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Gas Turbine Engines > Fact Sheet 2 > Flashcards

Fact Sheet 2 Flashcards

1
Q

internal operating principle of GTE’s is newtons _____ law of motion

A

internal operating principle of GTE’s is newtons THIRD law of motion

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2
Q

principle of air passing through engine operates on newtons _____ law of motion

A

principle of air passing through engine operates on newtons FIRST law of motion

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3
Q

brayton cycle plots ________ against _______

A

brayton cycle plots PRESSURE against VOLUME

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4
Q

GTE’s operate on the _______ cycle

A

GTE’s operate on the BRAYTON cycle

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5
Q

gas flow in exhaust will accelerate until nozzle becomes _______

A

gas flow in exhaust will accelerate until nozzle becomes CHOKED

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6
Q

the speed of gas in a choked propelling nozzle is ______

A

the speed of gas in a choked propelling nozzle is SONIC

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7
Q

a choked nozzle produces thrust which is a proportion of ______ thrust

A

a choked nozzle produces thrust which is a proportion of GROSS thrust

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8
Q

power is the rate of ____ in regards to time

A

power is the rate of WORK in regards to time

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9
Q

in a reverse flow engine, air is reversed before the turbine to reduce engine ____

A

in a reverse flow engine, air is reversed before the turbine to reduce engine SIZE

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10
Q

centrifugal compressor diffuser converts _______ energy into pressure

A

centrifugal compressor diffuser converts KINETIC energy into pressure

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11
Q

compressor stall can be recognised by _________ along with rapid rise in ___

A

compressor stall can be recognised by VIBRATION along with rapid rise in EGT

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12
Q

a diffuser is _________

A

a diffuser is DIVERGENT

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13
Q

the largest change in pressure occurs in the ___________ of a turbo jet

A

the largest change in pressure occurs in the COMPRESSOR of a turbo jet

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14
Q

engine compressor stall may be induced during rapid movement of aircraft with engines mounted close to the _________

A

engine compressor stall may be induced during rapid movement of aircraft with engines mounted close to the FUSELAGE

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15
Q

banging in the intake and a rapid rise in EGT can identify a compressor _____

A

banging in the intake and a rapid rise in EGT can identify a compressor SURGE

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16
Q

combustion chamber inlet pressure _____ with increases RPM

A

combustion chamber inlet pressure RISES with increases RPM

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17
Q

a combustion chamber is usually cooled by HP core air on the _______ and outside surfaces

A

a combustion chamber is usually cooled by HP core air on the INSIDE and outside surfaces

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18
Q

approximately only __% of air in the combustion chamber is used for combustion

A

approximately only 40% of air in the combustion chamber is used for combustion

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19
Q

airflow in the combustion chamber split between 40% ___________ and 60% _______

A

airflow in the combustion chamber split between 40% COMBUSTION and 60% COOLING

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20
Q

HP core air is used to ____ the combustion chamber

A

HP core air is used to COOL the combustion chamber

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21
Q

impulse/reaction turbines are designed with impulse section at ____ and _______ edges

A

impulse/reaction turbines are designed with impulse section at ROOT and LEADING edges

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22
Q

NGV’s are cooled by HP compressor ________ air at comp delivery temperature

A

NGV’s are cooled by HP compressor DELIVERY air at comp delivery temperature

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23
Q

the exhaust cone forms a _________ duct which decreases gas velocity

A

the exhaust cone forms a DIVERGENT duct which decreases gas velocity

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24
Q

the duct made by the exhaust cone and outer skin _________ gas pressure and _________ gas velocity

A

the duct made by the exhaust cone and outer skin INCREASES gas pressure and DECREASES gas velocity

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25
Q

jet noise is influenced most by the ___________ of the exit gases

A

jet noise is influenced most by the TEMPERATURE of the exit gases

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26
Q

the noise emitted by a propelling nozzle is influenced by the __________ of exit gases with the nozzle ______

A

the noise emitted by a propelling nozzle is influenced by the TEMPERATURE of exit gases with the nozzle CHOKED

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27
Q

thrust ________ may be selected at landing speeds, WOW and idle engine power settings

A

thrust REVERSE may be selected at landing speeds, WOW and idle engine power settings

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28
Q

hot stream thrust reverser of the clamshell door type uses HP ___ to deploy and stow the doors

A

hot stream thrust reverser of the clamshell door type uses HP AIR to deploy and stow the doors

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29
Q

on high bypass engines with common exhaust, only ____ stream is reversed

A

on high bypass engines with common exhaust, only COLD stream is reversed

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30
Q

on high bypass engines thrust reverse used ____ stream only

A

on high bypass engines thrust reverse used COLD stream only

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31
Q

thrust reverse system empty safety devices to make an inadvertent _________ unlikely

A

thrust reverse system empty safety devices to make an inadvertent _________ unlikely

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32
Q

thrust reverse on a turbo prop is achieved by moving propeller to a ________ angle

A

thrust reverse on a turbo prop is achieved by moving propeller to a NEGATIVE angle

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33
Q

a high bypass nose cowl will have ____-icing equipment, _______ lining and ______ intake turbulence

A

a high bypass nose cowl will have ANTI-icing equipment, ACOUSTIC lining and REDUCE intake turbulence

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34
Q

a pitot-type intake is ____ affected by changes in aircraft attitude

A

a pitot-type intake is LESS affected by changes in aircraft attitude

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35
Q

a variable ______ intake is required to accommodate changing volumes of air at changing speed

A

a variable THROAT intake is required to accommodate changing volumes of air at changing speed

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36
Q

freezing temperature of jet A1 is -__ celsius

A

freezing temperature of jet A1 is -47 celsius

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37
Q

the additive FSII is added to fuel as an ___ inhibitor

A

the additive FSII is added to fuel as an ICE inhibitor

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38
Q

FSII is used to prevent _____

A

FSII is used to prevent ICING

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39
Q

specific fuel consumption is an indication of overall engine _________

A

specific fuel consumption is an indication of overall engine EFFICIENCY

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40
Q

SG of jet A1 is approximately 0.__

A

SG of jet A1 is approximately 0.81

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41
Q

the SG of a fuel is _______ with temperature

A

the SG of a fuel is VARIABLE with temperature

42
Q

spur gear scavenge pumps have greater _______ than pressure pumps due to longer teeth

A

spur gear scavenge pumps have greater CAPACITY than pressure pumps due to longer teeth

43
Q

last chance filters are fitted between pressure ______ and oil ____

A

last chance filters are fitted between pressure FILTERS and oil JETS

44
Q

the engine oil reservoir is vented through the gearbox and _________ breather

A

the engine oil reservoir is vented through the gearbox and CENTRIFUGAL breather

45
Q

MCD’s are fitted in the _______ side of oil system

A

MCD’s are fitted in the SCAVENGE side of oil system

46
Q

capacity of scavenge pump is ______ than pressure pump

A

capacity of scavenge pump is HIGHER than pressure pump

47
Q

in a gas coupled turbo prop, the propeller is driven from the ______ turbine

A

in a gas coupled turbo prop, the propeller is driven from the POWER turbine

48
Q

free turbine of turbo-prop drives _________

A

free turbine of turbo-prop drives PROPELLER

49
Q

overspeed devices on a turbo prop prevent propeller ________

A

overspeed devices on a turbo prop prevent propeller FAILURE

50
Q

the throttle via the FCU controls the ______ of the gas generator in a turbo shaft engine

A

the throttle via the FCU controls the SPEED of the gas generator in a turbo shaft engine

51
Q

the energy left in the exhaust of a turbo prop engine is ____ than a turbo jet but is still used to produce thrust

A

the energy left in the exhaust of a turbo prop engine is LESS than a turbo jet but is still used to produce thrust

52
Q

exhaust of a turbo prop is directed to produce extra ______

A

exhaust of a turbo prop is directed to produce extra THRUST

53
Q

free turbine engine turbo props are normally started with the propeller in the _______ position

A

free turbine engine turbo props are normally started with the propeller in the FEATHER position

54
Q

in a turbo shaft engine, only the ___ stream connects the free turbine to the rest of the engine

A

in a turbo shaft engine, only the gas stream connects the free turbine to the rest of the engine

55
Q

________ power if turbo shaft = SHP + net jet thrust

A

EQUIVALENT power if turbo shaft = SHP + net jet thrust

56
Q

in a free power turbine, the power turbine rotates _______ than the gas generator

A

in a free power turbine, the power turbine rotates SLOWER than the gas generator

57
Q

free turbine overspeed system on turbo shaft engine will _______ auto shut down of a surviving engine

A

free turbine overspeed system on turbo shaft engine will INHIBIT auto shut down of a surviving engine

58
Q

_______ ratio of fan engine is the ratio between fan and core engine

A

BYPASS ratio of fan engine is the ratio between fan and core engine

59
Q

operation of an engine at fixed take off RPM would mean _____ thrust when humidity is high

A

operation of an engine at fixed take off RPM would mean LOWER thrust when humidity is high

60
Q

on a hot day, airflow scheduling on an axial flow compressor will automatically adjust to a ______ RPM range

A

on a hot day, airflow scheduling on an axial flow compressor will automatically adjust to a HIGHER RPM range

61
Q

in take-off, EPR is maintained to altitude, N1 would be _____ but thrust would be ____

A

in take-off, EPR is maintained to altitude, N1 would be HIGHER but thrust would be LESS

62
Q

cooling of accessory equipment in the air is by ducted _________ air

A

cooling of accessory equipment in the air is by ducted ATMOSPHERIC air

63
Q

engine LP cooling air outlet _________ gives indication of mechanical failure within an engine

A

engine LP cooling air outlet TEMPERATURE gives indication of mechanical failure within an engine

64
Q

engine anti-icing is selected ________ from the cockpit and _______ engine thrust

A

engine anti-icing is selected MANUALLY from the cockpit and REDUCES engine thrust

65
Q

anti-icing on take-off will ________ available thrust

A

anti-icing on take-off will REDUCE available thrust

66
Q

accessory units such as generators are cooled on the ground by _______ atmospheric air

A

accessory units such as generators are cooled on the ground by INDUCED atmospheric air

67
Q

engine air off takes are controlled by _________ operated ______ gate valves

A

engine air off takes are controlled by ELECTRICALLY operated CARBON gate valves

68
Q

air gap igniters use a _______ voltage than surface discharge plugs

A

air gap igniters use a HIGHER voltage than surface discharge plugs

69
Q

start circuit cancelled after reached self-_________ speed

A

start circuit cancelled after reached self-SUSTAINING speed

70
Q

on a normal start, starter will shut down by closing ___ _____ valve, selected closed by switch within starter

A

on a normal start, starter will shut down by closing AIR START valve, selected closed by switch within starter

71
Q

the term _____ start means the engine lights up but fails to accelerate

A

the term HUNG start means the engine lights up but fails to accelerate

72
Q

on a hung start the engine ignites but fails to __________

A

on a hung start the engine ignites but fails to ACCELERATE

73
Q

after a normal engine start, the air starter is disengaged from the engine by _____ clutch

A

after a normal engine start, the air starter is disengaged from the engine by SPRAG clutch

74
Q

water injection injects water directly into the ________ chamber in the direction of flow

A

water injection injects water directly into the COMBUSTION chamber in the direction of flow

75
Q

water methanol mixture injected into the engine acts as a ________ and fuel

A

water methanol mixture injected into the engine acts as a COOLANT and fuel

76
Q

when reheat is selected mass flow through the engine stays the _____

A

when reheat is selected mass flow through the engine stays the SAME

77
Q

an APU on the ground would supply ___ for engine starting

A

an APU on the ground would supply AIR for engine starting

78
Q

a single shafted APU running at altitude will produce ________ power only

A

a single shafted APU running at altitude will produce ELECTRICAL power only

79
Q

during speed on condition, the APU FCU will have only ___ spill valve open

A

during speed on condition, the APU FCU will have only ONE spill valve open

80
Q

APU surge bleed valve, on the ground, will be de-energised ______ regardless of APU bleed valve position

A

APU surge bleed valve, on the ground, will be de-energised CLOSED regardless of APU bleed valve position

81
Q

an APU is automatically shut down if the oil pressure in the supply line falls below __ psi

A

an APU is automatically shut down if the oil pressure in the supply line falls below 45 psi

82
Q

in normal APU operations, the immersion thermocouple will cause the APU bleed valve to de-energise, closed, if an over-__________ occurs

A

in normal APU operations, the immersion thermocouple will cause the APU bleed valve to de-energise, closed, if an over-TEMPERATURE occurs

83
Q

engine mountings allow axial and radial expansion due to __________

A

engine mountings allow axial and radial expansion due to TEMPERATURE

84
Q

rolling elements in main shaft bearings are constructed from _____ alloys

A

rolling elements in main shaft bearings are constructed from STEEL alloys

85
Q

bore testing of flexible hoses requires that the ball is __% of diameter

A

bore testing of flexible hoses requires that the ball is 90% of diameter

86
Q

after manufacture, fuel lines are pressure tested to 1._ times working pressure

A

after manufacture, fuel lines are pressure tested to 1.5 times working pressure

87
Q

_______ couplings used in air and vapour lines only

A

SLIDING couplings used in air and vapour lines only

88
Q

engine _____ rates are given for stationary and running conditions

A

engine DRAIN rates are given for stationary and running conditions

89
Q

fire extinguishers are operated ________ from the flight deck

A

fire extinguishers are operated MANUALLY from the flight deck

90
Q

continuous loop fire wire produces an _____ return circuit when fire occurs

A

continuous loop fire wire produces an EARTH return circuit when fire occurs

91
Q

firewall bulkheads are fitted between the hot and cold _____

A

firewall bulkheads are fitted between the hot and cold ZONES

92
Q

alarm contacts in a pneumatic fire detector are ________ operated and normally ____

A

alarm contacts in a pneumatic fire detector are DIAPHRAGM operated and normally OPEN

93
Q

engine mounting allow for axial and radial _________

A

engine mounting allow for axial and radial EXPANSION

94
Q

engine fire extinguishers will discharge into more than one engine only if selected. fire extinguishers usually use halon ____

A

engine fire extinguishers will discharge into more than one engine only if selected. fire extinguishers usually use halon 1211

95
Q

a bursting disc that is ________ sensitive protects a fire extinguisher

A

a bursting disc that is PRESSURE sensitive protects a fire extinguisher

96
Q

pneumatic type detectors will give ____ fire and overheat warnings

A

pneumatic type detectors will give BOTH fire and overheat warnings

97
Q

SOAP analysis produce a _____ showing the results of many samples

A

SOAP analysis produce a GRAPH showing the results of many samples

98
Q

desalination washing of components done separately, _________ washed first

A

desalination washing of components done separately, COMPRESSOR washed first

99
Q

shingling of fan blades with no other damage; blades can be un-_______ and engine continue in service back to base after company checks

A

shingling of fan blades with no other damage; blades can be un-SHINGLED and engine continue in service back to base after company checks

100
Q

if humidity indicator found unsafe after short period, MVP bag needs ______, new _________ fitted and new indicator

A

if humidity indicator found unsafe after short period, MVP bag needs REPAIR, new DESICCANT fitted and new indicator

Gas Turbine Engines (36 decks)

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