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CFII Lab (415) > FII > Flashcards

FII Flashcards

1
Q

If a pitot tube is clogged, which instrument would be affected?

A

Airspeed Indicator

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2
Q

You are planning an IFR flight and need to verify the VOR equipment was checked within the preceding __ days

A

30 days

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3
Q

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna) ?

A

4 degrees between the two indicated bearings of a VOR

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4
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an EASTERLY HEADING in the northern hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

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5
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the LEFT from a SOUTH HEADING in the northern hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate a turn to the LEFT, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring
(UNOS)

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6
Q

What should be the indication on the mag compass as you roll into a turn to the RIGHT from a NORTHERLY HEADING?

A

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left

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7
Q

The RATE of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon:

A

the HORIZONTAL lift component (directly related to angle of bank)

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8
Q

In a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?

A

Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift, and the load factor is increased

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9
Q

Describe the 3 pointers on a steam gauge altimeter?

A

Long fat pointer = 100s
Short fat pointer = 1,000s
Long thin pointer = 10,000s

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10
Q

The Pressure Altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to:

A

29.92” Hg

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11
Q

When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?

A

Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack

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12
Q

When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between:

A

10 - 12 degrees

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13
Q

If in level flight you must use an alternate source of static pressure, what should the pilot expect to see? (VSI specifically)

A

The vertical speed will momentarily show a climb

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14
Q

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the a/c is on the:

A

360 radial

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15
Q

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the a/c is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

A

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 deg of that radial with a FROM indication

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16
Q

What is the maximum tolerance for the COR indication when the CDI is centered and the a/c is directly over the airborne checkpoint?

A

Plus or minus 6 deg of the designated radial

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17
Q

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected if large power changes are made?

A

ASI indications will remain constant in level flight, even during power changes

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18
Q

What should be indicated on the mag compass when turning LEFT from a SOUTHERLY HEADING?

A

Compass will indicate a large change to an easterly heading ahead of the a/c’s heading

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19
Q

If airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant RATE of turn?

A

Increase angle of BANK

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20
Q

Instruments for pitch are (3)

A

Attitude, airspeed and VSI

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21
Q

On a northerly heading of 350 you make a left turn to 230, what indication should you observe on the magnetic compass?

A

The compass will show a small lag to the right!

UNOS

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22
Q

Your altimeter is set to 30.42 and you are currently flying at 6,500’ MSL. The current reported altimeter setting is 29.82. How does your actual altitude compare now?

A

LOWER than indicated

high to low look out below

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23
Q

A pilot enters the condition of flight in the logbook as simulated instrument conditions. What other qualifying info must be entered?

A

Location, type of each instrument approach, and name of safety pilot

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24
Q

What portion of dual instruction time may a certified instrument instructor log as instrument flight time?

A

All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument wx conditions

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25
Q

To meet minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 cal months you need:

A
  • 6 IAPs
  • Holding
  • Intercepting and tracking courses
  • IN the appropriate CATEGORY of a/c
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26
Q

After your IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an IPC to act as PIC

A

6 months

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27
Q

A pilots currency expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet IFR requirements without having to take an instrument proficiency check

A

Dec 31st of this year

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28
Q

Before beginning any IFR flight the PIC must become familiar with all available info concerning the flight, including:

A

Runway Lengths at airports of intended use, and the a/c’s takeoff and landing data

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29
Q

To sever as safety pilot, you must hold at least a private certificate and:

A

appropriate CAT and CLASS rating for the a/c to be flown

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30
Q

Except for takeoff/landing or ATC designated, what is the MINIMUM altitude for IFR flights? (mountainous and non)

A

2000’ above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain, 1000’ above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

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31
Q

What data must be recorded in the a/c log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR ops?

A

Date
Place/location
Bearing Error
Signature!

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32
Q

What minimum wx conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a PRECISION approach, with standard alternate minimums

A

600’ ceilings

2sm vis

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33
Q

When making an approach at your alternate, what landing minimums apply?

A

The minimums published for the procedure selected

dont care about alternate minimums anymore

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34
Q

In mountainous area, no person may operate IFR below 2000’ above the highest obstacle and WITHIN a horizontal distance of:

A

4NM from the course flown

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35
Q

Excluding airspace at or below 2,500’ AGL, a coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in ALL controlled airspace, and above ____

A

10,000’ MSL

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36
Q

If an UNpressurized a/c is operated below 12,500’ MSL but not more than 14,000’ for a period of 2 hours and 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flight crew required to use supplemental O2?

A

1 hour and 50 minutes

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37
Q

An aircraft operated under IFR is required to have:

A

Gyroscopic attitude and heading indicators

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38
Q

Your a/c’s static pressure system and altimeter are inspected on March 9th of this year. When must the system be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR?

A

March 31, 2 years hence

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39
Q

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for see and avoid?

A

When weather conditions premit

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40
Q

What is the rule for Mountainous area IFR off-airway minimum altitude

A

2000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the course

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41
Q

Where are VFR on Top ops prohibited? (what airspace)

A

Class A

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42
Q

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

A

700’ AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

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43
Q

What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?

A

700’ AGL

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44
Q

MOAs are established to:

A

separate military activities from IFR traffic

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45
Q

“CRUISE SIX THOUSAND” means:

A
  • Operate anywhere between the Minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6000’ without notifying ATC
    (Climbs may be made to 6000, descents made from 6000, at the pilot’s discretion)
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46
Q

What clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance?

A
  • Destination plus specific altitude and fix
    1. Destination Airport
    2. Altitude
    3. DP Name/Number/Transition if appropriate
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47
Q

What flight rule(s) apply to a pilot operating VFR on Top

A

VFR and IFR

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48
Q

Recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan? (who should you contact)

A

Prior to transitioning, contact nearest FSS and:

  1. Close VFR portion
  2. Request ATC clearance
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49
Q

When should you notify ATC of a variation in airpseed?

A

When avg TAS is 10 knots or 5 percent off what you filed

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50
Q

You are departing a non-towered airport with an IFR clearance containing a void time. You must:

A

advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 mins, of intentions if not off by the void time

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51
Q

When not in radar contact, you should always report:

A

Departing the FAF inbound

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52
Q

Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is:

A

18,000’ MSL

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53
Q

You enter a hold (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience a complete 2-way radio failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

A

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach

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54
Q

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing a/c will normally be routed to the fix by:

A

an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors

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55
Q

To operate an a/c under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to:

A

entering controlled airspace that includes Class A

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56
Q

A pilot intends to act as PIC on an instrument flight on July 10 of this year. That pilot must have preformed and logged __(broad)__ between ____ and the date of the flight.

A
  • the required instrument currency

- January 10th this year

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57
Q

What are the supplemental O2 requirements of an UNpressurized a/c at 15,000’

A

The crew must use O2 for the entire time above 14,000

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58
Q

Immediate changes in flight data which affect IAPs, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication are disseminated by:

A

FDC NOTAMs

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59
Q

PA is the altitude read on the altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above the:

A

Standard datum plane

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60
Q

Where do you find the MCA (minimum crossing altitudes) on an IFR low sectional?

A

Under the box of info for that given crossing point

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61
Q

If you adjust the altimeter from 30.11 to 29.96” what will the new indicated altitude read in comparison to the old indication?

A

The new indicated altitude will be 150’ lower

Every .01” = 10’ change of altitude
So 30.11 - 29.96 = .15
.15 x 1000’ = 150’ lower (high to low)

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62
Q

A runway hold position sign denotes an entrance TO a ____ FROM a ____

A

Entrance TO a Runway FROM a Taxiway

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63
Q

Any sign with white lettering and a red background is a:

A

Mandatory instruction sign

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64
Q

What condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA? (non-mountainous)

A

1000’ obstacle clearance

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65
Q

Your a turbojet holding above 14,000’ MSL. What is the max permitted airspeed?

A

265 KIAS

MHA - 6,000’: 200kias
6,001’ - 14,000’: 230kias
14,001’+: 265kias

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66
Q

What 1. obstacle clearance and 2. nav signal coverage are you ASSURED with the Minimums Sector Altitude depicted on the IAP charts?

A

You are guaranteed 1,000’ clearance within a 25NM radius of the nav facility, but NOT assured acceptable signal coverage!

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67
Q

En route at FL 270 the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter of 30.57 during descent. If field elevation is 650’ and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approx indication upon landing?

A

Sea Level

  • the altimeter is still 29.92
    30.57 - 29.92 = .65 x 100o’ = 650’
    650 - 650 = 0 (SL)
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68
Q

You go from 29.92 to 30.26 without resetting. FE is 134’ so what will it indicate after you land on the field?

A

206’

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69
Q

ATC says “resume own navigation.” This phrase means you should:

A

Resume operations as filed or cleared

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70
Q

Define MEA

A
  • Min Enroute Altitude
  • The LOWEST PUBLISHED ALTITUDE which meets obstacle clearance requirements, and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage
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71
Q

If no MCA is specified, what is that lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?

A

The MEA at which the fix is approached

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72
Q

Acceptable nav signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance of __ NM from the VOR

A

22 NM

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73
Q

COP on the IFR en route chart stands for:

A

Change over Point (the point where you switch navigation fixes)

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74
Q

All FEs and TDZEs on approach charts are given in the measurement of feet ___?

A

MSL

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75
Q

While maintaining a constant standard rate turn, an abrupt head movement may cause what illusion?

A

Coriolis Effect

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76
Q

Why is pilot fatigue hazardous?

A

It can impair pilot JUDGEMENT

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77
Q

Autopilot during cruise in icing conditions should be:

A

periodically disengaged and manually flown

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78
Q

FD/AP disconnect can occur due to:

A

mode changes during transition or capture

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79
Q

At a towered airport, you should state your position on the airport when:

A

departing from a runway INTERSECTION

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80
Q

An airliner is taking off runway 29, and you are taking off runway 4. Wind is 300 at 5 knots. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices?

A

The UPWIND vortex would tend to remain over the runway (due to the upwind vortex’s natural movement AWAY from runway 29 is countered by the crosswind).
- Parallel to the runway, the move downwind (southeast)

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81
Q

You descend from FL290 to an where the local altimeter is 30.26” and end up going missed on an approach because the altimeter is reading:

A

~300’ BELOW true altitude

29.92 –> 30.26
Increasing “ will increase indicated altitude
Leaving it at 29.92 will leave it indicating LOWER than what is true

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82
Q

What are the 2 types of Emergency Conditions?

A
  1. Urgency (doubtful of position, fuel endurance, wx)
    - ASK FOR HELP before it becomes distress
  2. Distress (fire, mechanical failure, structural damage)
83
Q

If enroute on an IFR flight plan, what is the most appropriate source to obtain the altimeter setting?

A

Use the setting obtained from a station within 100 NM of your a/c

84
Q

You begin a level turn while the a/c is accelerating. What roll correction is necessary to maintain a standard rate turn?

A

Increase BANK angle

85
Q

If air temperature increases, your TAS will have to ____ in order for you to maintain the same Indicated AS as when you were in colder air

A

Increase (not by much, but because of air molecules in warm air being FARTHER apart, the TAS will have to increase in order for the IAS to read the same [aka pick up the same amount of air molecules] as it was in the denser air)

86
Q

If you experience icing on descent and have activated the deicing boots, what should you do in regards to your landing configuration?

A

Land with minimal or no flaps (according to the AFM)

87
Q

Failure to maintain heading may be an indication of:

A

FIXATION during cross-check

88
Q

Can you act as PIC of a helo in IMC if you hold a PPL with ASEL, Airplane inst rating, rotorcraft category, and helo class ratings>

A

NO

- You must hold an Unrestricted ATP - Helo cert OR a Helo inst rating!

89
Q

If RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, you must:

A

convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility

90
Q

What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

A

The point of first 1st landing

91
Q

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 with 15 deg of bank?

A

090 and 270

92
Q

A VOR receiver with normal 5-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The a/c would be displaced approx how FAR from the course center line?

A

~3 NM
This is because normally 3 dots deflection = 6 degrees deflection. Using the 60-1 rule (1 radial = 1 NM at 60 nm from the VOR), each radial equals 0.5 NM since we are 30 NM out.

93
Q

Without visual aid, the sensation of accelerating or decelerating can feel like:

A

climbing or descending

94
Q

How LONG would it take to turn 135 deg if you were turning at HALF standard rate?

A

90 seconds

135/1.5 per second = 90

95
Q

When established in a turn, the mini a/c on the turn coordinator will indicate:

A

Rate of Roll AND Rate of Turn

96
Q

When decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a:

A

Descent

97
Q

What is the correct sequence in which to use the 3 skills used in instrument flying?

A

Cross-check, interpretation, aircraft control

98
Q

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100’ should be corrected by using a:

A

half bar width on the attitude indicator

99
Q

Which instrument is the PRIMARY for BANK control in straight and level flight?

A

Heading Indicator

100
Q

In straight and level flight what is the PRIMARY instrument of PITCH?

A

Altimeter

101
Q

For maintaining level flight at a constant THRUST, which instrument would be LEAST appropriate for determining the need for pitch change?

A

Attitude Indicator

102
Q

Which instrument are SUPPORTING BANK when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight and level?

A

Attitude

Turn Coordinator

103
Q

What percent of the VSI should be used to determine number of feet to lead the level off from?

A

10 percent

104
Q

During recovery from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant:

A

the altimeter and ASI needles STOP prior to reversing their direction of movement

105
Q

The OBS is set to 350 FR the station, heading 140, and the CDI is deflected 2.5 dots to the left. Which OBS selection would center the CDI and change the TO/FR flag to indicate TO?

A

165

This is because we have 350 dialed in, and we are ~5 degrees to the left of course (1 dot = 2 degrees). If we are 5 deg to the right of course we know we are truly on the 345 radial FR, so we would want the RECIPROCAL (or tail of the needle) so we would want 165 to get a TO indication and for it to be centered.

106
Q

Due to slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the DME reading as reliable?

A

One or more miles for each 1,000’ of altitude above the facility

107
Q

How does an LDA facility differ from a standard ILS approach facility?

A

The LOC is offset from the runway

108
Q

An a/c that is 30 NM from a VOR STATION (do not get confused with GPS needle deflections) and shows 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course center line?

A

2.5 miles

  • Half scale deflection is 5 deg
  • The 60-1 Rule tells us at 60 NM from the station there is 1 NM between each radial
  • At 30 DME there are 2 radials per NM
109
Q

When will PA and DA be the same value?

A

At standard temperature!

DA = PA corrected for variations in standard TEMP

110
Q

If you are flying on an airway at 17,000’ MSL using High (H) VORTAC facilities, they should be NO father than ___ NM apart. (think SSVs)

A

200 NM

  • You’re at 17,000’ (between 14,500’ and 18,000) therefore the range at that layer is 100 NM.
111
Q

What is the main difference between the SDF and the Localizer of an ILS?

A

The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway, and the course may be WIDER (less accurate)

AIM 1-1-10 paragraph c

112
Q

Immediately after passing the FAF inbound during an ILS approach, the glideslope goes out!! What can you do?

A

Continue the approach and descend to the LOC MDA

113
Q

What clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without pilot request??

A
  • STARs
  • DPs
  • Visual Approaches
114
Q

What is one condition that is required when conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix” if only ONE missed approach procedure is available?

A

The reported ceilings and vis must be good enough to execute a circling approach from the IAP

115
Q

If you lose sight of the runway while Circling to land from an IAP and ATC radar service is NOT available, the MAP action should be to:

A
  • Make a climbing turn TOWARD the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the Missed Approach Course
116
Q

When approach procedure involves a PT, what is the maximum airspeed that you can fly it?

A

200 knots INDICATED

117
Q

When on simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

A

On TOWER frequency

118
Q

A/c approach categories are based on:

A

1.3 x stall speed in landing config. (Vso)

119
Q

What wx conditions must you have to obtain a Contact Approach?

A

ATC will assign only upon request if the reported vis is at least 1 mile!

120
Q

A contact approach may be used in lieu of a ____

A

SIAP

121
Q

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?

A

An UP-SLOPING runway

122
Q

An abrupt transition from a climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:

A

tumbling backwards

123
Q

What does RVR value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?

A

The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving a/c

124
Q

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is:

A

a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways

125
Q

The Glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between:

A

Decision Altitude and the Runway Threshold

126
Q

What pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

A

Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable

127
Q

What condition would cause the altimeter to INDICATE a LOWER altitude than actually flown? (true altitude)

A

Air temp WARMER than standard

think about pressure levels being father apart at warmer temps, and close together with colder temps

128
Q

For a stabilized approach, what is the max acceptable descent rate during the final stages of an approach?

A

1,000 FPM

129
Q

When on an ILS approach, you will make your decision to land when you see:

A

The approach lights

130
Q

When converting from conventional 6 pack to a PFD, experienced pilots of conventional tend to:

A

Fixate on correcting for altitude deviations as small as 2 feet

131
Q

True or False: To USE LPV minimums on a GPS IAP chart, there must be a statement in the airplane flight manual that the aircraft equipment has been demonstrated to support LPV approaches and is WAAS equipped

A

True

132
Q

When planning random IFR routes, it is a good rule of thumb to avoid restricted/prohibited areas by at least __ NM

A

3 NM

133
Q

The obstacle departure procedure allows obstacle clearance without turns for:

A

400’ above airport elevation

134
Q

GPS systems certified for IFR enroute and terminal operations may be used to fly a:

A

DME arc

135
Q

Abrupt head movement during a PROLONGED CONSTANT RATE TURN in IMC can cause the illusion of:

A

turning or accelerating on a different axis

136
Q

When within 2 NM of the FAF on a GPS approach, you notice the approach mode annunciation has disappeared. You must:

A

Fly the published missed approach procedure

sensitivities will be incorrect

137
Q

When arriving at an MCA, you should:

A

be AT the designated crossing altitude

138
Q

What is the purpose of preferred IFR routes?

A

To increase system efficiency and capacity

139
Q

Flight at the MOCA gives:

A

acceptable nav signal coverage WITHIN 25 SM (22nm) of the VOR on off-airway routes

(also meets obstacle clearance requirements)

140
Q

Review question 2704

A

or in IFR and Nav its remaining 33 when in order

141
Q

What is the MCA over the Huguenot VOR (HUO)?

A

Start climb to 4,000’ over the HUO northbound on V273

142
Q

When might ATC issue a Visual Approach as you arrive at your destination on an IFR flight plan?

A

When ATC deems it beneficial it and the weather is reported as 1,000’ and visibility 3 SM

143
Q

If there is no COP depicted on the Victor airway, the COP is located:

A

At the MIDPOINT of the airway segment

144
Q

What is the average height of the troposphere in the mid latitudes?

A

37,000’

145
Q

The primary cause of all changes/variations in Earth’s weather is:

A

variation of solar energy (or heating) received by Earth’s regions

146
Q

Which force acts at a right angle to the wind and DEFLECTS it to the right UNTIL PARALLEL to the isobars?

A

Coriolis

147
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

A

There is freezing rain at a higher altitude

148
Q

WET snow at your altitude means:

A

The temp is ABOVE freezing at your altitude

149
Q

Steady percip (not showers) preceding a front is an indication of _____ clouds and _____ turbulence

A
  • Stratiform Clouds

- Little to no Turbulence

150
Q

Which weather phenomenon is ALWAYS associated with the passage of a frontal system?

A

a WIND CHANGE

151
Q

With either a “wind shift” or a “wind gradient” at any level in the atmosphere, what condition does a pilot have to assume exists?

A

Wind Shear

152
Q

WHERE can wind shear associated with a t-storm be found?

A
  • On all sides of the cell

- Directly under the cell

153
Q

Where do squall lines most often develop?

A

Ahead of a cold front

154
Q

What stage of a t-storm is associated predominately by Downdrafts?

A

Dissipating stage

155
Q

If you fly into turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?

A

Level flight Attitude

156
Q

True or False: Airborne wx avoidance radar provides assurance of avoiding IFR wx in clouds and fog

A

FALSE

157
Q

Advection fog usually forms under what condition?

A

Moist air moving over COLDER ground or water

158
Q

Radiation fog is most likely to occur when:

A

Warm, moist air moves over low, flat areas on clear calm nights

159
Q

A jet stream is defined as wind of ___ knots or greater

A

50 knots +

160
Q

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally ____ and father _____ in the summer

A

Weaker and farther North in the summer

161
Q

HIWAS is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of:

A

SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and center wx advisories

162
Q

Airport your at has a FE of 1,300. Clouds are reported OVC020 and tops are reported 3,800’ so what is the thickness of the overcast cloud layer?

A

500’

OVC020 = 2,000’ AGL
FE is 1,300’ MSL so 1,300’ MSL + 2,000’ AGL = 3,300’ MSL

3,800’ MSL - 3,300’ MSL = 500’

163
Q

If a TAF includes the notion “VRB” what are the expected winds?

A

6 knots or less

164
Q

What is the MAX forecast period for AIRMETs?

A

6 hours

165
Q

You see 9900 on a Wind and Temps Aloft Forecast. What wind would you expect?

A

Light and variable less than 5 knots

166
Q

In Winds and Temps Aloft forecast, when is TEMPERATURE omitted?

A

When the level (or altitude) is within 2,500’ of station elevation

167
Q

You see “731960” on the Winds and Temps Aloft forecast. What is the forecast wind direction, speed and temperature?

A

230/119 and temp is -60 degrees

  • If a wind speed is coded between 51 and 86 it means wind is 100 knots or more.
  • Given “731960” you must subtract 50 from the wind direction, and ADD 100 to the wind speed.
168
Q

You see “7799” on the Winds and Temps Aloft forecast. What is the forecast wind direction and speed?

A

270/199 knots +

  • If wind speed is forecast to be 200 knots or greater, the speed is coded as 99.
  • Still subtract 50 from wind direction, and ADD 100 but it is to be interpreted as 270 at 199 knots OR GREATER
169
Q

If you see “9900” on the Winds and Temps Aloft forecast, what does this mean?

A
  • Forecast wind speed is LESS THAN 5 KNOTS

- Should be read as “LIGHT AND VARIABLE”

170
Q

Decode winds aloft reporting 850552

A

Wind 350 at 105 knots

Temp -52

171
Q

Winds are foretasted to be from 300 at 200 knots, -54 deg C. How would this data be encoded in the FD?

A

809954

172
Q

You can expect to see an operating rotating beacon at an airport during daylight hours when ceiling and visibility are reported below:

A

1,000’ and 3 miles

173
Q

Absence of sky condition and vis on an ATIS implies that:

A

Ceiling is more than 5,000 and vis is 5+ miles

174
Q

Microbursts seldom last longer than ___ minutes from start to dissipation

A

15 minutes

175
Q

Max downdrafts in a microburst may be as strong as:

A

6,000 FPM

176
Q

If you encounter a headwind of 45 knots within a microburst, you may expect a total shear across the bust of ___ knots

A

90 knots

177
Q

While flying an ILS aprch, which a/c will climb above the glideslope without changing pitch or power while passing through a microburst?

A

a/c in position 1

178
Q

While flying a 3 deg glide slope, a constant TAILwind shears to a CALM wind. What conditions should you expect? (in relation to airspeed, altitude and position to GS)

A

Airspeed and Pitch Attitude INCREASE

There is a new tendency to go ABOVE glide slop

179
Q

What will happen when a HEAD wind shears to become a constant TAIL wind?
(pitch attitude, thrust required, VSI and IAS)

A

Pitch Attitude - Decreases
Required Thrust - Increased, then reduced
Vertical Speed - Increases
IAS - Decreases, then increases to approach speed

180
Q

While flying a 3 deg glide slope, a constant HEAD wind shears to a TAIL wind! What conditions should you expect?

A

Airspeed and Pitch Attitude DECREASE

There is a tendency to go BELOW glide slope

181
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:

A

Air temperature

182
Q

Clouds, fog or dew will always form when:

A

Water vapor condenses

183
Q

What combinations of wx producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good vis, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?

A

Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting

184
Q

If you are avoiding thunderstorms in flight, you should be aware that: (in regards to hail)

A

You may encounter hail several miles from the clouds

- Found under ANVIL as well!!

185
Q

It is hazardous to fly within the vicinity of a DISSIPATING thunderstorm because this stage is characterized by:

A

Downdrafts

186
Q

The general characteristic of the troposphere is: (think temp/altitude)

A

An overall DECREASE in TEMP with INCREASE in altitude

187
Q

There is a fast moving COLD front approaching your route of flight. You are currently in a warmer high moisture area. What conditions can you expect to develop?

A

Squall line with thunderstorms

188
Q

If the forecast is for a temperature of -2C and dew point of -3C what wx can you expect?

A

Frost

189
Q

What source would best help the pilot determine current and forecast icing conditions?

A

G-AIRMET

Graphical AIRMET

190
Q

Extensive cumulus development in mountainous ares indicates ___ air

A

Unstable air

191
Q

Surface friction in mountainous areas will cause wind speed to:

A

Decrease!

192
Q

What condition is favorable when experiencing supercooled large droplet icing?

A

Ice can splash on structure below +5 deg C

193
Q

If an a/c on final approach and glideslope encounters a sudden change from 20 knot TAIL wind to 20 knot HEAD wind, what should the pilot expect?

A
  • Increased AIRSPEED

- Tendency to go ABOVE glideslope (or descent rate decreases)

194
Q

What conditions can cause fog to form in lowland areas at night?

A

The movement of warm, moist air

195
Q

What commonly happens on a calm night when a light breeze cools the temperature of the ground?

A

Temperature inversion

196
Q

Review a convective outlook to find:

A

Slight, moderate or high risk of sever thunderstorm activity

197
Q

What is the max tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the a/c is directly over the airborne checkpoint

A

Plus or minus 6 degrees of the designated radial

198
Q

While in level cruise flight at 6,000 the temp rises above standard. How will TRUE airspeed change as a result?

A

INCREASE

  • If indicated airspeed is to remain the same, TAS has to increase
199
Q

What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an an angle RATHER THAN PARALLEL to the isobars?

A

SURFACE FRICTION

200
Q

Pitot static system inspection needs to be within the last 24 cal months prior to IFR flight in:

A

CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

  • not IMC conditions
201
Q

What service is provided by ATC while on an IFR flight when operating in Class C airspace?

A

Separation from IFR and PARTICIPATING VFR aircraft!!

202
Q

Which info is always given in an ABBREVIATED departure clearance?

A

Destination
Altitude
Fix

203
Q

What is the max speed for procedure turns?

A

200 knots

CFII Lab (415) (5 decks)

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