Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Path II Summer 2017 > Female Reproductive Pathology > Flashcards

Female Reproductive Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Regression of the mesonephric (wolfian) ducts means that what sex will develop?

A

Female.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Regression of the paramesonephric ducts means what sex will develop?

A

male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the definition of a male pseudohermaprhodite?

A

externally, appears as a female but has testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the result of vascular anastomosis (exchange of blood between foetuses)?

A

sterile female co-twin of male freemartin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is equine turner’s syndrome?

A

lack of a sex chromosome (X0). You won’t have female hormones, will have underdeveloped ovaries, and reproductive tract (small vulva and vag is small, with non-functioning ovaries).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are 2 types of ovarian cysts you can have?

A

luteal cyst and follicular cyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This is an example of what type of cyst?

A

follicular cyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ovarian hemorrhage is seen when? What animals do you often see these in?

A

Seen especially after the follicles rupture, and seen more in mares.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This neoplasm is the most common ovarian in cows and mares, it produces estrogens or androgens, and is generally unilateral, large, and nonmalignant.

A

Granulosa cell tumor (granulosa-theca cell tumor).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This is an example of what tumor? How do you know?

A

Granulosa cell tumor. The cystic structures and hemorrhagic areas are hallmarks of these tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Histologically, how do you dx granulosa cell tumors?

A

Call-exner bodies are diagnostic of these tumors. Granulosa cell tumors are also inhibin positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This neoplasm contains cells from two or more germ cell lines

A

teratomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This germ cell tumor is a tumor of primordial germ cells of the embryonic gonad, is always considered malignant, and 20% of them metastasize.

A

dysgerminoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a histological feature of an adenocarcinoma?

A

Glandular columnar cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What bacteria can cause inflammation of the ovary?

A

Salmonella pullorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which animal has 2 cervices?

A

Rabbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This is an example of what? What is this condition usually secondary to?

A

Hydrosalpinx. It is usually secondary to obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This condition is usually secondary to endometritis and may lead to pyosalpinx and interfere with fertility

A

Salpingitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is pyosalpinx?

A

Accumulation of pus in the tube following obstruction of the lumen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Uterine torsion usually occurs when?

A

when there is an enlarged uterus (pregnancy, pyometra, mucometra).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: if there is maceration of the fetus there is always some type of infection.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

uterine prolaps occurs in what animals most commonly? What usually causes it?

A

Ruminants and pigs. Caused by dystocia, forced traction, retained placenta,or post parturient hypocalcemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the mai cause of uterine rapture?

A

It is mainly iatogenic (obstetrical manipulation, dystocia, fluid infusions).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between hydrometra and mucometra? What usually leads to these conditions?

A

Hydrometra is the accumulation of fluid, while mucometra is the accumulation of mucous. They are usually secondary to endometrial hyperplasia or congenital obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common form of uterine inflammation?

A

endometritis, inflammation of the endometrium only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does the uterus’ resistance to infection reduced?

A

during prenancy, under the influence of progesterone and postpartum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is metritis?

A

inflammation of all layers of the uterine wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is perimetritis?

A

inflammation extending to tissues surrounding uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

pyometra is what?

A

accumulation of pus in the lumn of the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

endometrial hyperplasia is usually due to what?

A

prolonged heperestrogenism or excess progesterone with estrogen priming.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most frequent disorder of the uterus in middle-aged and older intact dogs?

A

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra are an abnormal response of the uterus to what? How do these typically present?

A

To long periods of high serum-progesterone concentrations during the luteal phases of the estrous cycle. Will present with PU/PD and other renal failure symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is this an image of?

A

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia. Notice all the cysts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the pathogenesis of endometrial hyperplasia in female dogs?

A

estrogen binds to estrogen receptors in the endometrium–>there is synthesis of intracellular progesterone receptors–> progesterone binds–>accumulations of endometrial secretions–>progesterone immunosuppresses, providing a suitable environment for bacteria to grow and cause pyometra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is pyometra?

A

acute or chronic suppurative inflammation characterized by accumulation of pus in the entire lumen, usually secondary to endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who does pyometra normally affect?

A

older animals, especially those that are not bred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the clinical signs of pyometra?

A

PU/PD, depressed, anorexic, and vaginal discharge is also present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most common cause of pyometra?

A

E. coli (endotoxin is what makes the animals sick)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What bacteria causes contagious equine metritis?

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who do you test for CEM? is this a reportable disease?

A

Both stallions and mares, stallions are carriers. It is reportable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is uterus adenomyosis?

A

presence of endometrial glands and stroma between the muscle bundles of the myometrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This condition is only seen in primates, and it is the result of actively growing endometrial tissues are explanted to aberrant sites within ad outside the uterus.

A

Endometriosis (ectopic endometrial glands).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What neoplasms are common in the uterus of rabbits?

A

adenocarcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What neoplasm is the most common neoplasm of the uterus in cows?

A

lymphosarcoma, in BLV positive cows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What neoplasm is this and who is it commonly found in?

A

Leiomyoma, found in dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is this and what purpose do they serve?

A

These are endometrial cusps and they make gonadotropin which signals to the ovary to keep making progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The chorion is incontact with (mother/baby)

A

Mother. Usually fused with the allantois.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The allantois is what layer and what does it contain?

A

It is the middle layer and it contains fetal urine and other fluids arising from the membrane itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the amnion? How can you usually ID the fetal side?

A

Amnion is the smooth translucent membrane that surrounds the fetus and holds amniotic fluid. You can ID the fetal sif due to the presence of amniotic plaques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are caruncles?

A

dome shaped areas in the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are cotyledons?

A

forms on the placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a placentome?

A

where the cotyledons attach to the coruncles. These are the only places where maternal-fetal blood is in contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why is colostrum so important in ruminants?

A

They have the max number of layers on both the maternal and fetal side, so antibody transfer is not great.

54
Q

Is this normal or abnormal? What is it?

A

This is normal. They are amniotic plaques.

55
Q

When are amniotic plaques usually seen?

A

during months 3-5 of gestation.

56
Q

What animals have a diffuse placenta?

A

swine or horse.

57
Q

What is a diffuse plaacenta?

A

There is contact all over the uterus. The number of layers is the same as in ruminants though.

58
Q

What is this image showing?

A

Cervical star in horses. It is a non-glandular area of placenta near the cervix, where the placenta cannot interdigitate over the cervix.

59
Q

Are cervical stars a normal finding?

A

Yes.

60
Q

In what animals are zonary placentas seen?

A

dogs and cats.

61
Q

There is some level of Abs getting into the fetus in dogs and cats. Why is this?

A

Because they have fewer layers between mother and fetus.

62
Q

Are the two dark bands seen in the placenta below normal?

A

Yes.

63
Q

What kind of placenta is seen below? In what animal are they usually seen?

A

Discoid placenta. Seen in lab animals and primates. Has the least # of layers between the mother and fetus, so everything that goes to the mom goes to the fetus.

64
Q

What is shown in the picture below? What animals are these most commonly seen in?

A

Hippomanes, an incidental finding found in the allantoic fluid of all herbivores. Most common in horses and other equids

65
Q

This is seen in cases of twinning, endometrial fibrosis, premature placental separation, or uterine body pregnancy, and can lead to fetal death, mummification, or abortion. Important in mares.

A

Placental insufficiency.

66
Q

What is this? Why does it develop? Does it cause major issues?

A

Adventitial placentation. Develops as a mechanism of compensation for inadequate development of placentomes. It is an incidental finding, so no major issues seen with this.

67
Q

This condition is a result of lots of fluid in the amnion because the fetus isn’t swallowing fluid properly. Usually associated with malformation of the fetus.

A

Hydramnios

68
Q

This condition is a result of a lot of fluid in the allantoic cavity. It is associated with uterine disease with inadequate #s of caruncles and the development of adventitial placentation in cattle.

A

Hydroallantois.

69
Q

Do you have to remove a retained placenta?

A

No, it will be expelled within 3-24 hours. You only should remove it in a tropical area because the environment can cause it to smell/an infection to develop.

70
Q

What is this a picture of?

A

Fibrinous placentitis. Can get infected from the maternal side.

71
Q

What is this a picture of? What is a complication that can arise from this? Who is this common in ?

A

Subinvolution of placental sites. Common in dogs, can result in rapture and hemoperitoneum.

72
Q

What is the difference between abortion and stillbirth?

A

abortion is anything that results in death and expulsion before the fetus reaches full term, while stillbirth is when the fetus is full term/independently viable and dead.

73
Q

How is embryonic mortality different from abortion?

A

embryonic mortality is an early embryonic loss that occurs during early stages of gestation.

74
Q

What is the cause for embryonic mortalities most of the time? What else can cause it?

A

Most of the time its chromosomal abnormalities, but infections such as Campylobacter venerealis, tritrichomonas foestus, leptospira bovis, and viruses can also cause it.

75
Q

What is fetus mummification?

A

when the fetus is retained indefinitely and becomes dehydrated. It usually takes longer than a week to occur.

76
Q

What are some things that can cause fetal mummification?

A

Horse - twinning, cattle - BVD infection, Dog - canine herpes virus, Cat - uterine horn torsion, Sow - parvoviral infection AKA SMEDI.

77
Q

What is maceration?

A

when the dead fetus is retained and infected by bacteria. It may be associated with dystocia or incomplete abortion and it can lead to pyometa and maternal death from peritonitis, and sepsis.

78
Q

When should you further examine aborted bovine fetuses for diagnostic evaluations?

A

when the abortion rate exceeds 3% or when you have an abortion storm.

79
Q

If you are sending aborted bovine fetuses for diagnostic testing, what should you send?

A

fetus and placenta, as well as serology from mom (one @ time of abortion and one 4 weeks later)

80
Q

What are some things to keep in mind when you see pregnancy failure in cattle?

A

regional differences in the most common causes of abortion and common causes of abortion in your area.

81
Q

What lesions will you see with Campylobacter foetus subsp. venerealis (even though bacT was last semester…)? When are abortions seen?

A

intercotyledonary placentitis and necrosis of the cotyledons. You will see early embryonic deaths at 3-4 weeks.

82
Q

Who do you test to dx Campylobacter foetus subs. venerealis?

A

semen if AI, prepuce of bull.

83
Q

Tritrichomonas can result in what?

A

embryonic death or overt abortion. Pyometra can be a complication.

84
Q

How do you dx tritrichomonas?

A

protozoa can be found in the preputial washes, vaginal mucus, and in cases of abortion in the stomach contents of the fetus. You can also test the bull.

85
Q

What do you often seen if the umbilical cord is too long?

A

foal strangulation and necrosis of the cervical pole of the placenta.

86
Q

What can happen if the umbilical cord is shorter that normal?

A

premature separation of the placenta at the site of attachment.

87
Q

What is the normal length of the umbilical cord?

A

36-83 cm long

88
Q

What is the main cause of pregnancy failure in pigs?

A

30-40% of them are primarily infectious.

89
Q

What are some examples of microorganisms that can cause pregnancy failure in pigs?

A

Brucella suis***** (can affect dogs, zoonotic, BSL3, reportable), Actinomyces pyogenes, E. coli, S. aureus, E. rhusiopathiae, etc. Also PRRS, herpesvirus and SMEDI.

90
Q

Pregnancy failure in dogs and cats can be caused by what?

A

Salmonella (often overlooked as a cause) and Brucella canis.

91
Q

SMEDI problems are usually caused by what?

A

porcine parvovirus.

92
Q

What are some classical signs of SMEDI?

A

full term litter consisting of small mummified fetus ranging up to full grown still born or live weakly piglets, due to progressive infection in utero.

93
Q

When testing the fetal organs, what should you specifically test?

A

stomach/abomasal fluid because its the cleanest.

94
Q

If you see these leathery plaques on a fetus, what is the likely cause of the abortion?

A

mycotic abortion.

95
Q

What are you seeing here? What is the likely cause?

A

Cotuledonary necrosis, likely due to toxoplasma gondii.

96
Q

If you see these lesions on the liver of an aborted fetus, what is the likely cause?

A

C. fetus subsp. fetus or C. jejuni.

97
Q

What is the likely cause of the lesions seen on the liver below?

A

Equine herpesvirus 1

98
Q

What is an acardiac monster?

A

Also known as bovine amorphous globsus, it is the remnant of a twin fetus attached to the placenta of the normal twin by a stalk. Usually covered in hair.

99
Q

What is the purpose of the cervix?

A

Protects the uterus from the external environment and it can act as a reservoir of sperm in some species.

100
Q

What is the most common pathology associated with the cervix?

A

trauma from acquired injury that can lead to inflammation.

101
Q

Are cysts in the vagina something to be concerned about?

A

No

102
Q

Cattle or pigs that ingest corn conaminated with fusarium can develop what? How?

A

they can develop vulvar hyperplasia due to the toxin searalenone which mimics estrogen.

103
Q

T/F: a swollen vulva can be considered normal.

A

True. It depends on the time/cycle.

104
Q

What is this a picture of? Infection with what can usually cause this?

A

Granular vulvitis. Can be due to infection with Ureaplasma diversum

105
Q

What is this a picture of? What viruses can cause this?

A

Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis which can be caused by bovine herpes virus 1 or caprine herpes virus 1 in goats.

106
Q

What is this? What virus can usually cause it?

A

coital exanthema, ulcerative vulvutus in a mare. Caused by equine herpes virus 3.

**depigmented regions are characteristic lesions of this condition**

107
Q

What neoplasm do you see below?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

108
Q

What neoplasm do you see below?

A

Transmissible venereal tumor

109
Q

What are some common pathologies of the mammary gland?

A

mastitis in dairy animals and mammary neoplasms in dogs and cats.

110
Q

When are you most likely to see mastitis?

A

shortly after calving and in the drying off period when milk stagnates in the udder.

111
Q

What is usually the main culprit of mastitis?

A

mainly bacteria, but fungi and viruses can cause it as well.

112
Q

What cells will predominate in a granulomatous mastitis?

A

macrophages.

113
Q

What do you see here? What 2 bacteria can cause this? How do you treat?

A

chronic mastitis and galactophoritis. Can be caused by Nocardia or Mycobacterium. Cull the animal.

114
Q

What bacteria can cause a contagious mastitis?

A

Strep agalactiae, Staph aureus, and Mycoplasma

115
Q

What is this and what is the likely cause?

A

Mastitis, due to Staph aureus.

116
Q

Mycoplasma mastitis is generally caused by what species?

A

M. bovis.

117
Q

Coliform mastitis is usually caused by what? Who is most severely affected?

A

ubiquitous organisms in the environment, like E. coli or environmental strep. Most severe in newly calved cows since they are transiently immunosuppressed.

118
Q

What are some other causes of mastitis? Is it recognizable grossly?

A

viral diseases, ovine progressive pneumonia (Maedi-Visna), and Caprine arthritis encephalitis. These cause an interstitial mastitis, so it is not recognizable grossly.

119
Q

These tumors are seen most commonly in dogs and cats, and is rare in other species.

A

Mammary gland tumors.

120
Q

What is a predisposing factor for getting mammary neoplasias?

A

having an intact reproductive tract.

121
Q

What are some benign mammary tumors?

A

adenomas, fibroadenomas, benign mixed tumors, and duct papillomas.

122
Q

What are some malignant mammary tumors?

A

carcinoma, osteosarcoma, carcinoma, and fibrosarcoma.

123
Q

What is a big factor that determines the prognosis of canine mammary tumors?

A

Size of the tumor.

124
Q

Does age affect whether or not a dog will develop a benign or malignant mammary tumor?

A

Yes. Young dogs are more likely to have beign tumors, while dogs over 9.5 years are more likely to have malignant neoplasms.

125
Q

Dogs treated with what have an increased number of malignant neoplasms?

A

a combo of estrogens and progestins.

126
Q

Tumorst greater than ____ cm are more likely to be malignant and show lymph node metastasis

A

5 cm

127
Q

This is the most important factor in cats, determining prognosis of mammary tumors.

A

Size

128
Q

T/F most neoplasms in cats are malignant

A

True

129
Q

You see this in a cat. What do you think it is? Is it benign or malignant?

A

mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia. It is benign. Seen in cats who have been on prolonged progesterone therapy, pregnant cats, or young intact cats.

130
Q

What is this? Is it benign or malignant?

A

This is mammary fibrodenomatous hyperplasia. It is a really benign tumor.

131
Q

You see a rat with a neoplasm on its neck. What is your main differential?

A

Mammary gland neoplasia.

Path II Summer 2017 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions