extra bits pack Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

express 6.3621 to two decimal figures

A

6.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

express 6.3621 to two significant figures

A

6.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

represent 71897.04 in standard form

A

7.189704 times 10 to the power of 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you calculate frequency density for a histogram

A

divide frequency by the class width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how do you obtain the frequency from a histogram

A

Find the area of the box will give you te frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the three criteria that have to be met to use a parametric inferential statistic test

A

-interval level data
-normal distribution of results
-all groups in the research have a similair variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a type 1 error

A

occurs when in research when we reject the null hypothesis and erroneously state that the study found significant differences when there indeed was no difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a type 2 error

A

This is where researchers may think that the have not found a significant result when they have False negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which error type 1 or type 2 is most common

A

The error that is most common is a type 1 error because research that is reporting an effect has been much more likely to be published than research that acceots the null hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does having normal distribution link to parametric tests

A

having normally distributed data is one of the three conditions that needs to be met for a reader to use a parametric inferential test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does this sign mean =

A

equal to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does this sign mean <

A

less than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does this sign mean «

A

much less than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does this sign mean >

A

more than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does this sign mean&raquo_space;

A

much more than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does this sign mean ~

A

approximately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the definition of internal reliability

A

the consistency pf a measuring device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the defininiton of external reliability

A

the consistency of a studies findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the three methods of checking the reliability of a test or study

A

split half method
test retest method
inter rater reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the definnition of split half method

A

-measures the extent to which all parts of the test contribute equally to what is being measured
-compare one half of the questions to scores from the other half of the questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the definition of testretest method

A

-measures stability of atest over time
-giving the participants the same test at a different point in time and check whether their scores are consistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the definition of inter rater reliability

A

the degree to which different raters five consistent estimates of the same behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are all the types of internal validity

A

face
concurrent
construct
criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the definition of face validity

A

Whether a test appears to be measuring what it intends to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the definition of concurrent validity

A

Where a test or study measure gives the same result as another test or study studying the same concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the definition of criterion validity

A

refers to how much one test or measure predicts future performance on another test or measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the definition of construct validity

A

refers to whethe a test or study actually measures the concept it sets out to measure and extraneou svariables are controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the types of external validity

A

population
ecological

29
Q

what is the definition of population validity

A

refers to the degree to which the sample used in the research is representative of a diverse group of people

30
Q

what is the definition of ecological validity

A

refers to how accurately a piece of reserach reflects real life si uatuoins

31
Q

what is the difference between representiveness and generelisebility

A

representativeness
-refers to the sample in the research. If the sample is diverse and includes people from different ages, genders and occupations etc
genereliseable
-Refers to the results of the research if the sample used is biased, it cannot be generelised

32
Q

what is the difference between demand charecteristics and social desireability

A

demand charecteristics
-occur when participants work out what the aim of the research is beccause it is obvious or as a rsult of repeated measures design. They may then change their behaviour and act in a way that they think the researchers want them to act
social desireability
-refers to when participants change their behaviour to present an image of being a good member of society or to fit in th social norm

33
Q

what is the difference between researchier bias and researcher effects

A

researcher bias
-Refers to the way which the researcher collects and interprets the results of the research. They may interpret the behaviour based on their prior expectations and therefore this would lower the validity of the findings.
researcher effects
-refers to the way that participants behaviour is influences by the presence of the researcher

34
Q

what are the four ethical guidelines

A

respect
competence
responsibility
integrity

35
Q

what comes under the ethical guideline respect

A

-informed consent
right to withdraw
confidentiality

36
Q

what comes under the ethical guideline competence

A

researchers need to operate within their capabilities and not give advice beyond that which they are qualified to give

37
Q

what comes under the ethical guideline responsibility

A

-protection from harm
-debrief

38
Q

what comes under the ethical guideline integrity

A

-deception

39
Q

what are the 7 sections of a practical report

A

Abstract
introduction
method
results
discussion
references
appendices

40
Q

What is the abstract of a report

A

summarises research and report

41
Q

what is the introduction of a report

A

discussess previous research/ reports

42
Q

what is the method of the report

A

procedure

43
Q

what is the results of the report

A

contains raw data

44
Q

what is the discussion of a report

A

look at what was found

45
Q

what are the references of a report

A

any work from authors used

46
Q

what is the appendices from a report

A

any relevant materials used from the study

47
Q

what are the 7 things you should include while you are citing academic references

A

author or authors surname followed by initials of the first name
year of publication (in brckets)
article title (in brackets)
journal titile (in italics)
volume of journal
issue number of journal (in brackets)
page range of article

48
Q

what is meant by peer review

A

the process of evaluating research before it is published to ensure its quality and validity. This process is carried out by experts in the field of psychology

49
Q

what are the benefits of peer review

A

Can be used to check that research will
be useful before it is funded.
● Ensures only the most relevant and
robust research is published.
● It ensures that only valid results are
published so the journals retain their
reputation.

50
Q

what are the negatives of peer review

A

Can take a long time.
● Some reviewers may not pass research
that contradicts their own.
● May not be possible to detect research
that has used false data.

51
Q

what is the definition of the study of cause and effect

A

when a researcher can show that one variable is causing a change in another variable

52
Q

what is the definition of falsifiability

A

the ability to prove a claim wrong

53
Q

what is the definition of replicability

A

the ability to repeat and therefore test to see if a piece of research is reliable

54
Q

what is the definition of induction

A

empirical research is carried out and THEN a theory is developed to make a sense of things

54
Q

what is the definition of objective

A

when a claim is a matter of fact and not opinion

55
Q

what is the definition of deduction

A

A theory is developed and THEN empirical research is carried out to see if the theory is correct

56
Q

what is the definition of hypothesis testing

A

based on psychological theory, a predicition is made about how participants would be expected to behave which can be tested through reserach

57
Q

what is the definition of controls

A

this is imposed on experiments to make sure that the results are due to the independant variable rather than extraneous variables

58
Q

what is the definition of standardisation

A

the test consitions are kept the same for all particpants

59
Q

what is interval level data

A

This is any data that involves the use of a universal scale e.g time in seconds

60
Q

what is ordinal level data

A

This is data that can be ranked e.g score out of 10 on memory test

61
Q

what is nominal data

A

This is the lwest level of dta usually to closed questions

62
Q

what are the strengths of nominal level data

A

Quick and easy to obtain because it is just
a headcount
Can be displayed in pie charts (which can
be easily made sense of)

63
Q

what are the weaknesses of nominal level data

A

Can only analyse the mode of data and
cannot calculate the mean or median
Cannot analyse measures of dispersion (such
as range and standard deviation)
Less precise as data is grouped into
categories (we don’t know how individual
participants scored)

64
Q

what are the positives of ordinal level data

A

Can calculate mean, median and mode as
measures of central tendency (so more
detailed)
Can also calculate measures of dispersion
Can calculate individual scores of
participants and see how they differ

65
Q

what are the negatives of ordinal level data

A

Ordinal data can be subjective (as people
may interpret rating scales differently)
Although we can work out the rank order of
participants, we don’t always know the exact
difference between individual scores
Worse than nominal because:
More time consuming and complex to analyse

66
Q

what are the positives of interval level data

A

Can calculate mean, median and mode as
measures of central tendency
Can also calculate measures of dispersion
Can calculate individual scores of
participants and see how they differ
Better than ordinal because:
Scores can be compared directly as precise
values are recorded (i.e. you can see the actual difference between scores rather
than just the rank position)
The scores are more consistent as the
same universal scale is used (e.g. a cm is
always measured in the same way)

67
Q

what are the negatives of interval level data

A

Can only be used with concepts that are
measurable through universal scales (can’t
be used with attitudes, opinions, etc.)

Worse than nominal because:
More time consuming and complex to
analyse