pathway the parasite travels through its entire life cycle, including locations in human and mosquito in correct order.

A

humans: in liver and red blood cells
mosquito: gut and salivary glands
Life Cycle draw out in notes

75
Q

What is the full name and acronym of the pathogen that causes tuberculosis? Is this pathogen a virus, bacteria, or parasite?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Bacterium

76
Q

List common modes of transmission of TB infection.

A

Through the air
blood?

77
Q

Where in the human body do the tuberculosis bacteria usually live?

A

Alveolar macrophages

78
Q

What does the term “ischemic” in “ischemic heart disease” mean? (Note that ischemic heart disease is often used synonymously with coronary heart disease)

A

ishcemia: blood flow is reduced/restricted to a part of the body
Ischemia: Lack of blood supply (to the heart muscle)

79
Q

What does the term “infarction” mean? (Note it does not mean the same thing as ischemia, but it is related to ischemic; how so?)

A

infarction: blood flow stops to an area of the body
Infarction: Death of heart muscle cells/tissue (which happens because of severe or long-lasting ischemia)

80
Q

List 7 modifiable factors that are used to define cardiovascular health, and the cutoff level for each that indicates “ideal” level of health (see slides)

A
  1. Non-smoking
  2. Healthy diet (4 of 5 components)
  3. Physical activity (150 min/wk moderate or 75 min/wk vigorous)
  4. Body mass index (<25 kg/m2)
  5. Blood pressure (<120/80 mmHg)
  6. Blood sugar (<100 mg/dL)
  7. Blood cholesterol (<200 mg/dL)
81
Q

Be able to list some specific explanations for why death due to cardiovascular disease has declined over the past 50+ years (see slides; consider explanations based on risk factor reduction and explanations based on treatment improvement)

A

Slides

82
Q

What is the normal function of insulin in a healthy person, in relation to glucose in the blood?

A

Insulin allows the cells in the muscles, fat and liver to absorb glucose that is in the blood.

83
Q

What problem is occurring with insulin in type 1 diabetes?

A

Type 1 - pancreas no longer secretes insulin, so we have insulin deficiency

84
Q

What problem is occurring with insulin in type 2 diabetes?

A

Type 2 - body’s tissues are no longer responding to insulin signal, so we have insulin resistance (and eventually we also get insulin deficiency as the pancreas wears out from over-producing insulin)

85
Q

What are the three main large body tissue types that respond to insulin, and can become insulin resistant, leading to type 2 diabetes?

A
  1. Liver
  2. Fat
  3. Muscle (skeletal muscle)
86
Q

What are the three commonly-used blood tests for diabetes, and what is the cutoff level for each (the number) that indicates a person has diabetes, and the cutoff for prediabetes? (see slides)

A
  1. A1C (also called hemoglobin A1C or glycosylated hemoglobin); cutoff for diagnosing diabetes is >6.5%
  2. Fasting plasma glucose; cutoff for diagnosing diabetes is >126 mg/dL
  3. Oral glucose tolerance test; cutoff for diagnosing diabetes is >200 mg/dL
87
Q

What does “malignant neoplasm” mean? What does “benign neoplasm” mean?

A

MBenign neoplasms stay localized in one place; malignant neoplasms invade surrounding tissue and, in most cases, can metastasize to distant organs.

88
Q

List 4 characteristics of tumors that can be used to tell whether a tumor is malignant or benign.

A

M check slides

89
Q

What are the 5 most commonly diagnosed (highest incidence) cancers in the US population? What are the 5 most common types of cancer people die of (highest mortality) in the US population?

A

slides
Incidence: Breast, lung and bronchus, prostate, and colorectal cancers
Common
Mortality: Lung and bronchus, colorectal, pancreatic, and breast cancers

Diseases and Determinants (11 decks)

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