Exotics Flashcards
1
Q
Which drugs are licensed in the UK for exotics?
A
HVD and myxomatosis vaccines for rabbits, cyromazine for fly strike in rabbits, gentamicin and fusidic acid eye drops for rabbits, fentanyl/fluanisone for small mammal anaesthesia, isoflurane for exotic animal anaesthesia, enrofloxacin for infections in all exotic animals.
2
Q
What is the analgesia of choice in birds?
A
Kappara receptors - butorphanol. NSAIDS
3
Q
What is the analgesic of choice in small mammals?
A
Buprenorphine, tramadol at home. NSAIDS
4
Q
Analgesic of choice in reptiles?
A
Butorphanol/morphine. NSAIDS
5
Q
What is the spectrum of activity of enrofloxacin?
A
Aerobic bacteria only.
6
Q
What are the most common type of bacteria in reptile and bird infections?
A
Gram negative aerobes. up to 50% have anaerobic bacteria involved.
7
Q
Which animals should not be given fenbendazole?
A
Overdose in reptiles and birds leads to radiomimetic lesions (pancytopenia, GI haemorrhage) at normal dosages stress bars will occur on growing feathers.
8
Q
Which animals should not be given IVERMECTIN?
A
Chelonians - can enter CNS and lead to depression and death
9
Q
Which animals should you use metronidazole with caution?
A
Causes nervous signs if overdosed in birds and indigo snakes can only tolerate lower dosages.
10
Q
Which animals is fipronil contraindicated in?
A
Rabbits
11
Q
Which animals should itraconazole not be used in?
A
Grey parrots (or a lower dose) - causes an idiosyncratic reaction in grey parrots.
12
Q
What species does encephalitozoon cuniculi affect?
A
Rabbits
13
Q
What should you feed hedgehogs?
A
cat food or proprietary hedgehog diet
14
Q
What is haemoproteus?
A
The protozoa are intracellular parasites that infect the erythrocytes. They are transmitted by blood sucking insects including mosquitoes, biting midges (Culicoides), louse flies (Hippoboscidae) and tabanid flies (Tabanidae). Infection with this genus is sometimes known as pseudomalaria because of the parasites’ similarities with Plasmodium species.
15
Q
What is amidostomum spp?
A
A gizzard worm that affects birds
16
Q
How long should snakes be starved for prior to anaesthesia?
A
48 hours minimum
17
Q
How long should lizards and chelonians be starved for prior to anaesthesia?
A
24 hrs
18
Q
How long should passerines and small psittacines be starved for?
A
Just long enough to empty the crop. they have a high metabolic rate so may require assisted feeding once awake. in larger psittacines can do 4 hours.
19
Q
How long should you starve myomorphic rodents before surgery
A
dont starve. high metabolic rate & no vomiting.
20
Q
How long should you starve hystricomorphic rodents?
A
1-2 hrs to ensure a clear pharynx
21
Q
How long should you starve rabbits before anaesthesia?
A
don’t need starved - remove food immediately after premed.
22
Q
How long should you starve ferrets before anaesthesia?
A
4-6 hours.
23
Q
What water parameters should be tested from an aqaurium?
A
Temperature (at home), salinity, pH, chlorine/chloramines and nitrogenous compounds.
24
Q
What is the optimum pH for pet fish?
A
The majority can be kept within a range of 6-8. A high pH may indicate elevated levels of ammonia and a low pH chlorine from tap water.
25
What are chlorine and chloramine used for?
Used in domestic water supp.ies to disinfect against bacteria and algae. both are toxic to fish. (0.2-0.3mg/l). Its toxicity will depend on the other water parameters such as pH, temperature and dissolved oxygen. chlorine is unstable and will be removed if left in an open container for 24 hours. Chloramine is more stable and will require addition of compounds or carbon filter in order to be removed.
26
What is the primary end product of protein catabolism and what is this converted into in fish?
Ammonia - excreted by fish through gills and kidneys. Bacteria use ammonia as an energy source. ammonia is then converted to nitrite and further to nitrate by other bacteria. Ammonia is toxic to fish and should be kept
27
What factors in a tank may increase ammonia levels?
Overcrowding, immature or damaged filters, excessive food or decomposed plant material.
28
What is the most commonly used anaesthetic drug in fish?
MS222. When used it should be buffered using sodium bicarbonate.
29
What is velvet disease?
A flagellate piscinoodinium pillulare is the causative againt. it imbeds in the gills, skins and fins. it cause discomfort to the fish and reduced feeding and the fish have a velvet or gold like appearance. Immersion in salt baths is a treatment option.
30
What is white spot? (ich)
Ichthyophthirius multifillis is a ciliate that penetrates the host's kin creating a white spot. The disruption caused leads to secondary bacterial infection. The free swimming stages of the parasites are susceptible to treatment. the parasites life cycle is 3-7 days at 24-26C. Treatment options include formalin/malachite green and salt.
31
How can mycobacterium cause disease in fish?
The two main mycobacterium involved are M marinum and M fortuitum. Mycobacterium can be present in the environment and asymptomatic in fish but can also manifest as localised non healing ulcers or internal granulomas. A range of non specific clinical signs may be noted such as emaciation and anorexia. It can be confirmed via PCR, ZN stains or culture. fish should be culled as it has a zoonotic potential.
32
What is saddle back/columnaris disease in fish?
Flavobacterium columnare (a common gram negative bacterium) has an affinity for gills, skin and fins. The erosive/necrotic lesions may lead to systemic disease. it is likely to be a naturally occuring bacterium. Physical injury, low oxygen and high nitrite are risk factors for disease development.
33
What is saprolegnia?
The most common water mold disease in fresh water fish. it is primarily a secondary invader. wounds, stress and fall in water temperature may all predispose to infection. Saprolegnia invades epidermal tissue usually around the head or fins with white cotton wool like appearance. Currently malachite green is the most effective treatment.
34
Which species of tortoise may normally have an ocular discharge?
Red footed tortoises
35
What is the most common parasite in snakes?
External mite - phionyssus natricus. can infect both snakes and lizards.
36
What should the background temperature of the vivarium be?
21C.
37
Which bacteria do reptiles shed?
Salmonella/campylobacter.
38
What is the maintenance rate for fluid therapy in reptiles?
30mls/kg/day.
39
What levels should sodium and urea be kept at in reptiles?
below 140mmol/L in well hydrated chelonians and they will have a value of urea less than 2.1mmol/l if well hydrated.Values up to 20mmol/l have responded to bathing alone.
40
Why should ivermectin not be used in chelonians?
It can enter the central nervous system and cause paralysis by activation of GABA receptors.
41
what animals is coccidiosis a common parasite in? what is the treatment?
Common in bearded dragons - isospora sp. these cysts have two sporocysts each containing four sporozoites. toltrazuril given daily by mouth for 3 days is a suitable treatment.
42
What species are oxyurids found in?
Commonly found in lizards and chelonians. large burdens can develop due to their direct life cycle, but small burdens require no treatment. Anorexia, obstruction and rectal prolapse have been clinical signs reported. The eggs are D shaped with thin walls.
43
What species are ascarids commonly seen in? how can they be treated?
Chelonians. the adults can be up to 10cm long and can lead to intestinal impaction, vomiting and death. commont ypes have direct life cycles. the eggs are thick walled with scalloped edges. fenbendazole is an effective treatment for worms. lower doses given over a few days are safer than a single high dose.
44
What species are ciliates commonly identified in?
In chelonian faecal smears and many of these can be evident in high numbers in sick chelonia due to secondary overgrowth. Many are commensals such as balantidium sp or nytcotherus sp. if the chelonian is sick and high numbers are identified then treatment should be given. Metronidazole is a suitable treatment.
45
What reptile species is cryptosoridium recognised in and how does it cause disease?
Cryptosporidium serpentis in snakes and C saurophilum in lizards. it snakes it infests the stomach leading to hyperplasia of the mucous glands and hypertrophy of the stomach itself. this causes a mid body swelling and regurgiation and emaciation. The parasite life cycle is speeded up after feeding. in lizards it causes small intestinal tract disease and leads to a wasting condition. it is particularly common in leopard geckos. The diagnosis is made by a ZN stain of the faeces or a regurgitated meal.
46
Which antibiotics are suitable for bacterial infections in reptiles?
Enrofloxacin - bactericidal, effective against aerobes. Good activity against pseudomonas.
Aminoglycosides - risk of nephrotoxicity.
Ceftazidime - third generation cephalosporin with excellent anti pseudomonal activity. it is bactericidal and kills aerobes and anaerobic bacteria. Anaerobic bacterial resistance is low. Metroidazole can be used in combination with other agents as it has no aerobic activity
47
What pathogens is PCR available for in chelonians?
two common pathogens in chelonia - herpes virus and mycoplasma. Ocular nasal or orab swabs and flushes are acceptable samples.
48
What is GI transit time in chelonians?
21 days
49
What ET tubes should be used in tortoises?
Their trachea is made of solid tracheal rings and the trachea bifurcates very proximally. So short uncuffed ET tubes should be used.
50
What is the trachea of squamates like?
They have a simple glottis at the base of the tongue. The trachea of squamates has incomplete rings like a mammal. Et tubes should be uncuffed and length needs to be appropriate based on spcies.
51
What is the cause of stomatitis in snakes?
A commonly presenting condition in snakes and can be due to inappropriate husbandry like bite wounds, or interaction with transparent surfaces. Secondary to immunosuppressive viral conditions. severe cases can develop septicaemia or pneumonia as an extension of the initial condition. Infections with bacterial and fungal agents are common. topical treatment with silver sulphasalazine is possible even in the mouth.
52
which pathogens are usually associated with Runny nose syndrome in tortoises?
Mycoplasma agassizzi - horsfield have a higher incidence. Transmission via oculo nasal discharge. testing possible on PCR of conjunctival or choanal swabs. Positive means positive for life and recrudescence possible. Herpes virus is aso a common pathogen and can be found concurrently with mycoplasma. Latency is a common feature and recrudescence after a number of years is possible.
53
How do snakes with septicaemia commonly present?
Many present as anorexic and have a flushed reddening on their ventral scales. Blood culture can be performed and this should be assessed alongside haematology. Many septic snakes can seed infection into other sites around the body. This can lead to spinal osteoarthritis.
54
What is paramyxovirus?
Ophidian PMV can cause three presentations. Acute infection presents as sudden death. minimal signs are noted by the owner. Respiratory or neurological signs are possible. the incubation period can be up to 10 weeks. some snakes become chronically infected leading to immune suppression. respiratory signs, regurgitaion and other Gastrointestinal signs are possible. Some animals remain healthy for up to 10 months after exposure. there is a serological test possible.
55
What does histopathology show with paramyxovirus of snakes?
Proliferation of type II pneumoncytes within the lung and occasionally eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen.
56
What is inclusion body disease in snakes?
A common condition affecting boas and pythons. it produces eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the snakes and it is believed to a retrovirus. Clinical signs can vary from neurological disease, regurgitation or weight loss. Neurological disease is more common in pythons. The kidneys, liver, cns and pancreas are good sites to find them. in pythons the CNs is the best site. Transmission has been linked with the snake mite ophionyssus natricus.
57
How long is the life cycle of the snake mite?
13-19 days which allows numbers to increase dramatically.
58
What is the treatment of snake mites?
Ivermectin made into a spray formulation or fipronil as a wipe and spray the environment.
59
What is nutritional secondary hyperarathyroidism?
Due to lack of dietary calcium, imbalances in calcium to phosphorus or hypovitaminosis D. Clinical signs commonly include a soft compressible jaw or shell and lack of truncal lifting, ventral deviation of the carapace in chelonians and thickening of he plastrocarapacial bridge. Hemipenile prolapse is a common finding. fractures of the limbs are common and marked deviations of the limbs leading to difficulty ambulating. Uvb light, phosphate binders, oral and systemic calcium gluconate is the treatment.
60
What is the cause of Yellow fungal disease in bearded dragons?
Chrysosporium annamorph of nannisiopsis viresii
61
What is the cause of fatty liver disease?
Fatty infiltration - can be physiological in the case of breeding females or after hibernation.
62
What is the treatment of fatty liver disease?
Treatment rests on supportive care with the addition of anabolic steroids, carnitine, methionine and possibly thyroid supplementation.
63
What is the treatment of renal disease in reptiles?
Allopurinol ( an xanthine oxidase inhibitor) can reduce the production of uric acid allowing proteins to be excreted as xanthine and hypoxanthine. fluid therapy and phosphate binders may also be indicated.
64
What are the characteristics of rat and mouse urine?
Usualy proteinuric.
65
What may gerbil urine normally contain?
Acetone, bilirubin, glucose and protein.
66
What is the normal pH for herbivorous species such as guinea pigs and chinchillas?
Herbivorous species have alkaline urine. guinea pigs is 9.0 and chinchillas is 8.5.
67
which species have a large tympanic bullae?
Chinchillas
68
Which species have an os penis?
Rats and mice
69
What is the maintenance fluid rate for guinea pigs, chinchillas and other rodents?
100ml/kg/day
70
Which site should be used for intraosseous fluids in rodents?
Trochanteric fossa or tibial crest into tibia.
71
Which multivitamin supplements should be given to rodents when caecotrophy isnt present?
Vitamins B And K. Vitamin C supplementation 50mg/kg PO q24h for all guinea pigs with any illness.
72
Are rodents able to vomit?
No
73
Which antibiotics can be associated with antibacterial enterotoxaemia if given orally?
```
Penicillins, ampicillin
Lincosamides
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Erythromycin, spiromycin
```
74
What is a red oculonasal discharge in a rodent?
Porphyrin stained secretion from the harderian gland that occurs in stress/illness.
75
What is the treatment for respiratory disease in rodents?
Antibiosis,oxygen, nebulisation with mucolytics, bronchodilators, NSAIDS, vitamin C, antibiotics.
76
What is the cause of urolithiasis in guinea pigs?
Diets high in calcium and oxalate, bacterial infections with streptococcus pyogenes, proteus mirabilis and E coli.
77
Which factors may lead to increased incidence of flystrike?
Obese old guinea pigs susceptible as cannot reach anus to eat soft mucus covered caecal pellets, dental disease.
78
What is the most common cause of torticollis in guinea pigs?
Oitis media/interna due to streptococcus infection. Symptoms include head tilt, circling, rolling, nystagmus.
79
What is pregnancy toxaemia? which animals does it usually affect?
Most commonly seen in obese pregnant guinea pigs, but obese males and non pregnant females can also succumb. Two forms occur, a toxic form in obese pregnant animals where foetal displacement causes impaired uterine blood supply followed by ischaemia, foetal death and DIC and a true metabolic form initiated by a stressor such as fasting or transport.
80
What enzymes do guinea pigs lack ?
L gluconolactone oxidase necessary to synthesise vitamin C from glucose.
81
What are the clinical signs of hypovitaminosis C in guinea pigs?
Roughneed hair coat, scaling of pinnae, lethargy, weakness, anorexia, unsteady gait, painful locomotion, wasting, gingival haemorrhage, loose death, loose foul smelling faeces. subclinical scurvy often presents as hypersalivation.
82
What is the cause of wet tail in hamsters?What are the symptoms?
Lawsonia intracellularis. Common condition generally affecting 3-8wk old hamsters but can be seen in adults. Clinical signs include lethargy, anorexia, weight loss, abdominal pain and watery foul smelling diarrhoea. Rectal prolapse and intussusception often ensue. thickened bowel loops can be palpated. Death is common. On PM - mucosal hyperplasia, hypertrophy of muscle layers and presence of an intracellular curved bacillus.
83
What are the other causes of diarrhoea in rodents/ hystricomorphs?
Diet change in guiea pig and chinchilla, E coli in young rodents, Salmonella in all rodents - acute often haemomorrhagic, yersinia pseudotuberculosis in all rodents. clostridium spiriforme - normally present in small numbers but proliferate in certain situations, coccidiosis usually secondary to poor husbandry,
84
What is tyzzers disease?
Caused by clostridium piliforme - it causes peracute death or acute diarrhoea and death in weanlings. Diagnosis is on PM - necrotising hepatitis, enlarged mesenteric LNs and thicened ileum. Tx usually unsuccessful.
85
What can rabbits transmit to guinea pigs if housed together?
Rabbits often carry bordetella bronchiseptica and it is not pathogenic in this species, but is pathogenic to guinea pigs.
86
What are the clinical signs of mycoplasma pulmonis infection in rats?
Dyspnoea, rattling respiratory sounds, sneezing, rhinitis, red tears (chromodacryorrhea) and adopting of sick rodent posture, laboured breathing
87
What are the clinical signs of cystic ovarian disease in guinea pigs?
Non pruritic alopecia, abdominal enlargement, infertility. Usually bilateral, may be painful on palpation.
88
What is the treatment for cystic ovarian disease in guinea pigs?
Ovariohysterectomy is indicated, use of Human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone has also been used to temporarily resolve the condition. percutaneous drainage may also be possible under anaesthesia.
89
What are the clinical signs of diabetes mellitus in guinea pigs?How is this diagnosed and what is the treatment?
Reduced appetite, depression, anorexia, weight loss, PUPD, cataracts. Serum fructosamine should be measured to confirm diagnosis. Treatment consists of high fibre diet. Insulin therapy rarely indicated and spontaneous recoveries are common. glipizide titrated to clinical signs.
90
What is cavian leukaemia?
Lymphosarcoma associated with type C retroviral infection in guinea pigs. clinical signs include rough hair coat, lymphadenopathy.
91
What is the most frequently reported cutaneous neoplasm in hamsters?
Melanomas, then epitheliotropic lymphoma then hamster papovavirus (most likely cause of transmissible lymphoma)
92
should rodents be fasted prior to anaesthesia?
no - they cannot vomit
93
Where do mice and rats loose most heat from during anaesthesia?
The tail
94
What is the analgesic of choice in rodents?
buprenorphine - longest lasting 8-12 hours.
95
How should rodents be castrated?
A bilateral scrotal incision is the most common approach. Closed technique leaving tunica intact is preferred. Prescrotal approach is preferred as it is easier to keep the surgical site sterile. Males should be kept separate from entire females for 6 weeks post op.
96
What is an alternative to surgical neutering in rats?
Implantation with gonadtrophin releasing hormone agonist deslorelin.
97
What are the most common types of mammary gland neoplasia in rats? what is the treatment?
Mammary gland neoplasia is common in both male and female rats, the majority tends to be benign (fibroadenomas) but they rapidly increase in size. In mice and gerbils they tend to be malignant (adenocarcinoma/fibrosarcoma) and in mice may be predisposed to by strain of mammary tumour viruses. Treatment is surgical removal with as wide margins as possible.
98
What type of ear mites are common in ferrets?
Otodectes cyanotis
99
What preventative medicine should be used in ferrets?
Vaccinated yearly against distemper (first dose at 6-8 weeks of age then every 4 weeks until 14 weeks + annual boosters). Flea treatments include fipronil, imidacloprid, selemectin, ivermectin. Imidicloprid is licensed for use in the UK.
100
What must a ferret have done to be able to enter the UK with a pet passport (without quarantine)?
Be microchipped, vaccinated against rabies, issued with EU pet passport, treated against ticks. tick collars not acceptable. and treated against tapeworms with praziquantil.
101
What is the most early presenting sign of distemper virus infection?
A chin rash
102
What are the causes of ringworm in ferrets?
Microsoprum canis and trichophyton mentagrophytes
103
What are the clinical signs of adrenal gland disease in ferrets?
Bilateral symmetrical alopecia, vulval swelling in females, pruritis in 30% of cases. Castrated males may show signs of male sexual behaviour.
104
What hormones are raised in ferret adrenal gland disease?
Plasma androgens, oestradiol or hydrozyprogesterone levels.
105
What is the treatment of choice for adrenal gland disease in ferrets?
Surgical removal of adrenal glands or medical therapy with desorelin implants which eliminates clinical signs and decreases plasma steroid hormone concentrations.
106
Why does hyperoestrogenism occur in female ferrets?
If unmated, 50% of ferrets may develop aplastic anaemia after a prolonged oestrus. Oestrogen suppresses the bone marrow with resulting anaemia and pancytopaenia.
107
What are the clinical signs of hyperoestrogenism in ferrets?
Swollen vulva vulval discharge, weaknesss, anorexia, paollor of mucous membranes, systolic murmurs, weak pulses, melena, alopecia over tail base, ecchymoses and petechiation of mucus membranes and skin, posterior paresis due to haemorrhagic myelomalacia.
108
What is the normal PCV of a ferret?
46-61%
109
What can be used to bring a female ferret out of oestrus?
HCG may be used to make the ferret ovulate, repeated after 7 days if signs of oestrus are still apparent, or proligestone or desorelin implants. Prevention is by ovariectomy, mating with a vasectomised male, or proligestone injection known as the jill jab.
110
What is the cause of an insulinoma in ferrets?
The beta islet cells of the pancreas are affected with increased insulin production and resulting hypoglycaemia.
111
What are the clinical signs of an insulinoma in ferrets?
Collapse, recumbency, depression, hypersalivation, glassy eyed appearance. weakness of hind limbs, lethargy, ataxia, reduced appetite. low blood glucose levels fasting
112
What is the treatment of insulinoma in ferrets?
Surgery is aimed at prolonging life span with a nodulectomy or partial pancreatectomy. Medical therapy consists of oral prednisolone or diazocide together or singly given orally twice a day. Ferrets should be fed regularly with high protein, high fat diets. Snacks should be fed after periods of sleep, when the ferret becomes more active to conincide with when blood glucose levels are low and hypoglycaemia is more likely to occur.
113
Which endoparasites affect ferrets?
Toxascaris leonina, toxocara cati, ancylostoma, dipylidium caninum and giardia spp. Coccidiosis probably most common and can cause severe diarrhoea and rectal prolapse in young animals.
114
What is epizootic catarrhal enteritis in ferrets?
Cased by a coronavirus, highly infective, clinical signs are anorexia, lethargy, green diarrhoea, melena. Animals often apaprently recover only for the disease to recur.
115
What are the clinical signs of canine distemper virus in ferrets?
Rash on the chin, dermatitis of the perineum, anorexia, pyrexia, depression, photophobia and blepharospasm. A mucopurulent oculoanasal discharge is often present followed by coughing and sneezing. CNS signs such as incoordniation, torticollis and nystagmus are seen in ferrets with advanced infection.
116
What is aleutian disease of ferrets?
Caused by a parvovirus. Clinical signs include posterior ataxia, paresis or paralysis, generalised malaise, tarry faeces and weigt loss, disease is immune mediated and hypergammaglobulinaemia is highly suggestive. Euthanasia should be carried out in severely affected animals.
117
Which birds do not have a uropygial gland?
amazons and some macaws
118
What are the possible causes of regurgitation in birds?
Behavioural/sexual (common in budgies), thyroid hyperplasia, crop burn, crop candidiasis, trichomoniasis.
119
What are the causes of vomiting in birds
gastric FB, tumour, gastric ulcer, intestinal obstruction, peritoniits, liver disease, heavy metal toxicity, administration of some drugs.
120
What are the causes of diarrhoea in birds?
infectious/parasitic GE, proventricular dilatation disease, intestinal intussusception, diet change, liver disease, antibiotic therapy, heavy metal toxicity.
121
What are the causes of melena in birds?
Gastroenteritis, coccidiosis, proventricular ulcer, agonal sign
122
What is imping?
A traditional falconry technique used to replace a damaged feather using another feather as a graft.
123
What are the possible underlying reasons for an overgrown beak?
Congenital malocclusion, damage during hand rearing, trauma, liver disease, malnutrition.
124
What is the body temperature of most birds?
40-42C
125
What type of tracheal rings do birds have?
Closed (complete)
126
How should cardiac output be monitored in birds under anaesthesia?
With use of a doppler, generally over the cubital (radial) artery.
127
How long should carnivore and piscivore birds be fasted for prior to anaesthesia?
4-12 hours.
128
During anaeshesia which reflexes should be present in a bird?
Palpebral reflex should be absent but corneal reflex should be present. Loss of corneal reflex indicates an excessively deep plane of anaesthesia.
129
What is the scaly leg mite?
Knemidocoptes
130
What are feather cysts?
A common genetic condition in canaries, also seen in psittacines. the feather cannot erupt and the cyst keeps growing. multiple cysts may be affecting the same bird. surgery is done for large cysts but other cysts will continue growing in other feathers. most commonly found in the wings.
131
How are fractures of the long bones resolved in birds?
using external fixation or im pin and external fixation. in very smal patients can be managed with a tape splint.
132
What blood cells are in birds?
Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, heterophils, eosinophils and basophils. are these cells are nucleate.
133
What bacteria should be present in psittacines faeces or crop?
High percentage of gram positive bacteria. high level of gram negative rods can imply disease. Gram staining may also reveal macrorhabdus ornithogaster (Avian gastric yeast) which should not be present.
134
Which birds do not have a crop?
owls, toucans, penguins and other aquatic species and ostriches.
135
What pathogens may affect the crop?
trichomonas, macrorhabdus and candida.
136
What does trichomonas gallinae cause?
Produces caseous material in mouth and cro pof pigeons and raptors feeding on pigeons
137
What does avian gastric yeast cause?
Macrorhabdus ornithogaster is a common cause of weight loss in small psittacines, such as badgies and canaries.
138
What faecal parasites are commonly found in birds?
Ascardia commonly seen in smaller psittacines. Capillaria is a parasite with bipolar eggs that requires an intermediate host. syngamus (wildlife) found in the trachea and bronchi. Coccidiosis can be seen producing diarrhoea in many species of birds. Giardia, hexamita and other protozoa also seen.
139
What do birds that feed on frozen fish (zoo aqautic birds) need a supplement of?
Thiamine (b1) and vitamin E
140
How many hypovitaminosis A present?
White plaques in the motuh, rhinoliths, respiratory infections, choanal papilla atrophy.
141
What birds is iodine deficiency most commonly seen in? how does this present?
Budgies on seed diets. it produces hypothyroidism with thyroid hyperplasia. Enlarged thyroid compresses the oesophagus and trachea and clinical signs may include regurgitation, change of voice and inspiratory noises. Responds well to iodine supplementation.
142
Which birds are susceptible to hypocalcaemia?
Grey parrots- even adult animals may exhibit twitching and convulsions due to lack of calcium and or UV light. A hypocalcaemic bird can be presented as an emergency. Growing birds with hypocalcaemia exhibit bone deformities and laying females may produce soft shelled eggs and suffer form dystocia.
143
What are xanthomas?
Discrete accumulation of cholesterol crystals, common in budiges.
144
What birds are affected by haemosiderosis and haemocrhomatosis?
Frugivorous and nectarivorous species such as starlings, toucans and lorikeets. clinical signs include hepatomegaly and problems secondary to liver disease. Haemosiderosis is increasingly being diagnosed in granivorous parrots and may be associated wit hypervitaminosis A.
145
What does excess protein cause in chicks?
angel wing - commonly seen in growing ducks and geese on high protein diets. the distal carpometacarpal bone rotates laterally, giving an irreversible twisted appearance to the distal wing.
146
Which species of birds are predisposed to aspergillosis
pionus parrots, gyrfalcons, goshawks, snowy owls, golden eagles and aquatic species. The fungus is ubiquitous in the environment and infection occurs by inhalation of spores from the environment.
147
How does aspergillosis cause disease in birds?
Formation of granulomas in the respiratory system particularly lungs and air sacs. clinical signs include weight loss, voice changes and dyspnoea. Diagnosis can be made on clinical signs, blood results (increase in globulins, leucocytosis with monocytosis and heterophilia, toxic heterophils, non regenerative anaemia, or detection of antibodies or antigen in blood.
148
What is the treatment of aspergillosis?
Large grnaulomas should be removed and amphotericin B instilled into the lesions. Iv injection of amphotericin B followed by oral and nebulised antifungals for 1-2 months. Suitable antifungals include itraconazole, vorizonazole, terbinafine, F10 disinfectant.
149
What are the clinical signs of candidiasis in birds?
Regurgitation and vomiting, a distended slow emptying crop, beak necrosis and white cream plaques in the oral cavity. Treatment is by nystatin.
150
What are the clinical signs of avian gastric yeast infection in birds?
Most often seen in canaries, finches, budgies, lovebirds, cockatiels. Causes proventricular and ventricular disease. clinical signs include wasting, lethargy, passage of undigested food. Necropsy lesions include proventricular ulceration and dilatation.
151
What is the treatment of avian gastric yeast?
oral amphotericin B or sodium benzoate.
152
What is the cause of psittacine beak and feather disease? What symptoms do birds with this disease show?
It is caused by a circovirus which are viruses that can remain stable in the environment for prolonged periods of time.Birds develop feather loss and feather deformity as the most common clinical signs. feathers row abnormally, are dysplastic with retained sheaths, haemoorrhage can occur within the pulp cavity. There can also be oral ulceration and hyperkeratosis, overgrowht or fracture of the beak. The acute form affects young birds during first feather formation and is characterised by depression & diarrhoea, followed by the rapid development of dystrophic feathers. these birds usually have severe anaemia and leucopenia.
153
What is french mould in budgies?
Budgies can carry PBFD and juveniles can exhibit normal feathering except for complete absence of primary and secondary flight feathers or become severely alopecic. Mild cases survive and can regrow feathers at the first moult.
154
What does polyoma virus cause?
Nestling death with leucopaenia, anaemia and widespread haemorrhages.
155
What is pox virus in birds? how is it transmitted? what are the symptoms?
Transmission is via mosquitos, direct contact, inhalation, ingestion and wounds. Infection can be seen in lovebirds, canaries, pigeons, new world parrots and raptors. There are three forms;
cutaneous; dry pox causes nodular lesions and scabs on the face
diptheritic wet pox - causes lesions on mucous membranes and respiratory disease
septicaemic - common in passerines, rapidly fatal causing penumonia
156
What is proventricular dilatation disease?
Caused by avian bornavirus. lymphoplasmacytic ganglioneuritis in the nerves of the Gi tract, particularly the ventriculus and proventriculus. The nerve lesion produces dilatation of the GI tract and increase in the GI transit time. the proventriculus becomes dilated, sometimes also the ventriculus.
157
What are the clinical signs of lead poisoning in birds?
Lethargy, weakness, vomiting, polydipsia, polyuria, haemoglobinuria and death.
158
What is the treatment of heavy metal poisoning in birds?
CaEDTA injectable or with oral penicillamine, removal of metal pieces
159
What is the cause of gout?
Kidney problem or excess dietary protein, two types - articular in joints of legs and visceral in the serosal surfaces of organs, mainly liver, kidneys and pericardium but also in air sacs etc.
160
What is the treatment of gout?
Allopurinol reduces uric acid levels in blood.
161
what is the cause of egg binding/dystocia in birds?
Calcium/ vitamin D3 deficiences, oversized or misshapen eggs, uterine inertia due to excessive laying, metritis, obesity. Clinical signs include sypnoea, hind limb weakness, lethargy, abnormal faeces and a wide non perching stance.
162
What causes egg yolk peritonitis?
Ectopic ovulation, but may also be seen with salpingitis, metritis, neoplasia or ruptured oviduct.
163
What are the common causes of respiratory problems in chickens?
Mycoplasmosis (swollen joints in addition to mild respiratory signs), swollen eyelids and sinuses, sneezing and gasping tx is tylosin
Aspergillosis form high burdens of fungal spores in mouldy hay tx with itraconazole + f10
Infectious bronchitis is caused by a coronavirus. It can also lead to renal damage and oviduct infection. Concurrent mycoplasmosis predisposes to IB and commercial flocks can be vaccinated
164
Why does egg binding occur in hens? what is the treatment?
low calcium levels
warmth, fluid therapy, calcium supplementation,
gentle lubrication of cloaca
165
What is the cause of egg peritonitis?
Release of an ovum free into the abdomen or as a result of an ascending bacterial infection of the oviduct via the cloaca. both scenarios usually lead to overwhelming systemic toxic bacterial infection and a severe chronic salpingitis. Affected hens are depressed and lethargic with swollen panful abdomen and cessation of laying.
166
What is sour crop due to?
Candida albicans infection can be secondary to oral antibiotic therapy or often occurs in association with crop stasis secondary to underlying GI or reproductive disease
167
What endoparasites commonly affect chickens?
Coccidiosis common in rearing birds of 4-6 weeks of age. Affected birds will have poor growth and wet watery diarrhoea. tx with toltrazuril.
Nematodes are common in backyard chickens. Intestinal nematodes include roundworms - ascaridia spp, capillaria, heterakis spp, histomonas.
168
What bacteria may cause diarrhoea in chickens?
Salmonella pullorum, s gallinarum, s typhimuriu and S enteriditis. E coli and campylobacter jejuni may also cause diarrhoea, especially in chicks. General hygiene and vermin control is important and vaccination is available for salmonlla and E coli.
169
How do red mites affect birds?
Dermanyssus gallinae live in the environment and feed on the birds at night and can cause anaemia and lethargy and death. these mites can survive 6 months off the host and meticulous cleaning and treatment of the environment is essential. permethrin or pyrehtroid powder/sprays can be used.
170
How do depluming mites cause disease in birds?
Cnemidocoptes gallinae can occasionally cause feather loss around the head and neck. fipronil is effective.
171
What is mareks disease?
Caused by an alphaherpes virus - causes lymphoid tumours and demyelination of peripheral nerves leading to wing droop and leg paralysis. Tumours develop in a variety of organs as well as the brachial and sciatic nerve plexi and affected birds will be immunosuppressed, loose condition and may die.
172
How does newcastle disease affect chickens?
It is a notifiable disease caused by a paramyxovirus and can cause both respiratory and neuroloical signs.
173
What is the dental formula of a rabbit?
2/1 0/0 3/2 3/3 . all teeth are open rooted, long crowned and grow continuously.
174
What is the pecten organ in a birds eye?
The pecten or pecten oculi is a comb-like structure of blood vessels belonging to the choroid in the eye of a bird. It is a non-sensory, pigmented structure that projects into the vitreous body from the point where the optic nerve enters the eyeball.[1] The pecten is believed to both nourish the retina and control the pH of the vitreous body
175
How does caecotrophy maximise the rabbits digestion?
maximises absorption of nutrients and bacterial fermentation products (amino acids, volatile fatty acids and vitamins B and K)
176
Which species is the thymus gland present in the adult?
A large thymus gland is present in the adult rabbit and is located cranial to the heart.
177
How does calcium absorption and excretion occur in the rabbit?
absorption from the GI tract usually occurs independent of vitamin D. Urine is the major route of excretion for excess calcium that has been absorbed. Calcium crystalluria is a common normal finding.
178
What is the normal body temp of a rabbit?
38.5-40C
179
What are the clinical signs of dental disease in rabbits?
Pytalism, bruxism, anorexia, dysphagia, halitosis, epiphora, weight loss, decreased grooming, abscesses, facial swelling, lateral jaw movement restricted. Root elongation of the first maxillary incisor and first premolar frequently obstructs the lacrimal duct resulting in dacryocystitis.
180
What primary factors may be associated with gastric stasis?
Anorexia, high carbohydrate/low fibre diet, post surgical adhesions, lack of exercise, toxin ingestion (lead). Secondary factors include pain, environment stressors such as proximity of a predator or a dominant rabbit, loss of a companion, change in housing, routine or diet, transport, extremes of temperatures.
181
Which prokinetics should be used in rabbits to stimulate GIT motility?
Metoclopramide or domperidone are dopamine antagonists having both central and peripheral effect. The prokinetic effects of metoclopramide are not as potent as cisapride and are limited to the proximal GIT. Ranitidine has prokinetic effects and antacid actions.
182
How does myxomatosis infect rabbits? what are the clinical signs?
Virus persists in hutches, insect vectors inlude rabbit flea, mosquito, cheyletiella parasitovorax. Skin lessions develop 4-5 days after inoculation, enlarge until about 9-10 days post infection. Eyelids become thickened. closed completely by 9 days with semipurulent ocular discharge. Secondary lesions develop throughout the body, t ypically the nares, lips, base of ears, external genitalia and anus. Disease is more lethal at low temperatures, good nursing and high temperatures aid recovery.
183
How is rabbit haemorrhagic disease transmitted and what are the clinical signs?
Shed in urine, faeces, aerosol. Insect and bird vectors, fomites, fly faeces and can contaminate pasture of affected rabbits. virus survives long times outside host. In peracute cases there is sudden death, mortality is usually 100%. In acute cases - rabbits are quiet, pyrexic and increased respiratory rate and usually die within 12 hours from DIc or liver failure. Grave prognosis.
184
What can be used to treat worms in rabbits?
Fenbendazole.
185
What can be used to prevent flystrike in rabbits?
Cyromazine.
186
What is licensed to treat fleas in rabbits?
Imidacloprid is licensed for the treatment of fleas.
187
What may be the cause of bilateral exopthalmus in rabbits?
thymomas - related to interference of vascular return to the heart by the mass.
188
Which antibiotics is p multocida sensitive to?
Penicillin G, chloramphenicol, erythromycin, azithromycin, tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones.
189
What is normal blood pressure for rabbits?
80-91mmHg (MAP)
| Systolic 92-135
190
What are the clinical signs of cheyletiella infection in rabbits? how is it treated?
Scaling and crusting of the skin with mild pruritis, due to cheyletiella parasitovorax, the rabbit fur mite. It is just visible to the naked eye. Treatment of choice is ivermectin.
191
What are the signs of otitis externa in the rabbit ? what is the cause?
Pruritus and thick crusts on the inside of the pinnae, often caused by psoroptes cuniculi the rabbit ear mite. lesions can spread to face and neck and secondary bacterial infections can develop within external ear canal. tx with ivermectin
192
what are the symptoms of treponema paraluis cuniculi?
Ulcers and scabs of the nose and perineum is often due to infection with the spirochaete. Rabbits can be asymptomatic carriers with overt disease precipitated by stress. definitve diagnosis involves microscopic visualisation of the organism from scrapes on a dark field background or with special silver stains on biopsy. effective treatment is penicililn once every 7 days for 3 doses.
193
Which rabbits are particularly affected plantar pododermatitiS?
Rex rabbits - lack protective guard hairs. Often seen in overweight inactive rabbits kept on wet bedding or hard floors.
194
What is E cuniculi and what are the clinical signs in rabbits?
A protozoal parasite, widespread in domestic rabbit population. Organisms shed in the urine. Infection via ingestion of spores from urine contaminated food and water. Target organs are brain and kidney. In many pet rabbits exposure to this organism results in a subclinical asymptomatic infection and carrier status occurs. immunosuppression is likely to be the trigger for development of overt disease. Clinical signs include head tilt, torticollis, hind limb paresis, paralysis, tremors, convulsions, urinary incontinence, cataracts and lens induced uveitis. E cuniculi IgG and IgM antibody assays are available in the Uk and indicate exposure to the organism. Treatment with fenbendazole, glucocorticoids may also be given to reduce inflammation, with care in rabbits.
195
What is the normal pH of rabbit urine?
>8.0 as in other herbivores.
196
What urine crystals are normal in rabbits?
Calcium carbonate, calcium oxalate and struvite crystals.
197
What do E cuniculi spores look like?
Gram positive structures with a coiled filament inside
198
When may granular casts be seen in rabbits?
In the advanced stages of renal failure
199
What are the differences in haematology of rabbits compared to dogs and cats?
RBC lifespan is shorter in rabbits than in dogs and cats so polychromasia, reticulocytes and higher red blood cell distribution width are often observed in helthy rabbits.
200
What is the normal PCV of a rabbit?
45% and usg >1.036 is suggestive of dehydration
201
Why may the neutrophil: lymphocyte be altered in rabbits?
Frequently altered in rabbits suffering from inflammatory disease and or stress, the percentage of lymphocytes should equal or exceed the percentage of neutrophils in the normal state.
202
How does calcium metabolism differ in rabbits to other species?
Dietary calcium is readily absorbed in the intestines and does not depend on activated vitamin D. rabbits total blood calcium levels reflect dietary intake. Ionised and total calcium serum concentrations are elevated compared with those of other species. The rabbit is dependent on the kidney for proper calcium osmoregulation. the renal fractional excretion of calcium in the rabbit is 45-60% compared with less than 2% in other mammals, which eliminate excess calcium through the intestinal tract. The excreted calcium precipitates in the alkaline urine to form calcium complex crystals giving the urine a thick and creamy appearance.
203
Which oral antibiotics carry the highest risk of dysbiosis in rabbits?
```
Penicillins, beta lactamases and lincosamide.
Avoid
Penicillins
Lincosamides
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Erythromycin
Safe - TMPS, fluroquinolones, metronidazole, tetracycline
```
204
What other drugs are contraindicated in rabbits?
Fipronil - both spray and spot on associated with mortality.
Tilmicosin - associated with sudden death due to cardiovascular failure
Hypermotility treatments such as kaolin, montmorillonite clay and loperamide can precipitate fatal gastrointestinal stasis.
205
What are the differentials for diarrhoea in a chicken?
```
Coccidiosis
Bacterial infection in the gut
Worms
Renal or hepati issues
Egg bound
```
206
What is the treatment for coccidiosis in hens?
Baycox
207
Which antibiotic has a zero egg withdrawal?
tiamulin
208
Which worms can affect chickens and cause decreased production?
Ascarids - intestinal round worms
Capillaria - hair worm in the crop
Heterakis - caecal worm which carries hisomoniasis
Syngamus - tracheal gape worm
209
What are your differentials for a sneezing chicken?
```
Infectious bronchitis
Mycoplasma gallisepticum (MG)
Avian rhinotracheitis
Infectious laryngiotracheiitis
Newcastle disease
Avian influenza
Gapeworm (syngamus)
```
210
What bacteria is most commonly associated with bumble foot?
Staphylococcus sp
211
What is mareks disease in chickens?
A herpes virus. transforms T cells causing immunosuppression and tumours grow especially in the liver and spleens and nervous system. There are tow forms. acute form is associated with neoplastic changes of the liver and spleen, leading to poor growth, diarrhoea and dullness. the classical form is assocated with ataxia and paralysis especially of the legs and wings.
212
What is sour crop?
Due to overgrowth with candidia, mouldy feed may contribute. birds are often dull with a distended fluid filled crop.
213
What is the scaly leg mite?
A microscopic mite, burrows beneath the leg scales and causes white crusting and raised leg scales, also swelling and bleeding in some cases. crust is a mixture of excreta and skin flakes. very irritating to the birds. tx - wash legs and dry, use baby shampoo and soft toothbrush, dunk legs in surgical spirit, apply vaseline. Ivermectin drops also work.
214
What are the clinical signs of Avian influenza?
High mortality, respiratory disease, subcut haemorrhage and very congested carcases, diarrhoea and possible nervous signs. Primary sources are infected faeces often from contaminated water.
215
What is newcastle disease?
Defined by spectrum of organs affected: viscerotrophic (intestine), neurotrophic (resp and nervous signs), mesogenic, lentogenic (mild respiratory asymptomatic) or asymptomatic. Vesogenic - high mortality, intestinal haemorrhage, secondary nervous signs.
216
What is avian pneumovirus and what clinical signs do birds show?
sinusitis with secondary bacterial infection of the spongy bones of the head causing swollen head syndrome. clinically often only associated with pale eggs and a loss of production.
217
What is infectious bronchitis ? what are the clinical signs?
A coronavirus, starts in the trachea, gets into blood, affects oviduct and kidney. causes egg shell thinning, loss of colour and irregularities. Persistence of virus in caecal tonsil. It causes respiratory disease, then if not stopped by antibodies the virus reaches the kidney and oviduct and causes egg shell thinning, loss of colour and irregularities are a common feature. Infection in young birds can cause the oviduct to develop with cysts.
218
What is fowl coryza?
Haemophilus paragallinarum - a highly contagious cause of swollen sinuses and a slight nasal discharge.
219
How does mycoplasma affect chickens?
Mycoplasma gallisepticum and mycoplasma synoviae are bacteria without cell walls that infect chickens and other birds and can in some circumstances cause disease. Some infections are clinically silent but probably still involve a production loss. When MG causes clinical disease it is usually respiratory disease. (air sacculitis). Joint disease, tracheitis, swollen sinuses, conjunctivitis also sometimes seen. One strain of MS infection has recently been associated with a thinning of one pole of the egg to cause glassy topped eggs. culture and PCr testing are the best tests available.
220
what are the clinical signs of fowl pox?
Pox like lesions around the head, mouth, oral cavity and cloaca. Pox virus is spread by biting insects, not found in the UK.
221
What is necrotic enteritis in chickens?
A condition of broiler chickens with necrosis of intestinal villi, usually in the duodenum or jejunum and associated with overgrowth of clostridium perfringens.
222
What are the clinical signs of coccidiosis in chickens?
Blood on droppings, may appear dull or sick, poor performance, wet litter, reluctant to eat or move. Commonly seen in broilers after 4 weeks of age.
223
What is blackhead?
Histomonas meleagridis - associated with caecal sores and circumscribed hobnail lesions on the surface of the live.r the intermediate host is the earthworm.
224
What should initial brooding temperature at chick level be for a broiler system?
the initial brooding temperature at chick level should be 29-31C. House temperature should be reduced gradually in response to bird behaviour and condition, to achieve a final temperature of 20-22C by 21-24 days.
225
How does bursal disease (gumboro) affect broiler blocks? What other common problems are associated with IBD?
Flocks affected by IBD have reduced responses to vaccination, harsh post vaccinal reactions and increased susceptibility to concurrent and secondary infections. Some of the most common problems associated with clinical or subclinical IBD include chronic respiratory problems, secondary bacterial infections caused by E coli, staph, pasteurella, clostridium, parasitic infections caused by eimeria, cryptosporidium. Severe immunosuppression when IBD occurs prior to or in simultaneous infections with mareks disease/chicken anaemia and adenoviruses.
226
What are the clinical signs of infectious bursal disease?
Ruffled feathers, fever, trembling, diarrhoea, prostration, mortality and transient immune suppression appear in 3-6 week old birds.
227
Why does ascites occur in broiler chickens?
Pulmonary hypertension syndrome when the heart is unable to push sufficient blood through the lungs, increasing BP. Broiler chickens have an extremely high demand for oxygen. Lung volume and cardiovascular volume within lung tissue is fixed - so lung can no lunger accommodate any more blood being supplied by the heart, this is the starting point for heart failure and is seen initially as right ventricular hypertrophy followed by failure. Maintaining body temperature and air quality affect oxygen demand.
228
Why do skeletal disorders commonly occur in broiler chickens?
high body weight, places high demands on the skeletal system and inadequacies in nutrition or husbandry will result in skeletal diseases.
229
Why does rickets occur in growing birds?
Due to deficiency of calcium or phosphorus or insufficient vitamin D. malabsorption can also cause a mineral deficiency. In rickets, a failure of bone mineralization leads to flexibility of long bones. sub clinical rickets with only marginal thickening of the growth plates is fairly common and often associated with poor performance.
230
How does egg yolk peritonitis occur in chickens?
The presence of bacterially infected yolk material in the coelomic cavity. Yolk material induces a mild inflammatory response, and is an excellent growth medium for bacteria. Peritonitis results rfom secondary bacterial infection.
231
Why does osteopaenia occur in cage layer birds?
Lack of exercise and high egg production, severe problems are associated with inadequate calcium, phosphorus or vitamin D. calcium requirements during growth and before and during lay vary markedly.
232
Which salmonella serovars affect poultry?
S Gallinarum and S pullorum. Salmonella infections with other serotypes S enteritidis, S typhimurium, S harad seldom cause disease in poultry, but are of major concern to public health.
233
What is spiroucleus and how does this affect chickens?
Mobile single celled organisms in the mid and lower gut, they have flagellae and move rapidly around the slide. Create high mortality and wasting of birds which become weak. Treat with tetracycline and tiamulin.
234
What is the definition of newcastle disease?
An infection of poultry caused by an avian strain of a paramyxovirus type 1 with an intracerebral pathogenicity in day old chicks of greater than 0.7.
235
What is paramyxovirus of pigeons?
This is the most likely disease of birds you will see if in small animal practice. it is very similar to newcastle disease with nervous signs and watery greenish diarrhoea.
236
What is the cause of fowl cholera?
Pasteurellosis - it causes generalised septicaemia with high mortality due to pasteureulla. chronic forms may have swollen wattles and a slight nasal discharge.
237
What is fowl pox?
It causes pox like lesions around the head, mouth, oral cavity and cloaca. Pox virus is spread by biting insects, not found in the UK.
238
What is necrotic enteritis in chickens
A condition associated with necrosis of the intestinal villi, usually in the duodenum or jejunum and associated with overgrowth of clostridium perfringens.
239
What is the cause of amyloid arthropathy?
It is usually caused by enterococcus faecalis, but not by all isolates. Clinical cases are seen only occasionally and are most frequently seen in the hock joint of a few replacement pullets or broiler breeders. Unilaterally cases may be attributed to the contamination of a previously sterile vaccine diluent with E faecalis during administration e.g mareks vaccien in day old chicks.
240
What is the cause of mareks disease?
It is caused by aherpes virus that is eaily spread, it transforms cells of the liver and spleen and causes tumours. Vaccination available, but vaccinated stock still replicate and shed the virus.
241
What does aeromonas salmonicidia cause?
Bacterialsepticaemia.
242
What are saprolegnia spp?
A fungal pathogen principally a freshwater fish problem, affecting maturing brook stock, their eggs and alevin. (actually aprotozoa). causing white spots that look like cotton.
243
What genera of lice affect fish?
Lepeoptheirus salmonis -They cause an increase ina ctivity, and lice can cause extreme damage to fish and are therefore a significant welfare problem. Control is by bathreatment or by in feed medication.
244
What is pancreas disease in salmon?
an alphavirus which causes necrosis of pancreatic tissues and myopathies of cardiac & skeletal muscle, presents as sudden death and innapetence/illthrift - causes secondary severe lice infestations. Less impact if exposed during a period of starvation.
245
What is Infectious salmon anaemia?
A notifiable disease of salmon, caused by a virus, which causes severe anaemia. The fish develop pale gills, and may swim close to the water surface, gulping for air. However, the disease can also develop without the fish showing any external signs of illness, the fish maintain a normal appetite, and then they suddenly die.
246
What is infectious pancreatic necrosis?
a viral disease of fish, A sharp rise in mortality is often seen (depending on the virulence of the disease). Other clinical signs include abdominal swelling, anorexia, abnormal swimming, darkening of the skin, and trailing of the feces from the vent. On necropsy, internal damage (viral necrosis) to the pancreas and thick mucus in the intestines often is present.[1] Surviving fish should recover within one to two weeks.
247
What is ich/white spot in fish?
Caused by Ichthyophthirius multifiliis it is a disease of fresh water fish caused by a protozoan.White nodules that look like white grains of salt or sugar of up to 1 mm appear on the body, fins and gills. Each white spot is an encysted parasite.[2] It is easily introduced into a fish pond or home aquarium by new fish or equipment which has been moved from one fish-holding unit to another. Once the organism gets into a large fish culture facility, it is difficult to control due to its fast reproductive cycle and its unique life stages. If not controlled, there is a 100% mortality rate of fish. With careful treatment, the disease can be controlled but the cost is high in terms of lost fish, labor, and cost of chemicals.[3]
