Final Flashcards
1
Q
1-C16. Which cells in your pancreas are stimulated to release insulin when your blood sugar is too high?
a. alpha cells b. T cells c. beta cells d. Langerhans cells
A
C. Beta cells
2
Q
In the PIP2-Calcium signaling mechanism, DAG activates which of the following?
a. protein kinase b. G protein c. calcium ATPase d. phospholipase
A
A. Protein kinase
3
Q
Oxytocin ________.
a. release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
b. is an anterior pituitary secretion
c. exerts its most important effects during menstruation
d. controls milk production
A
A.
4
Q
Hormones react with target cells to do which of the following?
a. activate enzymes b. deactivate enzymes c. induce secretory activity d. all of the above
A
D
5
Q
Which of the following hormones stimulates the thyroid gland?
a. TSH b. FSH c. LH d. ACTH
A
A
6
Q
Which of the following is a potent hyperglycemic agent? A. insulin B. glucagon C. proinsulin D. none of the above
A
B
7
Q
A decrease in blood pressure does not stimulate the release of which of the following? A. aldosterone B. atrial natriuretic peptide C. angiotensin II D. angiotensinogen
A
B
8
Q
As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, leading to increases in blood volume and pressure.
a. thyroid stimulating hormone
b. growth hormone
c. ACTH
d. prolactin
A
C
9
Q
Melatonin ________.
a. is produced by the parathyroid glands
b. is responsible for regulating the sleep cycle
c. triggers sexual maturation and puberty
d. is at its highest levels at around noon
A
B
10
Q
Which of the following is NOT an anterior pituitary hormone? A. FSH B. GH C. Prolactin D. ADH
A
D
11
Q
A release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) will trigger ________.
a. increased osteoblast activity
b. a reduction of calcium reabsorption in the kidney tubules
c. increased activation of vitamin D
d. a drop in blood calcium levels
A
C
12
Q
Name the leukocytes from most abundant to least.
a. neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eisonophils, basophils b. lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eisonophils, basophils c. neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, basophils, eisonophils d. basophils, eisonophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils
A
A
13
Q
The white blood cell type that releases histamine and its inflammatory chemicals is the:
a. basophil b. neutrophil c. monocyte d. eosinophil
A
A
14
Q
Blood viscosity deals with how your blood flows. Which of the following is most likely to happen to a person with a high red blood cell count?
a. His blood would be less resistant to flow. b. No changes in his blood flow. c. His blood would flow faster. d. His blood would be more resistant to flow.
A
D
15
Q
When a sample of blood in a test tube is spun in a centrifuge, what is the more heavier material left at the bottom of the tube?
a. plasma b. erythrocytes c. platelets d. leukocytes
A
B
16
Q
Which body activity would be most affected if a patient lacked an adequate number of erythrocytes (anemia)?
a. clotting
b. immune response
c. hormone transport
d. oxygen transport
A
D
17
Q
With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to eventually see a/an ________.
a. decreased white blood cell count
b. increased white blood cell count
c. decreased hematocrit
d. increased hematocrit
A
D
18
Q
What is the average normal pH range of blood?
a. 8.35-8.45
b. 7.75-7.85
c. 7.35-7.45
d. 4.65-4.75
A
C
19
Q
The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________.
a. hemoglobin A
b. hemoglobin B
c. hemoglobin F
d. hemoglobin S
A
C
20
Q
Sickle cell anemia is associated with which of the following?
a. incorrect amino acid substitution in Hb formation
b. increased rbc production
c. normal blood cell shape
d. all of the above
A
A
21
Q
If a patient with type B blood received a transfusion of AB blood, which of the following would occur?
a. The patient’s A antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood.
b. The patient’s anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the A antigens (antiglutinogens) in the donor blood.
c. The patient’s B antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood.
d. The patient’s anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the B antigens (agglutinins) in the donor blood.
A
B
22
Q
Adult hemoglobin is made up of: A. 1 alpha and 1 beta chain B. 1 alpha and 1 gamma chain C. 2 alpha and 2 beta chains D. 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains
A
C
23
Q
Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation first enters the:
a. aorta b. left atrium c. left ventricle d. right atrium
A
D
24
Q
The P wave on an ECG tracing represents:
a. atrial depolarization b. ventricular depolarization c. atrial repolarization d. ventricular repolarization
A
A
25
What is the correct term for the innermost layer of the heart wall?
a. epicardium
b. myocardium
c. endocardium
d. pericardium
C
26
Which of the following is NOT part of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
a. atrioventricular (AV) node
b. bundle branches
c. atrioventricular (AV) valve
d. sinoatrial (SA) node
C
27
Which of the following are parts of the action potential in pacemaker cells?
a. pacemaker potential
b. depolarization
c. repolarization
d. all of the above
D
28
Cardiac output is equal to:
a. HR * SV
b. HR/SV
c. HR + SV
d. HR – SV
A
29
If the mitral valve is unable to close properly, ________.
a. blood could flow back into the left atrium
b. blood could flow back into the left ventricle
c. blood could flow back into the right atrium
d. blood could flow back into the right ventricle
A
30
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
a. excitation of the sinoatrial (SA) node
b. closure of the heart valves
c. friction of blood against the chamber walls
d. opening of the heart valves
B
31
Which chambers of the heart contain oxygenated blood?
a. right and left atria
b. right and left ventricles
c. right atrium and right ventricle
d. left atrium and left ventricle
D
32
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.
a. the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
b. the heart rate would increase
c. the atrioventricular (AV) node would become the pacemaker of the heart
d. parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
C
33
Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood from the right ventricle?
a. venae cavae
b. pulmonary trunk
c. aorta
d. pulmonary veins
B
34
What part of the venous return is formed from united capillaries?
a. veins
b. varicose veins
c. venules
d. venous valves
C
35
Which of the following are associated with allowing large molecules to pass through their walls?
a. fenestrated capillaries
b. continuous capillaries
c. sinusoid capillaries
d. all of the above
C
36
What is diastolic pressure?
a. peak aortic pressure
b. lowest level of arterial pressure during relaxation
c. another term for pulse pressure
d. term for the pressure that opens heart valves
B
37
Which of the following is true about arterioles? They:
a. are smaller branches of arteries.
b. are under neural control.
c. are under hormonal control.
d. can be characterized by all of the above.
D
38
Blood flow is ________ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is ________ proportional to the total peripheral resistance.
a. inversely; directly
b. directly; inversely
c. inversely; inversely
d. directly; directly
B
39
The velocity of blood is slowest in the capillaries and the pressure of blood is lowest in the veins. Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of the benefits of slow, low pressure blood in the capillary beds?
a. Lower pressure reduces the chance of injury to delicate capillary vessels.
b. Slower blood flow through capillaries allows more time for diffusion to take place in the capillary bed.
c. Lower pressure in the capillary bed helps to increase pressure in the venous circulation.
d. All of the above are not accurate
C
40
```
Resistance vessels are associated with which of the following:
A. arterioles
B. heart
C. capillaries
D. arteries
```
A
41
Which statement best describes arteries?
a. They carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
b. They carry blood away from the heart.
c. They contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
d. Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.
B
42
Which of the following contain oxygenated blood?
a. pulmonary trunk
b. superior vena cava
c. pulmonary veins
d. pulmonary arteries
C
43
```
Venous return is increased by which of the following?
A. skeletal muscle activity
B. respiratory pump
C. sympathetic venoconstriction
D. all of the above
```
D
44
Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?
a. hydrostatic and osmotic pressure
b. hydrostatic pressure only
c. blood volume and viscosity
d. plasma and formed element concentration
A
45
Approximately, how much excess fluid in liters do the lymphatic vessels return to the blood circulation?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 6
d. 1.5
A
46
Which organ is NOT a lymphoid organ or tissue?
a. spleen
b. thymus
c. hypothalamus
d. tonsils
C
47
What are the functions of lymph nodes?
a. filtration and immune system activation
b. filtration and fluid retention
c. immune system activation and rbc production
d. rbc production and fluid retention
A
48
How does the stroma help the lymphatic system?
a. captures Ag
b. is a network supporting lymphatic cells
c. protects immune system
d. none of the above
B
49
Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.
a. The two main types are T cells and macrophages.
b. B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.
c. T cells are the precursors of B cells.
d. T cells are the only form of lymphocytes found in lymphoid tissue.
B
50
What is the role of T cells in the body?
a. produce plasma cells
b. secrete hormones
c. directly attack and destroy infected cells
d. produce hormones
C
51
What does each node in the lymphatic system consist of?
a. cortex and medulla
b. cuticle
c. red pulp
d. white pulp
A
52
```
Which of the following is part of MALT?
A. appendix
B. Peyer’s patches
C. tonsils
D. all of the above
```
D
53
Small secondary lymphoid organs, which cluster along lymphatic vessels, are termed ________.
a. lymph follicles
b. lymph nodes
c. lacteals
d. lymphatics
B
54
What organ(s) can be found in the lymphatic system?
a. thymus
b. spleen
c. tonsils
d. all of the above
D
55
Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.
a. efferent lymphatic vessels
b. afferent lymphatic vessels
c. the cortical sinus
d. the subcapsular sinus
A
56
What is opsonization?
a. neutrophil production
b. mucous secretion
c. process of coating pathogens
d. fusion of phagosome and lysosome
C
57
What do vaccines generally do to the body?
a. spare us from extreme symptoms and discomforts
b. provide functional Ag determinants
c. prepare the body to fight disease
d. all of the above
D
58
Out of the Ab classes, which is most associated with allergies?
a. IgD
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgM
C
59
The basic antibody has how many polypeptide chains in its structure?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 5
d. 4
D
60
What chemical is released during an inflammatory response?
a. histamine
b. globulins
c. lymph
d. epinephrine
A
61
What is the purpose of antigens?
a. activate fight or flight response
b. provoke an immune response
c. produce red blood cells
d. provoke individual histamine molecule destruction
B
62
Helper T cells are also known as _______ cells.
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD6
d. CD10
A
63
A cellular component of the innate defenses includes ________.
a. natural killer cells
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. plasma cells
A
64
Which of the following is true of antigens?
a. Antigens are substances that activate the adaptive immune response.
b. Antigens are produced by plasma cells.
c. Antigens are produced by the body in response to a foreign invader.
d. There are 5 classes of antigens.
A
65
Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell?
a. cytotoxic
b. antigenic
c. helper
d. regulatory
B
66
```
Antigen presenting cells include which of the following cells?
A. macrophages
B. B lymphocytes
C. dendritic cells
D. all of the above
```
D
67
Which of the following is NOT a part of the structure of the EXTERNAL nose?
a. nostrils or nares
b. olfactory mucosa
c. bridge
d. alae
B
68
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.
a. secrete surfactant
b. trap dust and other debris
c. replace mucus in the alveoli
d. protect the lungs from bacterial invasion
A
69
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.
a. secrete surfactant
b. trap dust and other debris
c. replace mucus in the alveoli
d. protect the lungs from bacterial invasion
A
70
Which term in NOT matched correctly with its function?
a. nasopharynx: air passageways
b. oropharynx: swallowed food and inhaled air
c. laryngopharynx: voice production
d. larynx: voice production and prevent food/drink passage into respiratory tracts
C
71
```
Fully Saturated Hb is defined as Hb with _____ oxygen molecules.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7
```
C
72
The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal expiration is called:
a. residual volume
b. expiratory reserve volume
c. tidal volume
d. inspiratory reserve volume
B
73
Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for breathing?
a. rising carbon dioxide levels
b. rising blood pressure
c. arterial PO2 below 60 mm Hg
d. acidosis resulting from CO2 retention
B
74
Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
a. midbrain and medulla
b. medulla and pons
c. pons and midbrain
d. upper spinal cord and medulla
B
75
Inspiratory capacity is ________.
a. the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
b. the total amount of exchangeable air
c. functional residual capacity
d. described by none of the above
A
76
The erythrocyte (red blood cell) count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ________.
a. temperature is lower at higher altitudes
b. basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes
c. concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes
d. concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes
D
77
```
Hypoxia that is caused by impaired blood circulation is described by which term?
A. Histotoxic
B. Anemic
C. Ischemic
D. None of the above
```
C
78
Which of the following is an accessory organ in the digestive system?
a. pharynx
b. mouth
c. stomach
d. gallbladder
D
79
Waves of muscular contraction and relaxation moving digested food along the GI tract is referred to as:
a. propulsion
b. peristalsis
c. deglutition
d. absorption
B
80
Sucrose, lactose and maltose are all:
a. disaccharides
b. monosaccharides
c. oligosaccharides
d. polysaccharides
A
81
```
Which of the following is not part of the anatomical structure of the small intestine?
A. Fundus
B. Ileum
C. Duodenum
D. Jejunum
```
A
82
Bile is produced in what organ?
a. Gallbladder
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Appendix
B
83
```
Nucleases function in the breakdown of:
A. Sugars
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids
```
D
84
```
The role of bile is to:
A. secrete acid
B. increase the surface area of the small intestine
C. assist in the breakdown of fat
D. inhibit gastric secretions
```
C
85
When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.
a. absorption
b. secretion
c. chemical digestion
d. mechanical breakdown
C
86
```
The exposed part of a tooth above the gum is the:
A. pulp cavity
B. crown
C. root
D. neck
```
B
87
Which of the following is NOT a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?
a. thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus
b. tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells
c. replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells
d. secretion of pepsinogen
D
88
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine?
a. It does not contain villi.
b. It exhibits external muscular bands called teniae coli.
c. It has pocket-like sacs called haustra.
d. All of the above.
D
89
```
Excess glucose is converted to
A. monoglycerides
B. galactose
C. glycogen
D. cellulose
```
C
90
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm.
B. The Krebs cycle takes place in the cytoplasm.
C. Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the cytoplasm.
D. All of the above are true.
A
91
The energy value of foods is measured in _____
a. Kilowatts
b. Pounds
c. Kilocalories
d. Centigrade
C
92
Mechanisms of heat exchange include which of the following?
a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Evaporation
d. All of the above
D
93
What vitamin needs intrinsic factor to be absorbed?
a. D
b. C
c. B-12
d. A
C
94
```
Which of the following is NOT a fat soluble vitamin?
A. K
B. A
C. C
D. D
```
C
95
Cholesterol, though it is NOT an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ___
a. is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones
b. helps provide essential nutrients to the brain and lungs
c. helps mobilize fats during periods of starvation
d. enters the glycolytic pathway without being altered
A
96
The term metabolism is best defined as __________
a. the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats
b. a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories
c. the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day
d. the sum of all biochemical reactions in the body
D
97
It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because __________
a. vitamins are needed to form cholesterol
b. very few foods contain vitamins
c. most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients
d. all vitamins are water soluble and pass out of the body too quickly to ensure utilization
C
98
Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)?
a. glycolysis, citric acid (Krebs) cycle, electron transport chain/ oxidative phosphorylation
b. gluconeogenesis, citric acid (Krebs) cycle, lipolysis
c. lipolysis, glycogenolysis, beta oxidation
d. glycogenesis, lipogenesis, electron transport chain
A
99
The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________.
a. gluconeogenesis
b. glycogenesis
c. lipogenesis
d. lipolysis
D
100
```
In the formation of urine, which of the following processes has to occur first?
A. tubular secretion
B. glomerular filtration
C. tubular reabsorption
D. none of the above
```
B
101
Into which structure does the forming urine flow next after the proximal convoluted tubule?
a. Loop of Henle
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. distal convoluted tubule
d. collecting duct
A
102
What hormone increases the reabsorption of Ca2+ at the level of the nephron?
a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
c. Thyroid Hormone
d. Prolactin
B
103
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly proportional to:
a. Net filtration pressure
b. Total surface area available for filtration
c. Filtration membrane permeability
d. All of the above
D
104
Which of the following is correct about ADH?
A. It increases urinary output.
B. It causes the insertion of water channels in the nephron tubules.
C. It increases calcium absorption.
D. It increases sodium secretion.
B
105
The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin _________
a. when there is an increase in sodium reabsorption
b. when the pH of the urine decreases
c. when there is a decrease in blood pressure
d. when blood volume is increased
C
106
Which of the choices below is NOT a function of the urinary system?
a. helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood
b. regulates blood glucose levels and secretes renin
c. maintains blood osmolarity
d. eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat
D
107
The renal corpuscle is made up of _______
a. Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus
b. the descending nephron loop
c. the renal pyramid
d. the renal papilla
A
108
The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the _________
a. nephron
b. nephron loop
c. glomerular capsule
d. capsular space
A
109
The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________
a. the ionic electrochemical gradient
b. protein-regulated diffusion
c. glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
d. the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries
C
110
```
The tube draining urine from the bladder is the:
A. Ureter
B. Collecting duct
C. Loop of Henle
D. Urethra
```
D
111
Exchanges between interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid occur across:
a. capillary membranes
b. lymphatic vessels
c. plasma membranes
d. arterial membranes
C
112
What organ is most important in regulating electrolyte balance?
a. kidneys
b. liver
c. gallbladder
d. large intestine
A
113
```
Which of the following is a major chemical buffer in the body?
A. phosphate
B. triglycerides
C. polysaccharides
D. disaccharides
```
A
114
Falling arterial blood pressure promotes _________
a. vasodilation
b. enhanced sodium ion loss in urine
c. enhanced water loss in urine
d. vasoconstriction
D
115
Nancy is experiencing an acute panic attack. While hyperventilating, she remembers to open a paper bag and breathe into it. What is Nancy trying to prevent?
a. respiratory acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory alkalosis
d. metabolic acidosis
D
116
Mary finds that she regularly retains water at a certain point in the menstrual cycle. Which of the following is chemically similar to aldosterone, and like aldosterone, enhances NaCl reabsorption in the renal tubules?
a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. luteinizing hormone
d. follicle-stimulating hormone
B
117
What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention?
a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b. aldosterone
c. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d. thyroxine
A
118
```
Which of the following is associated with the reabsorption of sodium?
A. Renin
B. Aldosterone
C. Angiotensin II
D. All of the above
```
D
119
```
Osteoclast activation occurs at the level of the:
A. Kidneys
B. Bones
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine
```
B
120
```
Which of the following pH values represents acidosis?
A. 7.4
B. 6.9
C. 7.7
D. 7.9
```
B
121
```
What type of infection is the STI (or STD) Trichomoniasis?
A. Fungal
B. Viral
C. Bacterial
D. Parasitic
```
D
122
What is the primary function of male accessory glands?
a. control erection
b. produce secretions
c. production of male gametes
d. convert spermatids to functional sperm
B
123
```
Sperm is produced in the:
a. accessory duct glands
b. epididymis
c. spermatic cord
testes
```
D
124
Human egg and sperm are similar in that _________
a. about the same number of each is produced per month
b. they have the same degree of motility
c. they have the same number of chromosomes
d. they are about the same size
C
125
Oogenesis is:
a. union of sperm and egg nuclei
b. supply of follicle cells
c. process of female sex cell production
d. period of corpus luteum activity
C
126
Sperm gain the ability to swim in the:
a. urethra
b. ejaculatory duct
c. ductus deferens
d. epididymis
D
127
Which of the following is true about puberty?
a. Reproductive organs become functional.
b. There is no change in hormone levels compared to pre-puberty.
c. Reproductive organs begin to atrophy.
d. Nondisjunction occurs.
A
128
Which of the following choices below is NOT a function of the vagina?
a. serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte
b. serves as a passageway for menstrual flow
c. serves as the birth canal
d. receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse
A
129
Which of the following is true of testosterone?
a. Testosterone provides positive feedback on gonadotropin release.
b. It has an affect on secondary sex characteristics.
c. The production of testosterone does not occur in women.
d. The adrenal glands do not produce androgens.
B
130
Which hormone is the necessary trigger for ovulation to occur?
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen
A
131
```
The fertilized egg is known as the _________
A. zygote
B. ovary
C. oocyte
D. spermatid
```
A
132
```
Which of the following is a temporary organ that originates from embryonic and maternal
tissues?
A. uterus
B. placenta
C. ovaries
D. epididymis
```
B
133
What is the term for a loose connection of 16 or more cells?
a. blastocyst
b. cleavage
c. morula
d. blastomere
C
134
It is impossible for sperm to be functional (able to fertilize the egg) until after ________
a. the tail disappears
b. they become spermatids
c. they undergo capacitation
d. they have been stored in the uterus for several days
C
135
Milk ejection (the letdown reflex) is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy?
a. inhibin
b. oxytocin
c. prolactin
d. gonadotropin
B
136
The corpus luteum prevents loss of the implanted embryo through menstruation by secreting __________
a. human chorionic gonadotropin
b. luteinizing hormone
c. estrogens and progesterone
d. follicle-stimulating hormone
C
137
The neonatal period refers to ____
a. the first trimester of pregnancy
b. the last trimester of pregnancy
c. the first month after birth
d. the first year after birth
C
138
Which of the following is NOT assessed as part of the Apgar score?
a. heart rate
b. respiration
c. muscle tone
d. temperature
D
139
Neural tissue is formed from _______
a. epiderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm
d. ectoderm
D
140
During which stage of labor is the fetus delivered?
a. dilation stage
b. expulsion stage
c. placental stage
d. gastrula stage
B
141
Which of the following correctly describes Small RNAs?
A. 2nd layer of control in our genome
B. Act directly on DNA, other RNA, or other proteins
C. Tame or inactivate genes
D. All of the above
D
142
```
A genotype refers to the:
A. physical characteristics of a person
B. breaks between linked genes
C. person’s genetic makeup
D. diploid chromosomal complement shown in pairs
```
C
143
Huntington’s disease is an example of a(n) _____gene.
a. multiple allele inherited
b. recessive
c. delayed-action
d. incomplete dominant
C
144
```
Which one of the following is an example of a recessive trait?
A. widow’s peak
B. dimples
C. freckles
D. normal vision
```
D
145
An individual bearing two alleles that are the same for a particular trait is described as a/an:
a. homozygote
b. phenotype
c. heterozygote
d. autosome
A
146
Which of the following are significant in regard to cell instructions?
a. Protein coding genes
b. RNA
c. Tiny chemical tags which attach to chromatin
d. all of the above
D
147
Recessive alleles are best defined as ______
a. a deleterious or disease-causing allele
b. a weakened or attenuated allele
c. an allele usually expressed when the allele is homozygous
d. the least frequently expressed allele in a given population
C
148
Of the different sources of genetic variability, which one produces the variation in the combinations of alleles on a single chromosome?
a. independent assortment
b. crossing over
c. random fertilization
d. mutation
B
149
Dominant alleles are so called because under most circumstances they ________
a. code for desired traits only
b. can suppress the expression of other alleles
c. code for genes that are never considered harmful or lethal
d. code for the most common phenotypic and genotypic expressions of a trait
B
150
The variation seen in ABO blood groups is due to _________
a. incomplete dominance
b. multiple-allele inheritance
c. polygene inheritance
d. sex-linked inheritance
B
