Fatigue and Stress | Landing Gear Flashcards

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1
Q

Side loads in cross winds should be __% of the vertical load combined with __% of the maximum ground reaction and __% of drag load

A

25 75 40

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2
Q

__ft/sec at the design landing weight should be capable of being absorbed

A

10, combined with a maximum aft drag component of 25%

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3
Q

__ft/sec at the design take off weight should be capable of being absorbed

A

6, combined with a maximum aft drag component of 25%

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4
Q

Fatigue life of a gear assembly is expressed as mean times between ___ and ___.

A

overhaul or replacement

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5
Q

The fatigue life of a gear assembly is affected by ___

A
  • Gear up and down cycle
  • Vibration from
    • Wheels out of balance
    • Airframe
  • Corrosion
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6
Q

Surfaces used for aircraft must be ___ and ___

A

strong drained

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7
Q

The runway must be cored with grooves _ inches apart

A

2

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8
Q

ACN must not exceed the ___

A

PCN

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9
Q

The ___ expresses the relative effect of an aircraft on a runway pavement for a specified standard sub grade category

A

ACN

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10
Q

The ACN is twice the ___ ___-___ ___ expressed in kilograms, with single wheel tyre pressure standardised at 1.25 megapascals.

A

derived single-wheel load

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11
Q

The derived single-wheel load is a function of the ___-___ ___

A

sub-grade strength

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12
Q

The ACN covers four subgrades for flexible or rigid pavements:

A
  • High
  • Medium
  • Low
  • Ulta low
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13
Q

The reported PCN indicates that an aircraft with an ACN ____ ____ ____ ____ ____that can operate on the pavement, subject to tyre pressures and all up mass.

A

equal to or less than

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14
Q

For an aircraft with a ramp mass equal to or less than 5700kg, the following information is reported.

A
  • Max allowable aircraft mass

- Max allowable tyre pressure

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15
Q

The PCN is expressed as a ___ part code, separated by forward slashes

A

5

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16
Q

The first letter expresses the ___ ___ of the pavement

A

assessed strength

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17
Q

The second letter is a _ or _, and shows whether the pavement has a rigid or flexible design

A

R F

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18
Q

A rigid surface is made of ___

A

concrete

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19
Q

A flexible surface is made of ___

A

asphalt

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20
Q

The third letter is a letter from _ to _ expressing the strength of what is underneath the pavement, called the ___.

A

A D subgrade

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21
Q

A subgrade of A is ___

A

very strong

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22
Q

A subgrade of D is ___

A

very weak

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23
Q

The fourth part of the code can be a letter or number expressing the ____

A

maximum tyre pressure that the pavement can support

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24
Q

Class W has a max tyre pressure of ___

A

No limit

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25
Q

Class X has a max tyre pressure of ___

A

1.5 MPa

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26
Q

1.5 MPa is ___ psi

A

217

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27
Q

Class Y has a max tyre pressure of ___

A

1.0 MPa

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28
Q

1.0 MPa is ___ psi

A

145

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29
Q

Class Z has a max tyre pressure of ___

A

0.5 MPa

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30
Q

0.5 MPa is ___ psi

A

72

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31
Q

The fifth part describes how the ___ value was worked out

A

first

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32
Q

A fifth letter T means a ___ ___

A

technical evaluation

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33
Q

A fifth letter T means ___

A

usage

34
Q

A PCN of 80/R/B/W/T means that ___

A
  • The underlying concrete has a bearing strength of 80
  • Rigid
  • Medium subgrade
  • No limit on tyre pressure
  • Calculated via technical evaluation
35
Q

One reason why multiple gear systems are used on jets is to distribute weight and ___ the ACNs

A

lower

36
Q

Conventional landing gear are those with a pair of wheels ___ of the centre of gravity with a ___ tailwheel

A

ahead swivelling

37
Q

Tricycle undercarriage has the main gear ___ the centre of gravity

A

behind

38
Q

Tricycle undercarriage allow you to use __ speeds for takeoff and landing

A

higher

39
Q

Slender machines are held down on the ground aerodynamically as the wings are held ___ the zero lift line

A

below

40
Q

Slender aeroplanes with large pitching inertia take ___ to respond to elevator inputs, so the undercarriage must be made ___ in case of a late flare on landing.

A

longer, stronger

41
Q

Emergency extension can be done using ___ ___

A

compressed nitrogen

42
Q

Main undercarriage units are locked down by ____ and ___ ___ ___ ___

A

mechanical and overcentre geometric locks

43
Q

The overcentre mechanism stops the lever from moving back to its original position once it has passed the ___ ___ of its arc without more effort than was used in the first place

A

mid point

44
Q

Landing gear cannot be retracted on the ground because the electrical control system is either routed through the ___ __ ___ switch or a latch on the main gear.

A

weight on wheels

45
Q

Undercarriage safety switches are aka ___ switches

A

squat

46
Q

Weight-on-wheels switches are normally micro or magnetic proximity switches mounted on the ___ ___

A

torsion link

47
Q

A secondary method of stopping the gear being selected up when on the ground is with ___ ___ ___

A

ground locking pins

48
Q

Ground locking pins can also be used for:

A
  • Prevent use of reverse thrust in flight
  • Control outflow valves on the ground
  • Stop air-frame anti-icing being used on the ground
  • Enable auto-spoilers to deploy, plus autobrakes
  • Control electrical output to some anti-icing systems
  • Record landing
49
Q

A retractable landing gear unit will normally have an oleo-pneumatic shock absorber strut, supported by a ___ ___ which is fixed to a strengthened box section in the fuselage.

A

trunnion bearing

50
Q

Wheel bays are ____

A

unpressurised

51
Q

The oil supplies a ___ effect and the nitrogen a ___ effect in the oleo-pneumatic strut by absorbing the initial shock of landing.

A

damping, springing

52
Q

The bounce or release of landing inertia is called ___

A

recoil

53
Q

The rate of oleo extension is controlled by the ___

A

oil

54
Q

If the oleo leg is too ___, you have not enough nitrogen

A

short

55
Q

The landing gear assembly is braced longitudinally by ___ and laterally by ___

A

drag struts side struts

56
Q

A scissor link, aka ___ ___, stops the oleo in the shock absorber from ___

A

torsion link, rotating

57
Q

The highest loads on the torsion link occur when making ___ ___ during taxi manoeuvres

A

tight turns

58
Q

The _ types of wheel attachment are:

A

4

  • Cantilever
  • Half Fork
  • Fork
  • Dual Wheel
59
Q

The greatest wear on tyres occurs ___

A

on landing

60
Q

The _ types of bogie are:

A

4

  • Single wheel
  • Twin wheel
  • Tandem wheel
  • Twin axle bogie
61
Q

Bogie tilt allows the landing gear to ___

A

fit into a smaller wheel space.

62
Q

The rear set of wheels hanging down is accomplished by using ___

A

hop and damper linkages

63
Q

The reason the rear set of wheels hangs down is that ___

A

upon contacting the runway first, the wheel spin can be made to absorb up to 16% of the energy before the oleos begins to compress. Allowing for a shorter oleo, saving weight and space.

64
Q

The nose wheel generally carries around __% of the aircraft weight

A

10

65
Q

Self-centering nose wheels use a ____ system

A

roller/spring

66
Q

The tiller should be used for ___

A

sharp taxi turns

67
Q

Tiller centering is done with a ___

A

pair of cams in the upper and lower parts of the strut engaging with each other and turning the wheel as it comes up.

68
Q

The maximum castoring angles are about __ degrees

A

55

69
Q

Some nose wheels use a ___ on each side of the upper sidewall of the tyre to deflect water from the engines.

A

chine

70
Q

A shimmy is the ___

A

rapid oscillation of a wheel during ground manoeuvres and takeoff.

71
Q

A shimmy might be caused by ___

A
  • Uneven tyre pressures
  • Unbalanced wheels
  • Worn shimmy damper/wheel bearings
  • Worn torque links
72
Q

Anty-shimmy designs include:

A
  • Twin wheels
  • Marstrand tyres
  • Shimmy damper (friction for small, hydraulic for big)
  • Limiting the castoring ability of the nose wheel
73
Q

Gear on the wing are called ___ gears

A

wing

74
Q

Gear on the fuselage are called ___ gears

A

body

75
Q

The main wheels turn in the ____ direction as/to the nose wheel to reduce side loads

A

opposite

76
Q

Main wheel steering operates only when ___

A

it is armed

77
Q

During pushback, the nosewheel is locked out from the main system with a ___

A

pin

78
Q

If sharp turns are involved with the pushback, the nosewheel steering can be disconnected at the nosegear torsion links with an ____

A

APEX pin

79
Q

A red gear light indicates that ___

A

there has been a malfunction, or any gear is not locked

80
Q

During an overweight landing, damage will primarily be caused to the ___

A
  • Landing gear
  • Support structures in wings/fuselage
  • Wing/tailplane attachments
  • Front pressure bulkhead
  • Nose wheel drag
  • Shock struts
81
Q

During an overweight landing, damage will secondarily be caused to the ___

A
  • Fuselage structure (upper/lower skin)
  • Wing structures
  • Upper and lower skins
82
Q

Following an overweight landing, if no damage is found in the primary areas, the secondary areas ___

A

do not need to be inspected