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Private Pilot FAA Knowledge Test > Federal Aviation Regulations > Flashcards

Federal Aviation Regulations Flashcards

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1
Q

With respect to the certificatio of airmen, which is a category of aircraft

A

Airplane, rotocraft, glider, lighter-than-air

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2
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft

A

Single-engine land and sea multiengine land and sea

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3
Q

The definition of nighttime is

A

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning fo morning civil twilight

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4
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

A

normal, utility, acrobatic

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5
Q

With respect tot eh certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

A

airplane, rotocraft, glider, balloon

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6
Q

An ATC clearance provides

A

authorization to proceed under specified traffic condition sin controlled airspace

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7
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

A

VFE

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8
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

A

VLE

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9
Q

VNO is defined as

A

maxmimum structural cruising speed

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10
Q

Which V speed represents maneuvering speed?

A

VA

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11
Q

VSO is defined as the

A

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

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12
Q

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance climb after takeoff?

A

VX

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13
Q

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

A

VY

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14
Q

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid

A

as long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

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15
Q

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

A

They are mandatory

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16
Q

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (ADI)?

A

Yes if allowed by the AD

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17
Q

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

A

14 CFR Part 43.3

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18
Q

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it to return to service?

A

Private or Commercial pilot

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19
Q

Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

A

The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records

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20
Q

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

A

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings

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21
Q

Which operation would be descried as preventive maintenance?

A

Replenshing hydraulic fluid

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22
Q

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

A

Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmemner

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23
Q

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

A

medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate

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24
Q

What documents must be in your personal possession or readily accesible int eh aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

A

an appropriated pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

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25
Q

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medicla certificate shall present it for inspection upon request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any

A

federal, state, or local law enforcement officer

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26
Q

How soon after the confiction for driving whil intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A

No later than 60 days after teh motor vehice action

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27
Q

How soon after the confiction for driving whil intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which division should this be reported to

A

within 60 days to the Civil Aviation Security Division

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28
Q

A Third Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year old pilot on Aug 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Privot Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

A

August, 31, 5 years later

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29
Q

A Third Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the priveleges of a Privot Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

A

May 31, 2 years later

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30
Q

For private pilot operations, a second class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15, this year will expire at midnight on

A

July 31, 2 years later

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31
Q

For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate isued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21 this year, will expire at midnight on

A

October 31, 5 years later

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32
Q

A Third Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the priveleges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

A

August 31, 2 years later

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33
Q

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

A

received ground and flight instructionf rom an authorized flight instructor who ehen endorses that person’s logbook

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34
Q

What is the definition of a high performance airplane?

A

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

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35
Q

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

A

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds

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36
Q

In order to act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane a pilot must have

A

received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower

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37
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check with the preceding

A

24 months

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38
Q

If a recreational or privat pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year , when is the next flight reviw required?

A

August 31, 2 years later

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39
Q

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

A

a biennial flight review

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40
Q

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight reveiw on August 8, this year when is the next flight review required?

A

August 31, 2 years later

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41
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in anaircraft of teh same category class and if a type rating is requred, of the same type, withing the preceding…

A

90 days

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42
Q

If recence of experience requirements for night flight ar enot met and official sunset is 1830, the lates time passengers amy be carried is

A

1929

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43
Q

To act a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings withign the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

A

category, class, and type, if a type rating is required

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44
Q

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

A

1 hour after sunste to 1 hour before sunrise

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45
Q

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act a spilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landigns to a full stop withing the precedign 90 days in

A

the same category and class of aircraft to be used

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46
Q

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

A

must be to a full stop

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47
Q

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fials to nitify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of teh new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the priveleges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

A

30 days after the date of the move

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48
Q

A dertificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of

A

100 hours of pilot incommand time in the aircraft category, class, and tuype, if required that the pilot is usint to tow a glider

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49
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made withing the preceding 12 months

A

at least three actual or simulated glier tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

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50
Q

In regard to privleges and limitations a private pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel oil airport expenditures or rental fees

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51
Q

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share fo the operating epenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees

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52
Q

What exception, if any permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for flight?

A

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight

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53
Q

A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft

A

a current logbook endorsement that permits fligth within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport

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54
Q

How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board.

A

One

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55
Q

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night?

A

When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5 miles

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56
Q

According to regualtions pertaining to privileges and limitations a recreational pilot may

A

not pay less than the prorata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger

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57
Q

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from teh departure airport

A

after receiving ground and flight instructiosn on cross country training and a logbook endorsement

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58
Q

In regard to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger

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59
Q

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for a maximum of how many occupants?

A

4

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60
Q

A recreational pilot may act a pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of

A

180

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61
Q

with respect to daylight hours, what is teh earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?

A

at sunrise

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62
Q

What exception, if any permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?

A

There is no exception

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63
Q

May a recrational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business

A

No, it is not allowed

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64
Q

If sunset is 2021, and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?

A

2021

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65
Q

When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?

A

after receiving training and a logbook endrosement from an authorized instructor

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66
Q

Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airpor tthat ies within Class D airspace and that has a part time control tower in operation?

A

Between snrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and teh visibility is at least 3 miles

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67
Q

When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?

A

When 2,000 feet AGL or below

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68
Q

During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles

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69
Q

During daylight , what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles

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70
Q

When m ust a recreatioanl pilot have a pilot in command flight check?

A

if teh pilot has less than 400 flight hurs and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 dyas

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71
Q

Under what conditions, if any may a recreational pilot demsonstrate an aircraft in flight to prospective buyer

A

none

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72
Q

When if ever may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command ina n aircraft towing a banner?

A

it is not allowed

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73
Q

A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least

A

5 miles

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74
Q

What minimum visiility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A

3 miles, visibility and clear of clouds

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75
Q

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirmetn for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1200 feet AGL and below 10000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

A

3 miles

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76
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?

A

1200

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77
Q

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

A

4 nautical miles

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78
Q

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

A

1200 feet above the surface upt and including 17,999 feet MSL

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79
Q

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

A

pilot in command

80
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A

the pilot in command

81
Q

Where may an aircreft’s operating limitations be found?

A

in the current FAA approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof

82
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light sport airworthiness certificate?

A

in teh current FAA approved flight manual

83
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

A

in percatutions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface

84
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

A

.04 percent by weight or more aldohol in the blood

85
Q

Under what condition if any may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

A

in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care

86
Q

A person may not act as a cremember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

A

8 hours

87
Q

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport ,shall include

A

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

88
Q

In addition to other actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport regulatiosn spedifically require the pilot in command to

A

dertermin runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landign distance data

89
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

become familiar with all availale information concerning the flight

90
Q

Flight crewmemebers are required to keep theif safety belts and should harnesses fastened during

A

takeoffs and landings

91
Q

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safty belts and shulder harnesses fastened?

A

safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

92
Q

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any does a ilot in command have concerning the use fo sfety belts

A

The pilot in command must brief the pasengers on teh use of safety elts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff and landing

93
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured aout which persons in an aircraft and when?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only

94
Q

With certain exception, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

A

taxi, takeoffs, and landings

95
Q

No person may operate an aircreaft in formation flight

A

except by prior arrangement witht eh pilot in command of each aircraft

96
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’ s position, which aircraft has the right of way?

A

The airship

97
Q

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing the right of way belongs to the aircraft

A

at the lower altitude, but is shall not take advantage of this rule to cut infrot of or to overtake another

98
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over teh other aircraft listed

A

glider

99
Q

What action should teh pilots of a glider and an airplane take if aon a head on collision coures

A

both pilots should give way to the right

100
Q

What action is requred when two aircraft of the same category converge but not head on?

A

the aircraft on the left shall give way

101
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?

A

aicraft towing other aircraft

102
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?

A

an aircraft in distress

103
Q

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right of way?

A

The seaplane

104
Q

When flying in a VFR corridor designated throught Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots

105
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots

106
Q

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots

107
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and withing 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of CLass C airspace is

A

200 knots

108
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A

An altitude allowing if a pwer unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazzard to persons or property on the surface

109
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstale within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

110
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is teh minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area

A

an altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area which requires 500 feet from any person vessel vehicle or structure

111
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person vessel vehicle or structure

A

500 ft

112
Q

Prior to takeoff the altimeter shuld be set to which altitude of altimeter setting?

A

the current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation

113
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude shuld the pilot adjust the altimeter?

A

The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level

114
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL

115
Q

When must a pilot who deviates form a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

A

upon request

116
Q

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

within 48 hours if requested by ATC

117
Q

If an inflight emergency requires immedate action the pilot in command may

A

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency

118
Q

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance

A

in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

119
Q

When an ATC clearance ahs been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

A

an emergency

120
Q

What action, if any, is appropriate if teh pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

A

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested

121
Q

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A

Class C

122
Q

With certain exceptions, all aircraft withn 30 miles of Class B primary airport form the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

A

an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability`

123
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

124
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A

Private Pilot Certificate or Studen Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

125
Q

Under what condition if any may pilots fly through a restricted area?

A

With the controlling agency’s authorization

126
Q

In which tupe of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

A

Class A

127
Q

What is teh specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

128
Q

What is teh specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane

A

enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal curising speed

129
Q

The basic VFR weather minimums for perating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

A

1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility

130
Q

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights aboe 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet GL in controlled airspace is

A

5 miles

131
Q

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1200 feet AGL an dbelow 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility an vertical cloud clearace of

A

3 miles an d500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace

132
Q

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, then minimum horizontal distance form clouds required is

A

1 mile

133
Q

The minimum distance form clouds required for VFR operations on an airway helow 10,000 feet MSL is

A

500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally

134
Q

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

135
Q

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles

136
Q

During operatiosn outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

A

3 miles

137
Q

During operations withing controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A

1,000 feet

138
Q

No person ma take off of land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies witiin Class D airspace unless teh

A

ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles

139
Q

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A

1,000 ft

140
Q

Outside controlled airspacem the minimum flight visibilty requiremnet for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

A

1 mile

141
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

A

500 feet

142
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance form clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A

2,000 feet

143
Q

Nrmal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an oparting control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least

A

1,000 feet and 3 miles

144
Q

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace

A

Air Traffic Control Tower

145
Q

A special VFR clearance authorzes the pilot of an aircraft to perate VF while withing Class D airspace when the visibility is

A

at least 1 mile and teh aircraft can remain clear of clouds

146
Q

No person may operate an airplane withing class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

A

airplane is equipped for instrument flight

147
Q

What are teh minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night

A

The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped

148
Q

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

A

1 mile flight visibility

149
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airwy with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet

A

5,500

150
Q

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?

A

odd thousand pluss 500

151
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?

A

4,500

152
Q

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a

A

magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees

153
Q

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documetns or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

A

Operating limitations and Registration Certificate

154
Q

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

A

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

155
Q

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ETL) be tested?

A

During the first 5 minutes after the hour

156
Q

When are non rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

A

When 50 percent of their useful life expires

157
Q

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

A

after one half teh battery’s useful life

158
Q

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A

sunset to sunrise

159
Q

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

A

15,000 feet MSL

160
Q

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL supplemental oxygen shall be used

A

that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes

161
Q

An operable 4096 code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

A

Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport) and Class C

162
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

A

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport

163
Q

In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited

A

Class E airspace below 1,200 feet AGL

164
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than

A

3 miles

165
Q

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

A

1,500 feet AGL

166
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when

A

over any congested area of a city town or settlement

167
Q

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

A

when intentionally pitching teh nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more

168
Q

A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certified and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

A

180 days

169
Q

An approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger withing the preceding

A

60 days

170
Q

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft>

A

flight over a densely populated area

171
Q

Unless otherwise specifically authorized no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

A

over a densely populated area

172
Q

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

A

owner or operator

173
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD’s) are complied with?

A

owner or operator

174
Q

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating teh aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

A

owner or operator

175
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

A

owner or operator

176
Q

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

A

with passengers aboard

177
Q

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a

A

Private Pilot Certificate

178
Q

A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. the 100 hur inspection was actuall done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?

A

3402.5

179
Q

An aircraft’s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12 this year. The net annual inspection will be due no later than

A

July 31 next year

180
Q

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

A

Annual condition and 100 hour inspections

181
Q

An aircraft had a 100 hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?

A

1359.5

182
Q

No person may use an ATC trasnponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

A

24 calendar months

183
Q

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1 2011. The next inspection will be due no later than

A

September 30 2013

184
Q

Completion of annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

A

an appropriate notation in teh aircraft maintenance records

185
Q

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

A

aircraft maintenance records

186
Q

Which record or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive

A

aircraft maintenance records

187
Q

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

A

review of the maintenance records

188
Q

The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the

A

pilot in command

189
Q

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

A

immediately

190
Q

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification tot he nearest NTSB field office?

A

an in-flight fire

191
Q

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

an overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident

192
Q

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

Flight control system malfunction or failure

193
Q

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

A

Yes but only to protect the wreckage from further damage

194
Q

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

A

10

195
Q

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident i required to submit a report to the nearest office of the NTSB

A

when requested

Private Pilot FAA Knowledge Test (14 decks)

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