FCTM Flashcards

1
Q

Within how many kts from V1 should a takeoff be continued if a tire fails without significant engine parameter fluctuations?

A

20Kts

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2
Q

Why is it better to continue a takeoff if a tire fails within 20kts from V1 than to abort?

A

It is better to get airborne, reduce the load and land with a full runway available.

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3
Q

How will the captain announce his decision to continue the take off after a malfunction?

A

By calling GO.

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4
Q

How will the captain announce his decision to reject the take off?

A

By calling STOP

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5
Q

What does calling STOP during the take off roll mean?

A

Confirms the decision to reject the takeoff and that the captain now has control.

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6
Q

What does announcing DECEL mean during the RTO and the landing?

A

Deceleration is felt by the crew AND confirmed by the Vc trend on the PFD.

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7
Q

When does the DECEL light come on on the auto take panel?

A

When the actual deceleration is 80% of the selected rate.

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8
Q

What is the initial pitch attitude for an EFATO?

A

12,5 degrees

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9
Q

What are the three strategies for dealing with an engine failure in the cruise?

A
  • standard strategy
  • obstacle strategy
  • fixed speed strategy
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10
Q

Which strategy for an engine failure in cruise refers to ETOPS?

A

Fixed speed strategy

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11
Q

Which strategy is usually used in the event of an engine failure in cruise?

A

Standard strategy

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12
Q

Why is the A/THR disconnected when dealing with an engine failure in cruise?

A

To avoid any engine thrust reduction when selecting speed according to strategy or pulling OPEN DES.

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13
Q

What significant things will you miss during an RTO below 72kts?

A

Ground spoilers will not deploy and auto brake will not activate.

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14
Q

What is the procedure for an engine failure in cruise?

A
  • set thrust levers to MCT
  • disconnect the A/THR
  • select speed according to strategy
  • if appropriate select hdg
  • select appropriate engine inop altitude in FCU window and pull OPEN DES
  • request ECAM actions
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15
Q

With the ATHR disconnected, how is the target speed controlled in open descent?

A

By the elevator

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16
Q

What is the target speed with the standard strategy?

A

0.78/300 kts

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17
Q

What is the speed target in the obstacle strategy?

A

Green dot

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18
Q

What is the recommendation of thrust reverser use of one reverser is inoperative?

A

Select reverse thrust on both engines during RTO or landing

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19
Q

Which ECAM may be triggered when using both reverses with one inoperative?

A

ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT

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20
Q

What is the recommendation regarding reverse thrust if both reversers are inop?

A

Don’t select reverse thrust

21
Q

What causes the emergency electrical configuration?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2

22
Q

In the emergency electrical configuration, what happens below 125kts?

A

The RAT stalls
Emergency generation network transferred to the batteries
AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed

23
Q

In the emergency electrical configuration, what happens below 100kts?

A

DC BAT BUS automatically connected

24
Q

In the emergency electrical configuration, what happens below 50kts?

A

The AC ESS BUS is shed

25
What is the minimum approach speed for the emergency electrical configuration?
140kts
26
What situations might cause abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats?
- double SFCC failure - double hydraulic failure - flaps/ slats jammed (operation of wtb)
27
According to what is the OVERSPEED warning computed?
The ACTUAL slats/ flaps position
28
Down to what altitude may the autopilot be used with a slats/ flaps problem?
500ft AGL
29
What are some of the points which should be briefed following a problem with flaps/ slats?
- tail strike awareness - go around configuration - deviation from standard call outs - speeds to be flown, following a missed approach - selected speed used at the acceleration altitude - increased fuel consumption - different/ unusual attitudes
30
When diverting with a slats/ flaps problem, what is the max altitude?
20000 feet
31
When should fuel checks be carried out?
When sequencing a waypoint and every 30 minutes
32
What kind of approach is preferred with a dual hydraulic fault?
Stabilized approach
33
What are some of the briefing items for a dual hydraulic failure?
- use of selected speeds - landing gear gravity extension (QRH) - approach config and flap lever position - approach speed Vapp - TAILSTRIKE awareness - braking and steering considerations - go around call, aircraft config and speed
34
With which dual hydraulic failure will you remain in normal law?
B+Y
35
What indication is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked?
At least one green triangle on each gear
36
What ECAM memo is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is DOWNLOCKED?
LDG GEAR DN
37
Which procedure must be performed if at least one landing gear is not DOWNLOCKED?
QRH LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G
38
What should be done to the ground spoilers if one or more main landing gears are in abnormal position?
Not to be armed
39
Why should the ground spoilers not be armed if at least one main gear is in abnormal position?
To keep as much roll authority as possible.
40
What should be done to the autobrake when landing with abnormal gear?
Not armed.
41
How long will hydraulic power be approximately available after shutdown of the related engine?
30 seconds
42
When should the engine masters be switched off with an abnormal nose landing gear?
Before nose impact
43
When should the engine masters be switched off when landing with one abnormal main gear?
At touchdown
44
When should the engine masters be switched off when landing with both main landing gear abnormal?
In the flare, before touchdown.
45
What happens with a dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS fault?
Autopilot and auto thrust lost and flight controls revert to ALTN law
46
What kind of approach should be flown with an overweight landing?
Stabilized approach
47
What is the preferred landing config for an overweight landing?
Config full
48
Is a maintenance inspection required after an overweight landing with a vertical speed below 360ft/min?
No