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Operations manuals > All Cards > Flashcards

All Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of control of the flight controls in ground mode?

A

Direct control of elevator, ailerons and spoilers.

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2
Q

What does the SIDESTICK command in flight mode in the pitch axis?

A

A change in G.

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3
Q

What does the SIDESTICK command in the roll axis in flight mode?

A

A roll rate.

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4
Q

What happens at 50ft during the landing in flare mode?

A

The aircraft memorizes the attitude at 50 feet and then at 30 feet the system reduces the pitch attitude to -2 degrees over 8 seconds.

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5
Q

What are the protections in normal law?

A
  1. Load limit limitation
  2. Pitch attitude protection
  3. Bank angle protection
  4. High speed protection
  5. High angle of attack protection
  6. Alpha floor protection
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6
Q

What does the load limitation do?

A

It limits the load factor automatically.

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7
Q

What are the pitch attitude protection limitations?

A

+30 NU in conf0-3
(Reduced to +25 low speed)

+25 NU in conf full
(Reduced to +20 low speed)

-15 Nose down

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8
Q

How are the limits of the pitch attitude protection displayed on the PFD?

A

By green = symbols

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9
Q

What happens to the FD bars when the pitch attitude limit is approaching?

A

Will disappear and will return after flight path correction.

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10
Q

What happens is a pilot releases the SIDESTICK at bank angles above 33 degrees?

A

The bank angle automatically reduced to 33 degrees

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11
Q

What is the bank angle limit when angle of attack protection is active?

A

45 degrees

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12
Q

What is the maximum bank angle when the pilot holds full lateral SIDESTICK deflection?

A

67 degrees

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13
Q

How is the bank angle limit displayed in the PFD?

A

By a green = symbol

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14
Q

If high speed protection is active and the pilot maintains full lateral deflection, what is the maximum bank angle?

A

40 degrees.

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15
Q

What happens to the bank angle when high speed protection is operative and the SIDESTICK is released?

A

Returns to 0 degrees

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16
Q

What happens when the bank angle exceeds 45 degrees?

A
  • autopilot disconnects

- Flight director bars disappear

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17
Q

When do the flight director bars return after they disappeared during bank angle protection.

A

When bank angle is reduced below 40 degrees.

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18
Q

What happens as speed increases above Vmo/ Mmo?

A

SIDESTICK nose down authority is reduced and a permanent nose up order is applied.

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19
Q

As high speed protection becomes active, when will the autopilot disconnect?

A

Vmo + 6 kts

Mmo + 0.01

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20
Q

How is the speed where the high speed protection starts displayed on the speed tape?

A

A green = symbol at Vmo+6

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21
Q

What does the sidestick demand between Valpha PROT and Valpha Max?

A

Angle of attack.

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22
Q

What happens if the pilot pulls the sidestick all the way back to Alpha Max and then releases it?

A

The speed returns to alpha PROT.

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23
Q

Which protection in normal law has priority over all other protections?

A

High angle of attack protection.

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24
Q

When will the autopilot disengage with high angle of attack protection?

A

At alpha PROT +1 degrees.

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25
Q

How can a pilot deactivate the angle of attack protection?

A

Move the SIDESTICK 8 degrees forward or move the SIDESTICK 0.5 degrees forward for at least 0.5 seconds, when alpha is less than alpha max.

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26
Q

What are the three modes in normal law?

A

Ground mode
Flight mode
Flare mode

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27
Q

What does the flight management part of the FMGS control?

A 
Navigation
Flight planning
Performance optimization
Predictions
Display management
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28
Q

What does the flight guidance part of the FMGS control?

A

Flight director
Auto pilot commands
Auto thrust commands

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29
Q

What does the flight augmentation part of the FMGS control?

A 
Flight envelope computation
Maneuvering speed computation
Windshear detection
Alpha floor protection
Various yaw functions
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30
Q

How is the master FMGC determined?

A

By autopilot and/ or flight director engagement

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31
Q

If both autopilots are on, which FMGC is the master?

A

FMGC1

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32
Q

Which FMGC drives the auto thrust?

A

The master FMGC

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33
Q

Which FMGC drives the flight directors?

A

The on side FMGC

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34
Q

What happens if the master FMGC fails?

A

Auto pilot and auto thrust disengage. They can be re-engaged by using the autopilot from the healthy FMGC.

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35
Q

How is the FCU display driven?

A

By two redundant FCU controllers.

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36
Q

Which FMGC calculates the aircraft position?

A

Each FMGC calculates independently the position.

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37
Q

Which data is used by the FMGC to calculate the aircrafts position?

A

ADIRS
Radio navigation aids
GPS receivers

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38
Q

What is mix IRS

A

The average position of the three IRSs

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39
Q

When is SRS available on takeoff?

A

As long as slats are extended and V2 is available to the FMS.

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40
Q

What does SRS command during normal take off?

A

V2+10kts

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41
Q

What does SRS command in N-1?

A

V2

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42
Q

What will trigger a red AUTOLAND light below 200ft?

A
  • both autopilots trip off
  • loss or excessive deviation in LOC (inhibited below 15ft)
  • loss or excessive deviation in G/S (inhibited below 100ft)
  • disagreement in RA indications
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43
Q

What will trigger the SPEED SPEED SPEED aural warning?

A

Between 100ft and 2000ft and in config 2,3 or full, a drop in speed that is significantly below Vls, taking into account deceleration rate and flight path angle.

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44
Q

When is Alpha floor protection available?

A

Lift off until 100ft RA.

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45
Q

When is reactive wind shear protection available?

A

Lift off until 1300ft

1300 to 50ft

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46
Q

If a cabin crew want to report a red flag event, what should the commander do?

A

Contact the duty pilot to seek verification if it is a red flag event.

CSPM 1.18.5

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47
Q

In case the cabin manager is absent during the briefing, who may deduct the cabin crew briefing?

A

Another qualified cabin manager.

CSPM 2.2.1.1

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48
Q

Is it possible to start boarding without the pilots being present?

A

No, at least 1 pilot needs to be on the FD.

CSPM 2.2.1.2

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49
Q

What is the purpose of a security search?

A

To ensure there are no unauthorized persons or prohibited articles on board.

CSPM 2.3.2

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50
Q

When must a security search be done?

A
  • cold aircraft
  • turnarounds in UK, Jersey, Russia and Gibraltar OR after flights inbound from non EU countries OR prior to departure to Tel Aviv
  • any time crew feel security may have been compromised

CSPM 2.3.2.2

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51
Q

Which areas must be searched if a passenger is offloaded after gaining access to the aircraft?

A

Three rows forward and three rows back from the seat and any areas the pax had access to.

OMB 2.3.2.6

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52
Q

Which passengers are not allowed to be seated in restricted seats?

A

CHIPPED

C - children under 16
H - hearing, sight, other disability
I - infants on laps
P - pregnant and prisoners
P - physical size
E - elderly if frail
D - deportees

CSPM 2.4.5

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53
Q

What must a unaccompanied PRM be able to do?

A
  • unfasten seat belt
  • leave a seat and reach emergency exit unaided
  • retrieve and fit a life jacket
  • don an oxygen mask without assistance
  • understand the safety briefing

CSPM 2.4.7.1

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54
Q

What must be done to a plaster cast if it has been fitted less than 48hrs before the flight?

A

Split to allow for potential swelling.

CSPM 2.4.7.3

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55
Q

From what age may children travel unaccompanied?

A

14 years

CSPM 2.4.7.4

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56
Q

What is the minimum age for an for an adult to accompany a child?

A

16 years?

CSPM 2.4.7.4

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57
Q

Is it allowed to ask another passenger to accept responsibility for an unaccompanied minor or to have an infant be seated on their lap during take off and landing?

A

No

CSPM 2.4.7.4

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58
Q

Will large groups of children be accepted?

A

Yes, as long as accompanied by the minimum ratio of adults (1 per 10 children)

CSPM 2.4.7.4

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59
Q

From what age are passengers considered adult?

A

16 years

CSPM 2.4.7.4

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60
Q

Is it allowed to carry any live animals in the cabin?

A

No except assistance dogs.

CSPM 2.4.10

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61
Q

Is it allowed to use e-cigarettes on board?

A

No

CSPM 2.4.13

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62
Q

When must the cabin defect log been entered/ signed by the CM and given to the commander for review and singing?

A

At the end of a sector.

CSPM 2.6.2

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63
Q

What is the call when severe turbulence is encountered and insufficient time for normal procedures?

A

CABIN CREW AND PASSENGERS BE SEATED IMMEDIATELY

CSPM 2.6.9.5

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64
Q

What will crew do after hearing the PA attention crew at stations in flight?

A
  • interrupt their duty
  • stow away any catering equipment
  • return to their station and fasten their harness
  • await further actions from cm/ pilots
  • remain vigilant in cabin

CSPM 3.2.2

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65
Q

What is the CLEAR briefing?

A

Given by CC to pilots:

C - crew name
L - location
E - event
A - actions taken
R - recommendation

CSPM 3.3.1

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66
Q

What is the definition of catastrophic?

A

The aircraft has suffered serious structural damage and possible death or injury to any of the occupants.

CSPM 3.12.3

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67
Q

What are the restricted seats in the cabin?

A

Row 1 ABCD
over wing exits
Last row CD

CSPM 5.3.1.1

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68
Q

What is the emergency code for the FD?

A

0511#

CSPM 5.3.3

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69
Q

How many infants may be carried?

A

Up to 10% of the total capacity.

CSPM 2.4.12.2

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70
Q

What is the definition of a precautionary landing?

A

One where under normal circumstances there will be no requirement for the cabin crew to evacuate after landing.

CSPM 3.2

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71
Q

What is the definition of an unplanned emergency landing?

A

A situation where time is not available to plan for an emergency e.g. on take off or landing.

CSPM 3.2

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72
Q

What is the definition of a pre planned emergency landing?

A

A situation where time is available to plan for an emergency (NITS brief).

Cabin crew will have all information needed to prepare passengers and secure cabin.

CSPM 3.2

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73
Q

What is the portable oxygen duration?

A

HI - up to 40 minutes
LO - up to 70 minutes

CSPM 5.14.7

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74
Q

How long does a BCF last?

A

Approximately 15 minutes

CSPM 5.14.2

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75
Q

Who’s ultimate responsibility is the safety of the cabin?

A

The commander

CSPM 1.2

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76
Q

How long is the APU start inhibit when going into emergency electric configuration?

A

45 seconds

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77
Q

What does the electrical system consist of?

A

Three phase 115/200V 400Hz AC system

And 28V DC system

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78
Q

How long does RAT extension and coupling take?

A

8 seconds

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79
Q

What is the minimum offline battery voltage?

A

25,5V

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80
Q

How long can the batteries provide emergency power

A

Approximately 30 minutes

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81
Q

What will happen if a single engine driven generator is lost and no APU generator available?

A

Shed part of the galley load and route power from other engine driven generator.

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82
Q

At what speed will the rat stall?

A

140kts or 125kts (newer models)

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83
Q

What are the functions of the GCUs? (Generators control units)

A

Control the output (freq and voltage) of their generator.

Protect the network by controlling the generator line contractor (GLC)

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84
Q

Within how many kts from V1 should a takeoff be continued if a tire fails without significant engine parameter fluctuations?

A

20 kts

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85
Q

Why is it better to continue a takeoff if a tire fails within 20kts from V1 than to abort?

A

It is better to get airborne, reduce the load and land with a full runway available.

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86
Q

How will the captain announce his decision to continue the take off after a malfunction?

A

By calling GO.

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87
Q

How will the captain announce his decision to reject the take off?

A

By calling STOP

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88
Q

What does calling STOP during the take off roll mean?

A

Confirms the decision to reject the takeoff and that the captain now has control.

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89
Q

What does announcing DECEL mean during the RTO and the landing?

A

Deceleration is felt by the crew AND confirmed by the Vc trend on the PFD.

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90
Q

When does the DECEL light come on on the auto take panel?

A

When the actual deceleration is 80% of the selected rate.

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91
Q

What is the initial pitch attitude for an EFATO?

A

12,5 degrees

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92
Q

What are the three strategies for dealing with an engine failure in the cruise?

A
  • standard strategy
  • obstacle strategy
  • fixed speed strategy
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93
Q

Which strategy for an engine failure in cruise refers to ETOPS?

A

Fixed speed strategy

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94
Q

Which strategy is usually used in the event of an engine failure in cruise?

A

Standard strategy

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95
Q

Why is the A/THR disconnected when dealing with an engine failure in cruise?

A

To avoid any engine thrust reduction when selecting speed according to strategy or pulling OPEN DES.

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96
Q

What significant things will you miss during an RTO below 72kts?

A

Ground spoilers will not deploy and auto brake will not activate.

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97
Q

What is the procedure for an engine failure in cruise?

A
  • set thrust levers to MCT
  • disconnect the A/THR
  • select speed according to strategy
  • if appropriate select hdg
  • select appropriate engine inop altitude in FCU window and pull OPEN DES
  • request ECAM actions
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98
Q

With the ATHR disconnected, how is the target speed controlled in open descent?

A

By the elevator

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99
Q

What is the target speed with the standard strategy?

A

0.78/300 kts

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100
Q

What is the speed target in the obstacle strategy?

A

Green dot

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101
Q

What is the recommendation of thrust reverser use of one reverser is inoperative?

A

Select reverse thrust on both engines during RTO or landing

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102
Q

Which ECAM may be triggered when using both reverses with one inoperative?

A

ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT

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103
Q

What is the recommendation regarding reverse thrust if both reversers are inop?

A

Don’t select reverse thrust

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104
Q

What causes the emergency electrical configuration?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2

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105
Q

In the emergency electrical configuration, what happens below 125kts?

A

The RAT stalls
Emergency generation network transferred to the batteries
AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed

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106
Q

In the emergency electrical configuration, what happens below 100kts?

A

DC BAT BUS automatically connected

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107
Q

In the emergency electrical configuration, what happens below 50kts?

A

The AC ESS BUS is shed

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108
Q

What is the minimum approach speed for the emergency electrical configuration?

A

140 kts

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109
Q

What situations might cause abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats?

A
  • double SFCC failure
  • double hydraulic failure
  • flaps/ slats jammed (operation of wtb)
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110
Q

According to what is the OVERSPEED warning computed?

A

The ACTUAL slats/ flaps position

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111
Q

Down to what altitude may the autopilot be used with a slats/ flaps problem?

A

500ft AGL

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112
Q

What are some of the points which should be briefed following a problem with flaps/ slats?

A
  • tail strike awareness
  • go around configuration
  • deviation from standard call outs
  • speeds to be flown, following a missed approach
  • selected speed used at the acceleration altitude
  • increased fuel consumption
  • different/ unusual attitudes
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113
Q

When diverting with a slats/ flaps problem, what is the max altitude?

A

20000 feet

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114
Q

When should fuel checks be carried out?

A

When sequencing a waypoint and every 30 minutes

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115
Q

What kind of approach is preferred with a dual hydraulic fault?

A

Stabilized approach

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116
Q

What are some of the briefing items for a dual hydraulic failure?

A
  • use of selected speeds
  • landing gear gravity extension (QRH)
  • approach config and flap lever position
  • approach speed Vapp
  • TAILSTRIKE awareness
  • braking and steering considerations
  • go around call, aircraft config and speed
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117
Q

With which dual hydraulic failure will you remain in normal law?

A

B+Y

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118
Q

What indication is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked?

A

At least one green triangle on each gear

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119
Q

What ECAM memo is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is DOWNLOCKED?

A

LDG GEAR DN

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120
Q

Which procedure must be performed if at least one landing gear is not DOWNLOCKED?

A

QRH LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G

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121
Q

What should be done to the ground spoilers if one or more main landing gears are in abnormal position?

A

Not to be armed

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122
Q

Why should the ground spoilers not be armed if at least one main gear is in abnormal position?

A

To keep as much roll authority as possible.

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123
Q

What should be done to the autobrake when landing with abnormal gear?

A

Not armed.

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124
Q

How long will hydraulic power be approximately available after shutdown of the related engine?

A

30 seconds

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125
Q

When should the engine masters be switched off with an abnormal nose landing gear?

A

Before nose impact

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126
Q

When should the engine masters be switched off when landing with one abnormal main gear?

A

At touchdown

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127
Q

When should the engine masters be switched off when landing with both main landing gear abnormal?

A

In the flare, before touchdown.

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128
Q

What happens with a dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS fault?

A

Autopilot and auto thrust lost and flight controls revert to ALTN law

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129
Q

What kind of approach should be flown with an overweight landing?

A

Stabilized approach

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130
Q

What is the preferred landing config for an overweight landing?

A

Config full

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131
Q

Is a maintenance inspection required after an overweight landing with a vertical speed below 360ft/min?

A

No

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132
Q

What happens during ground mode as the aircraft gets airborne?

A

Ground mode is progressively blended out and flight mode becomes effective.

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133
Q

What does acclimatised mean?

A

The crew members biological clock is synchronized to the time zone the member is.

Oma 7.1.2.1

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134
Q

When is a duty a night duty?

A

A duty period encroaching any portion between 02:00 and 04:59 in the time zone where the crew member is acclimatized.

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135
Q

What does duty period mean?

A

A period starting when a crew member is required for any duty and ends when free of all duties.

Oma 7.1.2.9

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136
Q

What does Flight duty period (fdp) mean?

A

Starts when crew member is required to report for duty, which includes one or more sectors and ends when the aircraft comes to rest and engines shutdown at the last sector.

Oma 7.1.2.11

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137
Q

What does a ‘local day’ mean?

A

A 24hour period starting at 0:00 local.

Oma 7.1.2.14

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138
Q

What does a ‘local night’ mean?

A

A period of 8 hours falling between 22:00 and 08:00 local time

Oma 7.1.2.15

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139
Q

How often and by how much may the maximum FDP be extended?

A

By up to 1 hour, not more than twice in any 7 consecutive days.

Oma 7.1.5.4.4

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140
Q

What requirements shall be put in place if a max fdp is extended by up to 1 hour?

A
  • min pre and post flight rest periods increased by 2 hours
    Or
    The post flight period increased by 4 hours

Oma 7.1.5.4.4

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141
Q

What is the max duty time in 7 consecutive days?

A

60 duty hours

Oma 7.1.6.1

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142
Q

What is the max duty time in 14 consecutive days?

A

110 duty hours

Oma 7.1.6.1

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143
Q

What is the max duty time in 28 consecutive days?

A

190 duty hours

Oma 7.1.6.1

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144
Q

What is the maximum total flight time in 28 days?

A

100 hours

Oma 7.1.6.2

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145
Q

What is the maximum total flight time in any calendar year?

A

900 hours

Oma 7.1.6.2

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146
Q

What is the maximum flight time in 12 consecutive calendar months?

A

1000 hours

Oma 7.1.6.2

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147
Q

What does commanders discretion mean?

A

The commander may, at his discretion, and after taking note of the circumstances of other crew members, extend a flying duty period (FDP) or reduce a rest period provided they are satisfied that the flight can be made safely.

FRMA appendix B

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148
Q

Is it possible for an aircraft commander to reduce an FDP or increase a rest period?

A

Yes

FRMS appendix B

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149
Q

What are some of the factors that must be taken in consideration when deciding on commanders discretion?

A
  • WOCL encroachment
  • weather conditions
  • complexity of operation and/ or airport environment
  • airplane malfunctions
  • training flights
  • increased number of sectors
  • circadian disruption
  • individual conditions of crew member

FRMS appendix B

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150
Q

What should the commander do with all crew members before decisief to extensie a FDP?

A

Consult their alertness levels.

FRMS appendix B

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151
Q

What is the maximum daily allowed FDP extension?

A

2 hours

FRMS appendix B

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152
Q

When may the maximum daily allowed FDP extension be exceeded?

A

When on the final sector, following unforeseen circumstances after take off, the flight may continue to the planned destination or alternate.

FRMS appendix B

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153
Q

The rest period following FDP may be reduced but can never be less than…?

A

10 hours.

FRMS appendix B

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154
Q

Can an FDP be reduced for individual crew members?

A

No

FRMS appendix B

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155
Q

What do the engine and APU fire detection systems consist of?

A

2 fire detection loops (A and B)

A fire detection unit

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156
Q

How are the two engine/ APU fire detection loops mounted?

A

In parallel.

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157
Q

How many fire/ overheat sensing elements are located in the engine and where?

A

Three;

  • pylon nacelle
  • engine core
  • engine fan section
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158
Q

How many fire and overheat sensing elements in the APU?

A

One

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159
Q

What happens when there is a fire in the APU on the ground?

A

Automatic shutdown and discharge of agent.

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160
Q

How many extinguishing bottles does each engine have?

A

2

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161
Q

How many extinguishing bottles does the APU have?

A

One

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162
Q

When does a engine/ APU fire warning appear?

A
  • fire signal in loop A+B
  • fire signal in 1 loop, with the other faulty
  • brakes on both loops within 5 seconds
  • test performed on control panel
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163
Q

When is a engine/ APU fire loop fault caution generated?

A
  • one loop faulty
  • both loops faulty
  • fire detection unit fails
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164
Q

What happens when pressing the engine fire push button?

A
  • silences aural warning
  • arms fire extinguisher squibs
  • closes low pressure fuel valve
  • closes hydraulic fire shut off valve
  • closes engine bleed valve
  • closes pack flow control valve
  • cuts off FADEC power
  • deactivates IDG
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165
Q

What happens when pressing the APU fire push button?

A
  • shuts down APU
  • silences warning
  • arms squib
  • closes low pressure fuel valve
  • shuts off APU fuel pump
  • closes APU bleed and x bleed
  • deactivates APU generator
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166
Q

How many smoke detectors in the avionics ventilation system and where?

A

One, in the avionics extraction duct.

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167
Q

When does the smoke detector in the avionics duct send a signal?

A

After detecting smoke for 5 seconds.

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168
Q

How many smoke detectors in the lavatories?

A

One in each.

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169
Q

Via which system do the lavatory smoke detectors send a warning signal and to where?

A

Via the CIDS to cockpit and cabin

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170
Q

How many smoke detectors in the fwd cargo hold?

A

2

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171
Q

How many smoke detectors in the aft cargo hold?

A

4

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172
Q

Via which system is a cargo smoke warning transmitted to ECAM?

A

CIDS

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173
Q

When is a cargo smoke warning generated?

A
  • both smoke detectors detect smoke

- one smoke detector detects smoke, the other inop.

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174
Q

How many extinguishing bottles for the cargo areas?

A

One

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175
Q

How many nozzles does the fire extinguisher for the cargo area have and for which compartments?

A

Three nozzles;

1 fwd cargo hold
2 aft cargo hold

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176
Q

What is the total capacity of the fuel tanks?

A

18728 KG

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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177
Q

What is the capacity of the center fuel tank?

A

6476 kg

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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178
Q

What is the capacity of each inner wing tank?

A

5435KG

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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179
Q

What is the capacity of each outer wing tank?

A

691kg

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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180
Q

In which order do the tanks feed the fuel system?

A
  1. Inner tanks until 500kg used in each
  2. Center tank until empty
  3. Inner tanks until 750kg remaining in each
  4. Outer tanks by transferring to inner tanks

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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181
Q

What are the functions of the fuel system?

A
  • store fuel in the tanks
  • allocate correct quantities to tanks during refueling
  • supply fuel to the engines and the APU
  • circulate fuel to cool the IDG
  • keep fuel in outer wing for wing bending and flutter relief.

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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182
Q

How many main fuel pumps have newer MSN aircraft?

A

Four main fuel pumps

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183
Q

How many main fuel pumps have the older MSN aircraft?

A

Six

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184
Q

From which tank do newer MSN aircraft supply fuel from?

A

The inner tanks

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185
Q

From which tank do older MAN aircraft supply the fuel from?

A

The center of inner tanks

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186
Q

How can the low pressure fuel valves be closed?

A
  • the engine master switch

- the engine fire push button

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187
Q

How do older msn aircraft ensure correct sequence of fuel delivery?

A

Via pressure relief valves.

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188
Q

What is the function of the fuel intertank transfer valves?

A

Fuel transfer from outer to inner tank.

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189
Q

What is the function of the fuel crossfeed valve?

A

Allows fuel to feed both engines from one side or one engine from both sides.

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190
Q

What is the function of the fuel suction valves?

A

Allows engines to be fed by gravity if inner tank pumps fail.

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191
Q

How are the fuel suction valves closed in normal operation?

A

By pumps pressure.

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192
Q

What is the fuel feed sequence on older msn aircraft?

A
  • center tank
  • inner tank (to 750kg)
  • outer tanks (fuel transfers to inner tanks)
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193
Q

What is the fuel feed sequence on newer MSN aircraft?

A
  • center tank (fuel transfers to inner)
  • inner tanks (to 750kg)
  • outer tanks (fuel transfers to inner tank)
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194
Q

How does fuel flow from the center tank to the inner tanks on newer MSN aircraft?

A

The transfer valve is open, fuel from inner tank flows through jet pump and creates suction. The suction moves fuel from the center tank to the inner tank.

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195
Q

What is used to cool the IDG?

A

Fuel

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196
Q

Where does the fuel which is used to cool the IDG go?

A

Returns in the outer tank.

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197
Q

What is the function of the fuel tank inerting system?

A

Reduce flammability

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198
Q

What system reduces the flammability of the fuel tank?

A

Fuel inerting system.

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199
Q

Where is the fuel inerting system installed?

A

Center tank only.

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200
Q

How does the fuel inerting system reduce flammability?

A

It produces oxygen depleted air to replace ambient air in the center tank.

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201
Q

What is the oxygen percentage of the oxygen depleted air produced by the fuel inerting system?

A

Less than 12%

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202
Q

When do the center tank pumps run?

A
  • at engine start for 2 minutes
  • if slats are retracted
  • stops 5 minutes after center tank low level
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203
Q

What does it mean if the last two digits of the fuel indication have an amber line across?

A

FQI inaccurate

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204
Q

How many hydraulic systems?

A

3; G B Y

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205
Q

How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?

A

By bleed air

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206
Q

Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?

A

To prevent cavitation

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207
Q

What is the normal bleed air source for reservoir pressurization?

A

Engine 1 bleed air

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208
Q

If bleed air pressure gets low for hydraulic reservoir pressure, what will happen?

A

Bleed air will be taken from the cross bleed duct

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209
Q

What are the hydraulic reservoirs monitored for?

A

Low level
Low pressure
Overheat

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210
Q

How is the green system usually pressurized?

A

By engine driven 1 pump

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211
Q

How is the yellow system usually pressurized?

A

By the engine driven pump 2.

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212
Q

How is the blue system usually pressurized?

A

By an electric pump

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213
Q

Which electrical system drives the blue electric pump?

A

AC1

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214
Q

Which pumps may pressurize the yellow system?

A

Engine driven 2 pump
Electric pump
Hand pump
PTU

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215
Q

Which electric systems drive the Y electric pump?

A

AC2 and external power

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216
Q

What pressure do the engine driven pumps and electric pumps supply?

A

3000 PSI

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217
Q

What pressure does the PTU supply?

A

2500 PSI

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218
Q

When does the PTU activate?

A

Automatically when differential pressure between the two systems is greater than 500 PSI.

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219
Q

What does the PTU during the second engine start sequence?

A

A self test

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220
Q

What is the purpose of the priority valve?

A

To cut off heavy users (flaps, slats, gears, emergency generator) if system pressure gets too low to operate flight controls

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221
Q

What hydraulic system is used for normal braking?

A

Green

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222
Q

What hydraulic system is used for alternate braking?

A

Yellow

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223
Q

When does the RAT deploy automatically?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2

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224
Q

Where/ when can the RAT be stowed?

A

On the ground

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225
Q

What is the function of the hydraulic leak measurement valves and how are they operated?

A

Measure the leakage in each circuit and are closed by operation of the push buttons on the maintenance panel.

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226
Q

Is it possible to use APU bleed air for wing anti ice?

A

No

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227
Q

By what means are the slats anti iced?

A

Hot bleed air from pneumatic system

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228
Q

What happens to the wing anti ice valve in case of a hot air leak?

A

Automatically closes

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229
Q

What happens of the wing anti ice button is pushed on?

A

30 seconds self test

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230
Q

What is the function of the anti ice system?

A

Protect critical areas by hot air and electrical heating

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231
Q

Which slats are anti iced?

A

Three outboard slats

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232
Q

Which parts are anti iced/ de iced by hot air?

A

The three outboard slats and engine intakes.

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233
Q

Which parts are anti iced/ de iced by electrical heating?

A
  • flight deck Windows
  • sensors, pitot probes, static ports
  • water waste drain mast
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234
Q

What happens with the wing anti ice valves when electrical supply fails?

A

They automatically close

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235
Q

What happens to the thrust when wing anti ice is selected on?

A

N1 limit is reduced and N1 increased

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236
Q

What happens with the engine anti ice valve when air is unavailable?

A

Closes automatically

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237
Q

What happens to the engine anti ice valves when electrical supply fails?

A

Engine anti ice valves open.

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238
Q

What happens to the thrust when engine anti ice is selected on?

A

N1 limit reduced, N1 increased (if necessary)

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239
Q

When is window heating automatically on?

A
  • at least one engine running

- aircraft in flight

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240
Q

Which aircraft parts are electrically heated?

A
  • pitot heads
  • static ports
  • angle of attack probes
  • total air temperature probes
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241
Q

When are the protected probes automatically heated?

A
  • one engine running

- aircraft in flight

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242
Q

Based on data from which component do the DUs generate and display the images?

A

From the DMCs

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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243
Q

How many DMCs?

A

Three

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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244
Q

How many channels and what kind of channels per DMC?

A

Two, EFIS channel and ECAM channel.

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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245
Q

How many SDACs (system data acquisition Concentrators)?

A

2

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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246
Q

How many FWCs?

A

Two

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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247
Q

How do the FWCs generate red and amber messages?

A

Directly from sensors or systems to generate red

Through the SDACs to generate amber cautions.

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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248
Q

What are the EIS components?

A
  • Display units (DUs)
  • Display Management Compiters (DMCs)
  • System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDAC)
  • Flight Warning Computers
  • Attention getters

Aircraft technical Dec 12

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249
Q

When does the landing gear system automatically switch from LGCIU?

A

At the end of each retraction and automatically if a failure is detected.

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250
Q

What is the function of the safety valve in the landing gear system?

A

Shuts off hydraulic pressure to the actuators when the aircraft speed exceeds 260kts and restores pressure with the landing gear lever down and speed below 260kts.

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251
Q

By which means does the landing gear extend when using the gravity gear extension?

A

Combination of gravity, aerodynamic force and locking springs

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252
Q

By which LGCIU are the lights on the landing gear indicator controlled?

A

LGCIU 1

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253
Q

What do the LGCIUs use to supply air/ ground data?

A

The shock absorber position.

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254
Q

When does the master BSCU automatically change over?

A

At each down selection of the landing gear lever or when a fault is detected.

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255
Q

By what are the landing gear and doors controlled?

A

Two LGCIU’s

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256
Q

How does the anti skid system determine wheel slip ratio?

A

By comparing aircraft speed from the ADIRUs to the tire speed from tachometers

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257
Q

What is the deceleration rate and when does the autobrake start with LO selection?

A

4 seconds after spoilers deploy. Rate 1.7m/s2

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258
Q

What is the deceleration rate and when does the autobrake start with MED selection?

A

2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy. Rate is 3m/s2

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259
Q

What is the deceleration rate and when does the autobrake start with MAX selection?

A

As soon as ground spoilers deploy, max braking applied.

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260
Q

If flight is conducted with the L/G down, and a failure happens that causes the aircraft to revert to alternate law, what will happen?

A

The aircraft will revert to direct law immediately.

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261
Q

After how many seconds must the landing gear retraction or extension sequence complete before a warning comes up?

A

30

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262
Q

Which warning comes up if the gear retraction sequence has not been completed in 30 seconds?

A

Gear not UPLOCKED

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263
Q

Which warning comes up if the landing gear extension sequence is not completed in 30 seconds?

A

Gear not DOWNLOCKED

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264
Q

When do you get the brakes hot message?

A

If at least one brake is >300C

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265
Q

Why must the brake temperature be below 300 degrees prior to takeoff?

A

To prevent ignition of any hydraulic fluid that leaks on the brakes.

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266
Q

When does the BSCU do a self test?

A

When normal braking is active and at least one engine is running and the BSCU receives a gear DOWNLOCKED signal from the LGCIUs.

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267
Q

How are the landing gear and doors controlled and actuated?

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

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268
Q

When is maintenance to the brakes required?

A
  • one brake >600C and other brake on same gear 150
  • Average temp of one gear is 200C more than the other
  • Any brake temp >900C
  • a fuse plug has melted
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269
Q

What is the function of the LGCIUs?

A
  • control extension/ retraction of the gear and operation of the doors
  • supply information about gear to ECAM
  • sends signals aircraft in air or ground to other systems
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270
Q

What information of the landing gear is send to the LGCIUs?

A
  • locked down/ up
  • shock absorbers compressed/ extended
  • landing gear doors open/ closed
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271
Q

Which information about the cargo doors is send to the LGCIUs?

A

Position of manual selector valves, locking shaft, locking handle, safety shaft, door sills.

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272
Q

Which information about the flaps is send to the LGCIUs?

A

Signals from 4 flap disconnect proximity switches

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273
Q

Which LGCIU is connected to the landing gear panel?

A

Lgciu1

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274
Q

When does the red arrow on the landing gear selection panel come on?

A

When the landing gear is not locked down and the aircraft is in the landing config and a red warning appears on ECAM.

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275
Q

What controls the nosewheel steering?

A

Bscu

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276
Q

What is the nosewheel steering angle from the rudder pedals?

A

+/- 6 degrees

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277
Q

What is the nosewheel steering angle from the handwheel?

A

+/-75 degrees

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278
Q

Between which speeds does NWS angle reduce with rudder pedals?

A

0-130kts

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279
Q

Between which speeds does NWS angle reduce with the handwheel?

A

0-80kts

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280
Q

By which system is normal braking controlled?

A

BSCU

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281
Q

By which system is alternate braking controlled?

A

ABCU

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282
Q

What are the secondary functions of the BSCU?

A
  • check residual pressure in brakes
  • monitor brake temperature
  • wheel speed info to other systems
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283
Q

What are the load acceleration limits in clean config?

A

-1G to 2.5G

LIM 10

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284
Q

What are the load acceleration limits with the slats and/ or flaps extended?

A

0G to +2G

Lim 10

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285
Q

What is the lowest permittable temperature for the A320?

A

-70 degrees

LIM 12

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286
Q

What is the maximum (mean) runway slope?

A

+/- 2%

LIM 12

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287
Q

What is the maximum runway altitude?

A

9200ft

Lim 12

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288
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?

A

38kts (gusts included)

Lim 12

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289
Q

What is the maximum tailwind?

A

10kts

Lim 12

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290
Q

What is the maximum wind for passenger door operation?

A

65kts

Lim 12

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291
Q

What is the maximum wind for cargo door operation (and what when the nose is oriented into the wind, or the cargo door is on the leeward side)?

A

40kts (50 kts)

Lim 12

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292
Q

Before which speed must the cargo doors be closed?

A

65kts

Lim 12

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293
Q

On what runway conditions is take off not recommended?

A
  • wet ice
  • water on top of compacted snow
  • dry snow or wet snow over ice

Lim12

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294
Q

What is the maximum speed for flaps1?

A

230kts

Lim13

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295
Q

What is the maximum speed for flaps 2?

A

200kts

Lim13

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296
Q

What is the maximum speed for flaps 3?

A

185kts

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297
Q

What is the max speed for flaps full?

A

177 kts

Lim 13

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298
Q

What is the max speed with landing gear extended? Vle?

A

280kts/M.67

Lim13

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299
Q

What is the max speed at which the landing gear may be extended? (Vlo)?

A

250kts

Lim13d

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300
Q

What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted? (Vlo)?

A

220kts

Lim13

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301
Q

What is the max altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?

A

25000ft

Lim13

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302
Q

What is the maximum tire speed?

A

195 kts

Lim13

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303
Q

What is the max speed for the windshield wipers?

A

230kts

Lim13

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304
Q

What is the max speed for cockpit window open?

A

200kts

Lim13

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305
Q

What is the pressure level limit to open the ram air inlet?

A

Differential pressure lower than 1PSI

Lim21-21-10

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306
Q

What is the maximum positive differential cabin pressure?

A

9.0 PSI

LIM21-21-20

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307
Q

What is the maximum negative differential cabin pressure?

A

-1 PSI

LIM21-21-20

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308
Q

What is the pressure for the safety relief setting?

A

8.6 PSI

LIM21-21-20

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309
Q

Up to what temperature is there no time limitation for the avionics ventilation system?

A

OAT 49 degrees

LIM21-21-30

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310
Q

What is the max continuous load per generator?

A

100% (90KVa)

Lim24

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311
Q

What is the max continuous load per TR?

A

200A

Lim24

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312
Q

What is the max operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended?

A

20000ft

Lim27

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313
Q

Is it allowed to exceed the maximum fuel imbalance values?

A

Yes, in exceptional conditions (I.e. Fuel system failures) it is allowed without affecting the aircraft handling.

Lim28

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314
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?

A

1500Kg

Lim28

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315
Q

Which fuel ECAM message may not be displayed for take off?

A

WING TK LO LVL

lim28

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316
Q

Is it possible to mix the various types of fuel?

A

Yes, in all proportions.

Lim28

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317
Q

What is the normal operating pressure for the hydraulic system?

A

3000 PSI +/- 200

Lim29

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318
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature for take off?

A

300degrees

Lim32

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319
Q

What is the max speed in a turn during taxi if 1 tire is deflated on one or more gears?

A

7kts

Lim32

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320
Q

What is the max speed during taxi and max steering angle if two tires are deflated on the same main gear?

A

3kts and Max steering angle 30degrees.

Lim32

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321
Q

What is the nosewheel steering limit when using the handwheels?

A

75 degrees.

Lim32

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322
Q

What is the nosewheel steering angle limit for towing and pushback?

A

95 degrees

Lim32

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323
Q

What is the nosewheel steering angle limit for towbarless towing and pushback?

A

85 degrees.

Lim32

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324
Q

Within how many hours op operation is maintenance action required when the ECAM LOW OIL LEVEL is generated for the APU?

A

Within 10hours of APU operation

Mel 49-10

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325
Q

How long must be waited for the APU starter after 3 starter cycles have been done before attempting another 3 cycles?

A

60min

Lim49-10

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326
Q

What is the max APU EGT?

A

675degrees

Lim49-10

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327
Q

What is the max APU EGT for start below 35000ft?

A

1090degrees.

Lim49-10

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328
Q

What is the max APU EGT for start above 35000ft?

A

1120 degrees

Lim49-10

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329
Q

Below which altitude may the APU be used for electrical power?

A

At or below 25000ft

Lim49-20

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330
Q

Up to what altitude may the APU be used for engine start?

A

Up to 20000ft

Lim49-20

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331
Q

Is air bleed extraction from the APU for wing anti ice allowed?

A

No

Lim49-20

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332
Q

Up to what altitude can the APU be used with one pack?

A

22500ft

Lim49-20

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333
Q

Up to what altitude can the APU be used with two packs?

A

15500ft

Lim49-20

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334
Q

What is the EGT limit for TOGA thrust?

A

950 degrees

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335
Q

What is the EGT limit for MCT thrust?

A

915 degrees

Lim70

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336
Q

What is the EGT limit for starting?

A

725 degrees

Lim70

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337
Q

What is the max continuous oil temperature?

A

140 degrees.

Lim70

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338
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for starting?

A

-40 degrees

Lim70

339
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for take off?

A

-10 degrees

Lim70

340
Q

What is the cooling period after 4 consecutive engine starts?

A

15 min

Lim 70

341
Q

What is the maximum thrust reduction?

A

25% of full rated T/O thrust

Lim 70

342
Q

What is the max flex temperature? (T MAX FLEX)?

A

ISA + 60 degrees

Lim 70

343
Q

What is the max N1?

A

104%

Lim 70

344
Q

What is the max N2?

A

105%

Lim 70

345
Q

Why are the blower and extract fans set to OVRD in the cabin overpressure QRH procedure?

A

To extract cabin air overboard

346
Q

When is the use of auto thrust not recommended for the landing with slats or flaps jammed procedure?

A

In case of G+B SYS LO PR

QRH 27.1

347
Q

According to what are the OVERSPEED warning and Vls displayed on the PFD computed?

A

Actual flaps/ slats position

348
Q

When may a fuel leak be detected?

A
  • sum of FOB and FU are significant less than FOB at engine start
  • pax observes fuel spray from engine/ pylon or wingtip/ sharklet
  • total quantity decreasing at abnormal rate
  • fuel imbalance
  • fuel quantity in tank decreasing too fast
  • fuel flow is excessive
  • fuel smelt in cabin
  • destination EFOB turns amber
  • DEST EFOB BELOW MIN on MCDU
349
Q

Is it permittable to identify a fuel leak by a visual check from the cabin?

A

Yes

350
Q

How can an engine fuel leak be confirmed?

A

By excessive fuel flow indication or visual check

351
Q

What should not be used in the landing with a fuel leak?

A

Thrust reversers

352
Q

Which procedure should be applied in case of total cabin pressure control leading to overpressure?

A

CABIN OVERPRESSURE

QRH21.1

353
Q

At which speed should the landing gear be gravity extended with a G and B hydraulic failure?

A

200kts

354
Q

With which dual hydraulic failure should the landing gear be gravity extended at 200kts?

A

Green and blue

355
Q

Where can you find some guidance following landing with a (suspected) tire damage?

A

Residual braking QRH procedure in the notes

356
Q

What should be done after landing if tire damage is suspected?

A

Inspection of the tires prior to taxi

357
Q

Which procedure must be applied when both engine bleed supplies have failed?

A

Air eng 1+2 bleed fault

358
Q

If both engine bleed systems have failed and the ECAM CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT is triggered, which procedure must be applied first?

A

First the ECAM procedure

359
Q

How should the trip fuel be calculated if a fuel penalty is associated with a single failure?

A

Trip fuel= (FOB-EFOB AT DEST) x FPF

360
Q

How should the trip fuel be calculated if a fuel penalty is associated with multiple failures?

A

TRIP FUEL= (FOB-EFOB AT DEST) x (fpf1+fpf2+…)

361
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with slats extended?

A

Fuelx1.6

362
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with flaps extended?

A

Fuelx1.8

363
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with flaps and slats extended?

A

Fuelx2.0

364
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with gear down?

A

Fuelx2.8

365
Q

What is the most fuel efficient config when holding with gear down?

A

Config1

366
Q

To which databases does the LPC performance module refer to?

A
  • aircraft performance database by Airbus
  • runway and obstacle database provided by third party
  • aircraft weight & balance database
  • Easyjet preferences & settings database
367
Q

What is Vef?

A

The speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail.

368
Q

What is Vmcg?

A

Minimum control speed on the ground.

The speed at which during takeoff the critical engine is failed and it is possible to maintain directional control to enable a safe take off.

369
Q

What does Vmcg depend on?

A

Engine thrust and pressure altitude

370
Q

V1 is always greater than which speed?

A

Vmcg

371
Q

What is Vmu?

A

Minimum unstick speed.

The speed at which the aircraft can safely lift off the ground and continue the take off.

372
Q

What is Vr?

A

The speed at which the pilot starts the rotation.

373
Q

What is Vmca?

A

The minimum control speed in the air.

The speed at which, when the critical engine fails, it is possible to maintain directional control and maintain straight flight with max bank angle of 5 degrees.

374
Q

V2 is always greater than which speed?

A

Vmca

375
Q

V2 must be reached at what height above the runway surface in case of an engine failure?

A

35ft

376
Q

What is TORA?

A

Take off run available.

The length of runway suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off.

377
Q

What is TODA?

A

Take off distance available.

Length of takeoff run available plus length of clearway available.

378
Q

What is ASDA?

A

Accelerate Stop Distance Available.

Length of take off run plus length of stop way.

379
Q

Where does the takeoff flight path begin?

A

35ft above the take off surface at the end of the takeoff distance.

380
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient in the second segment?

A

2.4%

381
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient in the final segment?

A

1.2%

382
Q

What is the gradient penalty for twin engined aircraft?

A

0,8%

383
Q

The MTOW calculated prior to take off must consider which percentage of headwind?

A

50%

384
Q

The MTOW calculated prior to take off must consider which percentage of tailwind?

A

150%

385
Q

What is Vls compared to Vs1g?

A

1.23 Vs1g

386
Q

What is the minimum and maximum wind correction?

A

5kts min

15kts max

387
Q

What is the required climb gradient for a normal approach?

A

2.1%

388
Q

What is the required climb gradient for a CATII or CATIII approach?

A

2.5%

389
Q

When is the aircraft status report in the tech log replaced?

A

Daily

390
Q

Which defect does effect airworthiness and which not?

A

Level 1 does

Level 2 does not

391
Q

What will a Y in the ops con box in the tech log mean?

A

The defect is considered operationally significant.

392
Q

How long is the daily inspection valid?

A

One calander day

393
Q

The upper half of a sector strip in the tech log is used to record what data?

A

Of the accomplished flight

394
Q

Which part of a sector strip in the tech log is used to record pre departure data?

A

Lower half

395
Q

When is the complete pink sheet removed prior to flight from the tech log?

A
  • first flight of the day
  • crews first flight (no handover)
  • whenever anything entered in the ‘action taken’ field
396
Q

Who shall be contacted in case of missing data or missing a signature on the previous sector page in the tech log?

A

OCC

397
Q

Which three types of defect can be entered into the tech log without affecting airworthiness?

A

Crew reset
For info
Most ECAM maintenance messages

398
Q

Who must be informed of a FOR INFO entry in the tech log?

A

MOC

399
Q

When may a FOR INFO entry not made following s bird strike?

A
  • any unusual odours reported by crew or pax
  • impact has caused a dent or crack to any structure
  • bird strike is within 1 meter of
  • engine
  • pitot head/ static ports
  • radome
  • air conditioning duct
400
Q

Which maintenance messages do not allow dispatch?

A

AIR BLEED
DMC 1/3
DMC 2/3
ENG FADEC

401
Q

What is the advantage of using the MEL in the OPS LIBRARY?

A

Allows MEL items to be accounted for in the performance modules.

402
Q

What is the definition of dispatch?

A

The point when an aircraft begins to move under its own power for the purpose of preparing for take off.

403
Q

Up to when is the MEL applicable?

A

Dispatch.

404
Q

When does the repair interval start?

A

At 00:01 on the calendar day following the day of discovery.

405
Q

When must a condition with repair interval A be rectified?

A

No standard interval specified

406
Q

When must a condition with repair interval B be rectified?

A

3 days

407
Q

When must a condition with repair interval C be rectified?

A

10 days

408
Q

When must a condition with repair interval D be rectified?

A

120 days

409
Q

Which note may be added to an MEL item that affects the RVSM MNPS or landing capability?

A

CHECK RNP(RVSM landing) CAPABILITY

410
Q

Which documents should be reffered to if an Mel item contains a not “check RVSM (RNP LANDING) capability”?

A

QRH or FCOM

411
Q

Does LIDO account for limitations imposed by Mel or CDL?

A

Yes

412
Q

If a part is not included in the CDL, how should it be considered?

A

It should be considered necessary for the operation.

413
Q

How many parts of one system may be missing according to the CDL?

A

One, unless specified

414
Q

Is it allowed to have parts of different systems simultaneously missing according to the CDL?

A

Yes, unless otherwise specified.

415
Q

What are LVP’s (Low Visibility Procedures)?

A

What the airport does.

Low vis doc feb 2015

416
Q

What is the difference between CAT III DUAL and CAT IIIB?

A

CAT 3 DUAL is the aircraft capability and cat 3 B is the airport facility.

Low vis doc feb 2015

417
Q

What is the lowest FMA for autoland?

A

CAT II

Low vis doc feb 2015

418
Q

What does fail operational mean?

A

With a failure above alert height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically.

Low vis doc feb 2015

419
Q

What does fail passive mean?

A

With a failure no significant out of trim condition, or deviation but the landing is not completed automatically.

Low vis doc feb 2015

420
Q

What is the action with a failure above AH?

A

Go around

Low vis doc feb 2015

421
Q

What happens with a failure below AH?

A

It is ignored and the approach continued.

Low vis doc feb 2015

422
Q

Where can you find the minimum required T/O RVR for the aerodrome?

A

In the LIDO AOI

Low vis doc feb 2015

423
Q

Where can you find the approved T/O minima?

A

OMA 8.1.3.3

Low vis doc feb 2015

424
Q

Where can you find the required equipment for an AUTOLAND?

A

QRH OPS 4

Low vis doc feb 2015

425
Q

Where can you find the effect of a failed or downgraded equipment?

A

QRH SI 20.5

Low vis doc feb 2015

426
Q

When is the approach ban point?

A

1000ft above aerodrome elevation.

Low vis doc feb 2015

427
Q

What does the approach ban point mean?

A

Approach can be continued if the TDZ RVR and MID/STOP (if relevant) are above minima.

If the RVR deteriorates below minimum after the approach ban point, you may continue.

Low vis doc feb 2015

428
Q

CAT I MINIMA?

A

200’ AAL
RVR 550m

Low vis doc feb 2015

429
Q

CAT I LTS MINIMA?

A

200’AAL
400/450 m RVR

Low vis doc feb 2015

430
Q

CAT II MINIMA?

A

100’ Radio
RVR 300m

Low vis doc feb 2015

431
Q

CAT IIIA MINIMA?

A

50’radio
200m RVR

Low vis doc feb 2015

432
Q

CATIIIB MINIMA?

A

No DH
75m RVR

Low vis doc feb 2015

433
Q

Required visual reference for CATIIIB?

A

With DH 1 light, otherwise none.

Low vis doc feb 2015

434
Q

Required visual reference for CATIIIA?

A

3 consecutive lights

Low vis doc feb 2015

435
Q

Required visual reference for CATII?

A

3 consecutive lights and a lateral element.

Low vis doc feb 2015

436
Q

What is the required visual reference for LTS CAT1?

A

3 consecutive lights and a lateral element. (Same as CATII).

Low vis doc feb 2015

437
Q

What is the required visual reference for an CATI?

A

Elements of the approach light system, threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights, visual glide slope indicator, touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings, touchdown zone lights, runway edge lights.

Low vis doc feb 2015

438
Q

What does COMPANY mean in the CAT IIIB DH box?

A

NO DH

Low vis doc feb 2015

439
Q

When does the FMGC data lock happen?

A

700ft

Low vis doc feb 2015

440
Q

When does the red AUTOLAND light come up?

A
  1. Loss of autopilots
  2. Loss of LOC (>15)
  3. Loss of G/S (>100’)
  4. Loss of LOC/GS together
  5. Deviation from loc/GS
  6. Rad alt discrepancy (>15’)

Low vis doc feb 2015

441
Q

How many approaches can be attempted?

A

2, subject to significant wx improvement/ emergency or non related GA and assured landing.

Low vis doc feb 2015

442
Q

What do red/white centerline lights mean?

A

900m to go.

Low vis doc feb 2015

443
Q

What do red centerline lights mean?

A

300m to go

Low vis doc feb 2015

444
Q

What are LVO (Low Vis Operations)?

A

What we as an airline do.

Low vis doc feb 2015

445
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate or ERA with a CAT I Approach?

A

NPA minima (ceiling/ RVR above mdh)

Oma 8.1.2.2.2.4

446
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate or ERA with a LTS CAT I approach?

A

CAT I minima (RVR)

Oma 8.1.2.2.2.4

447
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate or ERA with a CAT II AND III?

A

CAT I minima (RVR)

Oma 8.1.2.2.2.3

448
Q

Within what distance must a take off alternate be?

A

320nm

OMB 5.2.2

449
Q

When is a take off alternate requirred?

A

When performance or meteorological conditions preclude a return to departure aerodrome.

Oma 8.1.2.2.2.2

450
Q

When no RVR is available, is it possible to commence a take off?

A

Yes, as long as the captain can determine that the RVR/ visibility along the take off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum.

Oma 8.1.3.3

451
Q

What are the low visibility wind limits?

A

Headwind: 30kts
Crosswind: 20kts
Tailwind: 10kts

FCOM lim 22-20

452
Q

Low vis, how many lights do you see on cat II and III?

A

Cat II: 3 lights and one lateral element

Cat III A: 3 consecutive lights

Cat III B: 1 light if DH, otherwise none

Oma 8.4.9

453
Q

What should be done before 1000’ during an auto land?

A

All ECAM actions complete (incl downgrade), fully configured and stable.

Low vis doc

454
Q

What happens at 800 feet during an AUTOLAND?

A

Landing inhibit

455
Q

What happens at 700 feet during an AUTOLAND?

A

FMGC data lock

456
Q

What information is locked with the data lock during an low vis AUTOLAND?

A

ILS COURSE & FREQ

PERF APPR DATA

457
Q

What happens at 500 feet during an auto land in?

A

Stable/ unstable.

Checked/ go-around

458
Q

What happens at 400 feet during AUTOLAND?

A

FCU Modes locked

459
Q

What happens at 350 feet during an auto land?

A

LAND on FMA

Pf checks ILS course on PFD

460
Q

What happens from 200feet during an AUTOLAND?

A

A red AUTOLAND light requires a goaround

461
Q

What happens at 100feet during an AUTOLAND?

A

Alert height

462
Q

What happens at 40feet during an AUTOLAND?

A

FLARE on FMA

Pm calls flare

463
Q

What happens between 30ft and 10ft?

A

Retard

464
Q

What happens after landing during a AUTOLAND?

A

Rollout on FMA

465
Q

How much clearance and down to which point does the MSA provide?

A

1000ft obstacle clearance down to the intermediate approach segment.

466
Q

What are the MFAs on the OFP based on?

A

Route MORA

467
Q

What clearance does the MFAs depicted on the OFP provide?

A

1000ft for terrain up to 5000ft and 2000ft for terrain above 5000ft within 20nm of the route segment centerline.

468
Q

When should low temperature corrections be applied?

A

Temperatures -10 and below.

469
Q

What is the required RFFS category?

A

6

470
Q

What is the lowest RVR for take off with runway edge lights, runway end lights or runway centerline lights and runway end lights in night time with no LVP in force?

A

400R/400V

471
Q

What is the lowest RVR for take off with LVPs in force (additional criteria)?

A

TDZ MID ROLLOUT 125R

472
Q

What DH and RVR for CAT1?

A

DH not lower than 200ft

RVR not less 500m

473
Q

What are the requirements for a LTS CAT1?

A

Autoland
Runway must be approved
Applicable minima must be promulgated

474
Q

What is the DH and RVR for CAT II?

A

DH below 200ft not lower than 100f

RVR not less than 300m

475
Q

What is the DH and RVR for CAT IIIA?

A

DH lower than 100ft

RVR not less than 200m

476
Q

What is the DH and RVR for CAT IIIB?

A

DH lower than 100ft or NO DH
RVR lower than 200m but not less than 75m

om-a 8.1.3.8

477
Q

What is defined as RVSM?

A

Any airspace between FL290 and FL410 where the separation between aircraft is 1000ft instead of 2000ft.

Om-a 8.3.2.12

478
Q

What equipment should be operating normally when entering RVSM airspace?

A
  1. Two primary altimeters
  2. One automatic altitude-control system
  3. One altitude alerting system
  4. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder

Om-a 8.3.2.12

479
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference between two altimeters when entering and operating within RVSM airspace?

A

200ft

480
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a A380 from the same position on departure?

A

3 minutes.

Om-a 8.3.9.2

481
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a Heavy from the same position on departure?

A

2 minutes

Om-A 8.3.9.2

482
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a A380 from an intermediate position on departure?

A

4 minutes

Om-a 8.3.9.2

483
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a heavy from an intermediate position on departure?

A

3 minutes

Om-A 8.3.9.2

484
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a A380 on arrival?

A

7nm

Om-a 8.3.9.2

485
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a heavy on final?

A

5nm

Om-a 8.3.9.2

486
Q

What time frame shall the weather forecast be considered for the destination and alternate aerodrome?

A

A period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the ETA.

Om-a 8.1.2.2.2.1

487
Q

What time frame of weather conditions shall be considered for the departure aerodrome?

A

Actual weather conditions.

Om-a 8.1.2.2.2.1

488
Q

When are two destination alternates required?

A
  • The weather reports or forecasts at destination are below the applicable minima.
  • No meteorological information is available.
  • The landing performance requirements cannot be assured at a destination aerodrome due to dependence on a specific wind component or runway state.

Om-a 8.1.2.2.2.3

489
Q

What is the penalty for carrying extra fuel?

A

3% of extra fuel per hour

Om a 8.1.7.3.1

490
Q

What is the typical weight for guidance dogs?

A

35kg

491
Q

What is the typical weight for a cello?

A

10kg

Oma 8.1.8.5

492
Q

What is the specific gravity for Jet A-1 fuel?

A

0.8

Oma 8.1.8.8

493
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature for Jet A-1?

A

-47 degrees.

Oma 8.3.7.3

494
Q

What are the standard calls for low fuel state and describe.

A

MINIMUM FUEL:
Having committed to land at a aerodrome, the pilot calculates any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final reserve.

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL:
When the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less then the planned final reserve.

Oma 8.3.7.2

495
Q

When may the commander decide to continue to destination if a downgrade in RFFS happens in flight?

A

If it is considered safer to do so than to divert.

496
Q

What does Just Culture mean?

A

A culture in which front line operators or others are not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their experience and training, but where gross negligence, willful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated.

Oma 3.2.2.

497
Q

Up to when are flight crew members considered inexperienced?

A

100 flight hours and flown 10 sectors within 120 consecutive days from final line check

Or

150 flight hours and 20 sectors since final line check (no time limit)

Oma 4.1.1.3

498
Q

How many flight crew members are required for boarding?

A

At least one.

Oma 4.1.1.5

499
Q

What is the maximum number of inexperienced cabin crew?

A

2- the assigned positions must be at opposite ends.

Oma 4.1.3

500
Q

Who has to authorize the reduction of cabin crew? And to whom may this be delegated?

A

The duty pilot. He may delegate this to the Network Duty Manager

Oma 4.1.4

501
Q

What is the maximum number of passenger that may be carried per cabin crew?

A

50

Oma 4.1.4

502
Q

If a cabin crew member is offloaded and positioning back to home base on the same flight. Is the cabin crew member included in the passenger count?

A

No

Oma 4.1.4

503
Q

If the SCCM becomes unfit, who will take over the SCCM duties?

A
  • a qualified SCCM
  • the most experienced cabin crew member

This has to be agreed by the commander.

Oma 4.1.4.2

504
Q

With how many cabin crew less can boarding commence?

A

1

Oma 4.1.4.3

505
Q

When must alcohol no longer be consumed prior to reporting for duty?

A

10 hours

Oma 6.1

506
Q

How long after general anesthetic must a crew member not operate?

A

48 hours

Oma 6.4

507
Q

How long after any local, including dental, anastethic must a crew member not fly?

A

24 hours

Oma 6.4

508
Q

Following a dive exceeding 10 meters, how long shall a crew member not fly?

A

48 hours

Oma 6.7

509
Q

What does RNP stand for?

A

Required Navigation Performance

Oma 8.3.2.5

510
Q

What is the equivalence of P-RNAV?

A

RNAV 1

Oma 8.3.2.6

511
Q

What is the equivalence of B-RNAV?

A

RNAV 5

Oma 8.3.2.6

512
Q

What is the equivalence of GNSS?

A

RNP APCH

OMA8.3.2.6

513
Q

What is the required navigation accuracy (RNP) for an P-RNAV approach?

A

1.0 nm

Oma 8.3.2.6

514
Q

What is the required navigation accuracy (RNP) for an B-RNAV?

A

5.0nm

Oma 8.3.2.6

515
Q

What is the required navigation accuracy (RNP) for an GNSS approach?

A

0.3nm

Oma 8.3.2.6

516
Q

Within what range can VOR/DME be used to determine the aircraft position in B-RNAV ?

A

62NM

Oma 8.3.2.8

517
Q

Which warnings have precedence over TCAS warnings?

A

Stall warning, windshear and GPWS.

Oma 8.3.6

518
Q

For which dangerous goods is no approval required?

A
  • items for airworthiness or operating reasons (batteries, fire extinguishers, potable oxygen)
  • items used for sale (such as alcoholic beverages, perfumes etc)
  • dry ice for use in food and beverages
  • electronic devices (EFB’s, EPOS etc)

Oma 9.1.3.1

519
Q

Is approval required for Dangerous goods which are carried in flight for medical aid for a patient?

A

No, few provisions.

Oma 9.1.3.2

520
Q

Where can you find an overview of dangerous goods which are allowed to be carried by passengers and crew?

A

Oma 9.1.5

521
Q

Where can you find emergency procedures for responding to emergency situations?

A

FCOM
QRH
OM B
CSPM

Oma 9.5

522
Q

What are the procedures when dealing with a dangerous goods incident?

A
  • keep flight deck door locked
  • refer to QRH ABN 26
  • seatbelt sign on
  • consider landing asap
  • refer to cabin crew checklist
  • after landing, disembark pax and crew before opening cargo door hold is source is in the hold

Oma 9.5.1

523
Q

When and to whom must dangerous goods incidents be reported?

A

Within 72hours to the national authority and caa

Oma 9.6

524
Q

Does Easyjet have approval to operate to an isolated aerodrome?

A

No

Oma 8.1.2.1.1

525
Q

What is the required visibility and MDH for visual approach?

A

2500ft cloud base or circling minima if higher

5000m visibility

Oma 8.1.3.6

526
Q

To which flights is the use of alternate flight planning procedures normally limited?

A

Flights that are payload or performance restricted.

Oma 8.1.7.1

527
Q

What is the commanders responsibility regarding the amount of fuel and oil?

A

The commander shall not commence a flight unless he is satisfied that the aircraft carries at least the planned amount of fuel and oil to complete the flight safely, taking into account the expected operating conditions.

Oma 8.1.7.2

528
Q

What is easyjet’s fuel policy?

A

To carry the minimum amount of fuel required to safely and efficiently complete the flight while meeting regulatory requirements and maintaining operational flexibility.

Oma 8.1.7.3

529
Q

The minimum fuel required consists of:

A
  1. Taxi fuel
  2. Trip fuel
  3. Contingency fuel
  4. Alternate fuel
  5. Additional fuel
  6. Final reserve fuel
  7. Extra fuel

Oma 8.1.7.5.1

530
Q

Which weight requirement may not be exceeded with taxi fuel?

A

Maximum ramp weight.

Oma 8.1.7.5.2

531
Q

What is taxi fuel?

A

Fuel expected to be used prior to take off including:

  • APU consumption
  • engine start
  • taxi

Oma 8.1.7.5.2

532
Q

Is it allowed to reduce taxi fuel?

A

Yes, to the expected taxi times on the day of operation.

Oma 8.1.7.5.3

533
Q

What is trip fuel?

A

Fuel for:

Take off, climb, descent, approach and landing, taking into account the expected routings and step climbs

Oma 8.1.7.5.4

534
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A

Fuel to cover for deviations from planned operating conditions.

I.e. unfavorable cruise altitude or track, deviations in forecasted wind etc

Oma 8.1.7.5.5

535
Q

How much should contingency fuel be?

A

The higher of

  • 5% of the trip fuel (or inflight replanting 5% remaining flight trip fuel)
  • 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above destination in standard conditions.

Oma 8.1.7.5.5

536
Q

What is alternate fuel?

A

Fuel to reach the alternate.

Oma 8.1.7.5.6

537
Q

When two destination alternates are required, how much should the alternate fuel be?

A

Fuel to proceed to the alternate which requires the greater amount.

Oma 8.1.7.5.6

538
Q

What does alternate fuel take into account?

A
  • fuel from missed approach from MDA/DH to the missed approach altitude taking into account the complete procedure.
  • fuel from missed approach altitude to climb cruise and descent to the alternate using the expected arrival
  • fuel for approach and landing at alternate.

Oma 8.1.7.5.6

539
Q

Which weight is used in the final reserve fuel calculation?

A

Estimated weight on arrival.

Oma 8.1.7.5.7

540
Q

What is final reserve fuel?

A

Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

Oma 8.1.7.5.7

541
Q

Over which time frame is the CONT95 calculated?

A

2 years

NTC OPS 1/15

542
Q

What does CONT95 mean on the OFP?

A

The maximum amount of contingency fuel 95% of all flights on that city pair would require in order to ensure landing with all final reserve and alternate fuel intact.

NTC OP 1/15

543
Q

Additional fuel for engine failure or loss of pressurization is when required?

A

When the calculated fuel (from trip up to final reserve) is not sufficient for such an event.

Oma 8.1.7.5.8

544
Q

What are the criteria used to determine the additional fuel in the event of a engine failure of depressurization?

A
  • descent as necessary and proceed to adequate aerodrome.
  • hold there for 15 minutes AAL in ISA conditions.
  • make an approach and landing

Oma 8.1.7.5.8

545
Q

At who’s discretion is extra fuel carried?

A

At the discretion of the commander.

Oma 8.1.7.5.9

546
Q

In which should extra fuel be considered?

A

Endurance (not quantity)

Oma 8.1.7.5.9

547
Q

What is the minimum contingency fuel when using a fuel ERA?

A

Not less than 3% or 5 minutes (which ever is greater.

Oma 8.1.7.6.4

548
Q

Within what circle radius must an enroute alternate be when using reduced contingency fuel?

A

Radius 20% of total flight plan distance.

Oma 8.1.7.6.4

549
Q

Where must the center be of the en route alternate circle when using reduced contingency fuel?

A

On the planned route, at a distance from destination of 25% of total flight plan distance or at 20% of total flight plan distance plus 50nm, whichever is greater.

Oma 8.1.7.6.4

550
Q

What is the minimum fuel required when starting the engines?

A

The quantity defined by the fuel policy.

Oma 8.3.8.1.1

551
Q

When is a landing “assured”?

A

When in the judgement of the commander it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/ or airborne facilities.

Oma 8.3.8.1.3

552
Q

When shall a commander advise atc of MINIMUM FUEL?

A

When having committed to land at an airport the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that airport may result in landing with less than planned final reserve.

Oma 8.3.8.2

553
Q

What is the relevant RVR distance for the take off?

A

RVR used to accelerate to V1 followed by a rejected take off and decelerate to approximately 60kts

554
Q

What is the relevant Runway distance for the landing RVR?

A

Landing run down to appeoximately 60kts

555
Q

What are the minima for a circling Approach?

A

MDA 600ft Vis 2400m

556
Q

What is the min RVR for a straight in visual approach?

A

800m

557
Q

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling for a visual circuit?

A

5km vis

2500ft ceiling

558
Q

When may reduced thrust not be used for take off?

A
  • Runway contaminated
  • Dispatch with landing gear extended

OMB 4.5.6

559
Q

What are the minimum take off climb gradients?

A
  • second segment 2,4% gross
  • final segment 1,2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

560
Q

When is the use of reverse thrust in an RTO assumed?

A

DRY: no credit for reverse thrust
WET or CONTAMINATED: max reverse thrust on the operative engine is assumed in the RTO case.

OMB 4.5.2 and 4.6.6

561
Q

Which documents are electronically included in the EFB?

A 
Oma
Omb 
eRM/ Special airline information (SAI)
OMDF
NTC
CSPM
FCOM
FCTM
MEL
CDL
562
Q

Which paper documents manuals and forms should be in the FD?

A 
2 QRH
2 normal checklists
Certificates folder
Documents folder
Loading form and certificate pad
Aircraft tech log
563
Q

On which runway conditions is take off not recommended?

A
  • wet ice
  • water on top of compacted snow
  • dry snow or wet snow over ice

Omb 2.1

564
Q

What are the FO handling limits?

A
  • max x-wind 20Kts
  • TO minimum RVR 400m
  • min rwy width 45m
  • no contamination or slippery condition as declared by airport
  • no reported windshear
  • no AUTOLAND for normal ops
  • approach minima:
    CAT I ILS
    Published minima for NPA
    min vis for circling 5000m
  • no planned tailwinds for 3*
  • no flap 3 landings for 3*

Omb 2.1

565
Q

If during the engine start the ground crew observes a fuel leak from the engine drain mast, how long should the engine be run at idle?

A

5 minutes.

Omb 2.3.8.1

566
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is less than 60 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

No

Omb 2.3.8.1

567
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is between 60 and 90 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

Yes, within 25 cycles

Mob 2.3.8.1

568
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is more than 90 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

Yes, shutdown the engine and seek advice from MOC

OMB 2.3.8.1

569
Q

What is the max certified brake temperature prior to take off?

A

300 degrees or 150 degrees with brake fans.

OMB 2.3.10

570
Q

What is the reduction in flex temp if Engine A/ice is not used in the T/o calculations but will be used?

A

Subtract 5 degrees

OMB 2.3.10

571
Q

What is the reduction in flex temp for a decrease in QNH?

A

Subtract 1 degree/ 2 hPa

OMB 2.3.10

572
Q

What is the minimum required runway width for a 180 degree turn?

A

30 meters

OMB 2.3.10.1

573
Q

When should the ENG MODE SEL set to IGN prior to TO?

A

When

  • the runway has standing water
  • heavy rain is falling
  • heavy rain or severe turbulence is expected after take off

OMB 2.3.11

574
Q

What buffet margin will the MAX REC FL give?

A

At least 0.3 G

OMB 2.3.14.1

575
Q

When may REV IDLE be selected?

A

DRY RUNWAYS:
Crew may select idle

WET RUNWAYS
Crew may select idle if the following conditions are satisfied during landing calculations:
- medium runway state
- autobrake low or med (A/R)
- no reverser credit
- the result of the factored LD is within LDA

Otherwise REV MAX shall be used

OMB 2.3.16

576
Q

What is the target speed in the descent when the EXP button is used?

A

M0.8 or 340Kts

OMB 2.3.17.3

577
Q

Above which speed is the rate of retraction of the speedbrakes slower?

A

Above 315kts/M.75

OMB 2.3.17.3

578
Q

At which altitude should and must all approaches be stable?

A

All approaches should be stable at 1000 feet above TDZE and must be stable at 500ft RA

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

579
Q

What are the stable approach criteria?

A
  • aircraft in landing config
  • target final approach speed +10/-5 kts
  • ROD less than 1200ft
  • aircraft on correct lateral and vertical path
  • bank angle less than 15 degrees

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

580
Q

What is the latest when a circling approach must be stable?

A

400ft RADIO

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

581
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

The final approach segment may not be continued beyond 1000ft if the reported RVR is below the required minima.

OMB 2.3.18.3.1.1

582
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for (E)GPWS?

A

Pull up TOGA

OMB 2.3.90.10

583
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for reactive windshear?

A

Windshear TOGA

OMB 2.3.90.10

584
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for unreliable speed indication?

A

UNRELIABLE SPEED

OMB 2.3.90.10

585
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for TCAS?

A

TCAS I HAVE CONTROL

OMB 2.3.90.10

586
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for an emergency descent?

A

EMERGENCY DESCENT

OMB 2.3.90.10

587
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for loss of braking?

A

LOSS OF BRAKING

OMB 2.3.90.10

588
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for a stall recovery?

A

STALL I HAVE CONTROL

OMB 2.3.90.10

589
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for stall warning at lift off?

A

STALL TOGA 15

OMB 2.3.90.10

590
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for perceptible smoke or fumes in the FD?

A

SMOKE/ FUMES EMERGENCY PROCEDURE

OMB 2.3.90.10

591
Q

What angle of approaches are considered as steep approaches?

A

Between 3.5 and 4.5 degrees

OMB 2.4.26

592
Q

What is the highest angle when a decelerated approach may be executed?

A

3.5 degrees. Higher angles should be executed using a stabilized approach.

OMB 2.4.26

593
Q

When can an engine be considered ‘cold’?

A

When it’s been shut down for 6 hours or more.

OMB 2.4.90

594
Q

When is a OETD prohibited?

A
  1. The taxi surface is slippery
  2. LVO are in effect
  3. The engines are cold

OMB 2.4.90

595
Q

What is the requiered climb gradient in the second segment?

A

2.4% gross

OMB 4.4.2

596
Q

What is the required climb gradient in the final segment?

A

1.2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

597
Q

Where is the start of the net take off flight path?

A

35ft above the end of the take off distance.

OMB 4.4.3

598
Q

By what altitude must the net take off flight path clear all obstacles?

A

By at least 35ft

OMB 4.4.3

599
Q

What is the net take off flight path?

A

The actual (i.e gross) flight path reduced by a specific gradient decrement. For two engine a/p this is 0.8%.

OMB 4.4.3

600
Q

What is the definition of a damp runway?

A

A runway that’s not dry, but the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.

OMB 4.5.1

601
Q

For take off performance, a damp runway shall be considered….?

A

Wet

OMB 4.5.1

602
Q

When is a runway considered wet for take off performance?

A
  • 3 mm or less of water, slush or loose snow
    Or
  • when there is sufficient moisture to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.

OMB 4.5.1

603
Q

Is reverse thrust credited in the RTO case on a dry runway?

A

No

OMB 4.5.2

604
Q

Is the use of reverse thrust included in the RTO case on a wet runway?

A

Yes, the use of maximum reverse thrust on the operative engine.

OMB 4.5.2

605
Q

On what screen height is the engine failure take off performance for a wet runway based?

A

15ft above the end of the take off distance.

OMB 4.5.3

606
Q

What is the ‘dry check’ in performance calculations?

A

The take off weight on a wet runway must not exceed that permitted on a dry runway under the same conditions.

OMB 4.5.4

607
Q

When is reduced thrust take off prohibited?

A

Runway is contaminated
Dispatch with gear extended planned.

OMB 4.5.6

608
Q

What is the maximum crosswind on a runway notified as ‘may be slippery when wet’

A

25kts

OMB 4.5.7

609
Q

What is the minimum permissible runway width?

A

30m

OMB 4.8

610
Q

When is dispatch from/to narrow runways not allowed?

A
  • nosewheel steering inoperative
  • one brake or more inop.

OMB 4.8

611
Q

Is AUTOLAND permitted on narrow runways?

A

No

OMB 4.8

612
Q

An increase in which speed is required for the performance on narrow runways, and why?

A

Vmcg to improve controllability in the event of an engine failure.

OMB 4.8

613
Q

What is the actual landing distance? (ALD)

A

The horizontal distance necessary to land and come to a full stop from a point 50ft above the runway surface.

OMB 4.11.1

614
Q

By which factor is the ALD multiplied for a DRY runway?

A

1.67

OMB 4.11.1

615
Q

By which factor is the ALD multiplied for a WET runway?

A

1.92

OMB 4.11.1

616
Q

What is the required approach climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

2.1% in approach config and speed

One engine inop, other at TOGA and gear up.

OMB 4.11.2

617
Q

What is the required landing climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

3.2% in landing config, all engines operative, gear down.

OMB 4.11.2

618
Q

What is the required low visibility climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

2.5% or the published gradient.

Speed and config used for go around, one engine inop, with DH below 200ft

OMB 4.11.2

619
Q

What is the fuel burn per min for the APU?

A

2kg/min

OMB 5.1

620
Q

What is the fuel burn per minute, during 2 engine taxi?

A

10kg/min

OMB 5.1

621
Q

What is the fuel burn during single engine taxi?

A

7kg/min

OMB 5.1

622
Q

What is the fuel per min in the hold? (1500ft)

A

40kg/min

OMB 5.1

623
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the climb for engine anti ice?

A

1.1 kg/min

OMB 5.1

624
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the climb for engine and wing anti ice?

A

2.0 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

625
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the cruise for engine anti ice?

A

1 kg/min

OMB 5.1

626
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the cruise for engine and wing anti ice?

A

2 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

627
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the hold for engine anti ice?

A

2.0 Kg/ min

OMB 5.1

628
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the hold for engine and wing anti ice?

A

3 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

629
Q

What is the distance for an adequate aerodrome for the A319?

A

380NM

OMB 5.1

630
Q

What is the distance for an adequate aerodrome for the A320?

A

400NM

OMB 5.1

631
Q

If a take off alternate is required, within what distance must it be?

A

Within 320nm for A319 and A320.

OMB 5.1

632
Q

If a longer SID/STAR is expected, and fuel is adjusted, how much fuel per mm for and increase?

A

5kg/nm

OMB 5.4

633
Q

If a shorter SID/STAR is expected, and fuel is adjusted, how much fuel per mm for and decrease?

A

4kg/nm

OMB 5.4

634
Q

When is a new loading form required after receiving the LMC’s?

A

Plus 10/ minus 20 pax

OMB 7.4

635
Q

What are the minimum climb gradients?

A

Second segment 2.4% gross

Final segment 1.2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

636
Q

What are the landing and approach climb gradients?

A

Approach climb:
Cat 1: 2.1%
Cat 2 or 3: 2.5%

Landing:
3.2
(All engine operative spool up delay 8 secs. This is never limiting).

OMB 4.11.2

637
Q

What is the max allowable altimeter tolerance on the ground? And in flight?

A

PFD within 25’ of elevation. A further check may be done at runway threshold if necessary.

Between PFD’s max 20 feet and PFD and ISIS max 100’

OMB 2.3.6.9
FCOM 3.4.34

638
Q

What is the APU fuel burn?

A

2kg/min

OMB 5.1

639
Q

Within what distance must a take off alternate be?

A

320nm

OMB 5.2.2

640
Q

Within what distance must a adequate aerodrome be?

A

A319- 380nm
A320- 400nm

OMB 5.1

641
Q

What is an approach ban?

A

The final approach segment may not be continued if the reported RVR is below the published minimum. Below 1000’ the approach may be continued if the RVR drops below.

OMB 2.3.18.1

642
Q

What is the specific gravity of JETA-1

A

0,8kg/ litre

OMB 6.4

643
Q

When may we take off on a RUNWAY reported as may be slippery when wet?

A
  • when the distance available equals or exceeds that required for an icy runway
  • max xwind 25kts
  • if any section of runway is ba poor or unreported, max crosswind 15kts

OMB 4.12.4

644
Q

What are the calls for an emergency landing?

A

2000’:
Cabin crew take up landing positions

500’:
Brace, Brace

Unplanned emergency:
Attention crew brace brace

Omb 2.3.90.10

645
Q

What are the priorities of procedures/ publication?

A
  1. OFP COMPANY NOTAMS, crew Alerts, crew bulletins
  2. NTCs
  3. AIRBUS OEB’s
  4. COMPANY MANUALS
  5. Airbus FCOM
  6. Airbus FCTM

OMB 0.2

646
Q

The taxi fuel on the OFP, does it take OETD in account?

A

No, based on all engines taxi fuel flow.

OMB 5.2.4

647
Q

Is the taxi fuel on the OFP specific for the departure runway on the OFP?

A

No, it is a statistical value derived from all departure runway data.

OMB 5.2.4

648
Q

Which CI is used for the calculation of alternate fuel?

A

CI0

OMB 5.2.4

649
Q

Who will initiatie the decleration of an emergency?

A

The captain

Omb 3.1.3

650
Q

When would as a guide, the decleration of an mayday call be appropriate?

A

When a succesfull outcome is in jeopardy.

OMB 3.1.3

651
Q

What is the correct call for a state of urgency?

A

PAN PAN

OMB 3.1.3

652
Q

What is the correct call for a distress?

A

MAYDAY

OMB 3.1.3

653
Q

Which call should ensure priority over other traffic and the airport emergency services are on standby?

A

Pan pan call

OMB 3.1.3

654
Q

When are ECAM warnings inhibit during the takeoff roll?

A

From 80kts to 1500ft (or 2 minutes after lift off, whatever occurs first).

OMB 3.10

655
Q

What is the PA that should be made when initiating an evacuation?

A

EVACUATE, UNFASTEN YOUR SEATBELTS AND GET OUT.

OMB 3.80.2

656
Q

When do the nosewheel lights and runway turn off lights go off automatically?

A

When the landing gear is retracted

657
Q

With the strobe switch set to auto, when do the strobe lights automatically come on?

A

When the gear strut is not compressed.

658
Q

With the no smoking sign to auto, when do the no smoking sign and exit lights come on?

A

When the landing gear is extended.

659
Q

With the no smoking sign to auto, when do the no smoking sign and exit lights come off?

A

When the landing gear is retracted.

660
Q

When does the cabin illuminate and the no smoking, fasten seatbelt and exit signs come on, regardless of their actual setting?

A

If cabin altitude goes above 11300ft

661
Q

How many ADIRS?

A

3

662
Q

In how many parts and which parts is each ADIRS devided?

A

Two parts;

  • ADR
  • IR
663
Q

To which other systems do the ADIRS supply data?

A 
EFIS
FMGC
FADEC
ELAC
SEC
FAC
FWC
SFCC
ATC
GPWS
CFDIU
CPC
664
Q

What information does the ADR part of the ADIRS supply?

A
  • barometric altitude
  • airspeed
  • Mach
  • angle of attack
  • temperature
  • OVERSPEED warnings
665
Q

What information does the IR part of the ADIRS supply?

A
  • attitude
  • flight path vector
  • track
  • heading
  • accelerations
  • angular rates
  • ground speed
  • aircraft position
666
Q

How many satellites available for the GPS system to use?

A

24

667
Q

How many independent GPS receivers?

A

2

668
Q

To which ADIRU does GPS system 1 supply data?

A

ADIRU 1 and 3

669
Q

To which ADIRU does GPS system 2 supply data?

A

ADIRU 2

670
Q

When do the GPS receivers go to navigation mode?

A

When the MMR can track at least 4 satellites and supplies data to the ADIRUs

671
Q

What happens if one GOS receiver fails?

A

All ADIRUs automatically select the operative receiver.

672
Q

How many Rad Alts?

A

2

673
Q

Which RA displays which PFD in normal operations?

A

RA1 to CAPT PFD

Ra2 to fo PFD

674
Q

What happens to the ra display if one ra fails?

A

Both PFD’s display the operative ra.

675
Q

How many atc transponders?

A

2

676
Q

How many weather radars?

A

One

677
Q

The weather includes what kind of windshear function?

A

Predictive windshear

678
Q

When is predictive active?

A

Below 1800’ - 50’

Inhibit above 100kts - 50’ during take off

679
Q

How many miles in front of AC does the predictive windshear scan?

A

5nm

680
Q

When is GPWS active?

A

Between 10’ and 2450’ (depending on MSN)

681
Q

How many GPWS modes?

A

5

682
Q

What is the GPWS mode 1?

A

Excessive descent rate

683
Q

What is the GPWS mode 2?

A

Excessive terrain closure

684
Q

What is the GPWS mode 3?

A

Altitude loss after to or ga

685
Q

What is the GPWS mode 4?

A

Unsafe terrain clearence, not in landing config

686
Q

What is the GPWS mode 5?

A

Too far below GS

687
Q

What does EGPWS provide and use?

A

Provides terrain awareness and clearence floor based on worldwide database.

688
Q

Within how many miles and altitude does T3CAS detect aircraft?

A

80nm +/- 9900ft

689
Q

Within how many miles and altitude does TCAS detect aircraft?

A

35-40nm +/-9900ft

690
Q

How many seconds before point of contact with a TCAS TA?

A

40 seconds

691
Q

How many seconds before point of contact with a TCAS RA?

A

25 seconds

692
Q

What kind of oxygen systems?

A

Cockpit fixed oxygen
Cabin fixed oxygen
Portable oxygen

693
Q

What is portable oxygen used for?

A

First aid and protection of crew members in emergency.

694
Q

What does the cockpit oxygen system supply when NORMAL selected?

A

Mix of cabin air and oxygen

695
Q

What does the cockpit oxygen system supply when 100% selected?

A

100% oxygen

696
Q

When do the cabin oxygen masks automatically drop out?

A

When cabin altitude exceeds 14000ft

697
Q

How long does the passenger oxygen approximately lasts?

A

15 minutes

698
Q

What kind of oxygen do the cabin masks receive?

A

Pure oxygen under positive pressure

699
Q

How many sources and which sources for the pneumatic system?

A

Engine bleed system
APU load compressor
HP ground connection

700
Q

What does the pneumatic system supply high pressure air to?

A 
Air conditioning
Engine start
Wing anti ice
Water pressurization
Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
701
Q

Where is bleed air taken from?

A

From the intermediate pressure stage of the engines HP compressor

702
Q

If the temperature and pressure from the IP are too low, what does the bleed air system do?

A

System uses bleed air from the HP stage

703
Q

Why is the water/ waste system insulated?

A

To prevent leaks and ice build up

704
Q

What is the tank capacity for potable water?

A

200L

705
Q

What is the capacity of the waste tank?

A

170L

706
Q

How is waste from the toilets forced to the waste tank?

A

By differential pressure.

707
Q

Below which altitude does a vacuum generator produce the required differential pressure to flush the toilets?

A

16000ft

708
Q

What is the APU used for on the ground?

A
  • bleed air for air conditioning
  • bleed air for engine start
  • electrical power
709
Q

What can be used to avoid a performance reduction during take off?

A

APU bleed air

710
Q

What is the APU used for in flight?

A
  • backs up electrical system
  • backs up air conditioning
  • can be used to start engines
711
Q

Which fuel line feeds the APU?

A

Left fuel line

712
Q

How long is APU start inhibited when the AC is in flight and in emergency electrical configuration?

A

45 seconds

713
Q

When does the APU auto shutdown?

A
  • fire (on ground)
  • air inlet flap closed
  • OVERSPEED
  • no acceleration
  • no speed
  • EGT over temp
  • no flame
  • underspeed
  • reverse flow
  • low oil pressure
  • high oil temp
  • DC power lost (A/C on bat only)
  • ECB failure
  • loss of OVERSPEED protection
  • oil system shutdown
  • inlet overheat
  • clogged oil filter
  • loss of EGT thermocouples
714
Q

What kind of engines does the a320 have?

A

CFM56-5B high bypass ratio

715
Q

What does the low pressure compressor and turbine consist off?

A

Front fan
4 stage LP compressor
4 stage LP turbine

716
Q

What does the high pressure compressor/ turbine of the engine consist of?

A

9 stage HP compressor

Single stage HP turbine

717
Q

What does the combustion chamber of the engine consist off?

A

20 fuel nozzles

2 igniters

718
Q

How many fuel nozzles in the combustion chamber?

A

20

719
Q

Where is the accessory gearbox located on the engine?

A

At the bottom of the fan case

720
Q

How many FADEC systems?

A

2, each engine 1

721
Q

What is the other name of the ECU?

A

FADEC

722
Q

Which system performs the engine management?

A

FADEC

723
Q

How many channels does the FADEC system have?

A

2

724
Q

What kind of power system does FADEC have?

A

Magnetic alternator

725
Q

Which unit sends data to FADEC for engine management?

A

Engine interface unit (EIU)

726
Q

Which functions does FADEC perform?

A
  • control of gas generator
  • protection against exceeding limits
  • power management
  • automatic engine starting sequence
  • manual engine starting sequence
  • thrust reverse control
  • fuel recirculation control
  • transmission of engine parameters and engine monitoring info to cockpit indicators
  • detection, isolation and recording of failures
  • FADEC cooling
727
Q

How many and which idle modes does FADEC have?

A
  • modulated idle
  • approach idle
  • reverse idle
728
Q

How is modulated idle regulated by the FADEC system?

A

According to the bleed system demand and ambient conditions.

729
Q

What is the PA to be made following a decompression?

A

Ladies and gentleman, this is the captain speaking. We have lost cabin pressure and are descending to a lower altitude. Put on your oxygen masks and obey the instructions of the cabin crew.

730
Q

What are the 5 FMA colums?

A
  • thrust
  • vertical
  • lateral
  • Approach capability and mda/dh
  • FMGS engagement status
731
Q

What system is incorporated in anemometric data for fault recognition?

A

Fault accomodation logics

732
Q

How does the fault accomodation logic work?

A

Works on a voting principle;

When data provided by one source diverges from the average value, the system automatically rejects this source and continue to operate normally using the other sources.

733
Q

Which systems use the voting principle for fault recognition?

A

Flight control system and flight guidance system

734
Q

Which systems use the voting principle for fault recognition?

A

Flight control system and flight guidance system

735
Q

In case of an engine stall, why is the anti ice selected on?

A

To increase bleed demand and thereby reducing the pressure at the exit of the compressor, helping the airflow to circulate in the engine from front to rear.

736
Q

How is the ND recovered in case of a single FMGC fault?

A

By using same range as operative side

737
Q

What may be recovered with a dual FMGC fault if the FG part is still operative?

A

The autopilot and auto thrust.

738
Q

When should the AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM only! Be applied?

A

When smoke is perceptible.

739
Q

What procedure should the crew refer to of smoke is detected by the crew but no ECAM?

A

QRH checklist smoke/fumes/avncs smoke

740
Q

If the avionics smoke ECAM warning is triggered but no perceptible smoke, what should the crew do?

A

Consider as spurious warning.

741
Q

What may the smoke source be if smoke comes from the cockpit vents or is detected in the cabin?

A

Air conditioning smoke.

742
Q

If the smoke avionics warning is triggered, where may the source be?

A

Avionics smoke

743
Q

If a equipment is faulty and smoke is detected, where may the smoke source be?

A

Faulty equipment

744
Q

Which level may the removal of smoke source be continued?

A

Fl100

745
Q

Which warning might persist after successful operation of the fire extinguisher bottle in the cargo area?

A

Cargo smoke

746
Q

What is the reason why the cargo smoke warning might persist following successful operation of the extinguish bottle?

A

The smoke detectors are sensitive to the extinguishing agent.

747
Q

When may the cargo doors be opened on the ground following a cargo smoke warning?

A

After the passengers have disembarked and fire services are present.

748
Q

What should be done if a cargo smoke warning is displayed on the ground with the cargo door open?

A

Do not discharge agent

Request ground crew to investigate and eliminate smoke source.

749
Q

What may trigger the cargo smoke warning on the ground?

A

High level of humidity.

750
Q

When must the PTU be switched off?

A

RSVR LO LVL
RSVR OVHT
RSVR LO AIR PR

751
Q

Why are the ground spoilers not armed when landing with abnormal gear?

A

To keep as much roll authority for maintaining wings level.

752
Q

Why is the autobrake not armed when landing with abnormal gear?

A

To keep better pitch and roll control

753
Q

Why is the antiskid switched off when landing with abnormal landing gear?

A

To prevent permanent brake release

754
Q

Which braking aids should not be used when landing with abnormal gear?

A

Thrust reversers
Anti skid
Auto brake
Ground spoilers

755
Q

Why are the thrust reverse not used when landing with abnormal gear?

A

To prevent ground spoiler extension.

756
Q

When landing with abnormal gear, when are the fire and APU push buttons pushed?

A

When flight controls are no longer required. (A/C stopped) is

757
Q

Up to when may full reverse thrust be used with loss of braking?

A

Until coming to complete stop.

758
Q

What might happen when using high levels of reverse thrust at low speed?

A

Can cause gases to re enter the compressor, causing engine stalls resulting in excessive EGT.

759
Q

Why is the /SKID NWS STRG disconnected in the loss of braking procedure?

A

To revert to alternate brakes

760
Q

What happens with a dual ADR failure?

A

Loss of autopilot
Loss of auto thrust
Alternate law

761
Q

Below which altitude may the crew fly on the BUSS?

A

Fl250

762
Q

With a dual rad alt failure, what does the a/c use for mode switching?

A

Inputs from LGCIU

763
Q

With a dual rad alt fault, when does flare mode become active?

A

After selecting gear down and autopilot disconnect

764
Q

With a dual rad alt fault, when does the a/c refer to ground law?

A

When main landing gear compressed and pitch attitude below 2.5 degrees

765
Q

Which call outs will be on approach with a dual rad alt fault?

A

None

766
Q

Will GPWS and EGPWS be available with a dual rad alt fault?

A

No

767
Q

What is an engine stall?

A

Disruption in the airflow.

768
Q

What may be the reasons for a engine stall?

A
  • engine degradation
  • ingestion of fod, birds or ice
  • malfunction of bleed system
  • malfunction of engine controls
769
Q

What are the symptoms of an engine stall?

A

One or more loud bangs

Loss of

770
Q

What functions does FADEC have to deal with an engine stall?

A
  • Regulate the airflow through the compressor
  • able to detect engine stalls
  • try to recover from engine stall without crew action
771
Q

When does the crew shut down an engine following an engine stall?

A
  • fluctuations of high engine parameters, high EGT, engine vibrations persist
  • symptoms of engine stall persist at idle power
772
Q

When might an engine tailpipe fire occur?

A

At engine start or engine shutdown

773
Q

What causes sn engine tailpipe fire?

A

Excess fuel in combustion chamber, turbine or exhaust nozzle

774
Q

Does an engine tailpipe fire effect the engine?

A

No, but possibly other system eg flaps

775
Q

What might be indications of an engine tailpipe fire?

A

High EGT

776
Q

What does the tailpipe fire qrh procedure do?

A

Shutdown the engine and drycrank

777
Q

Why should the fire push buttons not be used with an engine tailpipe fire?

A

Shuts off power to the FADEC, and stops the dry crank sequence.

778
Q

What may be used as a last resort in case tailpipe fire does not stop or BLEED air is not available?

A

Ground crew can use fire extinguisher as last resort!

779
Q

Why should normal fire extinguishers not be used for engine tailpipe fires?

A

It causes serious corrosive damage.

780
Q

What causes usually engine vibrations?

A
  • deformation of fan blades
  • rupture or loss of one of fan blades
  • internal engine failure (stall)
  • fan icing
781
Q

Vibrations alone do not requier…..

A

Engine shutdown

782
Q

When does the ECAM advisory come on for n1 vibrations?

A

> 6 units

783
Q

When does the ECAM advisory come on for N2 vibrations?

A

> 4.3 units

784
Q

When should the crew suspect structural damage following a decompression/ emergency descent?

A

Loud bang or high cabin vertical speed

785
Q

What must the crew do when the emergency descent is finished and the crew remove their masks?

A

Close the oxygen stowage

Press the press to reset button

786
Q

Why must the press to reset button be pressed following an emergency descent?

A

To deactivate the mask microphone and activate the hand mic and headset.

787
Q

How much frost is allowed under the wing?

A

3mm

788
Q

When probe and window heat is used on the ground, at what power?

A

Low power automatically

789
Q

Which systems might be affected in very cold weather?

A 
EFIS/ ECAM
IRS allignment (up to 15 minutes)
790
Q

What are the characteristics of type 1 deice/ anti ice fluid ?

A

Low viscosity
Limited hold over time
Used mainly for de ice

791
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2, 3, 4 deice/ anti ice fluid ?

A

High viscosity
Longer hold over time
Used for de icing and anti icing

792
Q

When does the hold over time begin?

A

Start of the application of fluid

793
Q

What happens when alpha floor protection is triggered?

A

Auto thrust triggers TOGA on all engines, FMA displays A FLOOR that changes to TOGA LK when the angle of attack has decreased.

794
Q

How can toga lock be deselected?

A

Turning off the autothrust

795
Q

How is the FPV (bird) computed?

A

By IRS data and static pressure information.

796
Q

Because of the way it is computed, when is the FPV (bird) not reliable?

A

ADIRS errors

When altitude information is not reliable

797
Q

The computed radio position is a combination between which navaids?

A 
DME/DME 
VOR/DME
LOC
DME/DME-LOC
VOR/DME-LOC
798
Q

When is the FMS position updated to the runway threshold?

A

When thrust levers are pushed to TOGA or MCT/FLX

799
Q

What does HIGH ACCURACY mean?

A

The EPU (estimated position uncertainty) does not exceed the RNP (requiered navigation performance)

800
Q

What does LOW ACCURACY mean?

A

EPU exceeds the RNP

801
Q

By how much should thunderstorms be avoided?

A

20nm or 40nm very heavy

802
Q

What is the ALD?

A

Distance from 50ft to a complete stop

803
Q

What is the RLD used for?

A

Dispatch only

804
Q

What is the RLD for a dry runway?

A

ALD / 0.6

805
Q

What is the RLD for a wet runway?

A

1.15 x RLD (dry)

806
Q

What is the RLD for a contaminated runway?

A

Greatest of

1.15 x ALD (contaminated)
Or
1.15 x RLD (wet)

807
Q

What is the difference between RLD and LD?

A

RLD is used for dispatch only and LD for in flight calculations

808
Q

When must a complete allignment of the IRS be performed?

A
  • first flight of the day
  • crew change
  • GPS not available and poor NAV aid coverage
  • GPS not available and flight time >3 hours
809
Q

When must a fast IRS allignment be done?

A

When deviation of its position from FMGC position is more than 5nm

810
Q

What are the average stabilized parameters after engine start?

A

N1: 20%
EGT: 400 degrees
N2: 60%
FF: 300 kg/hr

811
Q

What is the purpose of the ground speed mini function?

A

To keep the aircraft energy above a minimum value whatever the wind variations or gusts.

812
Q

How is GS mini calculated?

A

Vapp-tower headwind component

813
Q

When is the alert heigh relevant?

A

Cat3 dual displayed on FMA

814
Q

What does fail passive mean?

A

A single failure will lead to autopilot disconnect without significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path.

815
Q

What does fail operational mean?

A

In case of single failure, the autopilot will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail passive system.

816
Q

When is the rain repellent system inhibited?

A

Whilst on the ground with engines off.

817
Q

What happens in the cabin when pressing the fwd/ aft call button?

A

Two steady pink lights illuminate
Captain call appears on indication panel with green light
A high low chime

818
Q

What happens when pressing the emergency call push button?

A

Two pink lights flash on all area call panels
All area indication panels display EMERGENCY CALL
three high low chimes

819
Q

What happens when the mask man on guarded button is pressed?

A

Passenger oxygen masks deploy irrespective of cabin altitude.

820
Q

What does the passenger SYS on light mean?

A

Activation of oxygen mask doors.

821
Q

Why does the crew supply button do?

A

Opens and closes the valve to the oxygen supply for the FD masks

822
Q

What is the GND CTL button used for the CVR and DFDR do?

A

It is used to energize the CVR and DFDR on the ground.

823
Q

What does the CVR ERASE button do on the CVR and DFDR panel?

A

Erases the CVR tape if a/c on the ground with brake set and pressed for two seconds.

824
Q

What does the autothrust do in speed mode?

A

Adjust the thrust to maintain speed.

825
Q

What does the autothrust do in autothrust fixed mode (THR idle etc)?

A

Is linked to the autopilot/ flight directors vertical modes. Speed is controlled by adjusting a/c pitch attitude.

826
Q

What does the thrust lever position control?

A

The maximum thrust available.

827
Q

What happens if the disconnect buttons of the auto thrust are pushed in for 15seconds or more?

A

Auto thrust inhibited for remainder of flight.

828
Q

What does the FMS assume is used when in DES mode, the aircraft comes high on profile?

A

Half speedbrakes

829
Q

What are the wind limits for an autoland on a a319 with all engines operative?

A

H=20
X=20
T=5

830
Q

What are the wind limits for an autoland on a a319 with one engine operative?

A

H=15
X=10
T=5

831
Q

What are the wind limits for an autoland on a a320 non sharklet including roll out?

A

H=30
X=20
T=10

832
Q

What are the wind limits for an autoland on a a320 with sharklets and rollout?

A

H=30
X=15
T=10

833
Q

What are the wind limits for an autoland on a a320 with sharklets and no rollout?

A

H=30
X=20
T=10

834
Q

When may the autopilot be used?

A

100ft agl/ 5 seconds after lift off

835
Q

Down to what altitude may the autopilot be used for NPA?

A

Minimum

836
Q

Down to what altitude may the autopilot be used for a circling Approach?

A

Circling minimums -100ft

837
Q

Down to what altitude may the autopilot be used for a ils cat 1?

A

160ft agl

838
Q

With a cat II Approach, when must the autopilot be disconnected?

A

No later than 80ft agl

839
Q

The minimum oxygen bottle pressure must take into account:

A
  • Preflight checks
  • Use of oxygen when one crew member on flight deck
  • unusable quantity
  • normal system leakage
  • emergency descent: 13 min for all members
  • cruise at fl100: 2 members 107 min
    Or
  • in case of smoke, 100% oxygen: all members 15 min at 8000ft
840
Q

What is the maximum n speed displayed on ECAM for the APU?

A

107%

841
Q

What is the max transient temperature for the oil? And how long?

A

155 C 15 min

842
Q

When are runways considered separate?

A

Runways at the same aerodrome that are separate landing surfaces. These runways may overlay or cross in such a way that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway. Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid.

843
Q

When is a runway considered contaminated?

A

when more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:

Surface water more than 3 mm deep, or by slush, or loose snow, equivalent to more than 3 mm of water; or

Snow which has been compressed into a solid weight which resists further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or

Ice, including wet ice.

Operations manuals (20 decks)

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