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Feline Flashcards

1
Q
A

low potassium

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2
Q
A

septic abdomen

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2
Q
A

total T4

see hyperthyroidism power sheet

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3
Q
A

acetylcysteine and S-adenosylmethionine

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3
Q
A

systolic blood pressure, serum chemistry panel and thyroid hormone levels

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3
Q

which is not a common sequela of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats
* right heat failure
* systolic anterior motion of the mitral vale
* thromboembolism
* left heart failure

A

right heart failure

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4
Q

2 yr old, normal activity and appetite. non painful. How to treat?
* antibiotics
* radiation
* spay
* bilateral radical mastectomy followed by chemo
* bilateral radical mastectomy without chemo

A

spay

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5
Q
A

efferent to left eye

  • no matter which eye light is shined in, there is no motor (or efferent) response in the left eye
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6
Q
A

pyelonephritis

  • pollakiuria and dysuria are lower urinary tract signs that are not consistent with pyelonephrititis alone. They would be systemically sick: fever, anorexia, depression
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7
Q
A

If T. blagburni is not identified and treated properally, it will cause small bowel diarrhea indefinetly

see small animal parasites: protozoa

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8
Q

white cats with blue eyes are commonly born with what defect?

A

deafness

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9
Q
A

horner’s syndrome

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10
Q
A

MRI

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11
Q
A

Collagenolytic granuloma

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12
Q
A

mirtazapine as an appetite stimulant

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13
Q

cat with chronic cough

A

capillaria

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14
Q
A

IV calcium gluconate

see feline obstruction power page

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15
Q
A

herpesvirus infection

see herpes ocular video

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16
Q
A

fluconazole

  • cryptococcus- encapsulated fungus
  • treat with anti-fungals such as fluconazole or itraconazole

clindamycin for toxoplasma, fenbendazole for internal parasities such as hookworms, roundworms and giardia. Chlorambucil is a chemo drug for lymphoma

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17
Q
A

external beam radiation therapy for acromegaly

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18
Q
A

anemia, peripheral eosinophilia, tapeworm infection

see flea allergy power page

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19
Q
A

good, mean survival is greater than 2 years

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20
Q
A

bovine

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21
Q
A

supportive care and fluid therapy plus treatment with ampicillin, metro and ursodeoxycholic acid

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22
Q
A

dilated cardiomyopathy

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23
Q
A

epi will prolong the duration of lidocaine’s effects

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24
Q

what is the causative agent for feline infectious anemia?

A

mycoplasma heamofelis

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25
Q
A

has ear mites amd clotrimazole(antifungal) does not work for those

  • the dog had yeasty ears not mites
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26
Q

cat with hyperthyroidism with mild clinical signs and normal serum total T4. Which diagnostic test would you run next?

A

free T4 by equilibrium dialysis

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27
Q
A

anterior uveitis

anterior uveitis video

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28
Q
A

hypoglycemia post surgery, which needs close BG monitoring

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29
Q
A

toxoplasma

  • toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites multiplying within macrophages and neutrophils
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30
Q
A

vaginal cytology showing mostly cornified epithelial cells

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31
Q
A

cheyletiella

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32
Q
A

diazepam

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33
Q
A

biopsy of the pad lesions

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34
Q
A

FIP

see FIP powerpage

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35
Q
A

acidifying diet

see urolithiasis/stones power page

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36
Q
A

FIC

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37
Q
A
  • lesions will most likely spontaneously regress
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38
Q
A

an ionized calcium level

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39
Q
A

fleas

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40
Q
A

calicivirus

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41
Q
A

electrocardiogram, retrograde urethrogram, coagulation panel

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42
Q
A

chemistry panel

see hyperthyroidism power page

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43
Q
A

place a penrose drain for 4 days

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44
Q
A

a large % of cats are seropositive for Toxoplasma gondii, but are not necessarily shedding oocysts

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45
Q
A

steroids

see chronic renal insufficiency power page

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46
Q
A

measure serum fTLI concentration

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47
Q
A

stargazer lilly

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48
Q
A

on the antimesenteric border

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49
Q
A

enema, laxatives, cisapride, fair prognosis

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50
Q
A

1-3 weeks from the end of the current estrus

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51
Q
A

metabolic acidosis, electroylte disturbances, hyperosmolality

  • DKA
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52
Q
A

gastric lavage, activated charcoal, vit K daily for 30 days

see rodenticide toxicity power page

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53
Q
A

retrobulbar abscess

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54
Q
A

atenolol

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55
Q
A

draw blood for a fructosamine level

see diabetes mellitus

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56
Q
A

intoxication with cholecalciferol based rodenticide (Dcon)

see hypercalcemia power page

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57
Q
A

horners

disruption of the sympathetic trunk traveling along the neck.

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58
Q
A

feline panleukopenia virus

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59
Q
A

esophageal stricture

see hyperthroidism power page

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60
Q
A

portal systemic shunt

listen to portosystemic shunt video

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61
Q
A

fecal oral transmission

see feline infectious peritonitis power sheet

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62
Q
A

when light is directed into the abnormal eye, the pupil in the normal eye stays dilated

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63
Q
A

If T. blagburni is not identified and treated properly, it will cause small bowel diarrhea indefinitely

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64
Q
A

naloxone

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65
Q
A

progesterone

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66
Q
A

euthanize and test

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67
Q
A

coccidia are incredibly environmentally resistant and difficult to disinfect, coccidia are also species-sepcific so the baby is not at risk but the other cat could become infected

see parasite-protozoa page
treat with: Sulfadimethoxine

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68
Q
A

saddle thrombus

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69
Q
A

Diazepam

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70
Q
A

the other side may start to show the same signs within a few weeks to months.

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71
Q
A

psychogenic alopecia

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72
Q
A

Itraconazole

power lecture- cryptococcus

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73
Q
A

acid fast stain

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74
Q
A

cuterebra

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74
Q
A

the effusion is strongly suggestive of FIP

see FIP power page

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75
Q
A

british shorthair, devon rex

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76
Q
A

well circumscribed

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77
Q
A

expiratory push

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78
Q
A

administer mirtazapine as an appetite stimulant

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79
Q
A

atenolol

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80
Q
A

atelectasis

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81
Q
A

B. henselae

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82
Q
A

2

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83
Q
A

yohimbine (antagonil- alpha 2 antagonist)

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84
Q

xylazine is what type of med? is it reversible?

A

alpha 2 agonist
yohimbine- alpha 2 antagonist

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85
Q

opioid reversal

A

naloxone

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86
Q

midazolam is a — and can be reversed with —

A

benzo
flumazenil

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87
Q
A

crystalloids and insulin

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88
Q
A

protein losing nephropathy

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89
Q

what kind of drug is enalapril

A

ACE inhibitor
* vasodilator, antihypertensive, heart failure treatment
* prevents angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2, this will reduce aldosterone and cause diuresis
* dilatory effects on efferent arterioles of glomeruli help to reduce protein losing nephropathies

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90
Q
A

ioized calcium

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91
Q
A

vaginal cytology showing cornified epithelial cells

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92
Q

if an LH level is —, an ovarian remant is likely. If it is — it does not rule it out

A

low
high

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93
Q
A

palpable nodule in the area of the thyroid gland

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94
Q

historical signs of hyperthyroid in a cat

A

weight loss, polyphagia, vomiting, hyperactivity.

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95
Q

physical exam sign of cat with hyperthyroidism

A
  • thyroid nodule (or “slip”)
  • tachycardia
  • heart murmur or gallop
  • vomiting
  • weight loss with polyphagia
  • hyperactivity
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96
Q

how to diagnosis hyperthyroidism in cat

A
  • serum total T4 levels (> 4.0)
  • elevated ALT, ALP, AST
  • erythrocytosis
  • HTN
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97
Q

how to treat hyperthyroidism in cats

A

methimazole (tapazole)
surgery
radioactive I-131

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98
Q

if total T4 < 4 in cat what to do if you suspect hyperthyroidism

A

free T4
TRH response testing
T3 supression test

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99
Q

— used to treat hyperthyroidism in cats can cause facial excoriations

A

methimazole

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100
Q
A

bathe, IV fluids, methocarbamol

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101
Q

how to treat pyrethrin toxicity in cats

A
  • caused by some flea meds- can cause hypersalivation and tremoring
  • wash
  • methocarbamol- muscle relaxant for seizures
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102
Q
A

calcium gluconate

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103
Q
A

giardia- fenbendazole or metro

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104
Q
A

FIV- saliva and bites
* fighting disease

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105
Q
A

no treatment
* coccidian- not parasitic
* 2ndary to coprophagy
* eimeria: 4 sporocysts- parasitic in reptiles, birds, herbivores

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106
Q

isospora is an infectious — in dogs and cats that can be treated with —

A

coccidian
sulfadimethoxine (albon)

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107
Q
A

anterior uveitis

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108
Q

diabetes can cause cataracts in

A

dogs
* uncommon in cats

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109
Q
A

cisplatin

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110
Q

cisplatin can cause — in cats

A

fatal pulmonary edema
* cis- plat splats cats

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111
Q

flurorouracil can cause — in cats

A

neurotoxicity

  • contraindicated
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112
Q
A

tritrichomonas foetus, ronidazole
* flagellated parasite that can cause unresponsive diarrhea
* difficult to diagnose

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113
Q

paragonimus kellicotti is a —, treated with —

A

lung fluke
eggs passed in feces
fenbendazole and praziquantal

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114
Q

taenia is a — that is treated with —

A

tapeworm
praziquantel

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115
Q

how to treat cryptosporidum

A

clindamycin
azithromycin
tylosin

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116
Q
A

prolongs the duration of the effects
* causes local vasoconstriction, preventing rapid systemic absorption

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117
Q
A

subtotal colectomy

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118
Q
A

superficial skin scape

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119
Q

difference between demodex in a cat vs a dog

A

demodex gatoi- itchy, superficial
demodex cati- contagious, deep
demodex canis- deep

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120
Q
A

surgery after stabilizing

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121
Q
A

blood pressure, chemistry and thyroid panel

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121
Q
A

chlamydophila felis

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122
Q

herpes or chlamydophila felis will cause systemic disease

A

herpes- ocular, dendritic ulcers with systemic disease
chlamydophila- severe chemosis

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123
Q
A

upper GI obstruction

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124
Q

addisons will cause — potassium

A

high

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125
Q

GI obstruction will cause — on bloodwork

A

hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

(chloride low)
(TCO2 high)

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126
Q

urethral obstruction causes — potassium

A

high

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127
Q
A

IFA positive= truly infected

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128
Q
A
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129
Q
A
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130
Q
A

efferent to the left eye

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131
Q
A

blood pressure

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132
Q
A

intramedullary pin

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133
Q
A

monitor and spontaneously regression

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134
Q
A

primary met acidosis with compensatory resp alkalosis

  • ph tells you acidemic
  • negative base excess or low HCO3 tells you met acidosis
  • low PaCO2 test you resp alkalosis (hyperventilation)
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135
Q

respiratory acidosis is seen by —

A

high pCO2

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136
Q

respiratory alkalosis is

A

low pCO2 (hyperventilation)

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137
Q

high bicarb is

A

metabolic alkalosis
* normal anion gap (Na+K)-(HCO3+Cl)
* high bicarb
* Cl much lower than Na
* loss of HCl from vomiting
* ileus/ internal vomiting in large animal
* low K can cause paradoxic aciduria (high H)
* pt dehydrated tries to absorb NaCl, no Cl so it reabsorbs Bicarb instead= high bicarb in blood
* low K in blood from pt not eating

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138
Q

— pCO2 is respiratory acidosis

A

high

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138
Q

low bicarb can mean

A

metabolic acidosis

Titrational met acidosis
* normal AG, low bicarb, normal Cl
* KLUE=
* ketones- in urine= DKA
* lactate- dehydrated (high albumin, NaCl, PCV, BUN, Creat), low PCV= anemia= low O2
* uremic acid- azotemia
* ethelyn glycol- AKI= anuria and high K (monohydrate crystals)
* loss of bicarb

Loss metabolic acidosis
* normal AG, low bicarb, high Cl» Na
* renal loss- AKI, azotemia=casts, low NaCl, normal BG, + glucose in urine
* choke- LA
* GI disease- diarrhea

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139
Q

—- HCO3 is metabolic alkalosis

A

high

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140
Q

explain paradoxical aciduria

A

metabolic alkalosis (high bicarb) with acidic urine

  • hypovolemia- body tries to reabsorb Na to maintain ECF and plasma volume, Cl follows Na and triggers RAAS
  • GI obstruction/vomiting: loss or seg of HCl. Metabolic alkosis from drop in H+, low Cl- Cl not reabsorbed with Na, Bicarb replaces Cl and is reabsorbed with Na= acidifies urine
  • RAAS (aldosterone): keep Na/excrete potassium, low K: if no K available to exchange for Na, then H excreted with Na is reabsorbes= acidifies urine
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141
Q
A

aluminum hydroxide (phosphorus binder/antiacid)

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142
Q
A

SCC-poor prognosis

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143
Q
A

acetaminophen: tylenol

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144
Q
A

hyperadrenocorticism

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145
Q

cats with DKA can also have —
while dogs with DKA can also have —

A
  • Cats: hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease
  • dogs: hyperadrenocorticism
  • both: pancreatitis and bacterial infections
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146
Q
A
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147
Q
A

upper GI obstruction

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148
Q
A
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149
Q
A

eat normal diet

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150
Q

what can cause pancreatitis in dogs

A
  • Fat – obesity, fatty meals, hyperlipidemia
  • Systemic inflammation, trauma, ischemia
  • Endocrine diseases – hyperadrenocorticism, diabetes mellitus
  • Drugs – azathioprine, l-asparaginase, tetracycline
  • In cats, the causes of pancreatitis are not as well understood
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151
Q

what drugs can cause pancreatitis in dog

A

Fat – obesity, fatty meals, hyperlipidemia
● Systemic inflammation, trauma, ischemia
● Endocrine diseases – hyperadrenocorticism, diabetes mellitus
● Drugs – azathioprine, l-asparaginase, tetracycline
● In cats, the causes of pancreatitis are not as well understood

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152
Q

Clinical signs of pancreatitis in dogs

A
  • Mainly GI signs: vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, cranial abdominal pain. A dog that hunches in a “praying posture” is a diagnostic clue for pancreatitis.
  • Severe necrotizing pancreatitis can cause hypovolemia, fever, tachycardia, jaundice, and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).
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153
Q

clinical signs of pancreatitis in cats

A

Tend to have non-specific lethargy and anorexia and may or may not have any of the other GI signs like dogs: vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, cranial abdominal pain

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154
Q

how to treat dogs with acute pancreatitis

A
  • Treatment is largely supportive and can be controversial, but it is generally agreed that delaying
    feeding    , post-duodenal feeding by tube, and/or feeding a NO fat diet is helpful
    ● Hospitalization and aggressive intravenous fluid therapy if indicated
    ● H2 blockers (i.e. Ranitidine) and anti-emetics
    ● Analgesics
    ● Antibiotics are only indicated if pancreatic necrosis or sepsis is suspected
    ● Plasma or heparin administration may be indicated in severe cases
    Treatment for chronic pancreatitis in dogs is to maintain a low-fat and highly digestible diet and to monitor closely for signs that require intervention
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155
Q

what type of dogs get exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

A

German Shepherds, Collies and English Setters

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156
Q

Chronic — is the most common cause of EPI in cats.

A

pancreatitis

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157
Q

— is the most common cause of EPI in the dog

A

Pancreatic acinar atrophy

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158
Q

clinical signs of EPI

A

Small bowel diarrhea with voluminous, yellowish or gray feces, polyphagia, pica, weight loss, and dermatological problems

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159
Q

how to treat EPI

A
  • give enzymes: powered pancreatic extracts
  • Parenteral cobalamin, vitamin K and oral vitamin E supplementation
  • Highly digestible, low-fiber diet
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160
Q

difference in feeding of a cat or dog with pancreatitis

A

cat: continue normal feeding
dog: hold food or give NO fat diet

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161
Q

which demodex in cats is itchy and contagious

A

demodex gatoi: superficial

demodex cati: deep

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162
Q
A

thoracocentesis

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163
Q
A
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164
Q

osteosarcomas are worse in dogs or cats?

A

dogs

in cats, they are slow to met and amputation can be curative

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165
Q
A

hyperkalemia

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166
Q

hyperkalemia changes the ability of the cell wall to repolarize, resulting in — cell membrane potential

A

decreased

this causes a decrease in myocardial excitavility and conduction = bradycardia

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167
Q
A
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168
Q
A

admit patient for fluid therapy and supportive care

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169
Q
A

pleural fluid triglyceride > serum triglyceride

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170
Q

pleural fluid glucose < serum glucose

A

infectious

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171
Q
A

not itchy from cat

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172
Q
A

ileocolic artery

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173
Q
A

no treatment at this time

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174
Q
A

have housemate empty box, takes 1-3 days to sporulate

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175
Q
A

humulin-R (regular insulin)

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176
Q

what insulin for cats that have been in DKA in the past

A

glargine (lantus)
PZI

  • longer acting insulin
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177
Q
A
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178
Q

left shift on bloodwork would indicate

A

immature neutrophils
and high neutrophil count

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179
Q
A

primary hyperparathyroidisim and surgery

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180
Q
A

cryptococcosis

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181
Q
A
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182
Q

what meds can cause fatal dysbiosis in GP rabbits and degu

A

beta lactams: ampicillin
lincomycin
clindamycin
erythromycin
steroids

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183
Q
A

diazepam rectally

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184
Q
A
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185
Q
A

herpes and chlamydophila: topical tetracycline

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186
Q
A
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187
Q
A

serum T4: hyperthyroid

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188
Q
A
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189
Q
A

I-131

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190
Q
A
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191
Q

negri bodies may be seen with

A

rabies

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192
Q

how to treat giardia

A

fenbendazole or metronidazole

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193
Q
A
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194
Q
A
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195
Q
A
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196
Q

small yeast with large capsule in a CSF tap may be

A

cryptococcus

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197
Q

latex agglutination titer of — on CSF and — in serum indicated cryptococcus infection

A

1:100
1:10,000

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198
Q
A

hyperkalemia

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199
Q
A
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200
Q
A
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201
Q

signs of DM in cats vs dogs

A

plantigrade stance in cats
cataracts in dogs

both: PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss, recurrent infections

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202
Q

what type of diet for a diabectic dog

A

Diet: A consistent diet is critical, the type of food, amount, and time of feeding.
i. High fiber, moderately fat-restricted diets are recommended.
ii. High protein and low carbohydrate diets for cats may be beneficial.

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203
Q

how to treat DKA

A
  • Aggressive IV Fluids – 0.9% saline with potassium and phosphate supplementation as needed.
  • Regular insulin: Regular insulin is the fast-acting insulin of choice for severe DKA. It can be given intermittently (q 6-8 hrs) or by continuous IV infusion.
  • With either, frequent blood glucose monitoring and insulin dose adjustment is necessary to achieve gradual decline in blood glucose level.
  • Bicarbonate Therapy - if metabolic acidosis is severe and/or not improving with IV fluids.
  • Identify and address any concurrent infections or diseases.
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204
Q
A

hyperthyroid

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205
Q
A
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206
Q
A
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207
Q
A
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208
Q

what are the round cell tumors

A

lymphoma
mast cell tumor
plasma cell tumor
histiocytoma
transmissible venereal tumor
+/- melanoma

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209
Q
A

methimazole (tapazole)

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210
Q
A
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211
Q

histopath of FIP will show

A
  • disseminated pyoganulomatous and fibronecrotic reactions around small veins
  • gold standard for diagnosis
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213
Q

cat

A

toxoplasma

216
Q
A

cytauxzoon felis, tick prevention and indoor only

217
Q

Cytauxzoon felis vs mycoplasma haemofelis on a slide

219
Q

HCM in cats causes — heart failure

A

left

left ventricle becomes stiffer and blood backs up into the pulmonary vessels = left sided heart failure

221
Q

— is an essential amino acid in cats that is used to make ornithine, which binds to ammoniona that is formed from the breakdown of proteins

222
Q

— can be seen in cats on raw diet which can cause neurologic symptoms

A

thiamin
* thiaminase depletes the body of thiamin

223
Q

low — results in buildup of ammonia and signs are similar to hepatic encephalopathy

224
Q

low — in cats causes weight loss, anorexia, poor hair coat, ulcerations and erythema of the tongue and palate and diarrhea

225
Q

low — can cause inappetance, lethargy and failure to thrive

226
Q

in cats low — can cause feline central retinal degeneration and —

A

taurine (elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting in the area centralis dorsolateral to the opic disk that progresses to a horizontal band and can involve the entire fundus)
cardiomyopathy

227
Q
A

chemistry for baseline renal functions

228
Q

hyperthyroidism can cause — renal perfusion and — GFR

A

increased and increased

230
Q

feline lungworm — is treated with —-

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus.

ivermectin and fenbendazole

231
Q
A

supportive care with fluids, ampicillin, metro and ursodeoxycholic acid

232
Q
A

medetomidine

233
Q

— are reversals for alpha 2 agonists

A

yohimbine
atipamezole (antisedan)

234
Q
A

itrazonazole

235
Q

— is a drug that can cause pemphigus foliaceus in cats

A

itraconazole

236
Q
A

calici, clindamycin and sucralfate

237
Q

— is a common virus that can cause upper respiratory symptoms as well as oral ulcers and stomatitis in cats

A

calicivirus

  • treat with clindamycin, doxy, clavamox (amoxicillin clavulanic acis), sucralfate to help ulcers
243
Q

histopath of cat gut with lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis is consistent with

A

IBD

  • treat underlying cause, control inflammation and control bacteria
  • steroids and hypoallergenic diet
245
Q
247
Q

low paCO2 is

A

respiratory alkalosis or hyperventilation

248
Q

more negative base excess means

A

metabolic acidosis

low pH and low bicarb can also mean this

249
Q
A

contagious, itchy and lives superficial

250
Q

— demodex lives superfically and is contagious and itchy

A

demodex gatoi

  • demodex cati- deep
252
Q

in utero or perinatal infection of kittens with — can cause cerebral hypoplasia, leading to inability to —

A

feline panleukopenia

  • inability to regulate and measure motor function, ataxia, dysmetria, vestibular signs, delayed postural reactions
253
Q
A

stargazer lily

254
Q
A

lyme sulfur dip

255
Q

— causes ringworm in cats

A

dermatophyte microsporum canis

  • treat with lyme sulfur dips
258
Q

prognosis of cat with mammary mass vs dog

A

cat: almost all met and are malignant

dogs: 50/50

both cats and dogs are at increased risk of mammary masses if they are spayed after 1 or more heat cycles

259
Q
A

linear foreign body

265
Q
A

rodenticide

266
Q

PTH – Causes — Ca and P mobilization from bone and promotes phosphate — and calcium — by the kidneys

A

increased
excretion
retention

(overall should cause increased Ca and decreased P).

267
Q

— overall should cause increased Ca and decreased P.

A

PTH – Causes increased Ca and P mobilization from bone and promotes phosphate excretion and calcium retention by the kidneys (overall should cause increased Ca and decreased P).

268
Q

Calcitriol – —Ca absorption from intestines and results in — P as well.

A

Increases
Increased

269
Q

— Reduces calcium levels by inhibition of osteoclastic bone resorption.

A

Calcitonin

270
Q

clinical signs of hypercalcemia

A
  • Polydipsia, polyuria
  • Anorexia
  • Depression, weakness
  • Vomiting
  • Constipation
  • Arrhythmias
  • Seizures, muscle tremors
271
Q

causes of hypercalcemia

A

GOSH DARN IT
○ G – Granulomatous disease, growing young dogs
○ O – Osteolytic disease (osteomyelitis, neoplasia)
○ S – Spurious (lipemic or post-prandial blood samples, lab error, hemolysis)
○ H – Hyperparathyroidism (primary)
○ D – Drugs (thiazides, calcium containing phosphate binders)
○ A – Addison’s disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
○ R – Renal failure (acute or chronic)
○ N – Nutritional (Hypervitaminosis D- from drugs, cholecalciferol rodenticide, or poisonous
plants, hypervitaminosis A, or excess Ca)
○ I – Idiopathic (mainly cats)
○ T – Tumors
■ Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy: Most commonly lymphoma, apocrine gland anal sac adenocarcinoma
■ Bone osteolysis: Most commonly multiple myeloma. Also lymphoma or bony neoplasia

272
Q

ethylene glycol can cause — calcium by

A

low
chelation of calcium by metabolites of ethylene glycol such as oxalate

273
Q

fleet enemas are — phosphorus and — calcium

A

fleet enemas are high in phosphorus and lead to a decrease in serum calcium due to law of mass action

274
Q

how does rat poision affect calcium levels

A

cholecalciferol based rodenticides
* cholecalciferol gets converted to active vit D to cause increased bone resoprtion of calcium and gut absorption of calcium leading to a sometimes fatal hypercalcemia

275
Q
A

dilated cardiomyopathy

278
Q

dexmedetomidine is a —- drug

A

alpha 2 agonist drug

279
Q
A

normal to enlarged adrenal glands

280
Q

skin fragility sundrome in cats is associated with — regulated DM due to —

A

poorlu
cushings, which can cause insulin resistance

281
Q

cats with cushings, 80% will have a — tumor and 20% will have a — tumor

A

pituitary
adrenal

282
Q

with a pituitary tumor causing cushings you expect the adrenal glands to be —

A

enlarged
* excessive ACTH secreted from the pituitary gland produces as high amount of cortisol and adrenal hypertrophy

285
Q

—- is the most common oral tumor in a cat, — is the most common oral tumor in dogs

A

cats: SCC, fibrosarcoma

Dogs: melanoma, SCC, fibrosarcoma, epulides

286
Q
A

environmentally resistant but species specific

289
Q

euthyroid sick syndrome occurs when concurrent illness causes T4 to —

A

decrease from being high down into normal range or from the normal range to below normal

290
Q
A

place a chest tube to drain and lavage chest and antibiotics

292
Q
A

spay and remove external

293
Q
A

renal toxicity

294
Q

sterile hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by what drug in dogs, but not in cats

A

cyclophosphamide

295
Q

what cancer drug causes neurotoxicity and should NOT be used in cats

A

5- fluorouracil

296
Q
A

protein losing nephropathy

297
Q

enalapril causes vaso—

A

dilator

  • ACE inhibitor that causes vasodilation, anti HTN, and heart failure treatment
  • prevents conversion of angiotensin 1 to 2, thus reducing aldosterone and causing diuresis
  • dilatory effects on the efferent arteriols of the glomeruli help with protein losing nephropathies
298
Q
A

right sided heart failure

301
Q

fleas cause loss of hair where for a cat vs dog

A

dogs: caudal dorsal: base of tail, ventral abdomen, hind legs

Cats: neck and face, miliary dermatitis, eosinophilic gramuloma complex, can be same as dog, symmetrical alopecia of the dorsal lateral trunk

302
Q

which flea medication is toxic to cats

A

permethrin (vectra, K9 advantix)

304
Q
A

physiological leukogram

307
Q
A

conjunctivitis

  • ptosis: upper eyelid drooping
  • miosis: constricted pupil
308
Q

constricted pupil medical term

309
Q

dilated pupil medical condition

315
Q

alprazolam is what kind of med

A

xanax
benzo derivative ( antidepressent not SSRI)

316
Q

clompiramine is what kind of drug

A

tricyclic antidepressent
inhibits seortonin norepinephrine re-uptake but they are not selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (NOT SSRI- like fluoxetine(prozac))

319
Q

what is the average duration of estrus in a cow

A

8-18 hours

320
Q

what is the most common locations for primary osteosarcoma in large breed dogs

A

(toward the knee)- distal femur and proximal tibia
(away from the elbow)- proximal humerus and distal radius

321
Q

the most common reasons that a cat with lymphoma develops dyspnea is

A

intrathroacic mass
* can either cause pleural effusion reducing the volume of the pulmonary parenchyma or the can compress the lungs and airways

324
Q

can you use ketoconazole in cats

A

NO
hepatotoxic and causes vomiting and diarrhea in cats

325
Q
328
Q

what kind of drug atenolol

A

beta blocker
decreases contracility and heart rate thus allowing for better chamber filling before contraction

334
Q

cat scratch disease is caused by

A

bartonella henselae
* fleas carry the bacteria

341
Q

— is a fungus found in the soil that causes rose growers disease

A

sporothrix

342
Q

how is toxoplasmosis transmitted

A

ingestion of oocytes in raw meat

344
Q
A

ringworm
dermatophyte fungus
treat with lyme sulfur dip in cats

345
Q

what chemo drug causes fatal pulmonary edema in cats

A

cisplatin

” cis-plat splats cats”

346
Q

which chemo drug is neurotoxic in cat

A

5-fluoruracil

352
Q

theophylline causes

A

bronchodilation

362
Q

— nystagmus is only seen with central vestibular disease

373
Q
A

atipamezole (antisedan)- alpha 2 antagonist

381
Q

gestational period for a cat

A

63 days
* fetal skeletons xray by 42 days
* US by 13 days

385
Q

herpes can cause what eye things in cats

A

conjunctivitis
corneal sequestrum
corneal ulcers
eosinophilic keratitis

387
Q

thromus from cats with HCM comes from —

A

dilated left atrium
* left ventricle is hypertrophied

389
Q

how to treat chlamydophila felis

A

topical tetracycline QID for one week post resolution of clinical signs

393
Q

milbemycin is what med

A

interceptor- hookworm, roundworm, whipworms

395
Q

blood transfusions are indicated when PCV is less than —

398
Q

how does rat position Dcon work

A

brodifacoum
* inhibits epoxide reductase resulting in a loss of active Vit K, (factors 2,7,9,10)
* clinical signs at 3-5 years and bleeding
* oral Vit K for 30 days
* PT checked 48 hours after last dose of Vit K

399
Q

which coag factors for vit K dependent

400
Q

Cholecalciferol rodenticides results in what bloodwork findings

A

hyperphosphatemia (12 hours post)
severe hypercalcemia (24 hours post)
azotemia (36-48 hrs)

402
Q

canine insulin is similar to

A

porcine insulin

404
Q

major causes of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

A

vasculitis, liver disease, seizures, toxins, venom, DIC, trauma, sepsis, electrocution

410
Q

how to treat hyperthyroidism in cats

A

surgery
radioactive iodine treatment
anti-thyroid drugs (methimazole)
low iodine diets

414
Q

what is acromegaly

A

excessive growth hormone for the pars distalis from a tumor
* causes defect in insulin receptors on target cells causing insulin resistant DM
* symptoms: enlarged head, paws, abdominal organs. weight gain from anabolic effects of growth hormones
* treat with: external beam raditation

418
Q

what is prognathism

A

big lower jaw

423
Q

how to treat eat mites in kitten

427
Q

in dry form FIP globulins are —

A

high
* mature neutrophilia, lymphopenia. NR anemia

428
Q

histopath of Dry form FIP is

A

perivascular pyogranulomatous inflammation

429
Q

how to treat “white rice” in cat

A

tapeworms: taenia taeniaeformis or Dipylidium caninum

praziquantal (droncit/drontal)

433
Q

how does amlodipine work

A

calcium channel blocker- prevents calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle = causes vasodilation

435
Q

when do horse teeth eruprt

436
Q

what is the carrier of mycobacterium leprae in the US

437
Q

how to treat a coughing cat + for heartworm

A

prednisolone and heartgard

  • cats treat inflammation from infection. heartgard to kill adults
438
Q

ketocanozole does what to cats

A

hepatotoxic and causes vomiting and diarrhea
* ketoconazole is an antifungal

439
Q

histoplasmosis is found?

A

MIDWEST and mississippi river

440
Q

blastomycosis is found

441
Q

coccidiodomycosis is found ?

442
Q

how to treat histoplasmosis

A

itraconazole
Midwest and mississippi river

443
Q

— is the hunting dog fungi

A
  • blastomycosis- very thick walled budding yeast
  • ohio river valley and eats of the mississippi river
  • vegetation, pigeons and bats
  • snowstorm chest rads
  • itraconazole
444
Q

cryptococcus treatment

A

amphotericin B +/- fluconazole
* pacific northwest
* “roman nose” cats: pigeoon poop and soil

445
Q

— causes roman nose cats

A
  • Cryptococcus neoformans and Cryptococcus gattii
  • fungi- pacific northwest
  • pigeon poop and soil
  • amphotericin B +/- fluconazole
446
Q

— fungi is found in the southwest after heavy rainstorm or dust storm

A

coccidioidomycosis- coccidioides immitis- fungi
* ketoconazole for 3 months, Itraconazole for 3 months

451
Q

— is used to treat urinary incontinence from urethral hypotonicity most often in dogs

A

phenylpropanolamine
proin: sympathomimetic: alpha and some beta: causes release of Norepi and inhibition of reuptake
* increases urethral sphincter tone and produces closure of the bladder neck

454
Q

cat with cough

460
Q

— deficiency can cause feline central retinal degeneration (FCRD)

A

taurine
also causes cadiomyopathy

466
Q
A

echo and diuretics

469
Q

what does methocarbamol do

A

skeletal muscle relaxant
* used for pyrethroid, struchnine, amphetamine toxicities

473
Q

where to place a G tube

A

left paracostal regio 2-3 cm caudal and parallel to the last rib

475
Q

skin fragility syndrome in cats is 2ndary to poorly controlled DM due to —

A

cushings
80% of cats have pituitary tumor leading to enlarged adrenal glands

476
Q

in cats with cushings what is the recommended test

A

LDDS:
because 80% of cats with cushings have a pituitary tumor

477
Q

what liver values are elevated with hepatic lipidosis vs cholangiohepatitis

A
  • lipidosis: high ALP, ALT, bili but normal GGT
  • chol: high GGT
479
Q

aluminum hydroxide is a —

A

phosphorous binding agent

483
Q
A

metabolic acidosis (low pH, more negative base excess and low HCO3)
compensatory resp alkalosis: low paCO2: hyperventilation

489
Q

compare mammary masses in dogs to cats

A

cats: most malignant and will met
dogs: 50/50 are malignant and of those 50% will met

490
Q

thiopental is what kind of drug

A

barbiturate

492
Q

steatorrhea

A

fatty stool

494
Q

normal bloodwork findings for hyperthyroid cat

496
Q

what can be seen on a cat with a physiological leukogram

A
  • mild neutrophilia
  • normal to increased lymphs
  • no monocytosis
501
Q

what call types are found on liver biopsy of cat with lymphocytic portal hepatitis vs cholangiohepatitis

A

lymph: lymph and plasma cells
choli: neutrophils

502
Q

what is the rivalta’s test

504
Q

adrenergic neurons release

506
Q

how does norepi effect alpha 1 receptors

A

causes increase in Calcium= increase in contraction
* smooth muscle vasoconstriction= ↑SVR= ↑ BP
* internal urethral sphincter= increase contraction= inhibits urination
* pupil muscle to contract= dilates pupil

adrenergic neurons release NE

507
Q

how does NE effect alpha 2 receptors

A

causes decrease in cAMP
causes increased potassium efflux, can cause hyperpolarization of cells= inhibits secretions
* receptor on presynaptic nerve terminal that bind to NE and inhibit release of more NE
* pancreas: beta cells make insulin: alpha 2 will inhibit secretion of insulin= ↑BG

aphla 2 drugs: clonidine, xylazine, medetomidine, detomidine
reversal: yohimbine, atopamezole, tolazoline

508
Q

how does NE effect beta 1 receptors

A

increases cAMP= stimulates contraction of cardiac, conduction and secretion
* heart: SA and AV have beta 1 receptor= increases conduction= ↑heart rate= ↑CO
* heart contractile muscles also have beta 1 receptors= ↑ contractility= ↑SV= ↑Cardiac output
* kidney juxtaglomerular cells= ↑ renin which leads to RAAS = ↑BP

509
Q

how does NE effect B2 receptors

A

increases cAMP= inhibit or decrease contraction= induce relaxation
* B2 on blood vessels that supply heart and skeletal muscles: vasodilation= ↓SVR= ↑blood flow to ❤️ and muscle which ↓BP
* smooth muscle on bronchioles= brocho dilation
* liver: ↑ BG by making glucose and breaking down glycogen
* pancrease alpha cells: ↑ glucagon which ↑ BG
* uterus: inhibit uterine contraction by relaxing smooth muscle

510
Q

NE likes to bind to — and epi likes to bind to —

A

NE: alpha
EPI: beta

511
Q

how does sympathatic effects beta 3 receptors

A

sympa= NE and EPI= flight or flight
* bladder: inhibits detrussor muscle= inhibits urination

512
Q

what do alpha 1 agonists do and what is one potential side effect

A

causes contraction
* vasoconstriction arteries= ↑ SVR = ↑BP
* also constricts veins= pushes more blood to heart = ↑ venous return = ↑SV = ↑CO = ↑BP
* constricts pupil muscle= pupils dilate
* reduce bloodflow which can reduce secretions (bloody nose)

phenylephrine
* treat shock leading to hypotension
* dilate pupil
* can cause reflex bradycardia because rapid ↑ in BP will cause baroreceptors to tell brain to produce AcH which will tell HR to drop

513
Q

what do alpha 2 agonists do

A

they act as sympatholytics: they inhibit the NE release from NE neurons
* CNS: can cause sedation: by decreasing NE use in the brain
* lungs: ↓ RR
* heart: ↓HR and ↓contractility= ↓CO
* vessels: ↓SVR = ↓BP

aphla 2 drugs: clonidine, xylazine, medetomidine, detomidine
reversal: yohimbine, atopamezole, tolazoline

514
Q

what do beta 1 agonist do

A
  • heart SA and AV node: increase conduction= ↑HR
  • heart muscle: increase contractility= ↑SV= ↑CO

dobutamine

515
Q

how does dobutamine work

A

beta adrenergic inotrope- does not cause the release of NE
* mild chronotropic, arrhythmogenic and vasodilation, at higher doses can cause ↑HR
* use to treat bradycardia and CHF

beta 1 agonist:
* ↑HR and ↑contractility/↑CO

some beta 2 and alpha 1

516
Q

how do beta 2 agonists work

A

dilation
* lungs: brochodilation
* uterus: relax/inhibit urterine contractions
* albuterol can also works on Na/K pump and causes K into cells
* liver: increase making glucose and breaking down glycogen= ↑BG
* pancreas: increase glucagon= ↑BG

albuterol: short acting B2 agonist

517
Q

adrenerdic receptors are receptive to

A

Adrenaline
* EPI
* NE
* alpha and beta receptors

519
Q

neomycin is what drug class that is poorly absorbed from the GI tract

A

aminoglycoside (antibiotic)

521
Q
A

supportive care

522
Q

which cats have type A blood vs type B

532
Q

— antibiotic can cause esophageal strictures in cats and should be given with water

A

doxycycline

20 Navle (13 decks)

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