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Physical Diagnosis > External Eye Quiz > Flashcards

External Eye Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Structural abnormalities of the external eye

A
  • Blood shot eyes
  • Puffy eyes
  • Drooping/retracted eye lids
  • Unequal pupils
  • irregular shaped pupils
  • Growths on lids or eyeball
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2
Q

Functional abnormalities of the external eye

A
  • Red (bloodshot)
  • Itching
  • Burning/painful eyes
  • Near/far/peripheral vision difficulties
  • Blurry/double vision
  • Blind spots
  • Vitreous floaters
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3
Q

Baseline functional test of the eyes.

A

Snellen (Sloan) eye charts

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4
Q

What do the Snellen (Sloan) eye charts test for?

A

Visual acuity at a distance

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5
Q

Distance used for the Snellen (Sloan) eye charts

A

20 ft (10 ft), respectively

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6
Q

Snellen eye chart procedure.

A

Have patient stand at 20 ft (10 ft for Sloan) and cover one eye. Read the letters/numbers/symbols on each line until they can no longer read it accurately. Record the fraction on the line

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7
Q

Normal findings from the Snellen eye chart procedure

A

20/20

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8
Q

T/F Having a finding of 20/40 on a Snellen eye chart indicates superior vision

A

FALSE.

Indicates vision problem (What you can see at 20 ft most people can at 40 ft)

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9
Q

Means the eye has far sight, but poor near sight

A

Hyperopia

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10
Q

Means the eye has near sight, but poor far sight

A

Myopia

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11
Q

Condition associated with age (>40) where the lens loses its elasticity and causes diminished near sight but continued far sight.

A

Presbyopia

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12
Q

Common complaint in people >50. Patients describe cobwebs, spots, smudges, etc. in their field of vision

A

Vitreous floaters

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13
Q

T/F If a patient comes in and complains of what appears to be vitreous floaters that she has had for over 10 years, your first action should be to call 911 and she may have undiagnosed Retinoblastoma multiform aneuryosa

A

FALSE.

-Only if new vitreous floaters or flashes of light appear should they see an ophthalmologist or optometrist immediately.

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14
Q

Chart used to test near vision

A

Rosenbaum chart

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15
Q

How to test for near vision

A

Give the patient a Rosenbaum chart and ask them to read at 14 inches away with one eye closed.

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16
Q

Normal value for the Rosenbaum chart

A

20/20 (Just like Snellen/Sloan)

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17
Q

How to assess the peripheral vision of the eye.

A

Have patient cover one eye and look straight at you.

  • Wiggle fingers starting from the back of the head, outside the field of vision on the top, bottom, and both sides of the eye.
  • Repeat for other side.
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18
Q

Causes of visual field deficits of peripheral vision

A
  • Abnormalities of the anterior segment of the eye (scratching, scaring, edema of the cornea, cataracts on the lens, pus/blood in the aqueous or vitreous humor)
  • Chronic glaucoma (progressive tunnel vision)
  • Retinal detachments
  • Neural lesions of the visual pathway
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19
Q

Nerves of the extraocular muscles

A

C.N. III, IV, and VI

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20
Q

C.N. III, IV, and VI can be clinically assessed by the having the patient follow your finger through the _______________ with their eyes only

A

Cardinal planes of gaze

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21
Q

Extraocular muscle innervation memory aid

A

(SO4 RL6) / (3)

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22
Q

Tests that check symmetrical alignment of the eyes and therefor binocular fixation.

A

Corneal light reflection

Cover-Uncover test

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23
Q

T/F If there is strabismus or a refractive difference between the eyes, the brain will enhance the poorer image which leads to perfect vision

A

FALSE.

Brain will suppress the poorer image which leads to amblyopia and monocular vision

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24
Q

The upper eyelid is slow to react as the eye looks down exposing the sclera between the lid margin and iris. It suggests hyperthyroidism (early exopthalmos), 7th C.N. damage, or unilateral tumor behind the eye

A

Lid retraction

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25
Q

Congenital or acquired weakness of the levator muscle or paresis of a branch of C.N. III causing the upper eyelid to droop compared to the opposite eye lid

A

Lid ptosis

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26
Q

Inflammation of the eyelash follicles and Meibomian glands resulting in red, swollen, crusty lid margins. May be associated with allergies, seborrheic dermatitis, and psoriasis

A

Blephaitis

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27
Q

Bacterial infection of a gland in an eyelash follicle causing a well circumscribed red, swollen tender pustule

A

Sty(e) (hordeolum)

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28
Q

Hard, painless papule on the eyelid due to an obstruction of a Meibowmian (oil) gland, Just like a sebaceous cyst elsewhere on the body

A

Chalazion

29
Q

The loss of orbicularis oculi muscles muscle tone with aging causing the lower lid to turn outward interfering with proper tear drainage. May also result from Bells Palsy

A

Ectropion

30
Q

Inversion of the lower lid due to scar tissue formation on the inner surface of the lid. Eyelashes will irritate the conjunctiva and cornea then

A

Entropion

31
Q

Inflammation of the tear sac secondary to chronic obstruction or narrowing of the nasolacrimal duct. Painful swollen nodule develops between the nose and eye with accompanying tearing and discharge. Usually occurs in infants

A

Dacryocystitis

32
Q

Dacryocystitis occurs secondary to this. Known as an obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct

A

Dacryostenosis

33
Q

A self-limiting bacterial or viral infection causing red, burning, itchy eyes with a discharge that tends to stick the eyelids together overnight.

A

Contagious conjunctivitis

34
Q

T/F With contagious conjunctivitis, pain is severe, vision is reduced, and the blood vessels dilate in the area on top of the cornea

A

FALSE.
Pain is minimal, vision is unaffected, and vessels are dilated from the peripheral up to the tissue surrounding the cornea (not going to the cornea)

35
Q

Have the same signs and symptoms of contagious conjunctivitis, but to a lesser extent

A

Allergic or chemical conjunctivitis

36
Q

Yellow elastic fibers form a plaque on either side of the cornea resulting from chronic irritation (sunny, dusty, windy conditions)

A

Pinguecula

37
Q

What part of the eye can develop a pinguecula?

A

Bulbar conjunctiva

38
Q

Sunny, dusty, windy conditions may stimulate the growth of a pinguecula forming a vascular membrane that may extend over the cornea, known as a __________

A

Pterygium

39
Q

Microtraumas like coughing, sneezing, or straining may cause a conjunctiva vessel to break trapping blood between the clear mucous membrane and sclera of the eye

A

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

40
Q

What can cause a yellow sclera?

A
  • Fatty deposition in the sclera from aging
  • Jaundice
  • Antimalarial drugs
41
Q

What can cause a blue sclera?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

42
Q

What can cause a brown sclera?

A

Patches of melanin are common in people with dark complexions

43
Q

Extremely painful, vision problems, and projection of conjunctival vessels out from the limbus. Blinking aggravates this

A

Corneal abrasion

44
Q

A grayish band along part of the edge of the limbus initially. Eventually encircles the entire cornea. Not significant in people over 60. Clinically significant in people under 40.

A

Corneal arcus/ring

45
Q

What would a corneal arcus/ring indicate in someone under 40?

A

Hyperlipidemia

46
Q

A golden brown band around the limbus of the cornea associated with the genetic condition that causes the body to accumulate copper and produce neurological symptoms.

A

Kayser-Fleischer ring

47
Q

Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with what condition?

A

Wilson’s Disease

48
Q

Inflammation of the iris due to trauma, secondary to another disease or idiopathic in nature.

A

Iritis

49
Q

T/F Patients with iritis will report a red, teary, sluggish pupile with significant pain and decreased visual acuity

A

True

50
Q

How should the pupils be described as if normal?

A 
Pupil should be:
Equal
Round
Reactive to Light
Accomodation 
(PERRLA)
51
Q

Normal direct light reflex test findings

A

Pupil should constrict briskly to a light directed at it from an angle lateral to the patients line of gaze

52
Q

What would an abnormal finding of the direct light reflex test indicate?

A

Problem along neural pathway from sensory receptor (via C.N. II) to the brain center and back through C.N. III to the circular muscles of the eye

53
Q

T/F The contralateral pupil should not constrict when the direct light reflex test is being run on the opposite pupil

A

FALSE.

The contralateral pupil should constrict (Consensual(Indirect) light reflex) albeit in a less dramatic fashion

54
Q

Test to determine if the eyes are tracking on an object moved from a distant to a near point. Should constrict and converge as the object moves closer (or dilate and diverge if an object is far away)

A

Accommodation (near point) reflex

55
Q

Unilateral condition where the pupil inequality is >2 mm, but is reactive to all reflexes and has no companion symptoms

A

Physiologic (congenital) anisocoria

56
Q

Inequality of pupil size which may be congenital or associated with head trauma or diseases of the nervous system

A

Anisocoria

57
Q

A fixed, dilated pupil with poor response to the pupillary reflexes. Most cases are idiopathic

A

Adie’s tonic pupil

58
Q

Failure of the iris to close during fetal development resulting in a keyhole shaped pupil

A

Coloboma

59
Q

An irregular shaped pupil due to adhesion of part of the iris to the cornea in front of it or the lends behind it. Blocks the flow of aqueous fluid and may lead to an eye condition and potential blindness in the effected eye

A

Synechia

60
Q

What are some causes of Synechia? What eye condition (besides blindness) can Synechia rapidly lead to?

A

Causes = secondary to trauma, surgery, cataracts, glaucoma, iritis or other eye infections

Leads to developing Acute glaucoma

61
Q

A CNS defect resulting from syphilis where the pupil has a decreased or absent response to the light reflexes yet the pupil responds to accommodation

A

Argyll Robertson pupil

62
Q

Due to an interruption of of SNS to the eye miosis and mild ptosis. OFten associated with damage to the cervical sympathetic trunk medistinal tumors, bronchogenic or metastatic cancer.

A

Horner syndrome

63
Q

What do miosis and ptosis mean?

A

Miosis = constricted pupil

Ptosis = sagged upper eye lid

64
Q

Common in people with a shallow anterior chamber. Canal of Schlemm becomes blocked causing aqueous fluid to build up rapidly in the eye producing sudden severe eye pain, blurred vision, seeing colored lights around bright objects, corneal edema, conjunctival and perilimbal injection (redness) and a fixed dilated pupil.

A

Acute glaucoma

65
Q

If the pressure in the eye from acute glaucoma is not reduced in _______, it will cause ________

A

2-5 days

Blindness

66
Q

Most common form of glaucoma

A

Chronic glaucoma

67
Q

How would you differentiate chronic glaucoma from acute glaucoma

A

Chronic glaucoma has an insidous onset and have none of the abrupt, dramatic signs and symptoms of acute glaucoma.

68
Q

How would determine if a patient has a corneal abrasion or iritis and NOT conjunctivitis?

A

CA/I = reported injury to the eye, conjunctival AND perilimbal injection, affected vision, constricted pupil, and significant ocular pain. Usually unilateral

C= injection radiating from the periphery, but not touching the cornea, clear vision, burning/itching is mild. Both eyes are affected.

69
Q

How would you determine if a patient has acute glaucoma and NOT conjunctivitis?

A

AG = sudden, unexpected, escalating eye pain and/or altered vision in one eye, corneal edema, perilimbal and conjunctival injection

C= injection radiating from the periphery, but not touching the cornea, clear vision, burning/itching is mild. Both eyes are affected.

Physical Diagnosis (7 decks)

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