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CHEM112 > feeds and feeding exam 2 > Flashcards

feeds and feeding exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the digestive anatomy of a monogastric?

A

-mouth, lips, tongue, teeth
- grasping food and masticating (chewing)
- saliva (contains alpha amylase that digests starch)
-esophagus

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2
Q

What are the organs involved with the digestive tract and what are the other associated organs?

A

involved: Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestine
associated: liver, gallbladder, pancreas.

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3
Q

What is diff about the esophagus in a ruminant vs. monogastric?

A

In a monogastric movement is only volterarly in one direction. ruminants are capable of foward and reverse peristalsis.

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4
Q

What is the section of the stomach following the esophagus and what does it do?

A
  1. esophageal region- non secreatory. if feed is to small infections can occur. sensitive.
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5
Q

what does the cardiac part of the stomach do?

A

secretes mucus that keeps the stomach acid in the stomach to protect other organs before and after stomach.

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6
Q

what does the fundic region of the stomach do?

A

where all “fun happens.” location of stomach acid where hydrolysis digestion occurs and the stomach muscles contract. acid and enzyme secreation.

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6
Q

what does the pyloric region do?

A

secretes mucus. connects to the dudeonum, the first part of the small intestine. pyloric region has a flap that lets food continue.

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7
Q

where does protein digestion begin in monogastrics? where does starch?

A

stomach, mouth

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8
Q

What do chief cells make?

A

produce protein digesting enzyme: pepsinogen which is a zymogen (inactive enzyme)

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9
Q

what to parietal cells make?

A

HCL. pepsinogen plus HCL makes pepsin (the active form of the protein digestive enzyme.)

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10
Q

What happens in the duodenum and what is it surrounded by?

A

shortest segment of small intestine, BULK OF DIGESTION OCCURS HERE. pancreatic and gall bladder secretions enter (pancreatic, amylase, pancreatic peptidase, and bile.) liver and pancreas is attached. surrounded by nerves. when food arrives nerves allow liver and pancratic secretions to enter. DO NOT ADSORB NUTRIENTS IN DEUDENUM.

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11
Q

What happens in jejunum and iieum? what happens to lipids?

A

major site of nutrient adsorbtion. lipids enter the lymphatic system and are released into general circulation after they get proteins added to them.

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12
Q

the liver runs what?

A

the whole bodies metabolism. all nutrients go through liver which determines where everything needs to go based on metabolic state.

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13
Q

in chickens the duodenum does what?

A

wraps around pancraus. bile from gallbladder and enzymes are secreated all the way around.

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14
Q

what three things increases the adsorbtive surface of small intestine.

A

valves, villi, microvilli.

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15
Q

valves increase surface area? villi? microvilli? why do they increase surface area?

A

3 fold. 30 fold, on valve. 600 fold.

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16
Q

what is the main function of the villi and microvilli?

A

to increase the area avaliable for nutrient adsorbotion.

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17
Q

every villi in the small intestine has a what? fats travel through what while amino acid and carb travel through what?

A

blood supply and nutrient transport system. lacteal. capillary network.

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18
Q

the large intestine has the?

A

cecum and colon.

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19
Q

what happens in the cecum (appendix) ?

A

fermentation of structural carbs, where fiber digestion occurs. where the small and large intestine meet. slows feed down.

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20
Q

what happens in the colon?

A

water adsorbition. fermentation of structural carbs, baterial synthesis of vit k and B vitamins. MOSTLY WATER ADSORPTION.

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21
Q

what is true about avian mouth digestion?

A

NOT a lot of digestion in mouth. do not make a lot of salivia. patability is not an issue.

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22
Q

what is the crop?

A

part of the end of esophagus. where LIMITED fermination happens. feed is moistined.

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23
Q

what does the proventriculus do?

A

‘car wash’ sprays acid and enzymes on food. feed moves thorough fast.

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24
Q

porventriculus and gizzard are the chickens what?

A

true stomach.

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25
Q

what does the ventricules do?

A

the gizzard has thick walls where acids and enzymes work aka hydrolytic and enzmati digestion occur. feed is slowed down. where griding with grit occurs through contractactions. “teeth of animal” heavily worked.

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26
Q

chickens have two?

A

ceca. fermentation occurs.

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27
Q

____ and ____ are absent in chickens and why?

A

prehension and mastication. no teeth or lips.

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28
Q

the large intestine in the chicken?

A

has a small capicity, water adsorbtion occurs, limited fermentaion. chickens retain less energy than pigs due to shorter digestive tract.

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29
Q

what are the mouth and related structures of cow? why do they produce a lot of salavia

A

lips are short and pretty immobile (nonselective grazers). produce LOTS of salivia for buffering (maintaining ph) and bloat prevention.

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30
Q

espphagus in sheep is?

A

s oe sigmoid shaped. has a. funnel on both sides of esophagus.

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31
Q

in ruminant saliva there is?

A

NO enzyme.

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32
Q

foregut ‘sortgate’ is what precent of adbdomal cavity.

A

60-80

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33
Q

what happens in the reticulum?

A

volentary regurgutation and eructation (gas going back up the esphogus to lungs). acid has not been added. can seed food to places.

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34
Q

where can the reticlium send food?

A

rumen or esophagus- if feed is new or needs more chewing.
omasum- if feed is small enough particle size digestion can continue,.

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35
Q

what happens in rumen?

A

microbial fermentation. bacteria break down feed that would otherwise be unavaliable to the animal.

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36
Q

what happens in omasum?

A

water and electrolyte resorption so stomach can maintain neutral ph.

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37
Q

abomasum is the ___ stomach.

A

gastric.

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38
Q

what four things is true about the reticulum?

A
  1. most anterior of foregut segments.
  2. open to rumen.
  3. honeycomb structure retains coarse and heavy feed particles.
  4. enables regurg. and eructatation.
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39
Q

the reticular groove does what and where is it.

A
  • located on right wall of the reticulum.
  • forms a tube when closed.
  • connects the esophagus with the omasum
  • allows milk to bypass the rumen
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40
Q

what is the importance of the straw or tube structure formed by the retucular groove?

A

when calves are born they do not have a fully functioning rumen, they have to eat dry feed to build rumen. have to feed colstrum to give calf antobodies, colstrum goes straight through tube to bypass rumen so the calf gets all the antibodies.

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41
Q

dry feeed in rumens?

A

builds bacterial fermentation.

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42
Q

rumen provides an ideal habitat for what symbiotic and anaerobic microorganisms?

A

-bacteria
-protozoa
-fungi

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43
Q

what is the interior of the rumen covered in?

A

finger like projections called papillae that increase surface area. Papillie are larger and more numerous in ventral rumen. number and size of papillae are affected by nutritional conditions, therefore more papillae are at the bottom of rumen.

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44
Q

salivia is a __ buffer that?

A

ph buffer to make neutral ph in the rumen. stomach ph in rumen is 6/7

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45
Q

what is adsorbed in the rumen?

A

VFA. 1. acetate. 2. propicate. 3. butyrate. protien is not adsorbed.

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46
Q

what is true about the omasum or the stockmans bible”

A

it is a muscular, spherical organ located posterier to the reticulum and rumen. the interior contains many muscular folds of tissue called laminae. prevents passage of large particles.

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47
Q

what is true about the abomaseum

A
  • true stomach in ruminants.
  • similar in structure and function to monogastric stomach.
    -only foregut cmpartment with secretaory tissue.
  • hyrolytic and enzymatic digestion.
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48
Q

what two organs are simular in ruminant and mono.

A

small and large intestine

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49
Q

the cecum in ruminant?

A

-larger
-large contribution to fermentative digestion

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50
Q

what are the three end products of ruminant fermentation and what do they do?

A
  1. Volatile fatty acid.
    - major source of energy for microbes and host
    -result of fermentation of carbs and AA
  2. microbial cell protein
    - major source of protein for microbes and host
    - result of fermentation of carbs, AA, and non- protein N source.
  3. B and K vit.
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51
Q

cecum is ___ gastric what does it produce?

A
  1. VFA 2. MCP
    protien made in cecum goes out as poop except in horses most energy comes from cecum in horses.
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52
Q

throuhg pregastric ferm. what is true about protein in rumen?

A

can be used by the host animal.

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53
Q

where does acetate, propionate, and butyrate go?

A

acetate- fat, muscle, mammory
propionate- glucose, direct energy for host.
butyrate- energy to maintain protien.

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54
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents?

A

synthetic inorganic or organic compounds that inhibit the growth of pathogenic or parasitic organisms

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55
Q

Pathogen inhibitors? what are they

A

generally improve rate of gain and feed efficiency. - Arsanilic acid (roxarsone)- poultry and swine
- Carbadox- poultry and swine

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56
Q

▪ ____________ – Used to prevent and
treat coccidosis
what is used for cattle and chickens?

A

coccidiostats. what is used for cattle and chickens?
* Amprolium – cattle and poultry
* Decoquinate – cattle and chickens

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57
Q

Antihelminthics are what?

A

dewormers. * Fenbendazole - swine and cattle
* Albendazole - cattle
* Levamisole hydrochloride - swine and cattle
* Morantel tartrate - cattle

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58
Q

Probiotics?

A

organisms produced from specific
microbial cultures that flourish in the GIT and
compete with harmful organisms.

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59
Q

what are harmful organisms?

A
  • Lactobacillus
  • Streptococcus
  • Yeast
  • Fungi
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60
Q

▪ Most probiotic organisms are ______________
present in the gut and generally regarded as what>

A

naturally
* Generally Regarded as Safe’ (GRAS) by the FDA

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61
Q

there is ___ data to econonomically justify the use of?

A

probotic compounds.

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62
Q

Antioxidants are?

A

compounds that prevent rancidity

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63
Q

antioxidents are Blended with what?

A

fat supplements or ingredients high in
fat. * Butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT), butylated
hydroxyanisole (BHA), & ethoxyquin.

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64
Q

what are Chemical Preservatives? give ex.

A

Compounds used to
prevent product deterioration (mold inhibitors)
* Ascorbic Acid
* Citric Acid
* Propionic Acid

65
Q

Endocrine-Based Growth Promoters
do what? what do they cause?

A

Cause physiological responses similar to those of
naturally-occurring sex or growth hormones. ‒ Increased ADG and F:G
‒ Increased red meat yield
‒ Increased milk production

66
Q

Most modern endocrine-based growth promoters
are administered in ___________ form? what does it do that is desired?

A

implanted. - Only one endocrine feed based product: melengesterol acetate. (MGA) Fed to heifers ready to go to harvest. Mimics progesterone or that the animal is pregnant. Prevents heifers from estrus, undesirable behavior.
▪ Improves ADG 7 to 11%
▪ Improves F:G 6 to10%

67
Q

Beta agonists are what? what two are mostly used?

A

– orally active compounds
that repartition nutrients toward lean muscle
deposition and away from fat deposition/ * Paylean- for use in swine diets
* Optaflexx® and Zilmax®- for use in cattle diets

68
Q

why does MGA improve F to g ratio.

A

supressing heat cycle makes them less stressed.

69
Q

beta agonists increase what?
however?

A
  1. Significantly increases red meat yield, however response to beta agonists is limited the effect disappears over time so the BA is used or 21 to 42 days late in the finishing period
70
Q

reponse to BA is greater in what

A

BEEF cattle than pigs. marbeling goes down.

71
Q

what are the classes of feed additives?

A
  1. antibotics
  2. chemotherapeutic
  3. probotics
  4. preservatives and antioxidants
  5. gorwth promotants
72
Q

how to non-ionophores work? when are the stongest bacteria killed?

A

shuts down metabolism of folic acid which slowly kill bacteria and protein synthesis is inhibited. DNA rep prevents production of more bacteria. LAST.

73
Q

non ionphores are ____ on the system but?

A

hard on the system but needed to combat bacteria.

74
Q

what is the biggest risk of antiboitic resistance?

A

there is a build up of bad bacteria and the strongest workers are in the most danger.
use for prevention/disease must be justified.

75
Q

what are the direct/indirect effects of non ionophore antibotics on gut microbes

A

direct- comp with host for nutrients
indirect- reduced intestinal inflammation. turnover of gut mucosa. growth depressing metaboilites (toxic)

76
Q

non-ionphore antibotics are produced by?

A

a living organism to inhibit another organism and reduce infections of the digestive/resp tracts.

77
Q

what are some antibotics and what are they used for?

A

chlortetracycline- cattle, chicken, swine, cheep
oxytetracycline- cow, chicken, pig, sheep
penicillin- chicken pig
tylosin- cattle chicken swine

78
Q

what are factors affecting the magnitude of response to a non-ionophore antibotic?

A
  1. healthy animals: less responsive
  2. mature animals: less responsive
  3. good management: less responsive
  4. clean enviroment- less
  5. stressful enviroment- more.
79
Q

what are problems with feed additive antibotics? therefore use of ___ might be banned

A

-antibotic residue in food
-antibotic resistance
-subtheraputic and replaced with natural feed additives with antibotic prop.

80
Q

ionophore antibotics are _____ polyether compounds that do what?

A

synthetic, destory gram-positive bactiera in rumen meaning there us greater VFA prodcution reduced methane production and improved effiecny of nitorgen use.

81
Q

are ionphores used in humans

A

no

82
Q

Hydrothermal feed processing is what?

A

Affects structure and digestibility of feed as
* Grain kernels are broken into smaller pieces
* Particle size is reduced
- grinding is the most minimally invasive

83
Q

what is cold termpering and what does it do to the nutrient avability?

A

Water is added to the grain and allowed to steep. Steeped grain is processed via rolling. Nutrient avaiablity is improved.

84
Q

All cereal grains are ____? what is ___ surrounded by and what disorangizes ____. all blanks are the same anwser. what specific term is this called?

A

starch. Starch is surrounded by a web of protein. When you add heat, moisture, pressure, disorganizes protein matrix within the starch granules. “Starch gelatinization.”

85
Q

what is the def of bulk density? if bulk density goes down what happens to storage capicity? what does flaking feeds do?

A

weight per unit of volume. If bulk density goes down storage capacity goes up. Flaking increases storage space requirements.

86
Q

steam flaking is usually used for what classfication of animals? why do we steam flake grains? Do it to increase energy value of grains.

A

Steam flaking: usually in ruminant. Do it to increase energy value of grains.

87
Q

does sourghum grain or corn benefit more from steam flaking and if yes/no why?

A

Sorghum grain benefits more from steam flaking than corn because it is harder to digest than corn to begin with. Steam flaking breaks down sourgum starch and seed coat on starch. however steam flaked corn decreases surface area to make digestible as possible.

88
Q

what happens in a steam chest to the grain and starch granules?

A

Grain is steamed for 15 to 60 minutes. Moisture in the grain is increased to between 15 and 25 precent by weight. Moist heat disrupts the starch granules.

89
Q

what happens to grain in rollers?

A

dry Rollers:
Grain is gradually fed through preheated set of rollers where it is flattened (i.e. flaked) bulk density is reduced 26 to 60 percent from 56 lb/bu to less than 30 lb/bu

90
Q

compare Dry rolled vs steam flaked sorghum it is more expensive to steam flake. Starch digestion occurs in small intestine. grains that are harder to digest see a greater improvement with processing.

A

it is more expensive to steam flake. steam flake requires more stroage room and money for trasnportation. Starch digestion occurs in small intestine. grains that are harder to digest see a greater improvement with processing.

91
Q

what happens to feed when pelleting?

A

put the feed in a condition chamber and add heat moisture and pressure. the structure of nutrients is altered in ground feeds.

92
Q

what regulations do you have to have to feed nonionphore antibotics?

A

It is illegal to feed nonionfore antibiotics for prevention, have to have a VFD (vet feed directive)-

93
Q

what is the process called in a pellet mill when water is added?

A

conditioning

94
Q

describe the process of a pellet mill? what can he changed and determined on a pellet mill machine?

A

ground feeds are forced through a die.roller pushes through die, knife comes and cuts off pellets.

95
Q

what can he changed and determined on a pellet mill machine?

A

speed of knife, diameter of die, how much heat is used, mositure level, pressure, thickness of die, type of ingretneds all can be determined.

96
Q

whats the pros of pelleted feed?

A

-improved F to G and ADG ratio by 6 to seven precent for monogastrics
-reduces feed wastage
- improves flowability
-prevents ingredient segeration
- increases nutrient digesibility
-less storage space and money for transport is needed

97
Q

what is the most common pelleted feed for ruminants?

A

supplements for grazing cattle.

98
Q

pelleting is economically efficent when?

A

cost for pelleting the diet is less than the additional return expected via = improved ADG and F TO G ratio.

99
Q

what is the pros and two cons steam flaking and who is it primarily used for?

A
  • ruminants
    -increases the energy value of grains. Ex. corn 10 precent increase and sorghum 10 precent.
    -increases ruminal digestion of starch
    -improves feed efficiency
    -increases growth and milk production
    -decreases ruminal protien availability.
  • more storage space is needed and transport cost is higher
100
Q

what is starch gelatinization?

A

heat disrupts H bonds allowing water to penetrate.
swelling causes disruptions in starch granules.
leached amylose arrergates.
h bonds return and starch pasting occurs.

101
Q

name the feed processing hierarchy from most mimumally invasive to every invasive.

A
  1. grinding and dry rolling
  2. cold tempering
  3. pelleting, steam flaking extrusion
102
Q

what happens in extrusion? and what are the results of it on feed?

A

Ground material is forced through a horizontal cylinder with pressure (auger).
Feed packed into small space, friction and heat. ground feed is forced through small die
-feed expands as they exit the extruder because there is a drop in pressure
-Bulk density decreases (volume increases)
-Different texture
-“Puff” type food

103
Q

what is true about the speeds in grinding vs flaking?

A

grinding needs two different speeds flaking needs one.

104
Q

what is expansion and what happens?

A

-similar to extrusion but pressure is controlled at the end of the expander barrel.
-not as extreme, better quality quicker

105
Q

what vit are fat soluble?

A

A,D,E,K

106
Q

where are fat souble vit stored

A

in fat (adipose tissue)

107
Q

are fat soluble or water soluble more tozi

A

fat

108
Q

what does VIT a deficiency cause

A

-night blindness
-kerantinzation of skin
-respiratory issues
-repro issues

109
Q

what reproduction issues does a deficinecy of vit a cause in females

A

(abortions, retained placentas, weak calves (“lower calf vigor”)

110
Q

what does a def of vit a cause in males

A

decreased libido (sex drive), decreased sperm mobility, degeneration of seminiferous tubules (make sperm)

111
Q

what does vit d deficiency cause?

A

Skeletal growth/development
Abnormal bone mineralization
Rickets in young animals
Osteomalacia in old animals

112
Q

why is vit D deiciency not common and what can too much cause?

A

Forages, sunlight
Too much can cause calcification of soft tissue

113
Q

what can a def. in vit e cause

A

Muscular lesions
White muscle disease in ruminants
Mulberry heart disease- pigs
Repro failure
Unsaturated fatty acids can destroy??

114
Q

what does vit e help

A

Cell membranes and membrane-transport mechanisms

115
Q

what does vit k deficiency cause and what is synthesized by

A

-Blood clotting
Synthesized by bacteria in rumen/ large intestine

116
Q

why is vit k supplemented?

A

Can be inhibited by feed additives so supplemented
Why animals may eat poop
May not be desired so supplemented

117
Q

what are the water soluble vit?

A

B and C only

118
Q

is water soluble vit needed daily and why?

A

yes. not stored- peed out.

119
Q

where do ruminants make the most vit b

A

Ruminants make most in gut

119
Q

what are types of vit b

A

Biotin, choline, folacin, niacin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, thamin, pyridoxine, cyanocobalamin

120
Q

what is a type of vit c and what is true about most non primates?

A

Ascorbic acid
Most non-primates produce naturally

121
Q

vit stability is affected by? vit loose what precent effectiveness?

A

Lose 3-50% (usually 5-10%)

Time
Sunlight
Humidity
Heat
Trace minerals

122
Q

why are premixed vit used?

A

Premixes used because of degradation and usually vit content of diets in ingnored.

123
Q

how long do premix vit last?

A

60 days.

124
Q
A
124
Q
A
125
Q

what is the purpose of grinding?

A

Particle size reduction
Increased surface area

126
Q

why process feeds (5 reasons)

A

processing feeds improves:
Animal performance
Mixing characteristics
Feed handling
Simplifies bunk of feeder management

127
Q

what are factors what affect the vitamins consumed by animals and what kind/how much they are fed?

A

Variation of concentration
Variation of bioavailability
Degradation
Small variety of feed ingredients

128
Q

in ruminants what particle size is needed? in monogastric what particle size is needed?

A

In ruminants, large particle size is preferred (more chewing)
In swine/poultry, small particle size is needed

129
Q

what are hammer mills?

A

swinging hammers that hit grain until small enough to pass through screen

130
Q

what are the advantages of hammer mills compared to roller mill?

A

Range of particle sizes
Wider variety of ingredients
Less expensive
Easier to operate
better with fiberious ingredients

131
Q

what are disadvandages of hammer mills compared to roller mills?

A

Less energy efficient
Heat, dust, noise
Less uniform particle size

132
Q

what are roller mills? why would rollers turn at the same speed? why would rollers turn at different speeds?

A

Rotating cylinders
Rollers turn at same speed for Larger flakes
Rollers turn at different speeds for small sizes

133
Q

what are the 5 advantages of fine grinding?

A

Increases surface area
More easily digestible by digestive enzyme
Increases digestibility
Decreased nutrient excretion
Improved feed efficiency

134
Q

what are the 5 disadvantage of fine griding?

A
  1. more (D)ustiness
  2. more (P)ower consumption/energy use
  3. more (P)rocessing time, operator irritation goes up
    4.worse (F)lowability
    5.(G)astric ulcer potiental increases
    6.Finely ground feed can (b)ridge and stick to containers
  4. Feeders can still contain feed, but animals can’t reach it causing animals not to eat: (s)tress levels increase.
135
Q

how many microns is reccommended when considering fine grinding

A

KSU recommends 700 microns, though some do 400

136
Q

what is “Angle of repose”

A

how steeply feed can be piled before it collapses

137
Q

higher angle of repose means what

A

more bridging

138
Q

fat makes feeds more likely to do what

A

bridge

139
Q

is this true or false: Roller mill ground feed is less likely to bridge than hammer mill ground feed

A

true.

140
Q

what matters when mixing feed (three things)

A

As feed intake decreases, importance of mixing increases
Rate of inclusion and concentration matters
Mixing cleanout is important

141
Q

mixing feed helps insure

A

Every bite nutritionally identical

142
Q

what four things does mixer design depend on

A

Diet characteristics
Animal species
Power requirements
Cleanup characteristics

143
Q

what are the types of mixers (6)?

A

Stationary mixer
mobile mixer
Paddle-type horizonal
Ribbon-type horizonal
Auger-type horizonal
verticle mixers that mix and grind

144
Q

what are the pros of horozional paddle mixers?

A

-can mix particles, fine particles, and liquids
- only takes 5-8 minutes
-Little heating
-Least likelihood of dead spots
-Easy clean

145
Q

do horiozional paddle mixers mix small or large quanties of feed better?

A

small. 10 precent of mixer capicity?

146
Q

can they mix large or small feeds better?

A

small.

147
Q

vertical mixers are more or less efficient? what is true about the auger? what are the cons?

A

Less efficient
Auger typically occupies less than 10% of space
Greater time- 12-15 minutes
Not good for fibrous
Difficult cleanup
Inexpensive

148
Q

auger mixers are used in what diets and types of feed? are they more or less efficient?

A

Ruminant diets
Forages/roughages
Less efficient

149
Q

are horizontial or vert auger mixers more common and what is one pro about them?

A

Horizontal auger mixers are more common
Can grind

150
Q

what factors affect mixing?

A

Type
Age
Maintenance of machine
Over-filling or under-filling
Speed
Time

151
Q

what are the pros of horizional ribbion mixers?

A
  • need to be at least 70% full (can do lots of feed)
  • Heating can be huge
  • Less time- 2-4 minutes
    -Simple cleanup
152
Q

horizional ribbion mixers do best with a ___ ingredients and are inspected ___

A

Inspected often
Few ingredients.

153
Q

what can be the result of residues in mixers? therefore ____ is needed often.

A

liability. cleaning.

154
Q

to avoid residues in mixers it is imporant to?

A

-have a good sequence of ingredients added
-have a good sequence of manufacturing feeds
-avoid stickage of fine particles
-Flush mixer with ground corn

155
Q

never mix feed with less than?

A

1/3 capicity in mixer

156
Q

what sequence should mixing be in

A

start with half of the grain, add protein source, then add premixes/meds. Then add other half of grain.

157
Q

when does mixing time start when mixing feed together?

A

when all ingredients are added.

158
Q

to avoid residues what order should feed be mixed in based on stages of animal

A

Medicated feeds are first
then Nursery diets
then Grower diets
then Sow diets
then Finisher diets. Add medication the farthest away from market age!

159
Q

where to carb and aa go via what systym

A

carbs and AA go directly to the liver VIA the hepatic portal system.

CHEM112 (3 decks)

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