FAR Flashcards
Define “ceiling”
a) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration”, and is not classified as “thin” or “partial.”
b) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration”, and is not classified as “thin” or “partial.”
c) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “thin” or “partial” and is not classified as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration.”
B) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration”, and is not classified as “thin” or “partial.”
Define “commercial operator”
a) A corporation, that for compensation only, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce of cargo only.
b) A person, who for hire, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce of persons only on a scheduled basis.
c) A person, who for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce or persons or property.
C) A person, who for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce or persons or property.
Define “ Flight crew”
a) Means a pilot-in-command only.
b) Refers to a PIC and SIC.
c) Means a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C) Means a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
Define “Flight Time”
a) Means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
b) Means pilot time that commences when the pilot is aboard an aircraft with the intent to fly and ends when the pilot disembarks the aircraft at the conclusion of the flight.
c) Means aircraft time that occurs anytime the aircraft engine(s) is/are operating.
A) Means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
Define “Flight Visibility”
a) The average vertical upward distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft on the ground, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.
b) The average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.
c) The average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by night and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by day
B) The average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.
Define “Maintenance”
a) Means inspection, overhaul, preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes preventive maintenance.
b) Means inspection, overhaul, preservation, the replacement of parts, and preventive maintenance.
c) Means anytime a certificated maintenance technician (airframe, powerplant, and/or avionics) performs an action (including, but not limited to inspection, overhaul, and replacement of part) to an aircraft.
A) Means inspection, overhaul, preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes preventive maintenance.
Define “night”
a) that time that starts at sunset and ends at sunrise.
b) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
c) the time between the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
B) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
Night currency may be accomplished during what time?
a) That time that starts at sunset and ends at sunrise.
b) The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
c) One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.
C) One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.
PIC means the person who
a) has final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of the flight.
b) has been designated as pilot in command before or during the flight.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct
Special VFR operations
a) must be requested by the pilot and approved by ATC.
b) must be requested by ATC and approved by the pilot.
c) are not authorized in helicopters at any time; regardless of part 91 or 135 operations.
A) must be requested by the pilot and approved by ATC.
Which of the following may only be conducted when on an IFR flight plan
a) VFR over-the-top.
b) VFR-on-top.
c) All can only be accomplished when on an IFR flight plan.
B) VFR-on-top.
What is the difference between “may” and “shall?”
a) May is used in an imperative sense.
b) Shall is used in an imperative sense.
c) May shall be used in an imperative sense; shall may not be used in an imperative sense.
B) Shall is used in an imperative sense.
An HAA pilot may perform preventive maintenance when
a) there is a certificated mechanic available, but has delegated the maintenance operation to the pilot.
b) there is no certificated mechanic to perform preventive maintenance.
c) only if the pilot is also a certificated mechanic.
B) there is no certificated mechanic to perform preventive maintenance.
A pilot intentionally falsifying a maintenance logbook entry may result in
a) certificate suspension.
b) certificate revocation.
c) Either one is possible.
C) Either one is possible.
Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when
a) piloting for hire only.
b) carrying passengers only.
c) acting as pilot in command.
C) acting as pilot in command.
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilots personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
a) When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
b) Only when passengers are carried.
c) Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
C) Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
What documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot of an aircraft?
a) Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review.
b) A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
c) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
C) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the NTSB or any
a) authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
b) person in position of authority.
c) federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
C) federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?
a) Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.
b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
c) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.
C) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.
A pilot convinced of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a
a) written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
b) written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
c) notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
B) written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offence involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the
a) nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action.
b) FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
c) FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
C) FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
A pilot’s convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drug is grounds for
a) a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
b) notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
c) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
C) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crew member under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that effect the persons faculties, is grounds for a
a) written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
b) written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
c) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
C) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
How soon after conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
a) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
b) No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
c) Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
A) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
A refusal to submit to a BAC test or furnish the test result to the administration is grounds for
A) 30-day suspension or jail time.
b) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.
c) legal proceeding by the Administrator.
B) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization
When does a temporary pilot certificate expire?
a) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate.
b) 120 days.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct
A person may not act as a crew member of a civically aircraft if alcohol beverage has been consumed by that person within the preceding
a) 8 hours.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
A) 8 hrs
Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?
a) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
b) Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th calendar month after the month in which it was issued.
c) No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months.
A) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
A second-class medical certificate is issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?
a) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
b) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.
c) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.
A) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
When exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate you must hold which minimum class of medical?
a) Second class.
b) First class.
c) Third class.
A) Second class.
A lost or destroyed medical certificate can be replaced by an emailed or faxed letter from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch in Oklahoma City, OK for up to 60 days pending receipt of a duplicate.
a) True.
b) False.
A) True
If you lose your pilot certificate, may a letter from the FAA confirming the issuance of your certificate(s) be carried as a suitable replacement?
a) Yes, for up to 60 days.
b) Yes, for up to 120 days.
c) No, you will have to order a new permanent certificate from the FAA Airman Certification Branch.
A) Yes, for up to 60 days.
When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
a) All solo flights.
b) On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector.
c) On flights when carrying another person.
C) On flights when carrying another person.
A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person
a) Holds appropriate category, class ratings and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61.
b) Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
c) Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.
B) Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any
a) Aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.
b) Aircraft of more than 12,500 pound maximum certificated takeoff weight.
c) Multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.
B) Aircraft of more than 12,500 pound maximum certificated takeoff weight.
What flight time must be documented and recorded, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
a) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.
b) All flight time flown for compensation or hire.
c) Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
A) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.
If a person knows or has a reason to know of any medical condition that would make him/her unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate, he/she
a) Has 30 days to report this to the medical examiner.
b) Has 10 days to report this to the medical examiner.
c) Is prohibited from exercising the privileges of that certificate.
C) Is prohibited from exercising the privileges of that certificate.
If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is
a) 1959 CST.
b) 1900 CST.
c) 1800 CST.
A) 1959 CST.
Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in
a) Any category aircraft.
b) The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
c) The same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).
C) The same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
a) The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
b) The same category of aircraft to be used.
c) Any aircraft.
A) The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
a) Sunset to sunrise.
b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
c) The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
No person may act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers unless that person has made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding
a) 30 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 90 days.
C) 90 days
Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of
a) 30 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 90 days.
A) 30 days.
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
a) 30 days after the date of the move.
b) 60 days after the date of the move.
c) 90 days after the date of the move.
a) 30 days after the date of the move.
The holder of a pilot certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate unless the holder of that certificate has notified in writing
a) The local FSDO.
b) The closest flight service station.
c) The FAA Airman Certification Branch.
C) The FAA Airman Certification Branch.
When a person becomes a commercial pilot, they are expected to have aeronautical knowledge of many areas which include
a) Aeronautical decision making and judgment.
b) Night and high altitude operations.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?
a) Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office.
b) Advise ATC of the pilot-in-command’s intentions.
c) Upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
C) Upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operations of the aircraft?
a) Certificate holder.
b) Pilot in command.
c) Aircraft owner/operator.
B) PIC
The pilot in command must
a) Follow ATC instructions, even if they don’t make sense.
b) Remember the Pilot In Command is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft on the ground or in the air.
c) Follow ATC instructions regardless of the aircraft’s situation.
B) Remember the Pilot In Command is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft on the ground or in the air.
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
a) Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
b) Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
c) Not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.
B) Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
a) Within 7 days.
b) Within 10 days.
c) Upon request.
C) Upon request.
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
a) Federal Aviation Administration.
b) Pilot in command.
c) Aircraft manufacturer.
B) PIC
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
a) A certificated aircraft mechanic.
b) The pilot in command.
c) The owner or operator.
B) PIC
A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight
a) If it creates a hazard to persons and property.
b) Unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property.
c) Unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.
A) If it creates a hazard to persons and property.
With a blood alcohol level below .04 percent, a pilot cannot fly sooner than
a) 4 hours after drinking alcohol.
b) 12 hours after drinking alcohol.
c) 8 hours after drinking alcohol.
C) 8 hours after drinking alcohol.
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
a) 12 hours.
b) 24 hours.
c) 8 hours.
C) 8 hours
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
a) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
b) Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot’s compartment.
c) Under no condition.
A) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
a) .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
b) .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
c) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
If a person consumes an alcoholic beverage, how many hours do they have to wait before acting as PIC?
a) 6 hours.
b) 8 hours.
c) 10 hours.
B) 8 hours.
A pilot may carry onboard a person who is under the influence of drugs or alcohol if they are a medical patient under proper care.
a) True.
b) False.
A) True.
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown
a) Along Federal airways.
b) Within the U.S.
c) In air carrier operations.
A) Along Federal airways.
The FAA will not use information sent to the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) under the Aviation Safety Reporting Program in any enforcement action except information concerning
a) Aircraft accidents.
b) Criminal offenses.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
When is preflight action required, relative to alternates available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?
a) IFR flights only.
b) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
c) Any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
B) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to
a) Any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
b) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
c) IFR flights only.
B) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
a) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
b) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
c) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
a) Review traffic control light signal procedures.
b) Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
c) Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.
C) Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
a) The designation of an alternate airport.
b) A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
c) An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
B) A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
Required flight crewmember’s safety belts must be fastened
a) Only during takeoff and landing.
b) While the crewmembers are at their stations.
c) Only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
B) While the crewmembers are at their stations.
Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
a) During takeoff and landing only when passengers area board the aircraft.
b) While the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
c) During takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
B) While the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil helicopters require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
a) Person on board.
b) Flight and cabin crewmembers.
c) Flight crew member only.
A) Person on board.
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
a) Taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
b) All flight conditions.
c) Flight in turbulent air.
A) Taxi, takeoffs, and landings
If operating an aircraft with shoulder harnesses installed for passengers, during which phases of flight are they required to be worn?
a) Not required.
b) All phases of flight.
c) Movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
C) Movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the
a) Other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot.
b) Pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.
c) Other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
C) Other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
a) Authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in formation.
b) Not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.
c) Not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
C) Not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are
a) Not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
b) Not authorized, unless the pilot of command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
c) Authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
A) Not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
a) Not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
b) Not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
c) Authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
A) Not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
Minimum safe altitude rules require that helicopter pilots
a) Not fly lower than 500 feet, except when necessary for takeoff or landing.
b) Comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA.
c) Not fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
B) Comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA.
Minimum safe altitude rules authorize helicopter pilots to
a) Fly at less than 500 feet.
b) Fly at less than 500 feet if they do not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface.
c) Fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure on the surface.
C) Fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure on the surface.
Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
a) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
b) An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
c) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
A) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
Minimum safe altitude for helicopters operating under FAR part 91 over a congested area is
a) Any altitude.
b) 500 feet AGL.
c) An altitude which does not cause hazards to persons or property on the surface.
C) An altitude which does not cause hazards to persons or property on the surface.
