Family Law Flashcards

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1
Q

What are “heart balm” actions?

A

Cause of action for breach of contract to mary

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2
Q

In most states, are causes of action for heart balm actions allowed or not?

A

Not allowed

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3
Q

What kinds of actions related to marriage are barred?

A
  1. Breach of promise to marry
  2. Seduction of an unmarried female
  3. Alienation of affections
  4. Criminal conversation
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4
Q

What kinds of actions related to marriage are barred?

A
  1. Breach of promise to marry
  2. Seduction of an unmarried female
  3. Alienation of affections
  4. Criminal conversation
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5
Q

What are the requirements of the (now-abolished) action for alienation of affections?

A
  1. Misconduct by D
  2. Loss of spousal affection/consortium AND
  3. Causal link between the misconduct and the loss
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6
Q

Who could bring the (now-abolished) action for seduction of an unmarried female?

A

Father

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7
Q

What are the requirements of the (now-abolished) action for alienation of affections?

A
  1. Misconduct by D
    2 Loss of spousal affection/consortium AND
  2. Causal link between the misconduct and the loss
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8
Q

The (now-abolished) action for seduction of an unmarried female could be brought against ______.

A

Any man who had unlawful sexual relations with a man’ daughter via persuasion, promises, or bribes but without physical force

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8
Q

What are the requirements of the (now-abolished) action for alienation of affections?

A
  1. Misconduct by D
    2 Loss of spousal affection/consortium AND
  2. Causal link between the misconduct and the loss
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9
Q

Who could bring the (now-abolished) action for seduction of an unmarried female?

A

Father

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9
Q

What is the (now-abolished) action for criminal conversation?

A

Adultery claim against 3rd party for committing adultery with one’s spouse

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10
Q

The (now-abolished) action for seduction of an unmarried female could be brought against ______.

A

Any man who had unlawful sexual relations with a man’ daughter via persuasion, promises, or bribes but without physical force

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11
Q

What is the (now-abolished) action for criminal conversation?

A

Adultery claim against 3rd party for committing adultery with one’s spouse

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12
Q

Actions may be brought to recover gifts if the sole consideration for the transfer was _________.

A

A contemplated marriage which has not occurred

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13
Q

Action may be brought for gifts given in contemplation of marriage. In this context, consideration means ________.

A

“motive” or “reason” as opposed to legal consideration

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14
Q

Premarital contracts are also known as _________.

A

Prenuptial agreements

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15
Q

What is a premarital contract?

A

An agreement between prospective spouses:
1. Made in contemplation of marriage AND
2. To be effective upon marriage

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16
Q

In all states, the enforceability of such prenuptial agreements turns on three factors:

A
  1. Voluntariness
  2. Fairness AND
  3. Disclosure
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17
Q

What are the formality requirements of a premarital agreement?

A
  1. In writing AND
  2. Signed by both parties
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18
Q

A premarital agreement is enforceable without consideration because ________.

A

the marriage itself is considered sufficient consideration

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19
Q

A premarital agreement because effective upon _____________.

A

Marriage

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20
Q

Parties to a premarital agreement are permitted to contract with respect to:

A
  1. Right to manage and control property
  2. Disposition of property
  3. Spousal support
  4. Will, trust, or other arrangements to carry out the provisions of the agreement
  5. Death benefits from a life insurance policy
  6. Choice of law governing the construction of the agreement
  7. Any other matter not in violation of public policy or statute imposing criminal penalty
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21
Q

If there is no choice of law provision, what law governs a contract?

A
  1. State where contract was executed OR
  2. State with the most significant relationship to the parties
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22
Q

What premarital agreements are prohibited?

A
  1. Adversely affect right of child to support
  2. Agreement respecting child support/custody (voidable based on child’s best interest)
  3. Waiver of alimony not permitted if agreement causes spouse to become public charge
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23
Q

In all states, the enforceability of premarital agreements turns on:

A
  1. Voluntariness
  2. Unconscionability AND
  3. Disclosure
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24
Q

What are the requirements of the (now-abolished) action for alienation of affections?

A
  1. Misconduct by D
    2 Loss of spousal affection/consortium AND
  2. Causal link between the misconduct and the loss
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24
Q

Who could bring the (now-abolished) action for seduction of an unmarried female?

A

Father

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24
Q

The (now-abolished) action for seduction of an unmarried female could be brought against ______.

A

Any man who had unlawful sexual relations with a man’ daughter via persuasion, promises, or bribes but without physical force

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25
Q

What is the (now-abolished) action for criminal conversation?

A

Adultery claim against 3rd party for committing adultery with one’s spouse

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26
Q

One party’s insistence on signing _________ does not, in itself, render an agreement involuntary

A

Premarital agreement

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27
Q

What is the doctrine of unfair surprise?

A

Premarital agreement presented very close to wedding date.

Depending on the facts, this may make agreement involuntary

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28
Q

A premarital agreement is unconscionable when executed if:

A
  1. No fair and reasonable disclosure of property/financial obligations of other party
  2. Didn’t voluntarily and expressly waive (in writing) any right to disclosure AND
  3. Didn’t have adequate knowledge of property or financial obligations of other party
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29
Q

Void marriages are enforceable only _________.

A

To the extent necessary to avoid an inequitable result

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30
Q

Anyone at least _______ years of age has the legal capacity to marry

A

18

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31
Q

If someone wants to marry while under 18, ___________ is required.

A

Consent of both parents

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32
Q

In some states, minors without parental consent can still marry with _____________.

A

Consent of a judge

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33
Q

Mutual consent to marriage is defined as:

A
  1. Assent then present in the parties
  2. Freely, voluntarily, and understandingly given
  3. Representing a mutual intention of marital relationship by competent contracting parties
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34
Q

Same-sex marriages were federally recognized in the year _______.

A

2013

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35
Q

State-level bans on same-sex marriage were held unconstitutional in the year _______.

A

2015

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36
Q

A marriage resulting from an incestuous relationship will be held _______.

A

Void

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37
Q

A marriage between blood _____ and _____ is void.

A

Ancestors

Descendants

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38
Q

A marriage between _____, _____, and _____ siblings is void.

A

Full-blood

Half-blood

Adopted

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39
Q

A marriage between lineals who are _____________ are void.

A

Up or down one generation

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40
Q

Lineals who are up or down one generation are _______.

A

Aunts, uncles, nieces, nephews, etc.

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41
Q

Marriage between ______ cousins is voud.

A

First

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42
Q

What is bigamy?

A

Marriage to more than one spouse

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43
Q

Is bigamy legal?

A

No

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44
Q

Someone is married. Without legally terminating that marriage, they marry a second time. What effect?

A

The second, bigamous marriage is void.

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45
Q

What are “marriage-saving doctrines”?

A

Laws creating a presumption against a finding of a bigamous marriage

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46
Q

How do marriage-saving doctrines work?

A

Presume validity of the marriage in question. Other states will accept the marriage as valid as soon as the impediment has been removed.

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47
Q

What is a ceremonial marriage?

A

A legally valid civil marriage that:
1. Follows all statutory requirements AND
2. Has been solemnized before an authorized religious/civil official

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48
Q

Most states require that parties obtain a ________ prior to solemnization of the marriage.

A

Marriage license

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49
Q

Generally, a license to marry requires:

A
  1. Satisfactory proof that each party to marriage at least 18 years old or has the consent of parents or judicial approval
  2. Satisfactory proof that marriage not prohibited AND
  3. Results of any medical examination required by the laws of the state
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50
Q

Most states require a ______ period before the marriage license.

A

Waiting

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51
Q

Marriage licenses will expire if ________ does not occur within a certain period

A

Solemnization of the marriage

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52
Q

Compliance with marriage license statutes is generally not essential to validity of the marriage unless ____________.

A

The applicable statute makes such compliance essential

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53
Q

Solemnization is also known as _________.

A

Marriage ceremony

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54
Q

Who may solemnize a marriage?

A
  1. Judge of court of record
  2. Public official whose powers include solemnization of marriage OR
  3. In accordance with any solemnization mode recognized by a religious/cultural group
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55
Q

The requirements of solemnization are:

A
  1. An officiant
  2. Witness (in most states, at least two)
  3. Exchange of promises
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56
Q

Violation of solemnization statutes will only invalidate a marriage if:

A
  1. Person performing the ceremony was not authorized to do so AND
  2. Some other requirement(s) has not been met
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57
Q

What does common law marriage accomplish?

A

Creats marital obligations and rights identical to those flowing from a ceremonial marriage

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58
Q

What are the requirements for a common law marriage?

A
  1. Capacity to enter a marital contract
  2. Present agreement to be married
  3. Cohabitation AND
  4. Hold out a marital relationship to the community
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59
Q

While most states do not permit common law marriages, how do universally accepted conflict-of-laws principles allow for them?

A

A marriage under the law of the place in which it was contracted will be valid elsewhere UNLESS it violates a state’s strong public policy interest

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60
Q

How can common law marriage be dissolved?

A

Only via divorce

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61
Q

Who is a putative spouse?

A

Any person who has cohabited with another to whom she is not legally married in the good faith belief that she was married to that person

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62
Q

A person ceases being a putative spouse when _________.

A

Knowledge that she is not legally amrried

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63
Q

What are the requirements of a putative spouse?

A
  1. Cohabitation AND
  2. Good faith belief of legal marriage
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64
Q

The effect of a putative spouse is _________.

A

She receives all rights conferred upon a legal spouse

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65
Q

Rights of a putative spouse do not superseded:

A

Rights of:
1. Legal spouse OR
2. Other putative spouses

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66
Q

What is a meretricious relationship?

A

Stable, marital-like relationship where both parties cohabit with knowledge that a lawful marriage between them does not exist.

NOT a putative spouse

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67
Q

If cohabitants sue former partners for purportedly shared property, they must show that they are entitled to part of the property based on:

A
  1. Express contract
  2. Implied-in-fact contract
  3. Constructive/resulting trust
  4. Quantum meruit
  5. Partnership theory
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68
Q

What is quantum merit?

A

Compensation for a cohabitant’s contributions to the other cohabitant’s benefit

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69
Q

When will the court impose a constructive or resulting trust on cohabitants?

A

To prevent the unjust enrichment of one party at the expense of another

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70
Q

Payment to a cohabitant under the doctrine of quantum merit is limited to _______.

A

What would be fairly paid for the cohabitant’s activities in the public sphere

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71
Q

What is the partnership theory for collecting from a cohabitant?

A

The couple engaged in a joint economic venture for which one party can recover against the other

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72
Q

At common law, husband and wife were regarded as one; in other words, _______.

A

Legal existence of wife was merged with that of her husband

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73
Q

At common law, what were a wife’s disability?

A
  1. No capacity to contract for herself
  2. Cannot sue/be sued unless husband jointed as P or D
  3. Husband acquired right to possession & use of wife’s real/personal property
  4. Husband liable for tort’s wife
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74
Q

Who controls separate property, the spouse or the couple?

A

The individual spouse

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75
Q

A married person may own, hold, control, dispose of, or encumber her separate property without:

A
  1. Consent/joinder of her spouse AND
  2. Her spouse having any interest in that property
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76
Q

What is separate property?

A
  1. All property owned by each spouse before marriage
  2. Property brought into the marriage by gift, will, or inheritance AND
  3. Any rents, issues, and profits derived from SP
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77
Q

What is marital property?

A

All property acquired by either spouse during an ongoing marriage other than by gift or inheritance

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78
Q

All marital property is subject to _____ upon divorce.

A

Division

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79
Q

Marital property continues to accrue until _______.

A

The marriage is dissolved

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80
Q

Financial instruments are marital property when they are _____________, even if the instrument is in only one spouse’s name.

A

Purchased with funds that were marital property

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81
Q

Women were allowed to have property rights upon the enactment of _________.

A

Married women’s property act

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82
Q

What happens when there is a tenancy by the entirety?

A

Husband and wife own undivided share with the right of survivorship

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83
Q

What is the language of a tenancy by the entirety?

A

To H & W with the right of survivorship

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84
Q

How is a tenancy by the entirety created?

A
  1. Valid marriage
  2. Four unities:
    a. Time
    b. Title
    c. Interest
    d. Possession
  3. Right of survivorship
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85
Q

How is a tenancy in the entirety severed?

A
  1. Death
  2. Divorce
  3. Mutual written agreement between husband and wife
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86
Q

What effect does unilateral conveyance have on a tenancy by the entirety?

A

Does not sever

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87
Q

What effect does execution by creditors have on a tenancy by the entirety?

A

No severance

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88
Q

What is the duty to support one’s spouse?

A
  1. Husband and wife are liable for necessaries incurred by the other
  2. Spouses are liable as principals and agents
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89
Q

What are necessaries?

A

All things proper for sustaining human life

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90
Q

What is the name change requirement for marriage?

A

Trick question; there is no such requirement

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91
Q

At common law, may spouses sue one another for torts?

A

No; interspousal tort immunity exists

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92
Q

At modern law, may spouses sue one another for torts?

A

Yes

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93
Q

Even where a spouse is immune from tort liability for torts committed against the other spouse, that immunity does not extend to ________

A

Criminal prosecutions for spousal abuse

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94
Q

Is there a spousal exemption to rape?

A

In most states, no.

In some states, a person cannot be guilty of criminal sexual conduct if victim is D’s legal spouse unless they’re living apart because of a court order

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95
Q

At common law, what is the right to family privacy?

A

Right to be free from publicizing of one’s private affairs which:
1. Public has no legitimate concern OR
2. Intrusion would cause mental suffering, shame, or humiliation

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96
Q

Fundamental rights of family privacy whose restriction is subject to strict scrutiny include:

A

Right to…
1. Marry
2. Procreate
3. Purchase and use contraceptives
4. Keep family together
5. Custody of children AND
6. Control upbringing of one’s children

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97
Q

What rights fall within a parent’s right to control the upbringing of one’s children - and thus, their restriction is subject to strict scrutiny?

A
  1. Right of parents to educate their children outside of public schools
  2. Right of parents to decide care, custody, and control of their children
  3. Visitation rights
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98
Q

For what family right under privacy is the level of scrutiny unknown, but it is still a fundamental right?

A

Right to homosexual activity

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99
Q

Prior to viability, what level of restriction may be imposed on abortion?

A

May not prohibit, but may regulate unless undue burden

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100
Q

After viability, what level of restriction may be imposed on abortion?

A

May prohibit unless necessary to protect the woman’s health or life

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101
Q

Which privilege protects spousal testimony in both criminal AND civil cases?

A

All communications between husband and wife:
1. Made during the course of marriage AND
2. Intended to be confidential
…are privileged

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102
Q

Does the privilege of confidential marital communications end with divorce?

A

No; communications that were made during marriage are still protected

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103
Q

What are the exceptions to the doctrine of confidential marital communications?

A
  1. Civil actions between spouses
  2. Criminal prosecution where one spouse charged with crime against spouse or children
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104
Q

Which privilege protects spousal testimony only in criminal cases?

A

Spousal testimonial privilege

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105
Q

What is spousal testimonial privilege?

A

Person is permitted to refuse to testify against her spouse as to anything

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106
Q

When can spousal testimonial privilege be invoked?

A

Only during valid marriage

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107
Q

Who is the holder of a spousal testimonial privilege?

A

Only the witness spouse

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108
Q

What is the exception for which spousal testimonial privilege does not apply?

A

Criminal prosecution where one spouse charged with crime against spouse or children

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109
Q

What is consortium?

A

Status and rights of both spouses resulting from the relationship

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110
Q

In general, a claim for loss of consortium encompasses what types of injuries?

A
  1. Love/affection
  2. Society/companionship (economic dependency)
  3. Sexual relationship
  4. Performance of material services
  5. Financial support
  6. Aid/assistance AND
  7. Fidelity
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111
Q

The elements of a loss of consortium action are:

A
  1. Injuries to spouse
  2. Loss and expenses of the P-spouse
  3. Liability of D for those injuries
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112
Q

Loss and expenses of the Plaintiff-spouse are limited to _________.

A

Damages incurred during impaired spouse’s lifetime

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113
Q

An action for loss of consortium requires that D must at least be _______.

A

Negligent

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114
Q

What causation is required for a successful action for loss of consortium?

A

Proximate cause of loss of consortium

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115
Q

In some states, a claim for loss of consortium must be derived from ________

A

An injured spouse’s tort claim

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116
Q

What are the requirements for the (now-abolished) tort of criminal conversation?

A
  1. Actual marriage between spouses AND
  2. Sexual intercourse between D and P’s spouse during the marriage
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117
Q

What is a declaration of nullity?

A

Action pursued when the underlying marriage is legally void

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118
Q

What does it mean for a marriage to be void ab initio?

A

Invalid from the outset; do not require a court decree to nullify the marriage

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119
Q

On what grounds is a marriage void ab initio?

A
  1. Incest
  2. Bigamy
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120
Q

Why can’t doctrines that would make a marriage void ab initio be waived?

A

These marriages violate strong public policy interests of the state

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121
Q

Beyond the parties, who can attack void ab initio marriages?

A

Third parties

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122
Q

If marriages are void ab initio, why would a declaration of nullity be of use?

A

Have the court settle other issues

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123
Q

What does the death of one spouse do to a marriage that is void ab initio?

A

The marriage can still be attacked

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124
Q

Where there is a voidable marriage, _______ is required.

A

Annulment

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125
Q

Can parties waive issues that would make a marriage voidable?

A

Yes

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126
Q

Who can challenge a voidable marriage?

A

Only spouses

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127
Q

What happens when a spouse in a voidable marriage dies?

A

Voidable marriage can no longer be voided

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128
Q

What is an annulment?

A

Action pursued to terminate a voidable marriage

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129
Q

If a marriage is annulled, the parties are treated as though _________.

A

They were never married

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130
Q

After an annulment, the process will be the same as divorce if:

A
  1. There are children OR
  2. Property has been accumulated
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131
Q

Who has jurisdiction over annulment?

A

Domicile of either party

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132
Q

In rare occasions, what states other than domicile have jurisdiction over annulment?

A

States where marital ceremony took place

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133
Q

Annulment decrees entered by a court of proper jurisdiction are entitled to ____________.

A

Full faith and credit

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134
Q

What are grounds for annulment?

A
  1. One party was under 18 without parental consent
  2. Lack of mental capacity
  3. Lack of physical capacity
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135
Q

A marriage is voidable when at least one spouse is under 18. What happens if they’re still married when the spouse turns 18.

A

The marriage is ratified

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136
Q

What lack of mental capacity is grounds for annulment?

A
  1. Mental incapacity or infirmity
  2. Influence of alcohol, drugs, or other incapacitating substances
  3. Force or duress
  4. Fraud involving essentials of marriage
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137
Q

What lack of physical capacity is grounds for annulment?

A
  1. Incurable inability to engage in normal sexual relation AND
  2. Other spouse unaware of incapacity at time marriage is solmenized
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138
Q

What is the most common defense to an action to annul a voidable marriage?

A

Ratification

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139
Q

When does ratification occur?

A

When parties continue the marital relationship after the impediment to the marriage is removed

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140
Q

Is alimony granted for an annulment

A

No

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141
Q

Upon annulment, alimony rulings from prior marriages will not be revived unless _________.

A

Great need demonstrated

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142
Q

What is divorce?

A

Judicial decree which terminates the marital relationship and changes the legal status of the married parties

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143
Q

No-fault divorce is available where:

A
  1. Irreconcilable differences OR
  2. Irretrievable breakdown of the marriage
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144
Q

Under a no-fault divorce statute, the parties are not required to prove fault or grounds for divorce other than:

A

Showing of:
1. Irreconcilable differences OR
2. An irretrievable breakdown of the marriage

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145
Q

Irreconcilable differences are also known as __________.

A

Incompatibility

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146
Q

When do irreconcilable differences exist?

A

Such a conflict of personalities exists so as to destroy the legitimate ends of matrimony and possible reconciliation

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147
Q

_____________ is not sufficient to show that differences are reconcilable

A

One party’s belief in possible reconciliation

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148
Q

What is the irretrievable breakdown of marriage?

A
  1. Where either/both parties are unable/refuse to cohabit AND
  2. There are no prospects for reconciliation
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149
Q

What were the traditional grounds for divorce?

A
  1. Cruelty
  2. Adultery
  3. Desertion & abandonment
  4. Habitual drunkenness or drug addiction
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150
Q

What is cruelty as a grounds for divorce?

A

Cruel/inhuman treatment of P by D such that D’s conduct makes it unsafe/improper for P to cohabit with D

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151
Q

For cruelty, courts distinguish ______ from mere incompatibility and _________ from trivial misconduct.

A

Cruel and inhuman treatment

Serious misconduct

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152
Q

As a general rule, cruel and inhuman treatment for cruelty must be shown to be ____ and _____.

A

Routine

Continuous

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153
Q

Acts of physical abuse have repeatedly been found to constitute cruelty when ___________.

A

They are shown to be part of a pattern of misconduct

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154
Q

What is mental cruelty?

A

Course of unprovoked conduct toward one’s spouse that causes embarrassment, humiliation, and anguish so as to render the spouse’s life miserable and unendurable.

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155
Q

In order for mental cruelty to constitute cruelty, there must be ________

A

Course of conduct that endangers the physical or mental health of P so as to render continued cohabitation unsafe/improper

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156
Q

Verbal abuse and torment is sufficient mental cruelty to constitute cruelty as grounds for divorce if:

A
  1. Vicious AND
  2. Persistent
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157
Q

Adultery is sufficient mental cruelty to constitute cruelty as grounds for divorce if ___________.

A

Repeated often enough.

However, courts generally require additional cruel/inhuman treatment

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158
Q

How does continued cohabitation affect a claim of cruelty?

A
  1. After long enough time OR
  2. After separating and then resuming the marital relationship
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159
Q

What is adultery as grounds for divorce?

A

One spouse rejects the other by entering into personal, intimate sexual relationship with any other

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160
Q

How does cohabitation affect adultery as grounds for divorce?

A

Continued cohabitation beyond a few days after recieving knowledge is condonation

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161
Q

What is desertion and abandonment as grounds for divorce?

A

One spouse
1. Withdraws from the common dwelling without lawful cause AND
2. Constantly refuses to return

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162
Q

To constitute desertion as a ground for divorce, there must be a cessation of ________.

A

Cohabitation

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163
Q

Cohabitation consists of ______.

A

The continuing condition of living together and carrying out the mutual responsibilities of the marital relationship

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164
Q

What is intent to desert in relation to desertion and abandonment as grounds for divorce?

A

Intent
1. Not to return
2. Not to resume cohabitation
3. To terminate the marriage relation

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165
Q

For desertion and abandonment as grounds for divorce, most statutes require that desertion continue for _________.

A

A stated period of time

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166
Q

What effect does resuming cohabitation on desertion and abandonment as grounds for divorce?

A

Depends on jurisdiction, but:
1. Temporary resumption may or may not break continuity of statutory period
2. Long-term resumption will break continuity

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167
Q

What defenses exist against for-cause divorce?

A
  1. Collusion
  2. Connivance
  3. Condonation
  4. Recrimination
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168
Q

What is collusion as a defense to for-cause divorce?

A

Agreement between spouses to:
1. Simulate a ground for divorce OR
2. To waive raising a valid defense

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169
Q

What is connivance as a defense to for-cause divorce?

A

Consent by one spouse to the other spouse’s misconduct

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170
Q

Connivance as a defense to for-cause divorce is usually limited to ______.

A

Adultery

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171
Q

What is condonation as a defense to for-cause divorce?

A

Forgiveness of one spouse by the other for a breach of marital duty after knowledge of their commission

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172
Q

Condonation as a defense to for-cause divorce is also known as __________.

A

Reconciliation

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173
Q

Condonation as a defense to for-cause divorce is also known as __________.

A

Reconciliation

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174
Q

For condonation as a defense to for-cause divorce, what factors might a court consider?

A
  1. Expression of forgiveness
  2. Fact of cohabitation
  3. Length of time the parties cohabit after the injured spouse learns of matrimonial offense
  4. Whether cohabitation results from necessity
  5. Whether parties continue to have sexual relations
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175
Q

An essential element of condonation as a defense to for-cause divorce is _________.

A

Resumption of cohabitation & restoration of all marital rights

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176
Q

What is recrimination as a defense to for-cause divorce?

A

Other spouse was also guilty of misconduct for which a divorce may. begranted

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177
Q

In order to have a conversion divorce, the parties must live separate and apart continuously for a statutory period.

What does “living separate and apart” mean in this context?

A
  1. Something in addition to discontinuance of sexual relations
  2. Separation must be visible to the community
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178
Q

What is recrimination as a defense to for-cause divorce?

A

Other spouse was also guilty of misconduct for which a divorce may. be granted

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178
Q

Recrimination as a defense to for-cause divorce is also known as _______.

A

Dity hands

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179
Q

What is conversion divorce?

A

Conversion of legal separation into a divorce when parties have lived separate and apart for a specified time, intending to end the marriage

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179
Q

Attempted reconciliation won’t toll the statutory time period for separation where ___________

A

Evidence reflects that the parties didn’t resume all rights/duties attendant to the marital relationship

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180
Q

___________ was basically the doctrine of no-fault divorce before no-fault divorce existed.

A

Conversion divorce

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181
Q

Parties in marital status determination elements of a divorce case are subject to jurisdiction based on _______.

A

Their domicile

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182
Q

In divorce law, in personam jurisdiction applies to cases involving only _______.

A

Matters incident to marital status determination, like alimony, property division, or child support

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183
Q

What is an ex parte divorce?

A

Court has jurisdiction over only the divorce because only one party is present and domiciled in the state

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184
Q

In order for there to be jurisdiction over divorce, one of the parties must be ________ in the jurisdiction where the action for divorce is brought.

In some states, this is extended to ____________.

A

resident

Requiring P to be resident for a specified duration

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185
Q

Personal jurisdiction over D is not required for:

A
  1. Separation
  2. Divorce
  3. Annulment
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186
Q

Personal jurisdiction over D is required for:

A
  1. Property rights
  2. Support
  3. Alimony
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187
Q

What is the doctrine of sister state divorce decrees?

A

Courts will only recognize decrees regarding property rights, spousal support, or child support if the rendering court has personal jurisdiction over D spouse.

If that’s the case, full faith and credit is granted.

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188
Q

Foreign divorce decrees are recognized under the principles of ______.

A

Comity

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189
Q

What is preliminary relief?

A

Temporary relief is available pending the entry of a decree of dissolution by a court

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190
Q

What kinds of preliminary relief exist?

A
  1. Temporary parenting plan
  2. Temporary child support orders
  3. Temporary restraining orders
  4. Protection orders for DV
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191
Q

In some states, a divorce decree is considered ______ when issued and only becomes final after _________.

A

Interlocutory

Some specified period of time

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192
Q

Legal separation occurs via _______ agreements.

A

Separation

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193
Q

The parties may enter into a written separation agreement containing provisions for:

A
  1. Disposition of any property owned by either of them
  2. Maintenance of either of them
  3. Support, custody, and visitation of their children
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194
Q

What is a separation agreement?

A

A contract between a husband and wife who have decided to live apart.

Sets forth the manner in which the obligations of the marital relationship are to be carried out.

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195
Q

An action for legal separation does not ______________, but rather only orders the parties to live apart and adjudicates property.

A

Terminate the marriage

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196
Q

What are the requirements for a separation agreement?

A
  1. Intent of at least one spouse to dissolve the marital relationship or not to resume marital relations
  2. Voluntarily entered
  3. Statutory requirements (usually writing)
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197
Q

When have spouses voluntarily entered a separation agreement?

A
  1. Free from mistake, menace, fraud, duress or undue influence
  2. Full & fair disclosure by both parties AD
  3. Representation by independent legal counsel
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198
Q

Sufficient consideration for a separation agreement may be found in ___________.

A

Mutual promises of the parties

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199
Q

Terms of a separation agreement are binding on the court unless:

A
  1. Support, custody, and visitation of children OR
  2. Separation agreement unconscionable
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200
Q

Some states allow a court to refer the parties to a divorce action to a mediator who is __________.

A

Approved the court

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201
Q

Mediation involves __________.

A

Assistance of a neutral third party in attempting to resolve a dispute

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202
Q

A mediator is a _________.

A

Neutral third party

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203
Q

The mediator’s function is to assist the parties in their negotiations by:

A
  1. Helping the parties define the issues
  2. Overcome barriers to communication AND
  3. Explore different methods of resolving their dispute
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204
Q

__________ by mediators can be basis for setting aside a settlement agreement.

A

Significant misconduct

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205
Q

What are the duties of mediators?

A
  1. Impartial
  2. Promote informed decision making AND
  3. Explain the mediation process
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206
Q

When can a mediator NOT be impartial?

A

After disclosure of conflict, parties still agree to oversight by the mediator

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207
Q

Almost state now recognizes express contracts between cohabitants unless _______.

A

The sole consideration is sexual relations

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208
Q

Cohabitant rights based on contract theories are severely limited in scope, applying only to ________.

A

Rights inter se

How well did you know this?
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209
Q

What formalities are required for cohabitation agreements?

A

None

210
Q

Compensation for loss of consortium is typically available only to _______.

A

Legally recognized spouse of the injured party

211
Q

Why don’t courts typically expand liability for negligent infliction of emotional distres to cohabitants?

A
  1. Difficult to determine which cohabitants should be allowed to recover
  2. Problems of proving importance of the relatiopnship
  3. Would undermine strong public policy in support of marriage
212
Q

It is rare that states will expand liability for negligent infliction of emotional distress to a cohabitating fiance. However, if they do, it may be for ___________.

A

Engaged cohabitants

213
Q

Can cohabitants be compensated for wrongful death?

A

Usually, no.

214
Q

A non-marital child is also known as _______.

A

An illegitimate child

215
Q

Who is a non-marital child?

A

Child born to:
1. Unmarried woman OR
2. Married woman but fathered by a man who isn’t her husband

216
Q

Who has the burden of showing whether a child is legitimate?

A

The person alleging illegitimacy

217
Q

A child born to a married couple is presumed to be their legitimate offspring in absence of a clear demonstration that _________.

A

The husband couldn’t possibly be the father

218
Q

The presumption of legitimacy arising from birth in wedlock supports the rule that _____________.

A

if a husband was able to have sex with his wife, it must be his child

219
Q

The presumption of a child’s legitimacy can be rebutted via:

A
  1. Proof of husband’s infertility OR
  2. Lack of access to his wife
220
Q

Access between husband and wife is presumed until _________.

A

The contrary is plainly proved

221
Q

The presumption of legitimacy generally applies even when it shown that conception occurred _______.

A

Before the parties were married

222
Q

States can exclude evidence regarding the illegitimacy of a child if __________.

A

Rebutting the presumption is contrary to the child’s best interest.

223
Q

What kinds of marriages does a presumption of legitimacy apply to?

A
  1. Ceremonial marriage
  2. Common law marriage
224
Q

Under the UPA, a man is presumptive natural father if after the child’s birth:

A
  1. Marries mother AND
  2. Voluntarily asserted his paternity of a child
225
Q

How can a man voluntarily assert his paternity of a child?

A
  1. Writing filed with state agency maintaining birth records
  2. Agreed to and named as child’s father on child’s birth certificate OR
  3. Promised in writing to support the child as his own
226
Q

A man is presumed to be the father of a child if he and the mother were married and the child is born within ________ after marriage terminates.

A

300 days

227
Q

There is a presumption that a child was legitimately conceived even when parents were living ________.

A

Separate and apart

228
Q

If there is a second marriage, the child will be regarded as that of the first husband if __________.

A

No evidence of sexual relations between second husband and wife during possible period of conception

229
Q

What parties must be joined as parties in a proceeding to adjudicate parentage?

A
  1. Mother of the child AND
  2. Man whose paternity is to be adjudicated
230
Q

What parties must be joined as parties in a proceeding to adjudicate parentage?

A
  1. Mother of the child AND
  2. Man whose paternity is to be adjudicated
231
Q

A minor child is a _______ party to a filiation proceeding.

A

Permissible

232
Q

A minor child is a _______ party to a filiation proceeding.

A

Permissible

233
Q

During filiation proceedings, a guardian at litem may be appointed for a child if:

A
  1. Minor or incapacitated child OR
  2. Interests of child not adequately represented
234
Q

Who has jurisdiction over filiation proceedings?

A

Court has personal jurisdiction over the individual

235
Q

A court has personal jurisdiction over an alleged parent during filiation proceedings if there are minimum contacts.

When are there minimum contacts?

A
  1. Engaged in sexual intercourse in state AND
  2. Child may have been conceived by that act of intercourse
236
Q

There is no SoL on filiation proceedings if _____________.

A

Child has no presumed, acknowledged, or adjudicated father

237
Q

There may be filiation proceedings for an adult child, but only if:

A
  1. Child has no presumed, acknowledged, or adjudicated father AND
  2. Child initiates the proceeding
238
Q

If a child has a presumed father, the SoL prevents filiation proceedings _________.

A

Within 2 years after birth of child

239
Q

The SoL on filiation proceedings when there is a presumed father does not apply if:

A
  1. Presumed father or mother neither cohabited nor engaged in sexual intercourse during probable time of conception AND
  2. Presumed father never openly held out the child as his own
240
Q

The two-year SoL on filiation proceedings does not violate ________.

A

Due process

241
Q

What evidence is admissible in a filiation proceeding?

A
  1. Statements made regarding paternity
  2. Resemblance of child to D
  3. Medical testimony/records
  4. Blood or genetic testing
242
Q

If there is blood/genetic testing, and the test shows D is not the father, then __________.

A

Case must be dismissed

243
Q

A court may deny genetic testing during a filiation proceeding if:

A

Child has a presumed/acknowledged father AND
1. Mother/father estopped from denying parentage AND
2. Inequitable to disprove father-child relationship

244
Q

What factors help determine whether it would be inequitable to use genetic testing to disprove a father-child relationship?

A
  1. Length of time between proceeding and time the presumed/acknowledged father had notice of possible nonpaternity
  2. Length of time during which presumed/acknowledged father had assumed role of father
  3. Facts surrounding presumed father’s discovery of nonpaternity
  4. Nature of relationship between the child and presumed/acknowledged father
  5. Age of the child
  6. Harm to child if paternity disproved
  7. Nature of relationship between child and any alleged father
  8. Chances of establishing paternity of another man and child support obligation in favor of the child AND
  9. Any other factors that might harm the child
245
Q

What is the policy rationale for allowing courts to deny genetic testing during filiation proceedings?

A

States have an interest in preventing the disruption of intact marital families

246
Q

What is legitimation?

A

Act of giving the character of legitimate children to those who were not so born

247
Q

An illegitimate child will be legitimized as the father’s child only if:

A
  1. Voluntarily acknowledgment of paternity OR
  2. Judicial decree establishing paternity
248
Q

Under the UPA, a man is the presumptive natural father if after the child’s birth:

A
  1. Marries mother AND
  2. Voluntarily asserted his paternity of child
249
Q

Under the UPA, how does someone voluntarily assert his paternity of child?

A
  1. Writing filed with state agency maintaining birth records
  2. Agreed to/named as child’s father on child’s birth certificate OR
  3. Promised in writing to support the child as his own
250
Q

Discrimination against non-marital children is subject to what level of scrutiny?

A

Intermediate

251
Q

Constitutional or not?

A law provides benefit to all marital children, but not to non-marital ones.

A

Unconstitutional

252
Q

Constitutional or not?

A law provides benefit to all marital children, but not to non-marital ones.

A

Unconstitutional

253
Q

Constitutional or not?

A law provides benefit to some non-marital children, but not to others.

A

Subject to scrutiny

254
Q

Under the US Constitution, an unwed biological father who has ______________ has a substantive due process right in that relationship.

A

a significant relationship with his biological child

255
Q

Only when an unwed father demonstrates ___________ does he have substantial protection under due process.

A

Full commitment to the responsibilities of parenthood

256
Q

An irrebuttable presumption that a husband is the father is okay if mother does not ___________.

A

Join the alleged father’s paternity petition

257
Q

May an unmarried parent recover for wrongful death of non-marital child?

A

Mother, yes

Father, only if previously legally recognized the child

258
Q

What is the citizenship of a child born abroad to an unmarried American mother?

A

Automatically granted US citizenship

259
Q

What is the citizenship of a child born abroad to an unmarried American father?

A

Only American if paternity is established

260
Q

A donor is not the parent of a child conceived via assisted reproduction unless __________.

A

he is a man who provides sperm with the intent of being a parent of the resulting child

261
Q

A non-biological father who is the husband of an artificially inseminated mother is a father if:

A
  1. Husband consented in writing with intent to be the parent of the child AND
  2. Medical doctor performed the insemination
262
Q

The consent of a woman/man to assisted reproduction may be withdrawn by that individual in a record at any time before ______.

A

Placement of eggs, sperms, or embryos

263
Q

What is the effect of revoking consent to assisted reproduction?

A

Not the parent of resulting child

264
Q

If a marriage is dissolved before placement of eggs, sperm, or embryos, the former spouse is not a parent of the resulting child unless ______.

A

The former spouse consented in a record that, if assisted reproduction were to occur after a divorce, the former spouse would be a parent of the child

265
Q

If a person who consented to be a parent by assisted reproduction dies before placement of eggs, sperm, or embryos, the former spouse is not a parent of the resulting child unless ______.

A

The deceased spouse consented in a record that, if assisted reproduction were to occur after death, the deceased spouse would be a parent of the child

266
Q

Upon birth of child to gestational mother, the intended parents shall file notice with the court that __________.

A

A child has been born to the gestational mother within 300 days after assisted reproduction

267
Q

After parents file notice that a child was born to gestational mother after assisted reproduction, the court shall issue order that:

A
  1. Confirms that intended parents are parents of the child
  2. Orders child be surrendered to the intended parents AND
  3. Direct agency to issue birth certificate naming intended parents as parents of the child
268
Q

A gestational agreement that is not _________ is not enforceable.

A

Judicially validated

269
Q

If there is a nonvalidated gestational agreement, then the gestational mother becomes ___________.

A

Legal mother

270
Q

If there is a nonvalidated gestational agreement, who becomes the legal father?

A

Gestational mother’s husband

271
Q

If there is a nonvalidated gestational agreement, and the gestational mother decides to keep the child, what recourse do the intended parents have?

A

None

272
Q

It is the policy of the law to look after the interest of children who are considered incapable of looking after themselves in order to:

A
  1. Protect them from their own folly AND
  2. Prevent adults from taking advantage of them
273
Q

Infant contracts are _________.

A

Voidable

274
Q

When may minors disaffirm contracts?

A
  1. While being minors OR
  2. Within a reasonable time of reaching majority
275
Q

A child is liable for the value of ______ furnished to her even if she is too young to have legal capacity to contract for them.

A

Necessaries

276
Q

What are necessaries?

A

All things proper and requisite for the sustenance of human life

277
Q

What is the extent of a child’s liability for contracting for necessaries?

A

Reasonable value of necessaries furnished

278
Q

A child may generally own and convey property, but __________.

A

Child can disaffirm any conveyance upon reaching the age of majority

279
Q

Upon the disaffirmance of a deed made during infancy, the infant is entitled to ___________

A

Recover the property conveyed by her during infancy

280
Q

An infant is liable for her own torts provided that the tort:

A
  1. Does not arise out of OR
  2. Is not connected to
    …a contract
281
Q

What is the standard of care by which a child must act in light of tort law?

A

Reasonable care, but measured to determine if they constitute negligence varies from that employed for adults

282
Q

When will a child be liable for torts?

A
  1. Child makes a wilful act AND
  2. Tort is connected with contracts
283
Q

A child cannot be criminally liable under the age of _______.

A

7

284
Q

A child is (rebuttably) presumed to lack criminal capacity at what age?

A

Between ages of 7 and 14

285
Q

A child bears full criminal responsibility after the age of ______.

A

14

286
Q

Can children make valid wills?

A

No

287
Q

Children cannot consent to ____ treatment.

A

Medical

288
Q

A doctor who performs a medical procedure on a minor child without the parents’ consent is liable in tort unless:

A
  1. Implied consent for life-threatening emergency
  2. Public health concerns
  3. Older children
289
Q

How can the state intervene to protect children when parents deny them needed medical care?

A

Chid can be adjudicated neglected, and the state can order the medical treatment

290
Q

When parents object to medical care, the concept of “need” generally requires ___________

A

The child to face imminent death or serious injury without the medical treatment

291
Q

Many states allow the state to order medical care of parental protest without a finding of parental fault if ___________.

A

Parents object to the child’s treatment on religious grounds

292
Q

Parents are legally obligated to support their children. These obligations generally entail:

A
  1. Expression of love/affection for the child
  2. Expression of personal concern over the health, education, and general well-being of the child
  3. Necessary food, clothing, and medical care
  4. Adequate domicile AND
  5. Furnish social/religious guidance
293
Q

Courts have uniformly rejected the argument of “unwanted child” to support obligations.

What is this argument?

A

One parent expressly stated that he did not want to have children

294
Q

What is the reason for courts rejected the “unwanted child” defense to support obligations?

A
  1. Public policy in favor of children AND
  2. Implicit/explicit conclusion that a man who has sexual relations with a woman necessarily takes the risk that she may become pregnant
295
Q

Most jurisdictions do not recognize any duty of a _____ child to support her parents.

A

Adult

296
Q

What is emancipation?

A

Emancipation by the parent before the child reaches the age of majority

297
Q

Filiation proceedings are also known as ________.

A

Establishing paternity

298
Q

Who may bring an action to establish paternity?

A
  1. The child
  2. Mother of the child
  3. Man whose paternity of the child is to be adjudicated
  4. The state OR
  5. Representative authorized by law
299
Q

Emancipation is more considered with ______ than with _______.

A

Extinguishment of parental rights/duties

Removing disabilities of infancy

300
Q

An emancipated minor is a child who ___________.

A

Has been granted the status of adulthood

301
Q

When a minor becomes emancipated, she can enjoy ________________.

A

All privileges and responsibilities of adulthood

302
Q

A parent is obligated to support her child until __________ unless the child is sooner emancipated.

A

the child reaches the age of majority

303
Q

What is partial emancipation?

A

Frees the child for only:
1. Part of the period of minority
2. Part of the parent’s right
3. Some specific purpose such as the right to her own wages

304
Q

What is complete emancipation?

A

Occurs when the parent:
1. Renounces all the legal duties AND
2. Voluntarily surrenders all the legal rights of her position to the child

305
Q

What are the three ways a minor can be emancipated?

A
  1. Court petition
  2. Marriage
  3. Military service
306
Q

A court petition can lead to emancipation when the child:

A
  1. Leaves home and earns her own support
  2. Earns her own support while still living with a parent
  3. Refuses to see, visit, or live with an obligor-parent OR
  4. Receives public assistance in her own name
307
Q

Although a marriage may release a child from parental authority, it does not change the status of a child from a minor to an adult without ________.

A

Some statutes expressly providing for the change

308
Q

How does military service emancipate a minor?

A

After a minor is officially inducted into military service, the minor is emancipated during the course of her service

309
Q

In regards to education, states may require that ____________, but parents may ___________

A

Children attend school up to a certain age

Decide where their children will attend school

310
Q

When will state interests take priority over parental autonomy?

A
  1. Termination of parental rights
  2. Children in need of supervision
311
Q

Because the right to raise one’s children is a fundamental right, ______ is required before parental rights can be terminated.

A

Due process

312
Q

Grounds for the termination of parental rights must be proven according to what standard?

A

Clear and convincing evidence

313
Q

What are grounds for court termination of parental rights?

A
  1. Infliction of serious physical harm
  2. Abandonment
  3. Neglect (aka deprivation)
  4. Failure to support w/o justifiable cause
  5. Mental illness so severe that parent incapable of caring for the child OR
  6. General parental unfitness
314
Q

CINS stands for _______

A

Children in need of supervision

315
Q

A CINS is a minor who ________.

A

Commits an offense that, if committed by an adult, would not be a crime

316
Q

A child is considered in need of supervision if:

A
  1. Habitual truancy
  2. Beyond parent control (runaway behavior)
  3. Danger to herself or others
  4. Violates curfew
  5. Ungovernable
317
Q

When is a child ungovernable?

A

Generally refuses to follow rules

318
Q

Parental immunity for torts against children has been mostly abolished but still exists for _____________.

A

Acts of ordinary negligence which results in personal injury to children

319
Q

Parents have substantial discretion in making decisions concerning __________.

A

Their children’s upbringing

320
Q

No recent case in any jurisdiction has held that the parent-child immunity applies to _________________.

A

Willful, wanton, or malicious infliction of physical injury on a child by a parent

321
Q

At common law, parents are not vicariously liable for their children’s liability as long as __________.

A

Parents were completely passive and didn’t contribute to child’s tortious conduct

322
Q

If the law allows a child to marry who is younger than the age of consent to marry, that child would become __________ upon marriage.

A

An emancipated minor

323
Q

_________ ceases when a minor child marries.

A

Parental support obligation

324
Q

Parents will be held liable for their own negligence in allowing the child to ____________.

A

Do something that causes injury to a third party

325
Q

Under modern law, parents are liable for ________ torts of their minor children.

A

Willful and intentional

326
Q

Modern statutes limit the vicarious tort liability of parents for their children to ________.

A

Certain dollar amount

327
Q

May a child recover from a person who tortiously injures her parents?

A

No

328
Q

While a child rarely has a right to action for loss of consortium against someone who injured her parents, some states allow it when __________.

A

Loss of parental support resulting from the wrongful act of another

329
Q

A parent who has her lawful custody interfered with may recover tort damages for ____ or _____.

A

Abduction

Enticement

330
Q

A parent may recover for enticement or abduction of a child whenever she can show that ___________.

A

This has had the effect of depriving her of the child’s services

331
Q

To establish a claim of tortious interference with child custody, P must show:

A
  1. She has legal right to establish/maintain a parental/custodial relationship with her minor child
  2. D took some action/affirmative effort
  3. Action by D was willful
  4. D had notice/knowledge that child had parent whose rights were invaded and didn’t consent
332
Q

At common law, what state has jurisdiction over an adoption proceeding?

A

State where the adoptive parents are domiciled

333
Q

At modern law, what state has jurisdiction over adoption proceedings?

A

Ask:
1. Whether state has a sufficiently strong connection with the child AND
2. Whether substantial evidence concerning the case is present there

334
Q

When is there sufficiently strong connection with a child and a state so as to justify jurisdiction over adoption proceedings?

A
  1. Minor lived in state for at least 6 consecutive months (or if age under 6 months, soon after birth)
  2. Prospective adoptive parent lived in state for at least 6 consecutive months
  3. Agency that placed minor up for adoption located in state and best interests of minor
  4. Physical presence and abandonment, neglect, or emergency situation OR
  5. No other state has jurisdiction
335
Q

In regards to adoption proceedings and jurisdiction, best interests of minor are determined based on:

A
  1. Significant connection with state AND
  2. Substnaitla evidence concerning the minor’s present and future care
336
Q

Private placement is also known as _______ placement.

A

Independent

337
Q

What is private placement?

A

When the parent/guardian personally selects a prospective adoptive parent for the direct placement of the child

338
Q

A parent/guardian authorized to place a minor directly for adoption may place the minor only with __________.

A

A prospective adoptive parent for whom a favorable preplacement evaluation has been made

339
Q

An agency authorized to place a minor for adoption shall furnish to an individual inquiring about its services with ________.

A

A written statement of its services, including:
1. Agency’s procedure for selecting a prospective adoptive parent for a minor
2. Schedule of its fees

340
Q

Consent of _________ is generally required for adoption.

A

Child’s biological parents

341
Q

A biological father’s consent might not be required if ____________.

A

Parents are not married

342
Q

When an unwed father _______________, his interest in personal contact with his child acquires substantial protection under Due Process.

A

Demonstrates a full commitment to the responsibilities of parenthood

343
Q

An adoption order entered without notice to the unmarried father was constitutional when ________________.

A

The state provided the father with an opportunity to obtain notice and a hearing through registration with a “putative father registry.”

344
Q

An unmarried father may veto his child’s adoption when ____________.

A

state law grants a similarly situated unmarried mother a veto

345
Q

States can apply either a ______ or ______ test to determine if a child has been abandoned.

A

Subjective

Objective

346
Q

What is the subjective test for whether a child has been abandoned?

A

Courts require proof that the parent subjectively intended to abandon the relationship

347
Q

What is the objective test for whether a child has been abandoned?

A

Whether the parent has indicated a commitment to maintaining the parent-child relationship

348
Q

A committed father entitled to protection under the due process clause cannot have his parental rights severed without:

A
  1. His consent OR
  2. A showing of parental unfitness
349
Q

Records of adoption cases are _____ and _____.

A

Confidential

Sealed

350
Q

What are the effects of adoption?

A
  1. Parental rights & obligations of biological parents terminated AND
  2. Creates new parental rights and obligations in the adoptive parents
351
Q

Parental rights/obligations of biological parents are terminated upon adoption. However, there is one exception.

A

A minority of states allow courts to require visitation that is in the best interests of the child

352
Q

Gestational agreements are also known as ___________.

A

Surrogacy arrangements

353
Q

Gestational agreements are also known as ___________.

A

Surrogacy arrangements

354
Q

What is a gestational agreement?

A

An adult woman who agrees to bear a child conceived through assisted reproduction for intended parents

355
Q

A prospective gestational mother, her husband, a donor/donors, and the intended parent may enter into a gestational agreement that:

A
  1. Gestational mother agrees to pregnancy by means of assisted reproduction
  2. All rights and duties relinquished by gestational mother, her husband, and donors AND
  3. Intended parents become parents of the child
356
Q

A child born to gestational mother within _____ days of assisted reproduction pursuant to a validated gestational agreement is presumed to be the result of assisted reproduction

A

300 days

357
Q

A gestational agreement does not apply to the birth of a child who ________.

A

Was conceived by means of sexual intercourse

358
Q

A gestational agreement does not apply to the birth of a child who ________.

A

Was conceived by means of sexual intercourse

359
Q

A gestational agreement may not limit the right of the gestational mother to ___________.

A

Make decisions to safeguard her health or that of the embryos/fetus

360
Q

A court may issue an order validating the gestational agreement and declaring that the intended parties will be parents of the child born during the agreement term, but only on a finding that:

A
  1. Court has jurisdiction
  2. Child-welfare has done a home study of intended parents
  3. All parents voluntarily entered into the agreement and understand its terms
  4. Adequate provision for all reasonable health care expenses AND
  5. Consideration paid to prospective gestational mother is reasonable
361
Q

A court may issue an order validating the gestational agreement and declaring that the intended parties will be parents of the child born during the agreement term, but only on a finding that:

A
  1. Court has jurisdiction
  2. Child-welfare has done a home study of intended parents
  3. All parents voluntarily entered into the agreement and understand its terms
  4. Adequate provision for all reasonable health care expenses AND
  5. Consideration paid to prospective gestational mother is reasonable
362
Q

When does the court have jurisdiction to validate a gestational agreement?

A
  1. Mother or intended parents have been residents of the state for at least 90 days
  2. Prospective gestational mother’s husband is joined in the proceeding AND
  3. Copy of the gestational agreement is attached to the petition
363
Q

When does the court have jurisdiction to validate a gestational agreement?

A
  1. Mother or intended parents have been residents of the state for at least 90 days
  2. Prospective gestational mother’s husband is joined in the proceeding AND
  3. Copy of the gestational agreement is attached to the petition
364
Q

When does the court have jurisdiction to validate a gestational agreement?

A
  1. Mother or intended parents have been residents of the state for at least 90 days
  2. Prospective gestational mother’s husband is joined in the proceeding AND
  3. Copy of the gestational agreement is attached to the petition
364
Q

How may a prospective gestational mother, her husband, or either of the intended parties terminate a gestational agreement?

A

Giving written notice of termination to all other parties

364
Q

How

A
364
Q

When may a prospective gestational mother, her husband, or either of the intended parties terminate a gestational agreement?

A
  1. After agreement is validated AND
  2. Before prospective gestational mother becomes pregnant
365
Q

Upon birth of a child to gestational mother, the intended parents shall file notice with the court that __________

A

A child has been born to the gestational mother within 300 days after assisted reproduction

366
Q

After intended parents file notice with the court that a child has been born to the gestational mother, the court shall issue an order that:

A
  1. Confirms that intended parents are parents of the child
  2. Orders the child be surrendered to intended parents AND
  3. Directs agency to issue birth certificate naming intended parents as parents of the child
367
Q

After a gestational agreement has been validated, what effect does a subsequent marriage of gestational mother have on the agreement?

A
  1. Does not affect validity
  2. New husband’s consent isn’t required AND
  3. Husband is not presumed father of resulting child
368
Q

A gestational agreement that is not ________ validated is not enforceable.

A

Judicially

369
Q

The gestational mother is the legal mother of ________________.

A

The child born from a nonvalidated gestational agreement

370
Q

If a gestational mother decides to keep a child, what recourse do intended parents have?

A

None

371
Q

Traditionally, why could an adoption order be dissolved?

A

It couldn’t

372
Q

Modernly, why could an adoption be dissolved?

A

In special circumstances, such as discovery of an undisclosed mental/physical illness

373
Q

In evaluating dissolution of adoption claims, court typically look to:

A
  1. Length of the relationship
  2. The child’s needs AND
  3. Parent’s motives
374
Q

Child custody can mean either _____ or ____ custody of a child.

A

Legal

Physical

375
Q

What is legal custody of a child?

A

The right to make major decisions that affect the child’s life

376
Q

What is physical custody of a child?

A

Actual possession and control of the child

377
Q

Custody and visitation disputes are governed by the court’s determination of _________.

A

The child’s best interest

378
Q

A child’s legal parent is presumptively entitled to custody because:

A
  1. Parental rights are protected by common-law and constitutional principles AND
  2. Parental custody is typically consistent with a child’s best interest
379
Q

What factors are considered for determining the best interests of a child in regards to custody?

A
  1. Wishes of the parents
  2. Wishes of the child
  3. Residential/relational continuity AND
  4. Physical/mental health of all individuals involved
380
Q

The wishes of the child are considered in terms of custody as part of the best interests conversation, but only _______.

A

For older children, typically 12+

381
Q

In regards to custody determination, residential and relational continuity, what is considered?

A
  1. Child’s relationship with each parent, siblings & others
  2. Child’s adjustment to the home, school, & community
382
Q

What factors will a court NOT consider in its determination of proper custody?

A
  1. One parent’s misconduct toward the other
  2. Religious beliefs
  3. Primary caregiver status
383
Q

If sole physical custody is granted, the other parent must typically be given ___________.

A

Reasonable visitation rights

384
Q

A parent’s right to reasonable visitation is independent of ____________.

A

Child support obligations

385
Q

____________ cannot be withheld because a parent failed to pay child support obligations.

A

Visitation

386
Q

Limitations on parental visitation rights may be imposed for ________.

A

Misconduct

387
Q

A move sought in good faith that will _____________ will ordinarily be granted.

A

Serve the child’s best interests

388
Q

If one parent seeks to move with a child and the other parent objects, there is increasing leniency toward which parent?

A

Parent with whom the child has primarily living

389
Q

What decision-making standards will be used to judge parental relocation requests that inhibit visitation with the noncustodial parent?

A
  1. Child’s best interest
  2. Legitimate purpose, and the move is reasonable in light of that purpose
  3. Harm to the child
  4. Relocating parent’s vindictive motive
  5. Reasonable alternative visitation schedule after relocation
390
Q

If there is a relocation request and the other parent opposes, but it is a joint custody case, standards are more protective of which parent?

A

Parent who is not relocating

391
Q

In states that put the burden of proof on a relocating custodial parent to show that a move serves the child’s best interests, the parent must additionally show that the move is:

A
  1. For some legitimate purpose AND
  2. Reasonable in light of that purpose
392
Q

In states that put the burden of proof on a objecting parent to show that a move does not serve the child’s best interests, the parent must additionally show that:

A
  1. Move is harmful to the child OR
  2. Relocating parent’s motive is vindictive
393
Q

What is the remedy for violation of visitation orders?

A

Contempt

394
Q

If there is a consistent and willful denial of visitation rights, the court may ______.

A

Modify the custody and visitation arrangement

395
Q

In awarding joint custody, the most important factor to consider is:

A

The capacity of the parents to:
1. Communicate AND
2. Reach shared decisions affecting the child’s welfare

396
Q

What general factors will a court consider in awarding joint custody?

A
  1. Fitness of both parents
  2. Whether parents agree to joint custody
  3. Parents’ ability to communicate/cooperate concerning child’s wellbeing
  4. Preference of the child
  5. Level of involvement of both parents in child’s life
  6. Geographical proximity of the homes
  7. Effect on child’s psychological development
  8. Parents’ ability to carry out the joint custody order
397
Q

If parents agree to joint custody, the court will generally grant it unless ______.

A

Joint custody is not in the best interests of the child

398
Q

If parents do not agree to joint custody, a court may not order such an arrangement unless __________.

A

It finds that this arrangement is in the child’s best interest

399
Q

What does UCCJEA stand for?

A

Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction & Enforcement Act

400
Q

The UCCJEA was enacted with what purpose?

A
  1. Avoid jurisdictional competition and conflicts with courts of other states in matters of child custody AND
  2. Facilitate the enforcement of custody decrees of other states
401
Q

A court has jurisdiction over child custody to make an initial custody determination only if:

A
  1. Home State Jurisdiction OR
  2. Significant Connection Jurisdiction
402
Q

A state has temporary emergency jurisdiction if:

A
  1. Child is present in the state AND
  2. There is abandonment or abuse
403
Q

When is there default jurisdiction for child custody issues?

A
  1. No other states has jurisdiction (or the state w/ jurisdiction declined to exercise it) AND
  2. It is in the best interest of the child for the court to assert jurisdiction
404
Q

A court may decline jurisdiction of a custody case if:

A
  1. Inconvenient forum and another state would be better OR
  2. Person seeking jurisdiction engaged in unjustifiable conduct
405
Q

Courts can appoint ________ or _________ to protect the child’s interest in a custody dispute.

A

Counsel

Guardian ad litem

406
Q

A state that properly issued a custody decree retains exclusive and continuing jurisdiction unless:

A
  1. All parties and the child have left the state OR
  2. No longer any significant connection between child and person remaining in the state AND substantial evidence is no longer available
407
Q

What are the intrastate tools for enforcement for child custody?

A
  1. Contempt proceedings
  2. Suits in equity
408
Q

What are the interstate tools for enforcement for child custody?

A
  1. Parental Kidnapping Prevention Act
  2. Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction & Enforcement Act
409
Q

When is modification of a custody order permitted?

A

Throughout the child’s minority BUT

Only when substantial and unforeseen change in circumstances AND

Change will serve child’s best interests

410
Q

When is modification of a custody order permitted?

A

Throughout the child’s minority BUT

Only when substantial and unforeseen change in circumstances AND

Change will serve child’s best interests

411
Q

Most states disfavor modication of a custody arrangement that is sought shortly after ________.

A

Custody decree is entered

412
Q

Most states disfavor modication of a custody arrangement that is sought shortly after ________.

A

Custody decree is entered

413
Q

When might change in circumstances be sufficiently substantial and unforeseen as as to justify modification of a custody arranagement?

A
  1. Parent’s physical relocation significantly impairs other parent’s opportunity to exercise custody/visitation rights
  2. Custodial parent’s post-decree non-marital cohabitation
  3. Change will serve child’s best interests
414
Q

Who has the burden of proof in a case regarding modification of a custody order?

A

Party seeking modification

415
Q

What is the PKPA?

A

Parental Kidnapping Prevention Act

416
Q

The federal PKPA governs _________.

A

Interstate modification of a child custody order

417
Q

The federal PKPA provides that a state may not modify a custody decree issued by another state if:

A
  1. Either the child or any party continues to reside in the issuing state AND
  2. Issuing state’s courts don’t decline to exercise jurisdiction
418
Q

What is Home State Jurisdiction for the purposes of determining initial child-custody jurisdiction?

A

Home state of the child:
1. W/in six months before commencement of proceeding OR
2. On date of commencement of proceeding

419
Q

What is Significant Connection Jurisdiction for the purposes of determining initial child-custody jurisdiction?

A
  1. The child AND
  2. At least one contestant

…have a significant connection with the state

420
Q

Under the UCCJEA, a state that ___________ retains continuing, exclusive jurisdiction.

A

Properly issued a custody decree

421
Q

In a custody case between two parents, the standard is _________.

A

Best interest of the child

422
Q

Who is presumptively entitled to custody against a nonparent?

A

A child’s fit legal parent

423
Q

In most jurisdictions, to rebut the presumption favoring custody in the legal parent, a third party must show. that _________.

A

Awarding custody to the legal parent will be detrimental to the child

424
Q

Before a fit parent’s visitation decision becomes subject to judicial review, the court must accord at least some special weight to __________.

A

The parent’s own determination

425
Q

In some states, statutes authorize courts to order visitation for a nonparent who has a substantial relationship with a child if __________.

A

Visitation is in the child’s best interest

426
Q

Statutes that permit any person to visitation of a child without ____________, even if they consider the child’s best interests, are unconstitutional

A

Giving any deference at all to the parent’s decision

427
Q

States do NOT have to give deference to fit parents’ visitation decisions if the nonparent:

A
  1. Lived with the child AND
  2. De facto parent
428
Q

A child has one legal ____ and one legal ____.

A

Mother

Father

429
Q

Being a ______ parent is not sufficient for increased visitation rights.

A

Biological

430
Q

What effect does adoption have on visitation rights under the majority view?

A

Court may not order visitation for a biological parent

431
Q

What effect does adoption have on visitation rights under the minority view?

A

Visitation rights allowed for nonparent with substantial relationship with a child when visitation is in the child’s best interests

432
Q

What are the three main approaches to the distribution of property upon divorce or dissolution?

A
  1. Equitable division of marital property
  2. Equitable division of all property
  3. Community property
433
Q

What is equitable division of marital property?

A

In a majority of states, “marital” property is divided between spouses, but “separate property” remains the property of the owning spouse

434
Q

Jurisdictions that use equitable division of all property upon marital divorce or dissolution are also known as ______ jurisdictions.

A

Hotchpot

435
Q

What happens in jurisdictions that use equitable division of all property upon divorce or marital dissolution?

A

Court may divide all assets no matter how they were acquired

436
Q

How is property divided in community property?

A

All property other than separate property acquired during marriage is:
1. Community property AND
2. Split 50/50 upon divorce/dissolution

437
Q

In most states, _______ property remains the property of the owning spouse

A

Separate

438
Q

What is separate property?

A
  1. Owned prior to marriage
  2. Brought into the marriage via gift, will, or inheritance
  3. Rents, issues, and profits of other separate property
439
Q

The fact that a separate asset appreciates in value during the marriage doesn’t transform it into marital property unless _______.

A

Other spouse made significant efforts during the marriage to enhance its value/build equity

440
Q

An asset that is initially separate property may be transformed into marital property via:

A
  1. Mixing SP with marital property to the extent that SP is no longer traceable
  2. Titling SP in the name of both spouses OR
  3. Marital funds enhance value or build equity
441
Q

In all states, marital property is divided upon divorce without regard to _________-.

A

How that property is legally titled

442
Q

Jurisdiction over the division of marital property upon divorce is ______ jurisdiction.

A

In personam

443
Q

How is marital property defined?

A

All other property other than separate property acquired during marriage

444
Q

All property acquired with funds that are ______________ is considered marital property.

A

Earned by a spouse during marriage

445
Q

The product of a spouse’s ____ and ____ during marriage is ordinarily considered marital property.

A

Efforts

Skills

446
Q

An increase in the value of a premarital asset resulting from _________ is divisible.

A

Significant spousal effort during marriage

447
Q

In the majority of states, marital property continues to accrue until __________.

A

A final divorce decree is entered

448
Q

In a minority of states, marital property continues to accrue until:

A
  1. After the date of permanent separation OR
  2. Date of divorce filing
449
Q

What factors are relevant to the court deciding the disposition of marital property?

A
  1. Party circumstances
  2. Marriage duration
  3. Age/health of parties
  4. Income/earning capacity of parties
  5. Value of SP
  6. Origin of property
  7. Custody/child support
  8. Homemaker’s services
  9. Alimony/maintenance obligations
  10. Tax consequences
  11. Dissipation of marital assets
  12. Market value and emotional value of marital assets
  13. Conduct of each spouse during the marriage
  14. Liens, encumbrances, & debts
  15. Any other relevant factor
450
Q

The circumstances of the parties, as considered for the division of property, includes the parties’ standard of _________.

A

Living

451
Q

A marriage that lasts ___________ is a clear short-term marriage.

A

Five years or less

452
Q

At the end of a clear short-term marriage, what will the courts attempt to do?

A

Return the parties to their positions upon entering the marriage

453
Q

After the end of a short-term marriage, a court may forego _________.

A

Consideration of statutorily enumerated factors

454
Q

If a marriage lasts between ____ and ____ years, the court may determine whether the marriage is clearly long or short term.

A

Five

Thirty

455
Q

A marriage that lasts _____ years or more is clearly a long-term marriage.

A

30

456
Q

Where a marriage is a clear long-term marriage, marital property should be divided in such a manner as to __________.

A

Put the parting spouses in the same economic position they would enjoy had there been no dissolution

457
Q

What are homemaker’s services?

A

Domestic contributions by each party to the marriage

458
Q

Some equitable distribution states have a presumption that a homemaker’s contribution is equal to _______.

A

A breadwinner’s

459
Q

What is dissipation?

A

Use of marital property for the sole benefit of one of the spouses for a purpose unrelated to marriage at a time that the marriage is undergoing an irreconcilable breakdown

460
Q

In virtually all states, _______ fault is relevant to property distribution.

A

Economic

461
Q

How many states allow marital misconduct to affect property division or alimony?

A

Only about half

462
Q

Of the states that permit consideration of marital misconduct, about half restrict its use to _____________.

A

Alimony determination

463
Q

Are pensions considered marital property?

A

Only the portion earned during marriage

464
Q

Are professional degrees/licenses considered marital property?

A

No

465
Q

Are stock options considered marital property?

A

Yes, if they are earned during marriage

466
Q

Are personal injury awards from torts considered marital property?

A

Yes, if cause of action accrues
1. Between marriage AND
2. Before final separation

467
Q

Alimony is also known as _______.

A

Maintenance

468
Q

Who has jurisdiction over alimony cases?

A

State with minimum contracts with the party

469
Q

The state where a divorce is granted will only have jurisdiction over the alimony case if ____________.

A

The state also has personal jurisdiction over the D spouse in an alimony suit

470
Q

Under the Uniform Divorce & Marriage act (and traditional law), a court may grant alimony for either spouse only if it finds that the spouse seeking alimony:

A
  1. Lacks sufficient property to provide for her reasonable needs AND
  2. Unable to support herself through appropriate employment
471
Q

What are the modern factors used to determine the amount of alimony that may be granted?

A
  1. Duration of the marriage
  2. Standard of living during marriage
  3. Age of the parties
  4. Physical & mental condition the parties
  5. Contribution of each party to the marriage
  6. Employability
  7. Ability to meet own needs
472
Q

In many states, spouses are considered ot be in need of alimony if their income is insufficient to maintain a _____ standard of living, rather than a ______ standard of living.

A

Marital

Modest

473
Q

The calculation that determines whether someone receives alimony may - depending on the state - also include any ____ or _____ sacrifices made by one spouse on behalf of the other to support children or the other spouse’s career.

A

Career

Financial

474
Q

In evaluating a spouse’s contributions to a marriage, a court may consider negative as well as positive actions. Negative actions might include:

A

Spouse’s:
1. Failure to make economic/noneconomic contributions AND
2. Misuse/dissipation of marital funds

475
Q

What factors should not be included in determining the appropriate amount of alimony to grant?

A
  1. Marital fault
  2. Gender
476
Q

What are the four types of alimony?

A
  1. Permanent periodic spousal support
  2. Lump sum
  3. Rehabilitative spousal support
  4. Reimbursement spousal support
477
Q

What is permanent periodic spousal support?

A

Paid regularly for lifetime of the recipient

478
Q

Permanent alimony is seldom awarded except in the case of:

A
  1. Long-term marriage AND
  2. Significant, long-term gap between the husband’s and wife’s economic prospects
479
Q

When is permanent alimony modifiable?

A

When there is a:
1. Substantial AND
2. Actual
…change in circumstances

480
Q

When will permanent alimony be terminated?

A
  1. Death of either spouse
  2. Remarriage of recipient spouse
481
Q

Can there be alimony from annulment?

A

No

482
Q

Traditionally, what effect would annulment of a later marriage have on permanent alimony?

A

None; there was technically no marriage, so there was nothing to break off alimony

483
Q

Traditionally, what effect would annulment of a later marriage have on permanent alimony?

A

Alimony entitled terminated by a subsequently annulled marriage remain terminated

484
Q

In addition to typical grounds for terminating alimony, some states also allow termination for ___________ with the opposite sex.

A

Cohabitation

485
Q

How is lump sum alimony payable?

A
  1. All at once OR
  2. In periodic payments
486
Q

Can lump sum alimony by modified?

A

No

487
Q

How is lump sum alimony affected by the death of either spouse?

A

Survives

488
Q

How is rehabilitative spousal support paid?

A

Regularly for a limited period of time

489
Q

What is rehabilitative spousal support?

A

Temporary support:
1. At a sufficient level AND
2. For sufficient time
…to enable the spouse to
1. Update her education (or credentials) AND
2. Reestablish her career

490
Q

When is rehabilitative spousal support modifiable?

A

If there is a substantial change in circumstances

491
Q

When does rehabilitative spousal support terminate?

A
  1. Spouse reaches intended level
  2. Death of either spouse OR
  3. Remarriage of recipient spouse
492
Q

What is reimbursement spousal support?

A

Payments to a spouse who supported the other while the other obtained a professional license or degree

493
Q

How is reimbursement spousal support payable?

A
  1. All at once OR
  2. In periodic payments
494
Q

Is reimbursement spousal support modifiable?

A

No

495
Q

What effect does the death of a spouse have on reimbursement spousal support?

A

The award survives

496
Q

If the divorce/separation agreement was executed or modified on/after ___________ the receiving spouse does not have to pay taxes on alimony checks.

A

January 1, 2019

497
Q

Divorce/separation agreements executed before 2019 make alimony subject to tax.

How was it taxed?

A

Alimony payments included in gross income

498
Q

______ or ______ parents have a duty to support their children.

A

Biological

Adjudicated

499
Q

A third party may be estopped from disclaiming parental responsibilities when:

A
  1. Nonparent consent to act as a parent AND
  2. The child’s interests would be harmed by terminating parental relationship
500
Q

What factors are considered when determining the amount of child support to award?

A
  1. Parents’ capacity to pay
  2. The parents’ income
  3. The needs of the children
501
Q

How does high income affect child custody?

A

Court consider the level of luxury that was characteristic of the marriage/family life prior to divorce

502
Q

A court has personal jurisdiction over nonresident spouses for child custody determinations if the parent:

A
  1. Engaged in sexual intercourse in state AND
  2. Child may have been conceived by that act of intercourse
503
Q

The duty of a parent to pay child support is independent of a parent’s ______ rights.

A

Visitation

504
Q

State laws that base the existence of child support obligations on the parents’ _______ status violate the Equal Protection Clause.

A

Marital

505
Q

How is the duty to provide child support terminated?

A
  1. Emancipation of the child
  2. Termination of parental rights
  3. Employable children who disobey reasonable parental commands OR
  4. Death of the supporting parent
506
Q

When will emancipation NOT terminate the duty to provide child support?

A

In some states, divorced parent may be required to provide for the education of a child over the age of majority

507
Q

How does taxation affect child support payments?

A
  1. Not included as income of custodial spouse AND
  2. Not deductible by the payor parent
508
Q

Alimony can only be modified if there is substantial change in circumstances that significantly reduces:

A
  1. Needs of recipient spouses OR
  2. Ability of payor spouse to pay
509
Q

Child support can only be modified if there is a substantial change in circumstances that significantly reduces:

A
  1. Needs of the child OR
  2. Ability of parent to pay
510
Q

Courts will generally find that a significant income reduction represents a substantial change warranting a change for child support only if the reduction was ___________.

A

Involuntarily

511
Q

A significant voluntary income reduction will only lead to court alteration of child custody if:

A
  1. Reduction was made in good faith AND
  2. Not for the purpose of
    a. Depriving the child OR
    b. Punishing the custodial parent
512
Q

A change in income can be grounds for modifying child support even if the change is ___________.

A

Temporary

513
Q

Even if a voluntary income reduction was made in good faith and not for the purpose of depriving the child or punishing the custodial parent, some courts may not approve downward modification in child support amounts if __________

A

the reduction would constitute a “significant hardship” to the children

514
Q

Even poor obligors who ___________ are typically required to make token child support payments.

A

Whose income fails below a value that the state deems essential for self-support

515
Q

The issuing state may not retroactively modify child support because _____________.

A

Federal law forbids retroactive modification in all circumstances

516
Q

The obligation to pay ___ and ____ installments of child support may not ordinarily be modified.

A

Accrued

Unpaid

517
Q

Evidence of nonpaternity will not typically modify child support, even if it was part of the divorce settlement, because ___________

A

In addressing an issue covered in divorce, a motion for modifying child support would be a direct attack on a divorce judgment

518
Q

At modern law, courts are beginning to show sympathy to erroneously identified fathers because of ____________.

A

The manifest injustice of requiring someone to support a child who is scientifically proven not to be theirs

519
Q

What intrastate tools are used to enforce awards of child support?

A
  1. Contempt
  2. Judgment against noncomplying party
  3. Seizure of assets & garnishment of wages
  4. Order for payment of attorney’s fees
520
Q

Willful failure to pay child support will result in _________.

A

Criminal contempt

521
Q

Interstate enforcement/modification of both alimony and child support is governed by __________.

A

Uniform Interstate Family Support Act

522
Q

What does UIFSA stand for?

A

Uniform interstate family support act

523
Q

What interstate tools are used to enforce awards of child support?

A
  1. Registration of support order with other state
  2. Mailed to enforcement agency in obligor’s state or obligor’s out-of-state employer
524
Q

A non-issuing court of a child support order unless:

A
  1. Parties no longer reside in issuing jurisdiction OR
  2. Parties consent in record to non-issuing court’s assertion of jurisdiction to modify
525
Q

When may a prospective gestational mother, her husband, or either of the intended parties terminate a gestational agreement?

A
  1. After agreement is validated AND
  2. Before prospective gestational mother becomes pregnant
525
Q

A non-issuing state may not retroactively modify the child support order because _____________.

A

Federal law forbids retroactive modification in all circumstances