FAR Flashcards
1
Q
Define “ceiling”
a) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration”, and is not classified as “thin” or “partial.”
b) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration”, and is not classified as “thin” or “partial.”
c) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “thin” or “partial” and is not classified as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration.”
A
B) Means the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration”, and is not classified as “thin” or “partial.”
2
Q
Define “commercial operator”
a) A corporation, that for compensation only, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce of cargo only.
b) A person, who for hire, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce of persons only on a scheduled basis.
c) A person, who for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce or persons or property.
A
C) A person, who for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage of aircraft in air commerce or persons or property.
3
Q
Define “ Flight crew”
a) Means a pilot-in-command only.
b) Refers to a PIC and SIC.
c) Means a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
A
C) Means a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
4
Q
Define “Flight Time”
a) Means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
b) Means pilot time that commences when the pilot is aboard an aircraft with the intent to fly and ends when the pilot disembarks the aircraft at the conclusion of the flight.
c) Means aircraft time that occurs anytime the aircraft engine(s) is/are operating.
A
A) Means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
5
Q
Define “Flight Visibility”
a) The average vertical upward distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft on the ground, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.
b) The average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.
c) The average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by night and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by day
A
B) The average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.
6
Q
Define “Maintenance”
a) Means inspection, overhaul, preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes preventive maintenance.
b) Means inspection, overhaul, preservation, the replacement of parts, and preventive maintenance.
c) Means anytime a certificated maintenance technician (airframe, powerplant, and/or avionics) performs an action (including, but not limited to inspection, overhaul, and replacement of part) to an aircraft.
A
A) Means inspection, overhaul, preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes preventive maintenance.
7
Q
Define “night”
a) that time that starts at sunset and ends at sunrise.
b) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
c) the time between the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
A
B) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
8
Q
Night currency may be accomplished during what time?
a) That time that starts at sunset and ends at sunrise.
b) The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
c) One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.
A
C) One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.
9
Q
PIC means the person who
a) has final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of the flight.
b) has been designated as pilot in command before or during the flight.
c) All are correct.
A
C) All are correct
10
Q
Special VFR operations
a) must be requested by the pilot and approved by ATC.
b) must be requested by ATC and approved by the pilot.
c) are not authorized in helicopters at any time; regardless of part 91 or 135 operations.
A
A) must be requested by the pilot and approved by ATC.
11
Q
Which of the following may only be conducted when on an IFR flight plan
a) VFR over-the-top.
b) VFR-on-top.
c) All can only be accomplished when on an IFR flight plan.
A
B) VFR-on-top.
12
Q
What is the difference between “may” and “shall?”
a) May is used in an imperative sense.
b) Shall is used in an imperative sense.
c) May shall be used in an imperative sense; shall may not be used in an imperative sense.
A
B) Shall is used in an imperative sense.
13
Q
An HAA pilot may perform preventive maintenance when
a) there is a certificated mechanic available, but has delegated the maintenance operation to the pilot.
b) there is no certificated mechanic to perform preventive maintenance.
c) only if the pilot is also a certificated mechanic.
A
B) there is no certificated mechanic to perform preventive maintenance.
14
Q
A pilot intentionally falsifying a maintenance logbook entry may result in
a) certificate suspension.
b) certificate revocation.
c) Either one is possible.
A
C) Either one is possible.
15
Q
Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when
a) piloting for hire only.
b) carrying passengers only.
c) acting as pilot in command.
A
C) acting as pilot in command.
16
Q
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilots personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
a) When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
b) Only when passengers are carried.
c) Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
A
C) Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
17
Q
What documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot of an aircraft?
a) Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review.
b) A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
c) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
A
C) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
18
Q
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the NTSB or any
a) authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
b) person in position of authority.
c) federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
A
C) federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
19
Q
Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?
a) Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.
b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
c) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.
A
C) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.
20
Q
A pilot convinced of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a
a) written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
b) written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
c) notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
A
B) written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
21
Q
A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offence involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the
a) nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action.
b) FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
c) FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
A
C) FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
22
Q
A pilot’s convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drug is grounds for
a) a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
b) notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
c) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
A
C) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
23
Q
A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crew member under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that effect the persons faculties, is grounds for a
a) written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
b) written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
c) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
A
C) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
24
Q
How soon after conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
a) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
b) No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
c) Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
A
A) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
25
A refusal to submit to a BAC test or furnish the test result to the administration is grounds for
A) 30-day suspension or jail time.
b) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.
c) legal proceeding by the Administrator.
B) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization
26
When does a temporary pilot certificate expire?
a) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate.
b) 120 days.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct
27
A person may not act as a crew member of a civically aircraft if alcohol beverage has been consumed by that person within the preceding
a) 8 hours.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
A) 8 hrs
28
Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?
a) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
b) Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th calendar month after the month in which it was issued.
c) No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months.
A) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
29
A second-class medical certificate is issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?
a) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
b) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.
c) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.
A) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
30
When exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate you must hold which minimum class of medical?
a) Second class.
b) First class.
c) Third class.
A) Second class.
31
A lost or destroyed medical certificate can be replaced by an emailed or faxed letter from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch in Oklahoma City, OK for up to 60 days pending receipt of a duplicate.
a) True.
b) False.
A) True
32
If you lose your pilot certificate, may a letter from the FAA confirming the issuance of your certificate(s) be carried as a suitable replacement?
a) Yes, for up to 60 days.
b) Yes, for up to 120 days.
c) No, you will have to order a new permanent certificate from the FAA Airman Certification Branch.
A) Yes, for up to 60 days.
33
When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
a) All solo flights.
b) On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector.
c) On flights when carrying another person.
C) On flights when carrying another person.
34
A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person
a) Holds appropriate category, class ratings and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61.
b) Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
c) Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.
B) Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
35
Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any
a) Aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.
b) Aircraft of more than 12,500 pound maximum certificated takeoff weight.
c) Multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.
B) Aircraft of more than 12,500 pound maximum certificated takeoff weight.
36
What flight time must be documented and recorded, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
a) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.
b) All flight time flown for compensation or hire.
c) Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
A) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.
37
If a person knows or has a reason to know of any medical condition that would make him/her unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate, he/she
a) Has 30 days to report this to the medical examiner.
b) Has 10 days to report this to the medical examiner.
c) Is prohibited from exercising the privileges of that certificate.
C) Is prohibited from exercising the privileges of that certificate.
38
If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is
a) 1959 CST.
b) 1900 CST.
c) 1800 CST.
A) 1959 CST.
39
Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in
a) Any category aircraft.
b) The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
c) The same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).
C) The same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).
40
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
a) The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
b) The same category of aircraft to be used.
c) Any aircraft.
A) The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
41
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
a) Sunset to sunrise.
b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
c) The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
42
No person may act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers unless that person has made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding
a) 30 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 90 days.
C) 90 days
43
Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of
a) 30 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 90 days.
A) 30 days.
44
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
a) 30 days after the date of the move.
b) 60 days after the date of the move.
c) 90 days after the date of the move.
a) 30 days after the date of the move.
45
The holder of a pilot certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate unless the holder of that certificate has notified in writing
a) The local FSDO.
b) The closest flight service station.
c) The FAA Airman Certification Branch.
C) The FAA Airman Certification Branch.
46
When a person becomes a commercial pilot, they are expected to have aeronautical knowledge of many areas which include
a) Aeronautical decision making and judgment.
b) Night and high altitude operations.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
47
What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?
a) Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office.
b) Advise ATC of the pilot-in-command’s intentions.
c) Upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
C) Upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
48
What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operations of the aircraft?
a) Certificate holder.
b) Pilot in command.
c) Aircraft owner/operator.
B) PIC
49
The pilot in command must
a) Follow ATC instructions, even if they don’t make sense.
b) Remember the Pilot In Command is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft on the ground or in the air.
c) Follow ATC instructions regardless of the aircraft’s situation.
B) Remember the Pilot In Command is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft on the ground or in the air.
50
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
a) Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
b) Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
c) Not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.
B) Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
51
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
a) Within 7 days.
b) Within 10 days.
c) Upon request.
C) Upon request.
52
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
a) Federal Aviation Administration.
b) Pilot in command.
c) Aircraft manufacturer.
B) PIC
53
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
a) A certificated aircraft mechanic.
b) The pilot in command.
c) The owner or operator.
B) PIC
54
A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight
a) If it creates a hazard to persons and property.
b) Unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property.
c) Unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.
A) If it creates a hazard to persons and property.
55
With a blood alcohol level below .04 percent, a pilot cannot fly sooner than
a) 4 hours after drinking alcohol.
b) 12 hours after drinking alcohol.
c) 8 hours after drinking alcohol.
C) 8 hours after drinking alcohol.
56
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
a) 12 hours.
b) 24 hours.
c) 8 hours.
C) 8 hours
57
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
a) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
b) Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot’s compartment.
c) Under no condition.
A) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
58
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
a) .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
b) .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
c) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
59
If a person consumes an alcoholic beverage, how many hours do they have to wait before acting as PIC?
a) 6 hours.
b) 8 hours.
c) 10 hours.
B) 8 hours.
60
A pilot may carry onboard a person who is under the influence of drugs or alcohol if they are a medical patient under proper care.
a) True.
b) False.
A) True.
61
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown
a) Along Federal airways.
b) Within the U.S.
c) In air carrier operations.
A) Along Federal airways.
62
The FAA will not use information sent to the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) under the Aviation Safety Reporting Program in any enforcement action except information concerning
a) Aircraft accidents.
b) Criminal offenses.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
63
When is preflight action required, relative to alternates available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?
a) IFR flights only.
b) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
c) Any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
B) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
64
The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to
a) Any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
b) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
c) IFR flights only.
B) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
65
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
a) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
b) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
c) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
66
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
a) Review traffic control light signal procedures.
b) Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
c) Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.
C) Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.
67
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
a) The designation of an alternate airport.
b) A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
c) An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
B) A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
68
Required flight crewmember’s safety belts must be fastened
a) Only during takeoff and landing.
b) While the crewmembers are at their stations.
c) Only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
B) While the crewmembers are at their stations.
69
Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
a) During takeoff and landing only when passengers area board the aircraft.
b) While the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
c) During takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
B) While the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
70
Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil helicopters require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
a) Person on board.
b) Flight and cabin crewmembers.
c) Flight crew member only.
A) Person on board.
71
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
a) Taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
b) All flight conditions.
c) Flight in turbulent air.
A) Taxi, takeoffs, and landings
72
If operating an aircraft with shoulder harnesses installed for passengers, during which phases of flight are they required to be worn?
a) Not required.
b) All phases of flight.
c) Movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
C) Movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
73
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the
a) Other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot.
b) Pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.
c) Other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
C) Other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
74
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
a) Authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in formation.
b) Not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.
c) Not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
C) Not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
75
Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are
a) Not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
b) Not authorized, unless the pilot of command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
c) Authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
A) Not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
76
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
a) Not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
b) Not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
c) Authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
A) Not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
77
Minimum safe altitude rules require that helicopter pilots
a) Not fly lower than 500 feet, except when necessary for takeoff or landing.
b) Comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA.
c) Not fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
B) Comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA.
78
Minimum safe altitude rules authorize helicopter pilots to
a) Fly at less than 500 feet.
b) Fly at less than 500 feet if they do not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface.
c) Fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure on the surface.
C) Fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure on the surface.
79
Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
a) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
b) An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
c) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
A) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
80
Minimum safe altitude for helicopters operating under FAR part 91 over a congested area is
a) Any altitude.
b) 500 feet AGL.
c) An altitude which does not cause hazards to persons or property on the surface.
C) An altitude which does not cause hazards to persons or property on the surface.
81
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter
a) On 29.92” Hg.
b) On the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
c) To the airport elevation.
C) To the airport elevation.
82
Below what altitude should a pilot set their altimeter to a station within 100 nautical miles?
a) 10,000 feet MSL.
b) 18,000 feet MSL.
c) 14,500 feet MSL.
B) 18,000 feet MSL.
83
A pilot who deviates from an ATC instruction because of an emergency or collision avoidance must advise ATC
a) Within 48 hours.
b) As soon as you’re on the ground.
c) As soon as possible.
C) As soon as possible.
84
If a pilot is given priority by ATC in an emergency, they must submit a report to the ATC facility manager
a) Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
b) No report needed.
c) Within 24 hours.
A) Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
85
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot
a) Requests an amended clearance.
b) Is operating VFR on top.
c) Received an amended clearance or has an emergency.
C) Received an amended clearance or has an emergency.
86
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
a) When priority has been given.
b) Any time an emergency occurs.
c) When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
A) When priority has been given.
87
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
a) Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
b) Immediately.
c) Within 7 days.
A) Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
88
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
a) When the clearance states “at pilot’s discretion.”
b) An emergency.
c) If the clearance contains a restriction.
B) An emergency
89
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
a) 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
b) 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
c) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
C) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
90
What transponder equipment is required for aircraft operations within Class B airspace? A transponder
a) With 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
b) With 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.
c) is required for aircraft operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.
A) With 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability
91
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
a) Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.
b) The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating as aircraft in that area.
c) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
B) The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating as aircraft in that area.
92
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _______ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.
a) 31.00
b) 32.00
c) 30.50
A) 31.00
93
To begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR, there must be enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruise speed, to fly thereafter for at least
a) 20 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 45 minutes.
A) 20 minutes.
94
No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least
a) 20 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 1 hour.
A) 20 minutes.
95
Fuel requirements for VFR helicopter operations at night beyond the first point of intended landing at normal cruise would be
a) 30 minutes.
b) 45 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
C) 20 minutes
96
Basic VFR weather minimums require at least what visibility for operating a helicopter within Class D airspace?
a) 1 mile.
b) 2 miles.
c) 3 miles.
C) 3 miles.
97
Which minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a day VFR helicopter flight in Class G airspace at 3,500 feet MSL over terrain with an elevation of 1,900 feet MSL?
a) Visibility – 3 miles; distance from clouds – 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 mile horizontally.
b) Visibility – 3 miles; distance from clouds – 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
c) Visibility – 1 mile; distance from clouds – 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C) Visibility – 1 mile; distance from clouds – 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
98
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
a) 500 feet.
b) 1,000 feet.
c) 1,500 feet.
B) 1,000 feet.
99
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
a) 500 feet.
b) 1,000 feet.
c) 1,500 feet.
A) 500 feet.
100
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
a) 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
b) 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
c) 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
A) 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
101
No person may takeoff or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
a) Flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
b) Ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
c) Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
C) Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
102
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
a) 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
b) 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
c) Clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.
B) 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
103
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
a) 1 mile.
b) 3 miles.
c) 5 miles.
B) 3 miles
104
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
a) 1 mile.
b) 3 miles.
c) 5 miles.
B) 3 miles.
105
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
a) 1,000 feet.
b) 1,500 feet.
c) 2,000 feet.
C) 2,000 feet.
106
VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying
a) At 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.
b) More than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
c) At 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.
B) More than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
107
Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
a) Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
b) Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
c) Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly visible to the pilot.
A) Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
108
Which of the following preflight actions is the pilot in command required to take in order to comply with the United States Code of Federal Aviation Regulation regarding Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
a) File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.
b) Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
c) Verify approved position lights are not burned out.
B) Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
109
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,
a) In amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
b) Beyond power-of gliding distance from shore.
c) More than 50 statute miles from shore.
B) Beyond power-of gliding distance from shore.
110
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
a) Flashlight with red lens if the flight is for hire.
b) An electric landing light if the flight is for hire.
c) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
C) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
111
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
a) Anti-collision light system.
b) Gyroscopic direction indicator.
c) Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.
A) Anti-collision light system.
112
If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight
a) At sunset.
b) 30 minutes after sunset.
c) 1 hour after sunset.
A) At sunset.
113
If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anti-collision light system, no person may operate that aircraft
a) After sunset to sunrise.
b) After dark.
c) 1 hour after sunset.
A) After sunset to sunrise.
114
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
a) End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
c) Sunset to sunrise.
C) Sunset to sunrise.
115
An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment to be inoperative
a) Prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.
b) For a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.
c) Anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed.
A) Prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.
116
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for:
1. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
2. All airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface).
a) 1.
b) 2.
c) Both 1 and 2.
A) 1
117
What transponder equipment is required for helicopter operations within Class B airspace? A transponder
a) With 4096 code and Mode C capability.
b) Is required for helicopter operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.
c) With 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms
of a letter of agreement.
A) With 4096 code and Mode C capability.
118
If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,
a) The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace.
b) ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
c) Aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to the destination.
B) ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
119
In addition to a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on appropriate frequencies, which equipment is the helicopter required to have to operate within Class B airspace? (Letter of agreement not applicable.)
a) An appropriate ATC transponder.
b) DME, a VOR or TACAN receiver, and an appropriate transponder beacon.
c) A VOR or TACAN receiver.
A) An appropriate ATC transponder.
120
When an aircraft in not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace?
a) A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
b) The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.
c) The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
A) A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
121
The aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
a) The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.
b) No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
c) Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.
B) No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
122
Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the
a) FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation.
b) Nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation.
c) Controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.
C) Controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.
123
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
a) The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.
b) Pilot in command or operator.
c) Owner or operator of the aircraft.
C) Owner or operator of the aircraft.
124
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
a) Owner or operator.
b) Certified mechanic.
c) Repair station.
A) Owner or operator.
125
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
a) Statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.
b) Log book endorsement from a flight instructor.
c) Review of the maintenance records.
C) Review of the maintenance records.
126
If an aircraft’s operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being operated
a) Under VFR or IFR rules.
b) With passengers aboard.
c) For compensation or hire.
B) With passengers aboard.
127
A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives
a) Required maintenance and inspections.
b) An annual inspection.
c) An annual inspection and 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.
A) Required maintenance and inspections.
128
An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding
a) 30 days.
b) 12 calendar months.
c) 24 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.
129
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
a) Its use is not permitted.
b) It may be used when in Class G airspace.
c) It may be used for VFR flight only.
A) Its use is not permitted
130
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the
a) Applicable airworthiness certificate.
b) Life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.
c) Life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
C) Life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
131
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
a) Owner or operator.
b) Pilot in command.
c) Mechanic who performed the work.
A) Owner or operator.
132
Any time a pilot is involved with an emergency involving the safety of persons or property and as pilot in command deviates from the rules relating to aircraft, equipment, and weather minimums, they shall report to the FSDO charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder within __________ days, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays, a description of the deviation and reason for it.
a) 5.
b) 10.
c) 15.
B) 10.
133
The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of persons or property only
a) After ATC is notified of the emergency and the extent of deviation required.
b) To the extent required to meet that emergency.
c) If required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.
B) To the extent required to meet that emergency.
134
Who is responsible for keeping copies of the certificate holder’s manual up to date with approved changes or additions?
a) An employee designated by the certificate holder.
b) A representative of the certificate holder approved by the Administrator.
c) Each of the certificate holder’s employees who are furnished a manual.
C) Each of the certificate holder’s employees who are furnished a manual.
135
What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions have been met?
a) Pilot’s Handbook.
b) Certificate holder’s manual.
c) Maintenance manual.
B) Certificate holder’s manual.
136
If previous arrangement have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing the aircraft be found?
a) Certificate holder’s maintenance manual.
b) Pilot’s Handbook.
c) Certificate holder’s manual.
C) Certificate holder’s manual.
137
A certificate holder must have “exclusive use” of
a) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications.
b) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations authorized in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications.
c) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation authorized in the Operations Specifications.
A) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications.
138
Procedures for keeping copies of the aircraft maintenance log in the aircraft and available to appropriate personnel shall be set forth in
a) the maintenance procedures handbook.
b) the Operations Specifications.
c) the certificate holder’s manual.
C) the certificate holder’s manual.
139
Who is directly responsible for determining the status of each mechanical irregularity previously entered in the aircraft maintenance log?
a) Aircraft dispatcher.
b) Line maintenance supervisor.
c) The next pilot in command.
C) The next pilot in command.
140
Where is the certificate holder required to list the name and title of each person authorized to exercise operational control for a particular flight?
a) Operations Specifications.
b) Attached to the load manifest.
c) Certificate holder’s manual.
C) Certificate holder’s manual.
141
Under FAR part 135.83, what two documents must the operator provide, must be accessible to the pilot station, and the pilot must use?
a) Airman’s Information Manual and Pilot’s Information Guide.
b) Aircraft weight and balance forms and company Operations Manual.
c) Cockpit checklist and pertinent aeronautical charts.
C) Cockpit checklist and pertinent aeronautical charts.
142
Which person may be carried aboard an aircraft without complying with the passenger-carrying requirements of FAR Part 135?
a) A representative of the Administrator, traveling to attend a meeting.
b) An individual who is necessary for the safe handling of hazardous material on the aircraft.
c) A member of the United States diplomatic corps on an official courier mission.
B) An individual who is necessary for the safe handling of hazardous material on the aircraft.
143
How must carriage of cargo, to include carry-on baggage, be carried?
a) Only in an approved cargo rack, bin or compartment, secured by an approved means, properly secured by a safety belt or tie down.
b) Must be stored in the baggage area.
c) As a medical crewmember, they may direct how the cargo will be loaded.
A) Only in an approved cargo rack, bin or compartment, secured by an approved means, properly secured by a safety belt or tie down.
144
Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?
a) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.
b) Cargo carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers.
c) All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft.
A) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.
145
carry-on baggage or cargo is carried in the passenger compartment, it must be
a) so located that it does not obstruct the access to, or the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.
b) stowed ahead of the foremost seated passengers and secured by approved means.
c) placed in an approved rack, bin, or compartment installed in the aircraft.
A) so located that it does not obstruct the access to, or the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.
146
Which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage.
a) All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence.
b) Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or bin.
c) Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the front seat of the owner.
A) All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence.
147
Which is a condition that must be met when a person is administered medical oxygen in flight?
a) The distance between a person using medical oxygen and any electrical unit must not be less than 5 feet.
b) A person using oxygen equipment must be seated to avoid restricting access to, or use of, any required exit.
c) A person being administered oxygen must be monitored by equipment that displays and records pulse and respirations.
B) A person using oxygen equipment must be seated to avoid restricting access to, or use of, any required exit.
148
Pertaining to flight crewmember duties, critical phase of flight is all ground operations, taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations below __________ feet, except cruise flight.
a) 3,000.
b) 5,000.
c) 10,000.
C) 10,000.
149
Other than cruise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?
a) 12,000 feet.
b) 8,000 feet.
c) 10,000 feet.
C) 10,000 feet.
150
With regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the “critical phase of flight”?
a) Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
b) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight.
c) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding cruise flight.
C) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding cruise flight.
151
Who may a pilot in command allow to manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight under an FAR part 135 operation?
a) A pilot employed by the certificate holder and qualified in the aircraft.
b) A safety representative of the Administrator who has permission of the PIC, and is qualified in the aircraft and is checking flight operations.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
152
Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate the flight controls?
a) A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for the aircraft.
b) An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations.
c) A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight tests.
B) An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations.
153
Prior to flight, the pilot in command shall ensure all passengers have been orally briefed on smoking, use of seat belts, entry doors and emergency exits, and location and operation of fire extinguishers. The briefing must be supplemented by
a) a written release.
b) a passenger brief-back.
c) printed cards carried in the aircraft.
C) printed cards carried in the aircraft.
154
Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the
a) use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.
b) location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks and life preservers.
c) use of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking.
A) use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.
155
The oral briefing before flight required on passenger-carrying aircraft shall be
a) presented by the pilot in command or another flight crewmember, as a crewmember demonstrates the operation of the emergency equipment.
b) supplemented by an actual demonstration of emergency exit door operation by a crewmember.
c) conducted by a crewmember or the pilot in command and supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger.
C) conducted by a crewmember or the pilot in command and supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger.
156
Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under FAR Part 135?
a) Crewmembers and/or others authorized by the certificate holder.
b) Official bodyguards attached to foreign legations.
c) Employees of a municipality or a state, or of the United States.
A) Crewmembers and/or others authorized by the certificate holder.
157
When must each person onboard an aircraft and in an approved seat wear a properly secured seat belt?
a) During takeoffs and landings.
b) During movement on the surface.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
158
No person may operate an aircraft during daylight unless it is equipped with
a) an operating transponder.
b) a turn and bank indicator.
c) a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
C) a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
159
No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 135, carrying passengers under VFR at night, unless
a) each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size “D” batteries or the equivalent.
b) it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size “D” cell or the equivalent.
c) each crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size “D” cells and a spare bulb.
B) it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size “D” cell or the equivalent.
160
Must a crewmember occupying a station equipped with a shoulder harness keep it fastened during all takeoffs and landings without exception?
a) Yes.
b) No.
B) No.
161
When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a pilot station?
a) When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.
b) When serving as pilot in command or second in command of an aircraft having a total seating capacity of eight seats or less.
c) When operating an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or less.
A) When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.
162
The only time a pilot in command flying under FAR part 135 can takeoff with inoperable instruments or equipment is with an approved MEL that exists for that aircraft and when the FSDO has issued the certificate holder Operations Specifications authorizing operations in accordance with an approved MEL.
a) True.
b) False.
A) True
163
Which document would constitute an approved change to the type design without requiring a recertification?
a) The Operations Specifications as approved by the Administrator.
b) An approved Minimum Equipment list.
c) A special flight permit.
B) An approved Minimum Equipment list.
164
To operate an aircraft with certain equipment inoperative under the provisions of a minimum equipment list, what document authorizing it must be issued to the certificate holder?
a) Operations specifications issued by the FAA district office having certifications responsibility.
b) Letter of Authorization from the Regional Airworthiness Office authorizing such an operation.
c) Letter of Authorization issued by the FAA district office having certification responsibility.
A) Operations specifications issued by the FAA district office having certifications responsibility.
165
Except for takeoff and landing, a pilot may not operate a helicopter under VFR part 135 over a congested area less than
a) 500 feet.
b) 300 feet.
c) 1,000 feet.
B) 300 feet.
166
No persons may operate a helicopter under VFR in Class G airspace at an altitude of 1,200 feet or less AGL unless the visibility is at least, during the day __________ or at night __________ .
a) 1⁄4 mile, 1⁄2 mile.
b) 1⁄2 mile, 1 mile.
c) 1 mile, 3 miles.
B) 1⁄2 mile, 1 mile.
167
When flying a helicopter VFR under FAR part 135 at night, the pilot in command must have
a) identifiable landmarks to navigate.
b) visual surface light reference.
c) a back-up navigational system.
B) visual surface light reference.
168
FARs state a pilot may not operate a helicopter under VFR unless, considering wind and weather conditions, it has fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal fuel consumption, to fly after that for at least
a) 20 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 40 minutes.
A) 20 minutes.
169
A pilot in command operating under FAR part 135 and VFR may use their own weather observations in the absence of a weather report from the U.S. Weather Service or their approved source.
a) True.
b) False.
A) True.
170
Which is an operational requirement concerning ice, snow, or frost on structural surfaces?
a) A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and deicing equipment is operating.
b) A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces.
c) If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane’s lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a takeoff may be made.
B) A takeoff may not be made is ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces.
171
For operations during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (as published in the Air Almanac), no certificate holder may use any person, nor may a person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passenger unless that person has made three takeoffs and three landings, within the preceding 90 days,
a) as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same type in which that person is to serve.
b) as pilot in command of an aircraft of the same category and class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve.
c) as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person if to serve.
C) as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person if to serve.
172
Under part 135, a pilot’s flight time may not exceed how many hours in a calendar quarter?
a) 250 hours.
b) 400 hours.
c) 500 hours.
C) 500 hours.
173
Each assignment must provide for at least __________ consecutive hours of rest during a 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion time of the assignment.
a) 8.
b) 10.
c) 12.
B) 10.
174
No certificate holder may use a person as pilot in command unless that person has passed a line check
a) since the beginning of the 6th month before serving as pilot in command.
b) within the past 6 months.
c) since the beginning of the 12th month before serving as pilot in command.
C) since the beginning of the 12th month before serving as pilot in command.
175
The training required for crewmembers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft is
a) upgrade training.
b) differences training.
c) transition training.
C) transition training.
176
A crewmember who has served as second in command on a particular aircraft type (e.g., EC145), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program?
a) Transition training.
b) Upgrade training.
c) Initial training.
B) Upgrade training.
177
The training required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft is
a) transition training.
b) upgrade training.
c) initial training.
C) initial training
178
If a certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the
a) certificate holder’s manual and FAR Parts 43, 91, and 135.
b) provisions and standards as outlined in the certificate holder’s manual.
c) provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA district office.
A) certificate holder’s manual and FAR Parts 43, 91, and 135.
179
Which subpart of 14 CFR part 135 is specific to helicopter air ambulance equipment, operations, and training requirements?
a) Subpart L.
b) Subpart X.
c) Subpart HAA.
A) Subpart L.
180
A helicopter air ambulance operation includes, but is not limited to
a) flights conducted to position the helicopter at a site at which a patient or donor organ will be picked up.
b) Flights initiated for the transport of a patient or donor organ that are terminated due to weather or other reasons.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
181
Define “medical personnel.”
a) Medical personnel are considered flightcrew members when onboard.
b) Medical personnel are not defined; they’re considered passengers.
c) Medical personnel means a person or persons with medical training, including but not limited to flight physicians, flight nurses, or flight paramedics, who are carried aboard a helicopter during helicopter air ambulance operations in order to provide medical care.
C) Medical personnel means a person or persons with medical training, including but not limited to flight physicians, flight nurses, or flight paramedics, who are carried aboard a helicopter during helicopter air ambulance operations in order to provide medical care.
182
No certificate holder may use, nor may any person serve as, a PIC of a helicopter air ambulance operation unless that person meets the requirements of §135.243 and holds a helicopter instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a category and class rating for that aircraft, that is not limited to VFR after
a) April 24, 2016
b) April 24, 2017
c) June 15, 2017
B) April 24, 2017
183
HTAWS is required for helicopter air ambulance operations after
a) April 24, 2016
b) June 15, 2017
c) April 24, 2017
C) April 24, 2017
184
After April 24, 2017, the helicopter air ambulance certificate holder’s Rotorcraft Flight Manual must contain appropriate procedures for
a) the use of the HTAWS.
b) proper medical personnel response to HTAWS audio and visual warnings.
c) All are correct.
A) the use of the HTAWS.
185
A Flight Data Monitoring System is required onboard a helicopter air ambulance after
a) April 24, 2016
b) April 23, 2018
c) April 24, 2017
B) April 23, 2018
186
During preflight, the PIC of a helicopter air ambulance must
a) determine the maximum safe cruise altitude by evaluating the terrain and obstacles along the planned route of flight.
b) identify and document the lowest obstacle along the planned route of flight.
c) None are correct.
C) None are correct.
187
During preflight, the PIC of a helicopter air ambulance must
a) determine the minimum safe cruise altitude by evaluating the terrain and obstacles along the planned route of flight.
b) identify and document the highest obstacle along the planned route of flight.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
188
While conducting enroute helicopter air ambulance operations, the PIC must ensure that all terrain and obstacles along the route of flight are cleared vertically by no less than
a) 300’ for day operations; 500’ for night operations.
b) 300’ for day operations; 400’ for night NVG operations; 500’ for night unaided operations.
c) 500’ for day operations; 750’ for night operations.
A) 300’ for day operations; 500’ for night operations.
189
The PIC of a helicopter air ambulance is required to perform a pre-flight risk analysis before each flight.
a) True.
b) False.
A) True
190
The certificate holder must retain the original copy of each completed preflight risk analysis worksheet at a location specified in its operations manual for at least
a) 30 days from the date of the operation.
b) 60 days from the date of the operation.
c) 90 days from the date of the operation.
C) 90 days from the date of the operation.
191
Helicopter air ambulance operators with _____ helicopters must have an operations control center.
a) 5 or more.
b) 10 or more.
c) 20 or more.
B) 10 or more.
192
Define “aircraft accident.”
a) Means as occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
b) Means an occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations
c) Means as occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time the aircraft moves under its own power with the intention of flight and the aircraft ceases movement on the ground after flight, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
A) Means as occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
193
What is a “serious injury?”
a) Any injury which results in death within 30 days of the aircraft accident.
b) Requires hospitalization for more than 24 hours, commencing within 5 days from the date of the injury was received.
c) Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date of the injury was received.
C) Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date of the injury was received.
194
Define “incident.”
a) Means as occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
b) Means an occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations
c) Means as occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time the aircraft moves under its own power with the intention of flight and the aircraft ceases movement on the ground after flight, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
b) Means an occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations
195
Substantial damage includes
a) damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength of the aircraft.
b) damage or failure which adversely affects the performance of the aircraft.
c) Both are correct.
C) Both are correct
196
Ground damage to rotor blades may be considered substantial damage.
a) True.
b) False.
B) False
197
The operator of any civil aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB office, when
a) a flight control system malfunctions or fails.
b) a complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50% of an aircraft’s cockpit displays, including a primary flight display (PFD).
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
198
The operator of any civil aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB office, when
a) a complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50% of an aircraft’s cockpit displays, including a primary flight display (PFD).
b) a failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris other than out the exhaust path.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
199
Which of the following are to be included when notifying the NTSB of an accident?
a) Name of PIC.
b) Name(s) and addresses of all passengers.
c) All are correct.
A) Name of PIC.
200
Which of the following are to be included when notifying the NTSB of an accident?
a) Name of PIC.
b) Position of the aircraft with reference to some easily defined geographical point.
c) All are correct.
C) All are correct.
201
Prior to the time the NTSB or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to
a) Remove persons injured or trapped.
b) Gain access to flight data management system(s).
c) All are correct.
A) Remove persons injured or trapped.
