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Private Pilot FAA Knowledge Test > Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace > Flashcards

Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A

090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic

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2
Q

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

A

080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic

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3
Q

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

A

should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

A

denotes intersecting runways

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5
Q

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A

identifies direction to take off runways

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6
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

A

indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

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7
Q

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

A

Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located

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8
Q

An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

A

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace in below basic VFR weather minimums

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9
Q

A lighted heliport may be identified by a

A

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

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10
Q

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

A

two quick, white flashes between green flashes

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11
Q

How can a military airport be identified at night?

A

dual peaked (two-quick) white flashes between green flashed

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12
Q

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

A

blue ominidirectional lights

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13
Q

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

A

5 times within 23 seconds

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14
Q

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

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15
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport traffice patter is

A

to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

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16
Q

An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

A

a green light signal

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17
Q

An above glide slope indication fro a tri-color VASI is

A

an amber light signal

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18
Q

A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

A

red light signal

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19
Q

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A

pulsating red light

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20
Q

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shal

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

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21
Q

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approachi g to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

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22
Q

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A

three white lights and one red light

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23
Q

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

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24
Q

Wintip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

A

developing lift

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25
Q

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

A

sink below the aircraft generating turbelence

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26
Q

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

A

outward, upward, and around each tip

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27
Q

When taking off or landing at an airport where heave aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

A

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft genertating the turbelence

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28
Q

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

A

heavy, clean, and slow

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29
Q

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is

A

light, quartering tailwind

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30
Q

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

A

above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

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31
Q

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

A

above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircrafts touchdown point

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32
Q

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be follwoed for vortex avoidance?

A

stay above its final approach flight pathe all the way to touch down

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33
Q

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

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34
Q

During a night flight you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

the other aircraft is flying away from you

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35
Q

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is approaching head on.

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36
Q

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours to use

A

a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degree sector

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37
Q

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nightime hours is to use

A

peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilzing offcenter viewing

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38
Q

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

39
Q

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

A

visually scan the entire area for collision

40
Q

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

A

Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visiual scanning of the airspace

41
Q

Responsibility for collision avoidance inan alert area rests with

A

all pilots

42
Q

Most midair collision accidents occur during

A

clear days

43
Q

Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet day or night and especially when operating

A

in conditions of reduced visibility

44
Q

After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

A

when advised by the tower to do so

45
Q

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

A

to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

46
Q

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

A

noncontrol information in sselected hight activity terminal areas

47
Q

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

A

the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miiles or more

48
Q

A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace?

A

Class D

49
Q

Airspace at an airport with a part time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

A

when the associated control tower is in operation

50
Q

When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

A

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

51
Q

A non tower satellite airport within the same Class D airspace as that designated for teh primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

A

primary airport’s control tower

52
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, two way radio communications with air traffic control are required for landings or takeoffs

A

at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

53
Q

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

A

the insturment procedures for which teh controlled airspace is established

54
Q

If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function si provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

A

Airport Advisory Service

55
Q

Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot shoudl

A

contact the local FSS for airport and traffice advisories

56
Q

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

A

When departing from a runway intersectin

57
Q

The normal ridus of the outer area of Class C airspace is

A

20 nautical miles

58
Q

All operations within Class C airspace must be

A

in communications with the responsible ATC facility

59
Q

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport normally

A

4,000 feet AGL

60
Q

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

A

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

61
Q

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

A

Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

62
Q

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

A

sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

63
Q

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

A

ground control, on initial contact

64
Q

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

A

safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

65
Q

If Air traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code

A

1200

66
Q

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

A

7500, 7600, 7700

67
Q

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

A

7600

68
Q

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

A

1200

69
Q

At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which altimeter code should be selected?

A

Mode 3/A, Code 1200

70
Q

Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?

A

1200, Mode 3/A

71
Q

When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is

A

MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORAC, OVER

72
Q

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A

FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED

73
Q

The correct method of stating 10,5000 feet MSL to ATC is

A

ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED

74
Q

When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft’s

A

ground clock

75
Q

An ATC radar facility issuew the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090. “TRAFFIC 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND” Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A

South

76
Q

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360 degrees. “TRAFFIC 10 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES SOUTHBOUND,” Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A

Northwest

77
Q

AN ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: “ TRAFFIC 2 O’CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..” Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A

between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right

78
Q

At ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in calm wind: “TRAFFIC 9 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND” Where should the pilot l9ok for this traffic?

A

West

79
Q

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should…

A

abandon the approach, circle the airport and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing

80
Q

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

A

is cleared to land

81
Q

A flashing whit light signal from the control tower to a taxing aircraft is an indication to

A

return to the starting point on the airport

82
Q

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling the light will be

A

steady red

83
Q

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

A

flashing green

84
Q

An alternating red and green light signal directed from teh control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

A

exercise extreme caution

85
Q

If the aircraft’s radio fails what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

A

Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

86
Q

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ETL) transmits on

A

121.5 and 243.0 Mhz

87
Q

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ETL) has not been activated?

A

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

88
Q

The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that

A

the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station

89
Q

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in location an aircraft’s position the aircraft must have a

A

VHF transmitter an dreceiver

90
Q

Who should not participate in the land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

A

Student pilots

91
Q

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A

Pilot in command

92
Q

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A

When it will compromise safety

93
Q

Where is the Available Landing Distance (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

A

Special Notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory (AIFD)

94
Q

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A

3 statue miles

Private Pilot FAA Knowledge Test (14 decks)

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