Final Flashcards

1
Q

It is February and your cow/calf pairs are housed in a barn that is closed up to prevent snow and rain from getting in and of course it is warmer than if they were outside. However, several of the calves have been treated for early stages of pneumonia. What non medical actions can be done to help prevent additional calves from getting sick and requiring treatment?

A

You can make sure the barn has proper ventilation, without there being a draft. You also should make sure the calves are getting additional nutrition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What behavorial activity of the cow, shortly after giving birth, is considered essential to establish the maternal bond between cow and the newborn calf?

A

She needs to start by seeing the calf. She should also smell and taste the calf so she can recognize it. These stimulants will cause oxytocin to be released, which drives the maternal behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First calf heifers are often times poor mothers, neglecting or even abandoning their calves shortly after birthing them. What are two contributing factors for these heifers that can lead to rejecting or abandoning their calf after birth?

A

One is that there was not enough oxytocin released during parturition. Oxytocin influences that maternal behavior.
Another factor is that the heifer may not know what is going on, causing her to reject the calf and not recognize it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A calf has scours. What would be the viral cause? What is the most effective preventative of this type of scours in a very young calf?

A

BVD
The bets way to prevent this is to make sure the calf is in a clean environment. Another way to prevent is by vaccinate the cow before calving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pneumonia can be caused by several viral organisms. Name two of the most common viral organisms that can cause respiratory diseases in cattle.

A

PI3 and BRSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

It is recommended to vaccinate a pregnant cow 3-4 weeks prepartum, for diseases which her newborn calf might be vulnerable for infection. What is the reasoning for the timing of 3-4 weeks before calving?

A

At 3-4 weeks, there is a sufficient concentration of antibodies that can be passed to the calf from the colostrum when it nurses. This will help the calf build immunity to disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Your herd has been diagnosed with an aggressive outbreak of Salmonella scours in the young calves. What would be the most immediate and effective preventative that you could use in the calves born during the next couple of weeks. For a longer term prevention, an effective method would be what?

A

Long term prevention would be to vaccinate the cows before calving. The immediate prevention would be to give the cows and calves antibotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You are on a barn check this evening and you notice a cow that has separated herself from the rest of the herd. As you continue to watch the cow you notice that she seems uncomfortable and there might even be a small string of mucus starting to leak from her vulva.
a. are you observing a cow in stage 1, 2, 3 of parturition
b. What is going on internally to the cow at this stage
c. once the calf appears, you check to determine if the calf is coming in the correct position, how?
d. upon inspection, you determined the calf is coming correctly. How should the calf be presented as it proceeds normally during the process

A

a. stage 1
b. oxytocin and estrogen levels have increased and there are mild contractions that help position the calf. The increase in hormones have also caused the cervix to fully dilate
c. You palpate, being sure to use aseptic technique. You could feel the legs to determine if the front or back legs are closest to the opening
d. the head should be tucked between the two front legs, but not completely tucked towards the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You walk into the barn and see a cow in labor with only half the calf’s head visible. The calf head is swollen to twice the normal size and appears lifeless. What would be the best method to determine if the calf is alive?

A

Check the suckling refelc by putting a finger in the mouth to the back of the tongue, Could also check the blink reflex by tapping on the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common explanation for various antibiotics to be ineffective when treating certain types of pneumonia?

A

Some types of pneumonia are viral or protozoic so bacterial antibiotics would not be effective, Some broad spectrum antibiotics may also be ineffective depending on the strain on pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the 2 most important pieces of equipment used when assisting deliveries during calving season

A

OB handles and chain
calf puller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary reason for vaccinating cows at 3-4 weeks rather than 1-2 weeks prior to calving?

A

At 2 weeks there is an adequate amount of antibodies, but not enough to provide immunity to the nursing calf
at 3-4 weeks there is a sufficient concentration of antibodies that can be passed to the calf through the colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You are using a treatment product that is labeled for administration by either SQ or IM. Which method is industry preferred? Why is this method more acceptable

A

SubQ
IM injections can damage the muscle, which would have to be trimmed at slaughter. SQ injections are given in an area that is trimmed anyways, so it is preferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Several products on the market help to control flies on cattle during the summer. One group falls into the IGR type of products. What fly species does the IGR product Altosid help control? Briefly describe the mode of action of Altosid

A

horn flies
the cows ingest Altosid, it travels through the GI tract and is disposed in the manure. When the flies lay eggs in the manure, they due not hatch due to the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is meant by the term “controlled breeding season”? Why is this part of the requirements for having a successful herd health plan?

A

Controlled breeding is exposing the herd at the same time, like AI or putting a bull with cows
It is needed for a successful her health plan because calving will take place at the same time, meaning calving management will happen in the same time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Face flies spread what disease in a herd of cattle and calves during the summer month? What is in tool available to help control face flies

A

Pinkeye
Ear tag with fly insecticide to prevent flies from landing on their face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Briefly explain why an animal would produce a dark cutting beef carcass? How does proper handling of cattle in the feedlot and at the processing plant reduce the incidence of dark cutters at slaughter?

A

genetics or stress
when the animal is stress, cortisol levels rise, which causes pH to be high due to little lactic acid being stored. The dark meat is not preferred for consumers, therefor proper handling so animal isn’t stressed is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A cow herd manager is not on a regular deworming program but he does follow a strict vaccination program for his cow herd. Recently, he has had a rise in respiratory issues that he has needed to address. What is likely the relationship between his lack of deworming program and the increase in health related problems?

A

Internal and external parasites will weaken the immune system, which could make them more susceptible to `sickness and could cause health issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

There are a number of vaccines that combine a modified live, killed, and toxoid vaccine. What is a disease, discussed in class, that uses a toxoid vaccine as a prevention?

A

tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

We commonly use a variety of vaccines in our cattle herd. Why would a cattle manager use a modified live vaccine as opposed to a killed vaccine?

A

Modified live uses antigens that help give animal greater immunity, they also are stringer and fight more diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is it a problem to use expired medication when treating sick cattle?

A

It can cause serious side effects and may not work as well to fight diseases/ sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name one viral respiratory disease and describe what is the most effect means of prevention in week old calves

A

BRSV
vaccinating cow a month before calving, this will help the calf build immunity when getting colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The cattle grub is the larval form of what insect? How are cattle grubs best controlled or eliminated in a beef herd?

A

heel fly
specialized chemical that can be used before, during, or after the larvae migrate to the dorsal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when vaccinating a young calf with a combination clostridial vaccine it is recommended to vaccinate at 4-6 months of age and then again one month later. What is the purpose of the second vaccination in this protocol?

A

help build immunity by providing a booster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how are most lice and ticks controlled in today’s well managed cattle operations

A

pour-on wormer that kills them before they attach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

extending the fall grazing period in Ohio can be accomplished by using the existing pastures and grass varieties. typically, the pasture would be fertilized with nitrogen in August and allowed to sit ungrazed for several months before the cows are turned into the area. This forage management method is referred to as what? Give an example of a plant specie that works well in this type of management system

A

stockpiling
fescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

as forage plants mature you would expect digestibility to change. Would you expect the forage to increase or decrease digestibility? Explain why the digestibility changes?

A

decrease
there is more lignin in the plants which makes it harder to digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

explain the subtle differences between rotational grazing and managed intensive grazing

A

rotational- pasture is split into 4+ sections and cows graze for 5-7 days before rotating
managed intensive- cows rotate every day and requires more labor and higher forage quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

why would a cattle producer consider grazing a crop residue in the fall?

A

It would help to clean up the field and extend grazing time while also saving producer money since high quality forages can be saved for winter months

30
Q

What would be an important reason for inter-seeding clover into an orchadgrass pasture?

A

to increase the protein content of the pasturw

31
Q

what would be the twi most important nutrients that are commonly supplemented to cattle grazing a low-quality crop residue

A

protein and energy

32
Q

what is the most important legume specie that is used for grazing, hay, and hayladge production

A

alfalfa

33
Q

KY31 tall fescue is a very popular forage variety in many areas of the US. A problem with this variety is that the endophyte is common. What is one thing that can be done by a producer who’s forage base is made up of infected KY31 tall fescue, to reduce the effects of the endophyte toxins in cattle grazing?

A

dilute the pasture by adding non-infected plants

34
Q

give an example of one summer or warm season annual forage plant

A

corn

35
Q

if you were looking to convert the pastures in a continuous grazing cow/calf operation to rotational grazing program, what would be the primary cost associated with this conversation?

A

fencing

36
Q

what type of perennial grasses grow best in Ohio and the Midwest? give an example

A

cool season grass
orchadgrass

37
Q

give an example of one cool season annual. Why would you consider using a cool season annual in your forage program

A

wheat
it would help to increase the grazing period and decrease cost of forage since you will need to provide forage for a shorter amount of time

38
Q

for a beef cow, what stage of production would require the highest energy and protein levels in the diet?

A

early lactation

39
Q

what would be a reason for a beef producer to consider utilizing a rotational grazing system over a continuous grazing system

A

higher carrying capacity and higher forage quality

40
Q

one of the most popular forage grasses in the most southern states in the US is bermudagrass. What grass type would this forage be categorized into?

A

warm season perennial grass

41
Q

for the synchronization protocol above what is the progesterone source

A

CIDR-progesterone is in the wings

42
Q

what is the abbreviation for GnRh stand for?

A

gonadotrophin releasing hormone

43
Q

what is the purpose of GnRH injections in this protocol?

A

to induce ovulation because of LH surge

44
Q

what does the abbreviation PG stand for

A

prostaglandin

45
Q

What does PG do in the cow

A

regressed CL to restart the cycle

46
Q

What is a reason for measuring the pelvic diameter in a 15 month replacement heifer

A

to make sure her pelvis is wide enough to support a calf and reduce the risk of dystocia in first calf heifers

47
Q

sexing semen in a fascinating use of technology. FOr a club calf or feeder calf program producing cattle to go onto a feeding program for terminal slaughter cattle, what sex if the calves would be desired? What percentage of the calf crop will be the desired sex if all cows are bred using the same sexed semen?

A

bull calves/ males desired
sexing semen is about 90% accurate, so we would expect 90% to be male

48
Q

What is one reason a purebred operation would use artificial insemination in their breeding program?

A

To take advantage of superior genetics, the bull can compliment the cow by taking advantage of strengths and weaknesses to produce a quality calf

49
Q

You have identified a tremendous cow in your herd and would like to be able to maximize her impact in your breeding program. What reproductive tool would you use ot have the greatest impact on your cow herd from this single cow

A

collect her embryos so they can be transferred to recipient cows

50
Q

at what age should replacement heifers be bred and then at what age should those heifers calf?

A

bred at 15 months
first calf parturition at 24 months

51
Q

When using a single injection PGF2a protocol to synchronize a group of cows you would typically synchrinize about 60% of the cows, however 40% do not respond. Why don’t all of the cows come into heat after a single injection

A

PGF2a is used to regress the CL and restart the cycle, if 40% did not respond they may have not had an active CL

52
Q

You are using a heat check protocol to AI all of your cow herd properly. What is the optimum timing for insemination following the observation of standing heat

A

12 hours after standing heat is observed

53
Q

The behavioral estrus seen prior to ovulation in a cow is influenced by estradiol. Where is the estradiol originating from in the cow

A

follicles on the ovary

54
Q

What does the term super ovulation refer to in an embryo transfer protocol

A

super-ovulation is when the follicles are manipulated to produce an excess in a quality donor cow, she is then bred and her embryo are transferred to recipient cows

55
Q

what tissue produces progesterone during the normal estrus cycle in the cow?

A

CL

56
Q

GnRH is naturally produced and released form the hypothalamus. What specifically does GnRH do in the animal?

A

release LH and FSH

57
Q

what tissue produces and releases LH

A

anterior pituitary

58
Q

Semen stored in a liquid nitrogen storage tank can be stored for how long if kept full of liquid nitrogen?

A

indefinitely

59
Q

What is the white breed with dark pigmented points, originating in Italy, that was important to the US during the 70s for it’s frame size, growth, and muscling

A

Chianina

60
Q

When a trait has a heritability estimate of .25, how much will factors other than genetics play a role in the expression of the genes for that trait

A

75% of the expression will be influenced by the environment

61
Q

Why would purebreed cattle producers utilize inbreeding as part of their breeding program

A

Inbreeding can increase the homozygosity of the desired trait which will give a better chance on inheriting that trait

62
Q

Explain why for bulls with EPDs you will see some with ACC in the 90s for calving ease yet REA they have ACC in the 50s

A

Accuracy for a bull can be increased or decreased depending on how many births are reported

63
Q

Name a recessive lethal genetic disease seen in cattle

A

curly calf syndrome

64
Q

we have talked about the breeder pyramid in class on several occasions, so explain the differences in roles between elite seedstock producers and multiplier breeders in the beef cattle industry

A

elite seedstock producers are the genetic engineers
multipliers use the genetics from the elite to sell to commercial producers

65
Q

When making culling decisions in a beef herd what would be the two most common reproductive reasons for removing a cow from the herd

A

if not bred
if will calf late in the season because of late breeding

66
Q

What is the name of the historically important and popular breed in the US that originated in Greta Britain and is characterized as having a white face and tail switch and a reddish brown body. The breed has polled and horned individuals

A

Hereford

67
Q

Between a two breed and three breed rotational crossbreeding system, which would give the greatest hybrid vigor response

A

three breed

68
Q

What is the name of the red colored crossbred breed that was developed by crossing the Brahman and shorthorn breeds to eventually sustain a 3/8 Brahman x 5/8 shorthorn blend? Where specifically was this breed developed

A

Santa Gertuda
developed at King’s Ranch in Texas

69
Q

What breed of cattle currently has the most influence in the beef industry? What is the most significant attribute to this breed?

A

Angus
marbling

70
Q

Many continental European breeds were brought to the US in the 70’s. Explain the circumstances in the US for incorporating those various breeds into the base commercial cow herd

A

They were brought over because of their large frame size and were used to increase cattle size

71
Q

Explain how genetic disease becomes prevalent in a breed of cattle like the Angus breed?

A

Genetic disease can be passes from parent to offspring, in instances like line breeding, homozygosity for a genetic disease can occur which will make a genetic disease more popular in a herd