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Contracts Flashcards

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1
Q

What law governs the sale of goods?

A

Article 2 of the UCC

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2
Q

What is the UCC?

A

Uniform Commercial Code

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3
Q

What are goods?

A

Those movable things identifiable at the time of contract

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4
Q

Any contracts not regarding goods are governed by __________

A

General common law contract principles (only need to know majority view)

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5
Q

What law governs when a contract combines goods and non-goods?

A

Whichever is more predominant in the contract - unless the contract explicitly divides the payments

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6
Q

What is an express contract?

A

A contract formed expressly by language, either written or oral

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7
Q

A contract can be implied in:

A
  1. Law
  2. Fact
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8
Q

What is a contract implied in fact?

A

A contract formed by conduct

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9
Q

A contract implied in law is also known as _______

A

A quasi-contract

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10
Q

When will quasi-contract be invoked?

A

When contract theory fails to produce a just result

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11
Q

A quasi-contract can prevent ________.

A

Unjust enrichment of one party

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12
Q

A quasi-contract arises where:

A

One party
1. Confers a benefit and reasonably expects that they will receive payment
2. Reasonably relies on another’s gratuitous promise

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13
Q

What is a bilateral contract?

A

Both sides make promises to perform

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14
Q

All contracts are bilateral unless _______-

A

They are unilateral contracts

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15
Q

What kind of contract is a reward, prize, or contest?

A

Unilateral contracts; they can only be accepted by completing performance

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16
Q

An offer is a unilateral contract if it ____________.

A

Expressly requires performance for acceptance

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17
Q

What is a unilateral contract?

A

Can only be accepted by completing performance

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18
Q

When is an offeree required to give notice of acceptance of a unilateral offer?

A

Only if the offeree has reason to know that the offeror would not learn of the requested performance with reasonable certainty and promptness

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19
Q

A validly formed contract requires:

A
  1. Mutual assent
  2. Consideration from each party
  3. No defenses to formation
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20
Q

Whether or not mutual assent is present is governed by ________.

A

An objective standard

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21
Q

What is an offer?

A

Proposal communicating in definite terms a present intention to contract; can be accepted

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22
Q

What is acceptance?

A

Words or conduct manifesting assent to the terms of the offer

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23
Q

What is intent to be bound?

A

The manifestation of a present intent to contract

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24
Q

What test is applied to the intent to be bound?

A

Reasonable person standard

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25
Q

What is the reasonable person standard?

A

Whether a reasonable person in offeree’s position would believe that her assent to the offer would create a contract

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26
Q

Are advertisements offers?

A

No; merely invitations to deal

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27
Q

What kinds of advertisements are offers?

A
  1. Ad is in the nature of a reward
  2. Specific to quantity and who can accept
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28
Q

What terms must be provided to make a contract capable of being enforced?

A

The essential terms

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29
Q

Essential elements of an offer usually include:

A
  1. Identity of the parties
  2. Identity of the subject matter
  3. Time for performance
  4. Price
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30
Q

Offers for real estate must identify:

A
  1. Land with some particularity
  2. The price
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31
Q

An offer for the sale of goods must specify _______.

A

Quantity of goods required

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32
Q

Under the UCC, a contract may be enforceable in the absence of _______ so long as the parties otherwise intended to enter into a contract.

A

a price term

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33
Q

Why do output, requirements, and exclusivity contracts satisfy the UCC requirement to specify the number of goods in a UCC contract?

A

These approximate a reasonably foreseeable figure

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34
Q

What happens if a UCC contract specifies the number of goods, but that amount is later increased?

A

It’s okay as long as the increase is not unreasonably disproportionate to either:
1. The stated estimate
2. Otherwise comparable prior output or requirements

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35
Q

Offers to enter contracts for employment must specify ________

A

The duration

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36
Q

If the duration of an employment contract is not specified and the offer is nevertheless accepted, the contract will be considered _________.

A

Terminable at will

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37
Q

What happens in an employment-at-will relationship?

A

Either party can terminate the agreement at any time without the termination being considered a breach

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38
Q

Permanent employment means _____________.

A

Employment-at-will

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39
Q

When will termination of an employment-at-will relationship be considered a breach of contract?

A

When the termination violates an important public policy

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40
Q

What kinds of terms will not constitute an offer?

A

Vague and ambiguous ones

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41
Q

In order for the offeree to have the power to accept, the offeree must have _____ of the offer.

A

Knowledge

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42
Q

When will a lapse of time lead to the termination of an offer?

A

When the offeree fails to accept the offer within:
1. The time stated in the offer OR
2. A reasonable time if no time is stated

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43
Q

When will the death or incapacity of a party cause an offer to terminate?

A

Occurs after the offer but before acceptance.

Does not apply to irrevocable offers

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44
Q

What is revocation?

A

Words or conduct of the offeror indicating that an offer may no longer be accepted.

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45
Q

Who can revoke an offer?

A

Only the offeror

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46
Q

When is revocation effective?

A

When received by the offeree

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47
Q

What are the methods of revocation?

A
  1. Unambiguous words
  2. Conduct of unwillingness
  3. Inability to contract
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48
Q

_______ revocations never become effective

A

Lost

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49
Q

Can an offeree make multiple offers?

A

Yes, but if one offeree accepts, the offeror must notify every other offeree

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50
Q

When is an option contract irrevocable?

A

When supported by consideration

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51
Q

An offer is irrevocable for a reasonable period of time if there is reliance that is:

A

Reasonably
1. foreseeable and
2. detrimental

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52
Q

Start of performance on ________ makes the offer irrevocable.

A

A unilateral contact

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53
Q

When it comes to performance on a unilateral contract, and whether that performance triggers irrevocability, mere ________ is not performance.

A

Preparation

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54
Q

What is the UCC “Firm Offer” Rule?

A

Written offer to buy/sell goods signed by merchant promising it will be held open. is irrevocable for the stated time period or a reasonable time if no time period is stated

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55
Q

No _______ is required for a firm offer to be irrevocable.

A

Consideration

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56
Q

In no case will a UCC firm offer be irrevocable for longer than __________

A

Three months

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57
Q

Who is a merchant?

A

Those who regularly deal in goods of the kind sold.

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58
Q

Merchants are held to a higher standard of __________ than other sellers.

A

Good faith

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59
Q

What is an express rejection?

A

Statement by the offeree that she does not intend to accept the offer

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60
Q

Express rejection will _________ an offer

A

Terminate

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61
Q

What does a counteroffer do?

A
  1. Terminates the original offer
  2. Counteroffer becomes the new offer
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62
Q

Mere bargaining has no ________ and therefore does not _______

A

Legal effect

Terminate the original offer

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63
Q

What is an interrogative statement?

A

A reply to an offer that merely requests information regarding the offer. Not a counteroffer

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64
Q

Only _____ statements are counteroffers.

A

Declarative

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65
Q

Conditional acceptance technically constitutes __________.

A

A new offer

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66
Q

If a proposed contract that was legal at the time of the offer becomes illegal, the power of acceptance is ___________.

A

Terminated

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67
Q

A valid acceptance requires that a party:

A
  1. Unequivocally accepts the offer
  2. Communicates that acceptance to the offeror
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68
Q

For an acceptance to be valid, it most occur before ___________.

A

The offer is terminated

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69
Q

Offeree must have knowledge of _______.

A

The offer

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70
Q

For an offer that requires acceptance by making a return promise, a statement of _____ is not sufficient to create a contract.

A

Intention

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71
Q

Offers can only be accepted by __________.

A

The person to whom the offer was made

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72
Q

What kinds of offers are assignable?

A

Option contracts supported by consideration

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73
Q

What is the mirror image rule?

A

At common law, acceptance must be a mirror image of the offer without any deviation

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74
Q

What is the UCC exception to the mirror image rule?

A

Whether added terms become part of the contract depends on whether one or both parties to the contract are merchants

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75
Q

If someone responds to an offer with additions, and only one party is a merchant, then ______________.

A

The additional term does not become part of the contract; it is a proposal to be accepted or rejected

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76
Q

If someone responds to an offer with additions, and both parties are a merchant, then ______________.

A

The additional term becomes part of the contract unless:
1. Offer expressly limits acceptance to terms of the offer
2. Additional term is a material alteration
3. Offeror objects to the change

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77
Q

______________ is always considered a material alteration

A

Disclaimer of warranty

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78
Q

Under the UCC, an offer may be accepted via _____________.

A

Any reasonable means

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79
Q

How may an offer be accepted?

A
  1. By any manner explicitly authorized by the offer
  2. By any reasonable means if no specific manner of acceptance is required
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80
Q

What is the mailbox rule?

A

An acceptance is effective upon dispatch

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81
Q

What are the exceptions to the mailbox rule?

A
  1. Offer provides otherwise
  2. Rejection is sent first
  3. Acceptance of an option contract is effective upon receipt
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82
Q

All communications other than _______ are effective on receipt

A

Acceptance

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83
Q

Whether or not promising to perform is acceptance depends on ___________.

A

Whether the contract is bilateral or unilateral

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84
Q

Promising to perform is acceptance for _____ contracts

A

Bilateral

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85
Q

Promising to perform is not acceptance for ________ contracts.

A

Unilateral

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86
Q

Full performance is always acceptance unless:

A
  1. There is failure to give reasonably prompt notice by the offeree OR
  2. Performance was substandard or improper
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87
Q

Starting performance is acceptance for _________ contracts.

A

Bilateral

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88
Q

Starting performance on a bilateral contract is treated as ________.

A

An implied promise to perform

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89
Q

While starting performance on a unilateral doesn’t constitute acceptance, it does ___________.

A

Make the offer irrevocable for the reasonable amount of time required to complete performance

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90
Q

Offer to buy goods can be accepted by a prompt:

A
  1. Promise to ship the goods
  2. Shipment of conforming goods
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91
Q

In order to accept an offer, a party provides a shipment of goods. However, they are nonconforming goods. This shipment is _______________.

A

An acceptance and a breach

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92
Q

A shipment of nonconforming goods will be acceptance and breach unless _______.

A

Seller’s shipment comes with notice of accommodation; then it’s a counteroffer

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93
Q

Is silence from the offeree an objective manifestation of assent?

A

Nom unless:
1. Parties have a prior history on dealing on such a basis
2. Intent to contract exists
2. benefits of contract are taken with reasonable opportunity to reject them

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94
Q

Consideration is present at any time ___________.

A

Promises with value or performances are exchanged

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95
Q

What is consideration?

A

A bargained-for exchange between the parties

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96
Q

When has a consideration been bargained-for?

A

When consideration is sought by the promisor in exchange for her promise and given by the promise in exchange for that promise

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97
Q

If the promise-breaker did not ask for _________ in return, there is no bargained-for consideration, and therefore, no contract.

A

Legal detriment or forbearance

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98
Q

There is no consideration when a _________ is given because there is no bargain involved.

A

Gift

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99
Q

Where is there legal detriment or forbearance?

A

When each party does something she is not legally obligated to do or refrains from doing something that she has a legal right to do so

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100
Q

What is token consideration?

A

Consideration that is entirely devoid of value.

This does not constitute adequate consideration.

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101
Q

A _____ promise is not adequate consideration

A

Illusory

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102
Q

A requirements contract will fail as adequate consideration if __________.

A

The buyer has no real obligation to buy goods she needs and can accept or reject without regard to actual requirements for the goods

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103
Q

Requirements contracts must have ________ in order to constitute adequate consideration.

A

Exclusivity

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104
Q

What is past consideration?

A

Something that happened before the promise; cannot be consideration

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105
Q

When will past consideration be valid consideration?

A
  1. When an act benefits the promisor AND
  2. That act was performed by the promisee at the express request of the promisor or in response to an emergency
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106
Q

Unlike the UCC, the prevailing common law view is that _________ requires consideration to be valid

A

Modification to a contract

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107
Q

A legal detriment must be new to be valid consideration unless:

A
  1. Addition or change in performance
  2. Unforeseen difficulty
  3. Third party promise to pay
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108
Q

No new consideration is required. for____ modifications on a sale of goods contract.

A

Good faith

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109
Q

Consideration is required for the settlement of ____ and ____ to be enforceable.

A

Debts

Claims

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110
Q

If a debt is _____ and _______, part payment is not new consideration for settlement or release.

A

Due

Undisputed

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111
Q

If a debt is ______ or _______, part payment is new consideration for settlement or release

A
  1. Not yet due
  2. Disputed
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112
Q

A promise is legally enforceable even though there is no consideration if there is one of the following substitutes:

A
  1. Seal
  2. Written promise to satisfy a legal obligation barred by law
  3. Detrimental reliance
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113
Q

___________ is also known as detrimental reliance

A

Promissory estoppel

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114
Q

What constitutes promissory estoppel?

A
  1. Words of promise
  2. Reasonable, detrimental, and foreseeable reliance AND
  3. Enforcement necessary to avoid injustice
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115
Q

What does it mean for a contract to be void?

A

It is void from the outset, so it cannot be enforced by either party

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116
Q

What kind of contract can be enforced by either party?

A

Valid

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117
Q

What does it mean for a contract to be voidable?

A

Voidable at the election of one or both of the parties to the contract

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118
Q

What does it mean when an agreement is unenforceable?

A

Even though the agreement is valid, it cannot be enforced in a court of law because it is not related to contract formation

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119
Q

A party may raise _________ as a defense, in relation to consideration.

A

Lack of consideration

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120
Q

Which party can raise lack of capacity?

A

Defendant

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121
Q

D who lacks capacity has a right to _________.

A

Disaffirm a contract

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122
Q

Which Ds may raise lack of capacity as a defense to a contract?

A
  1. Minors under 18
  2. Mental incompetents
  3. Intoxicated persons
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123
Q

Intoxication is considered a lack of capacity only if ____________.

A

The other person has reason to know of the intoxication

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124
Q

A person who does not have capacity is nevertheless legally obligated to pay for __________.

A

Things that are necessaries, such as food, clothing, medical care, and shelter.

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125
Q

Implied affirmation occurs when a contract is entered into before the party had capacity, but ___________ and ___________.

A

The party now has capacity

The party has continued to keep the benefits of the contract without complaint

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126
Q

What is the defense of “lack of volitional consent”?

A

Party has the legal capacity to contract, but the party’s free will is overcome by duress or coercion

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127
Q

If there is a lack of volitional consent, then the contract is ________.

A

Voidable

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128
Q

Contracts induced by duress or coercion are ______.

A

Voidable

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129
Q

Duress requires ____________.

A

An improper threat

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130
Q

What is economic duress?

A

Improper threat to breach an existing contract and the vulnerability of one party

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131
Q

What are the elements of undue influence?

A

Undue susceptibility to pressure and excessive pressure

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132
Q

Undue susceptibility makes a contract ________.

A

Voidable

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133
Q

Undue susceptibility can be established either by:

A
  1. The circumstances
  2. The existence of a confidential relationship
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134
Q

What contracts are subject to the Statute Of Frauds?

A
  1. Contracts incapable of being performed within one year
  2. Sale of goods $500+
  3. Promise made in consideration of marriage
  4. Guarantee to pay debts of another
  5. Executor promises to pay estate debts with own funds
  6. Transfers of interests in real estate
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135
Q

Whter a contract can be ______________ is irrelevant to whether it can be completed within one year.

A

Terminated early

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136
Q

Specific tasks do not fall within the SOF because _____________.

A

It is theoretically possible for any task ti be completed within a year with unlimited resources

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137
Q

Do contracts for life fall within the SOF?

A

No, because it is possible that the person will die within the year

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138
Q

What knd of marriage-related promises does the SOF apply to?

A

Not to mere promises of marriage; rather to promises to do something or refrain from doing something in exchange for getting married

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139
Q

SOF does not apply when the purpose of the debt being guaranteed was to _________.

A

Benefit guarantor

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140
Q

Transfers of interests in real estate are within the SOF except for __________.

A

Leases of one year or less

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141
Q

The SOF can be satisfied by:

A
  1. Writing
  2. Performance
  3. Judicial Admission
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142
Q

At common law, what must be included in a writing in order to satisfy the SOF?

A

All material terms:
1. Who
2. What

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143
Q

In order to satisfy the SOF, at common law, the contract must be signed by _______.

A

The person who is asserting. theSOF defense to the contract

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144
Q

Under the UCC, the only contracts that fall under the SOF are those for the sale of goods for ______.

A

$500 or more

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145
Q

For UCC contracts subject to the UCC, the writing must be sufficient to ______.

A

Indicate a contract for the sale of goods

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146
Q

If both parties to a sale of goods are merchants, rather than the typical SOF, then the _______ rule applies.

A

Confirmatory Memo

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147
Q

What is the confirmatory memo rule?

A

If one party sends a written confirmation, the SOF is satisfied unless the other party objects within 10 days

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148
Q

For a service contract, what happens if there is full performance?

A

SOF is satisfied

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149
Q

For a service contract, what happens if there is part performance?

A

SOF is not satisfied, but P may recover under the theory of quasi-contract

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150
Q

For sale of goods contracts, how does part performance affect the SOF when ordinary goods are involved?

A

Delivered goods satisfy the SOF; undelivered ones do not

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151
Q

For the sale of specialty goods, there is no SOF defense if:

A
  1. The goods are specially made for the buyer AND
  2. The seller has either started production or committed for their procurement
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152
Q

Part payment by the buyer for multiple goods satisfies the SOF, but only to the extent of ___________.

A

The payment made

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153
Q

Part payment by the buyer for a single good satisfies the SOF as to _______, and the agreement is legally binding

A

the single item

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154
Q

When it comes to a sale of land contract, 2 of the following 3 are required to satisfy the SOF.

A
  1. Buyer takes possession
  2. Buyer pays all/part of the purchase price
  3. Buyer makes substantial improvements to land
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155
Q

When is the SOF satisfied by judicial admission?

A

If the party asserting a SOF defense admits under oath that there was a contract

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156
Q

What is the equal dignity rule?

A

If the contract is within the SOF, then written authorization is required for someone else to legally enter into the contract on the principal;s behalf

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157
Q

If a contract is allegedly modified and falls within the SOF, then the modification _______

A

Must be in writing

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158
Q

What is a misrepresentation?

A

A statement that isn’t in accord with the facts

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159
Q

Fraud in the inducement is an _____ defense.

A

Equitable

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160
Q

When does fraud in the inducement occur?

A

When A enters into an agreement, knowing that it’s supposed to be a contract and what it’s about, but A entered the agreement because of false information that B gave

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161
Q

If there is fraud in the inducement, the contract is ______.

A

Voidable

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162
Q

Fraudulent misrepresentation makes a contract voidable if ______

A

The defrauded party was justified in reliance

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163
Q

A party may avoid a contract to which the party’s assent was induced by fraud even if ________.

A

The resulting transaction is fair on its terms

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164
Q

There is no general duty to ______, but affirmatively hiding material facts is fraudulent misrepresentation.

A

Disclose

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165
Q

Affirmatively _________ constitutes fraudulent misrepresentation

A

Hiding material facts

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166
Q

The SoL within which a party may void a contract due to misrepresentation does not begin to run until ______________.

A

That party either knows or has reason to know of the misrepresentation

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167
Q

Non-fraudulent misrepresentation still makes a contract voidable if:

A
  1. Innocent party justifiably relied on misrepresentation
  2. The fact misrepresented was material
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168
Q

When does fraud in factum occur?

A

Where A makes/signs an agreement, but either:
1. Does not realize that it is supposed to be a contract
2. Doesn’t understand the nature/content of the agreement
Because of some false information that B gave to A

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169
Q

Mistake of fact differs from misrepresentation because _______

A

The party is making a mistake of her own

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170
Q

A mistake is defined as ________.

A

A belief that is not in accord with the facts

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171
Q

Mistake of fact applies only to ________ facts.

A

Existing

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172
Q

If both parties share the same mistaken belief, the mistake is a ________ one.

A

Mutual

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173
Q

A mutual mistake is a defense if:

A
  1. Mistaken basic assumption of existing fact
  2. Material adverse effect on agreement AND
  3. No assumption of risk
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174
Q

In order to be a mistaken basic assumption of existing fact, the mistake must be in regard to _______ of the contract, not _________.

A

Subject matter

Value

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175
Q

There is a presumption that the seller assumes the risk of knowing:

A
  1. What she owns AND
  2. What she’s selling
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176
Q

A unilateral mistake of material fact by only one party only voids a contract if:

A
  1. Requirements of mutual mistake are satisfied AND
    2a. the other party knew/should have known of the other party’s mistake OR
    2b. Enforcement of the contract would be unconscionable
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177
Q

Mistake due to ambiguity is a ____________.

A

Contract formation defect

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178
Q

Under the defense of mistake due to ambiguity, there will be no contract if:

A
  1. A material term is subject to at least 2 reasonable interpretations
  2. Each party has a different meaning in mind AND
  3. Neither party is aware of any ambiguity at the time of contract
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179
Q

A court has the power to _________ to avoid unconscionable terms.

A

Refuse to enforce:
1. A provision OR
2. An entire contract

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180
Q

Unconscionability is always determined at the time of ________

A

Contract formation

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181
Q

The basic test of unconscionability is whether ___________.

A

The contract (or a provision) is so one-sided as to be unconscionable under the circumstances existing when the contract was formed

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182
Q

A contract will be unconscionable if there is substantially disparate _______.

A

Bargaining power

183
Q

A contract will be unconscionable if it goes against ______ policy.

A

Public

184
Q

A contract will be unconscionable if there is inconspicuous ____________.

A

Risk shifting

185
Q

Contracts of ______ are unconscionable.

A

Adhesion

186
Q

What is the public policy defense of illegality?

A

If either the consideration or the subject matter of a contract is illegal, the contract is not legally enforceable

187
Q

A contract for illegal consideration or subject matter is _________.

A

Void

188
Q

A contract for illegal subject matter is not void if:

A
  1. P didn’t know subject matter was illegal, but D did
  2. Party is not as culpable as the other party. and seeks relief
189
Q

If a contract was formed for an illegal purpose, the contract is ________.

A

Voidable

190
Q

Which party may void a contract for illegal purpose?

A

Party who was:
1. Unaware of illegal purpose OR
2. Was aware but did not facilitate purpose, and purpose didn’t involve serious moral turpitude

191
Q

A contract that violates a regulatory statute may be unenforceable as against public policy if _____________.

A

The policy against enforcement outweighs the interest of enforcement.

192
Q

A contract that violates a regulatory statute will be unenforceable unless ________

A

Those intended to be protected by the statute would be harmed by a finding of unenforceability

193
Q

What is the parol evidence rule?

A

Limits the admissibility of prior expressions or contemporaneous or oral statements

194
Q

What is the principle behind the parol evidence rule?

A

The final contract is more reliable than anything said or written earlier

195
Q

What is the test for the parol evidence rule?

A

There must be:
1. Integration AND
2. Any additional statement was signed

196
Q

The parol evidence rule does not apply to _________ oral or written agreements.

A

Subsequent

197
Q

What is an integration?

A

A written agreement intended to be the final contract between the parties

198
Q

How do the parole evidence rules for partial and complete integration differ?

A

For complete integrations, no contradicting supplements are allowed.

For partial integrations, supplements showing prior agreements that add consistent terms are allowed.

199
Q

Parol evidence is gnerally inadmissible to _____ or _____ the written contract.

A

Contradict

Change

200
Q

The only time that parol evidence may contradict a written contract is to show _______/

A

A clerical error

201
Q

Parol evidence can be used to show _________ defects.

A

Formation

202
Q

Parol evidence can be admitted to establish an oral __________ to the parties’ performance under the contract.

A

Condition

203
Q

Parol evidence is admissible to show an additional contract if it is a ______________ contract.

A

Consistent collateral

204
Q

Parol evidence is admissible to explain or interpret ___________ in the contract.

A

Ambiguous terms

205
Q

What is a merger clause?

A

Indicates that the contract is the final integration of the agreement between the parties

206
Q

What is reformation?

A

An equitable action to modify a written contract to reflect the true intent of the parties

207
Q

What are the three main approaches used to determine if ambiguity exists in a contract?

A
  1. Four Corners: no extrinsic evidence is allowed
  2. Plain Meaning: Court considered circumstances of the agreement, but not preliminary negotiations
  3. Liberal Approach: Court considers preliminary negotiations
208
Q

A writing is interpreted as a ________.

A

Whole

209
Q

All writings that are part of the same transaction are interpreted __________.

A

Together

210
Q

If the _______ purpose of the parties is ascertainable, that purpose is given great weight.

A

Primary

211
Q

_____ and ______ terms are given greater weight than general language.

A

Specific

Exact

212
Q

________ negotiated terms are given greater weight than _________ terms.

A

Separately

Standardized

213
Q

As a general rule, the contract is interpreted against ______ in disputes involving the interpretation of contract language.

A

The drafter

214
Q

Where language has a generally prevailing meaning, it is interpreted in accordance with ________________.

A

That ordinary meaning unless a different intention is manifested

215
Q

Technical terms and words of art are given what meaning?

A

Their technical meaning when used in a transaction within their technical field

216
Q

Express terms are interpreted according to their use in various situations. In what order are those usages prioritized?

A
  1. Course of performance: same people, same contract
  2. Course of dealing: same people, different contract.
  3. Custom & Usage: different people, different (but similar) contracts
217
Q

If terms are left out of a contract for the sale of goods, _________ will apply.

A

Default UCC terms

218
Q

If not specified in a contract for the sale of goods, the time for shipment or delivery shall be ____________.

A

A reasonable time

219
Q

If not specified in a contract for sale of goods, the place for delivery of goods is ______________ or ______________.

A

Seller’s place of business

If she has none, then the seller’s residence

220
Q

In a contract for the sale of goods, a merchant seller’s delivery obligation is complete when the buyer receives goods at:

A
  1. Seller’s place of business OR
  2. Location of goods known to the buyer
221
Q

In a contract for the sale of goods, a non-merchant seller’s delivery obligation is complete when _____________.

A

The seller tenders goods

222
Q

What is tender?

A

Telling a buyer:
1. Where the goods are
2. How to get them

223
Q

A contract that requires the seller to ship the goods via 3rd-party carrier is either:

A

Shipment or destination contract

224
Q

If a contract for the sale of goods is otherwise silent, a shipment contract is presumed where _________________.

A

The contract requires shipment by a third-party carrier

225
Q

Under a shipment contract, the seller is not responsible for ____________.

A

The arrival of the goods at the final destination

226
Q

Under a shipment contract, the seller’s obligation is complete before ______________.

A

The goods are actually delivered to the buyer

227
Q

Under a shipment contract, the seller is legally obligated to:

A
  1. Deliver goods to common carrier and make reasonable delivery arrangements
  2. Deliver any document necessary to enable buyer to obtain possession
  3. Promptly notify the shipment’s buyer
228
Q

What’s the difference between shipment and destination contracts?

A

Shipment contracts occur in the seller’s own city. Contract ends at shipment.

Destination contracts occur in the non-seller’s city. Contract ends at delivery

229
Q

Under a destination contract, the seller is required to __________.

A

Deliver the goods at a particular location

230
Q

When do risk of loss issues arise in a contract for the sale of goods?

A

After the contract is formed but before the buyer receives the goods, the goods are damaged or destroyed, but neither party is at fault.

231
Q

In a contract for the sale of goods, ________ controls as to risk of loss.

A

Agreement of the parties

232
Q

In a contract for the sale of goods, the breaching party is liable for any uninsured loss even if _____________.

A

The loss is completely unrelated to the breach

233
Q

In the sale of goods, seller bears the risk of loss until ____________.

A

Completion of delivery obligation

234
Q

An express warranty of quality can be given by:

A

1 Statement of fact
2. Promise
3. Conduct

235
Q

In a contract for the sale of goods, statements of value or opinion are not _______.

A

Express warranties

236
Q

Every seller of goods automatically warrants that the title conveyed to the buyer:

A
  1. Is good
  2. Its transfer is rightful
237
Q

A warranty of merchantability is implied in every contract for a sale of a good by a seller who is _______.

A

A merchant with respect to goods of that kind

238
Q

The implied warranty of merchantability requires that goods sold by “merchants” must ________________.

A

Be fit for their ordinary purpose

239
Q

If a buyer has a particular purpose for purchasing the goods that the seller is aware of, then the goods must ___________.

A

Be fit for that particular purpose

240
Q

What is a disclaimer of warranties?

A

A contract provision that eliminates warranties.

241
Q

_____ warranties generally cannot be disclaimed

A

Express

242
Q

An implied warranty of merchantability can be disclaimed if _________.

A

Conspicuous

243
Q

When is an implied warranty of merchantability conspicuous?

A

When the disclaimed portion of the contract is in different print/font from the rest of the contract

244
Q

What two phrases effectively eliminate implied warranties?

A

“As is”

“With all faults”

245
Q

One can limit remedies unless ________.

A

Unconscionable

246
Q

Limitation of remedies is prima facie unconscionable when _____________.

A

A breach of warranty on consumer goods causes personal injury

247
Q

What 3 alternatives has the UCC set forth for determining to whom warranty liability extends?

A
  1. Extends to any natural person in the family/household of the buyer if they would reasonable use the goods and are injured (most common option)
  2. Same as above, but removes “in the family/household”
  3. Same as above, but removes “and are injured”
248
Q

In a contract for the sale of goods, the price is a reasonable price at the time of delivery if:

A
  1. Nothing is said as to the price
  2. The price is left to be agreed by the parties and they fail to agree
  3. The price is to be fixed in terms of some agreed market or other 3rd party standard and is not set
249
Q

A price to be fixed by the seller or by the buyer must be fixed in _________.

A

Good faith

250
Q

What happens if a price is payable in goods?

A

Each party becomes a seller of goods

251
Q

If not specified in the noncarrier contract to sell goods, payment is due ________.

A

Upon tender of delivery

252
Q

If not specified in a carrier contract to sell goods, payment is due _________.

A

When buyer receives goods

253
Q

Under the UCC parol evidence rule, unlike the common law rule, ___________.

A

A merger clause doesn’t conclusively determine that an agreement is completely integrated

254
Q

What is mutual recission?

A

An express agreement by both parties to cancel the original contract

255
Q

An agreement to rescind is itself a ______ contract supported by _______.

A

Binding

Consideration

256
Q

There is no general rule requiring ________ for discharge by mutual agreement.

A

A writing

257
Q

For mutual recission to be available, the original contract must be __________ on both sides

A

Executory - in other words, neither party has finished performance

258
Q

Under the UCC, a seller’s tender of the goods (delivery) and ____________ are concurrent conditions of exchange.

A

a buyer’s tender of payment

259
Q

If the contract rights of ________ have already vested, the contract cannot be discharged by mutual rescission.

A

a third party

260
Q

Unilateral recission is available only. if_____________.

A

One of the parties to the contract has an adequate legal ground to rescind. thecontract

261
Q

What is an accord?

A

An agreement to accept a different performance in satisfaction of the existing obligation

262
Q

A promise to accept a lesser performance for an obligation __________ and ______ is not a valid accord, because there is no consideration.

A

Currently due

Undisputed

263
Q

Accord does not discharge the prior contract; it simply _____________ until the accord is satisfied

A

Suspends the right to enforce the original contract

264
Q

What is satisfaction?

A

Performance of the accord agreement

265
Q

What is the effect of satisfaction?

A

Discharges both the original contract and. the accord contract

266
Q

If accord is not satisfied, the non-breaching party may sue either on:

A
  1. The original un-discharged contract
  2. Breach of the accord agreement
267
Q

What is modification?

A

An agreement by the parties to an existing contract to accept a different agreement in satisfaction of the existing obligation

268
Q

The prevailing common law view is that a modification to a contract requires ________ to be valid.

A

Consideration

269
Q

The legal detriment or forbearance must be new to be valid consideration unless:

A
  1. Addition or change in performance
  2. Unforeseen difficulty OR
  3. 3rd party promise to pay
270
Q

Under the UCC, no _________ is required for good faith modifications on a sale of goods contract.

A

New consideration

271
Q

A modification on a sale of goods contract is valid if the party modifying the contract acted ______.

A

In good faith

272
Q

If a contract as allegedly modified is within the SOF, then the modification must be _________.

A

In writing

273
Q

If a contract expressly prohibits oral modification or requires writing, and there is a modification, what do you do under common law?

A

Ignore any provisions expressly requiring writing

274
Q

In UCC Contracts, provisions requiring modifications in writing are valid unless ____________.

A

There is a waiver

275
Q

What is the effect of modification of a contract?

A

Immediately discharges the terms of the original contract that were modified

276
Q

What is a novation?

A

An agreement by both parties to substitute a different person to receive the benefits and assume the duties of the original contract

277
Q

What are the requirements of a valid novation?

A
  1. Previous valid contract
  2. Agreement by all the parties, including the new 3rd party
  3. Valid and enforceable new contract
278
Q

In a novation, if all parties do not agree to the substitution, then it is a _________, which does not excuse performance.

A

Delegation

279
Q

What is the effect of novation?

A

It immediately extinguishes the contractual duties between the parties to the original contract

280
Q

The party being replaced by novation is excused from _______.

A

Any liability for non-performance

281
Q

When do later unforeseen events have to occur in order to potentially end a contract?

A

After contract formation but before performance

282
Q

When do unforeseen events make a contract impossible to complete?

A
  1. Circumstances affecting the contract have changed
  2. Change not due to any act by D
  3. Change of circumstances causes performance to be objectively impossible
283
Q

When is performance objectively impossible?

A

No one could perform the duties of the contract

284
Q

If a ________ law makes performance of the contract illegal, performance is excused.

A

Supervening

285
Q

Does death or physical incapacity of a person excuse performance?

A

Only if the specific person was necessary to effectuate the contract

286
Q

When does the destruction of the subject matter of the contract discharge the duty to perform?

A

When it is not the fault of either party

287
Q

When are goods destroyed so as to end a contract under the UCC?

A

When the goods are totally destroyed before the risk of loss has passed to the buyer without the fault of either party

288
Q

What effect does temporary impossibility have on a contract?

A

Suspends the contractual duties without discharging them

289
Q

What is the subjective test of impracticability?

A

Examines whether the performance would be commercially unreasonable at the time of contract formation

290
Q

Performance of a contractual obligation is impracticable when:

A
  1. Circumstances affecting the contract have changed
  2. Change is not due to any act by D AND
  3. Undue hardship on D
291
Q

What is the effect of temporary impractability?

A

Suspends contractual duties but will not discharge them

292
Q

Uncertain _______ or _______ are too typical to ever be impracticable.

A

Weather

Market conditions

293
Q

What is frustration of purpose?

A

Supervening events unforeseeable at the time. of contract formation destroy the purpose of the contract that was known by both parties

294
Q

Frustration of purpose occurs when:

A
  1. Both parties know the purpose of contract
  2. Unforeseeable supervening event out of D’s control AND
  3. Original purpose unavailable
295
Q

How is frustration of purpose distinguished from impossibility?

A

Performance is still technically possible, but the purpose no longer exists

296
Q

A party’s performance does not become due until _____________.

A

All express conditions to it have occurred or are excused

297
Q

What is an express condition?

A

Language in a contract that states something must occur before someone’s performance is due

298
Q

When is there a conditional acceptance?

A

When conditional language appears in one person’s response to the offer

299
Q

If a condition for acceptance is not met, ______________.

A

There is no contract

300
Q

A condition does not make a promise to perform illusory because __________.

A

The possibility that the condition might occur limits the party’s freedom of action by binding her to perform if the condition is satisfied

301
Q

There must be _____ compliance with all conditions

A

Strict

302
Q

If an express condition is not satisfied, performance is ________.

A

Excused

303
Q

If it is clear that the purpose of the condition was to benefit or protect one of the parties, the language of the condition will be interpreted as if __________.

A

That intention had been embodied in the contract terms

304
Q

A performance that is subject to an express condition cannot become due unless:

A
  1. The condition occurs OR
  2. Its nonoccurrence is excused
305
Q

Which party can waive an express condition?

A

The party protected by the condition

306
Q

If a party waives a condition, that party may reinstate the condition with respect to ________.

A

Future acts of performance

307
Q

When does estoppel occur in regards to express conditions?

A

Before the condition is satisfied, the party protected by the condition causes the other party to believe she won’t require satisfaction of the condition

308
Q

If the party protected by an express condition intentionally/negligently prevents the condition from occurring, the condition is ________.

A

Eliminated

309
Q

The nonoccurrence of an express condition may be excused in order to avoid ___________ forfeiture.

A

Disproportionate

310
Q

What is forfeiture?

A

Denial of compensation resulting when the obligee loses her right to the agreed exchange after relying substantially on the expectation of that exchange

311
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation?

A

Where a party unambiguously states to the other party, before performance, that they will not perform or are unable to perform. This excuses the other party from performance and gives them. aright to sue for recovery.

312
Q

Anticipatory repudiation only occurs when ___________.

A

A party unequivocally manifests:
1. An intention not to perform
2. An inability to perform

313
Q

When does anticipatory repudiation arise through conduct?

A

Where there is a contract for services in exchange for a thing and before services are completed, the thing is sold or transferred to someone else

314
Q

A non-repudiating party may treat the anticipatory repudiation as an offer to __________.

A

Rescind the contract

315
Q

How soon after anticipatory repudiation may the non-repudiating party sue?

A

Immediately - unless the non-repudiating party has already completed performance, in which they must wait until the contract becomes due

316
Q

What is the adequate assurance doctrine?

A

Expressions of doubt by one party give the other party the right to demand adequate assurance of due performance

317
Q

In a contract for the sale of goods, a party to the contract with reasonable grounds for insecurity is entitled to:

A
  1. Request assurances AND
  2. Suspend performance pending reciept of assurance
318
Q

Failure to provide an adequate assurance within __________ can be treated as repudiation, which may give rise to a right to terminate the contract.

A

A reasonable time - not to exceed 30 days

319
Q

The adequate assurance doctrine requires that a party respond to a demand for adequate assurances only if the demand is ______ and _______.

A

Reasonable

Justified

320
Q

When is demand for adequate assurances reasonable and justified?

A

The party making the demand must have reasonable grounds for insecurity with respect to other’s performance

321
Q

When does a breach of contract occur?

A

When a party to the contract does not perform after performance comes due

322
Q

If performance has not come due, there cannot be ______.

A

A breach

323
Q

What is the Perfect Tender Rule?

A

A seller performs her obligation under. a contract for the sale of goods upon delivering perfect tender?

324
Q

What are a buyer’s options if tender is less than perfect?

A
  1. Reject all goods and sue for damages
  2. Accept all goods and sue for damages
  3. Accept some, reject nonconforming, and sue for damages
325
Q

When does a seller of less-than-perfect tender have the option to cure?

A
  1. Time for performance has not expired OR
  2. Reasonable grounds to believe that less-than-perfect tender is acceptable
326
Q

What is an installment sales contract?

A

A contract that requires or authorizes multiple shipments in installments with multiple payments

327
Q

What is the standard for determining whether a buyer can reject a less than perfect installment or cancel an installment sales contract?

A

Substantial impairment contract

328
Q

A buyer can reject a less than perfect installment only if _______________-.

A

Nonconformity:
1. Substantially impairs the value of that installment
2. Cannot be cured

329
Q

After a less-than-perfect installment, a buyer can cancel the entire contract only when __________

A

The nonconformity substantially impairs the value of the whole contract

330
Q

In an installment contract, a buyer’s previous acceptance of a nonconforming tender does not constitute a waiver of her right to __________.

A

Reject a later nonconforming tender

331
Q

If a buyer first accepts less than perfect tender, she cannot later _______

A

Reject those goods

332
Q

A buyer accepts when she indicates to the seller after __________ that the goods conform to contract requirements or that she will keep the goods despite the fact that they are nonconforming

A

Reasonable opportunity to inspect

333
Q

In order to reject a delivery, a buyer must:

A
  1. Reject OR
  2. Appropriately notify the seller of rejection
    Within. reasonable time after tender/delivery
334
Q

Generally, acceptance of tender or delivery is implied if _______ goes by without complaint.

A

More than a month

335
Q

A buyer accepts if she does any act inconsistent with __________.

A

The seller’s ownership of the goods

336
Q

A buyer can revoke after acceptance of goods if:

A
  1. Nonconformity substantially impairs value of the goods
  2. Excusable ignorance or reasonable reliance on seller’s assurances of conformity AND
  3. Revocation within reasonable time after discovery of noncomfority
337
Q

If an agreement would be a contract, it’s not invalid just because it leaves particulars of performance ___________.

A

To be specified by one of the parties

338
Q

Any specification on particulars of performance, any specification must be made:

A
  1. In good faith
  2. Within the limits set by commercial reasonableness
339
Q

By default, specifications relating to the assortment of goods are ____________.

A

At the buyer’s option

340
Q

By default, specifications relating to the shipment of goods are ________.

A

At the seller’s option

341
Q

At common law, a material breach is a refusal under the contract with goes to ___________.

A

The heart of the promised performance

342
Q

Material breach is a question of _____.

A

Fact

343
Q

Where all or part of the performances to be exchanged under an exchange of promises can. be rendered simultaneously , they are _________

A

To that extent due simultaneously, unless the language or circumstances indicate otherwise

344
Q

Where one party’s performance requires a period of time, that party must ____________________ before the other party is required to perform.

A

Complete its performance

345
Q

If there is a multiple lump sum payment, how much of the payment will constitute material breach?

A

Providing less than half

346
Q

When is a contract divisible?

A

When the same act is performed a certain number of times and the performer is paid on aper-performance basis

347
Q

When is there material breach of a divisible contract?

A

Based on each individual performance; so is recovery

348
Q

What are expectation damages?

A

The damages sufficient to put P in the position P would have been in had D not breached the contract

349
Q

What kind of damages are awarded by default?

A

Expectation damages

350
Q

All the rules for monetary damages for breach of contract are premised on protection of ________________.

A

P’s expectation interest

351
Q

What is the general formula for determining expected damages?

A

Loss in value + Other loss - cost avoided - loss avoided

352
Q

What is the loss in value in terms of expected damages?

A

The difference between the performance the non-breaching party should have received under the contract and what was actually received

353
Q

What is “other loss” for the purposes of determining expectation damages?

A

Any consequential and incidental damages

354
Q

What is “cost avoided” when determining expectation damages?

A

The additional costs the non-breaching party can avoid by rightfully discontinuing performance under the contract as a result of the other party’s breach

355
Q

What is “loss avoided” when determining expectation damages?

A

The beneficial effets of the breach due to the nonbreaching party’s ability to salvage or reallocate resources that otherwise would have been devoted to performing under the contract

356
Q

What are incidental damages?

A

Reasonable costs of finding a replacement after a breach of contract

357
Q

When are incidental damages recoverable?

A

Always, as long as the costs are reasonable

358
Q

What are consequential damages?

A

Damages from breach due to the special needs or position of the buyer

359
Q

Consequenetial damages are also known as _______ damages.

A

Special

360
Q

Consequential damages are only recoverable if _________________________.

A

They were reasonably foreseeable by the breaching party at the time the contract was form

361
Q

When are consequential damages foreseeable?

A

D had reason to know of P’s special circumstances at the time of the contract

362
Q

What are reliance damages?

A

Put P in the same economic position she would have been in had the contract never been formed

363
Q

What are restitution damages?

A

Restores to a party any benefit conferred to the other party

364
Q

Where contract theory fails to produce a just result, _______ is available as an equitable doctrine to prevent the unjust enrichment of one party.

A

Quasi-contract

365
Q

What is the measure of damages under a quasi-contract?

A

Restitution (the prevention of unjust enrichment)

366
Q

Are there punitive damages for breach of contract?

A

No.

367
Q

A non-breaching party must take reasonable steps to _________ damages.

A

Mitigate

368
Q

What happens if someone fails to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages?

A

Defeats any claim for consequential damages

369
Q

Mitigation expenses can be recovered even if ________.

A

Mitigation efforts were not succesful

370
Q

Damages must be established with _______ to be recoverable.

A

Reasonable certainty

371
Q

When expectation damages are too uncertain, the court turns to ________.

A

Reliance and restitution damages

372
Q

Damages must have been ________ by the breach of contract to be recoverable

A

Caused

373
Q

Contract damages will only be awarded if they were foreseeable at the time that ___________.

A

Parties entered into the contract

374
Q

Liquidated damages are those that are ___________.

A

Specified in the contract

375
Q

Liquidated damages clauses are valid if:

A
  1. Damages are difficult to ascertain at the time of contract formation
  2. Reasonable forecast of damages AND
  3. Not punitive
376
Q

A liquidated damages clause is presumptively invalid when the damages figure is _____________.

A

A single set number (since that’s not a reasonable forecast)

377
Q

A liquidated damages clause is presumptively valid when the damages figure is ___________.

A

A sliding scale that adjusts based on some variable

378
Q

When will specific performance be granted?

A
  1. No defenses
  2. Valid contract
  3. Available for both parties
  4. Legal remedy is inadequate
  5. P has fully performed all obligations
  6. Enforcement is feasible
379
Q

The equitable remedy of ______________ is generally available for real estate contracts.

A

Equitable remedy

380
Q

Specific performance is not available for real estate contracts when ____________.

A

There is a bona fide purchaser

381
Q

Can there be specific performance for service contracts?

A

No, because that would be involuntary servitude

382
Q

While the court cannot force D to perform under a services contract, the court does have the discretion to _________.

A

prohibit D from performing similar services for other parties

383
Q

Under the UCC, specific performance is available for:

A
  1. Unique goods
  2. Other appropriate circumstances
384
Q

___________ is generally not sufficient to justify specific performance under the UCC

A

Rise in market price

385
Q

What are unique goods under the UCC?

A

Antiques, works of art, custom made items, etc.

386
Q

What is the unclean hands defense?

A

Equity will deny relief to a party who has engaged in wrongful conduct with respect to the case at hand

387
Q

What is rescission?

A

Contract is voided and rescinded

388
Q

Grounds for rescission include:

A
  1. Mistake
  2. Misrepresentation
  3. Undue influence
  4. Lack of capacity
  5. Lack of consideration
  6. Coercion
  7. Illegality
389
Q

What is reformation?

A

Court alters the parties’ written agreement to conform with the parties’ original intent and understanding

390
Q

What are grounds for reformation?

A
  1. Mistake
  2. Misrepresentation
391
Q

What is reclamation?

A

Under the UCC, a seller may recover goods from a buyer if:
1. Buyer insolvent when goods received
2. Seller demands return within 10 days of buyer’s receipt
3. Buyet still has goods at the time of the demand

392
Q

In order for the court to award reclamation, the buyer must still have the goods at time of the demand unless ____________.

A

The goods are sold to a third party before the original seller’s reclamation demand

393
Q

Third-party beneficiaries to a contract have a legal right to _________.

A

Enforce the contract

394
Q

Generally, parties who make a contract for. an intended beneficiary retain the right to _____________.

A

Modify the duty with a subsequent contract

395
Q

The power to modify a contract benefiting third parties is terminated when ____________.

A

The intended beneficiary materially changes her position in reliance on the promise

396
Q

Who is a promisor?

A

A party who promises to perform for the benefit of the 3rd party beneficiary

397
Q

Who is a promisee?

A

A party to whom performance for the benefit of the third party beneficiary is owed

398
Q

Who is a third party beneficiary?

A

The party intended to benefit from the contract

399
Q

For a third party beneficiary to have contract rights, the third party beneficiary must have _______ and ________ the contract.

A

Known of

Relied upon

400
Q

________ beneficiaries have contract rights; ________ beneficairies do not.

A

Intended

Incidental

401
Q

What are the two types of intended beneficiaries?

A
  1. Creditor beneficiary
  2. Donee beneficiary
402
Q

What is a donee beneficiary?

A

The promisee made the contract in order to confer a gift on the third party

403
Q

What is a creditor beneficiary?

A

The promisee made the contract in order to discharge an obligation to a third party

404
Q

There cannot be a creditor beneficiary unless that third party was already ________.

A

A creditor of the promisee

405
Q

The original parties will lose their power to discharge or modify the contract if the beneficiary:

A
  1. Detrimentally relies on the promise
  2. Brings suit on the promise
  3. Manifests assent to the promise at the request of either party
406
Q

Contracts cannot be cancelled or modified without the consent of the third party if ______________.

A

The third party had knowledge of and relied upon the contract

407
Q

When can a third-party beneficiary sue a promisor for breach of contract?

A

Only if they were the intended beneficiary

408
Q

The beneficiary does not waive her right to subsequently sue the promise by _________.

A

Suing the promisor

409
Q

When sued by a third party beneficiary, the promisor may assert any defense against the beneficiary that ____________.

A

The promisor could assert against the promisee

410
Q

What kind of third-party beneficiary can sue a promisee?

A

Only a third-party creditor beneficiary

411
Q

In a contract with a third-party beneficiary _______ and ______ cannot both recover

A

The promisee

The third-party beneficiary

412
Q

In a contract with a third-party beneficiary, who may the promise sue?

A

The promisor

413
Q

An assignment is to be distinguished from a promise to _____________

A

Do something in the future

414
Q

What is an assignment?

A

The present transfer of the rights or benefits under a pre-existing contract to a third party

415
Q

What are the two steps required for assignment?

A
  1. Valid contract between two parties
  2. One party to contract transfers rights or benefits under contract to third party
416
Q

Who is an assignor?

A

Party who makes the assignment

417
Q

Who is an assignee?

A

Party who was not party to the original contract, but is the recipient of the assignment.

418
Q

An assignee succeeds to a contract as the contract stands at the time of ________

A

The assignment

419
Q

Who is an obligor?

A

The other party to the original contract who owed performance to the assignor

420
Q

Writing is not required for assignment except for:

A
  1. Wage assignments
  2. Interest in land
  3. > $5,000
  4. Security interests under Article 9 of UCC
421
Q

Since an assignment is a present transfer, _______ is not required for a valid assignment

A

consideration

422
Q

Since there is no consideration requirement, ________ assignments are valid and enforceable.

A

Gratuitous

423
Q

Because there is no consideration in a gratuitous assignment, it is ______ revocable.

A

Freely

424
Q

A gratuitous assignment is automatically revoked:

A
  1. If the assignor dies
  2. The assignor makes a subsequent assignment OR
  3. If the assignor gives notice to the assignee or the obligor that the assignment has been revoked
425
Q

Gratuitous assignments may become irrevocable if:

A
  1. The assignee relies to her detriment on the assignment
  2. The obligor pays or performs for the assignee
  3. The assignor puts the assignment in writing
  4. The assignor delivers a symbolic document to the assignee
426
Q

For an assignment to be valid, there must be present _____________.

A

Assignment language

427
Q

Language of prohibition does not invalidate assignment unless __________.

A

The assignee knew of the prohibition

428
Q

_________ that invalidates any assignment will render any assignment ineffective

A

Language

429
Q

If assigned, assignee cannot enforce __________, and assignor will be liable for _______.

A

Assignment against obligor

Breach of contract

430
Q

Even if there is no restriction on assignment in the contract, common law will invalidate assignments that __________.

A

Substantially change the duty of the obligor

431
Q

The assignment of _________ is always assignable because it does not substantially change the duty of the obligor.

A

The right to payment

432
Q

Assignment is invalid where the contract is for ________ services.

A

Unique personal services

433
Q

Requirement and output contracts are not assignable if ___________.

A

Assignment alters the quantity required in an unreasonably disproportionate manner

434
Q

Upon an assignment, the assignor’s rights are ________ and ___________,

A

Extinguished

Transferred to the assignee

435
Q

What defenses may an obligor assert against an assignee?

A

Any defense that the obligor could have asserted against the assignor

436
Q

Payment by the obligor to the assignor is legally effective until __________.

A

The obligor is notified of the assignment

437
Q

An assignor cannot recover from the obligor after __________.

A

Assignment for consideration

438
Q

If an assignment was gratuitous, then ____

A

The assignee will not be able to recover from the assignor

439
Q

If the assignment was made for value, the assignor is held to have made a series of ________.

A

Implied warranties to the assignee

440
Q

There is an implied warranty of assignment that the right assigned actually ______.

A

Exists

441
Q

There is an implied warranty of assignment that the right assigned is not subject to _______.

A

Any defenses by the obligor

442
Q

There is an implied warranty that any documents delivered to the assignee by the assignor are ______.

A

Genuine

443
Q

There is an implied warranty of assignment that the assignor will not take any action that will ___________.

A

Impair the value of the assignment

444
Q

If the assignor assigns to multiple assignees, which assignment prevails?

A

The last assignment

445
Q

If the assignor assigns to multiple assignees for consideration, which assignee prevails?

A

The first assignee who pays any consideration, unless the later assignee didn’t know of earlier assignment and does one of the following:
1. Obtains payment/judgment first
2. Obtains new contract from the obligor by novation
3. Possesses some indicia of ownership

446
Q

What is delegation?

A

One party to a contract transfers the duty to perform under the contract to a third party

447
Q

Delegations are valid unless:

A
  1. Contract prohibits delegations or assignments
  2. Contract calls for special skills or reputation of delegator
448
Q

Who is a delegator?

A

The party who transfers the obligation to perform

449
Q

Who is a delegatee?

A

The third party who agrees to perform under the contract in place of the delegator

450
Q

Who is the obligee?

A

The other party to the contract

451
Q

If there is non-performance by the delegatee, the delegating party is always liable unless:

A
  1. Consent by obligee
  2. Performance by delegatee
452
Q

If there is delegation without consideration, then ___________.

A

Obligee cannot sue the delegatee

453
Q

If there is delegation for consideration, then _________.

A

The obligee can sue the delegatee

Bar Exam (15 decks)

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