Dog & Cat Flashcards

Question

What is an Xenograft?

Answer 1

D&R are form different species.

Answer 2

``` Lateral tuberosity of humerus Medial proximal tibia Greater trochanter of femur Wing of ilium (highly cellular but mechanically weak) ```

Answer 3

No immune response, greatest osteogenic effect as has high cellularity, no risk of cross infection. Disadv- extra operating sites must be prepped and accessed, large quantities can be difficult to obtain.

Answer 4

Can be banked, convenient, unlimited quantity. Disadvantages - immunogenic, slow incorporation into host bone, risk of cross infection. Need strict asepsis since implanting a dead piece of bone. Osseointegration within 1-3 months but complete substitution may take years. Complications are common; infection, rejection, fracture, sequestration.

Answer 5

Organic matrix made mainly of collagen. Mineral - calcium hydroxyl apatite. Osteoprogenitor cells. Osteoblasts (synthesise bone matrix and express osteogenic growth factors), osteocytes (terminally differentiated osteoblasts), osteoclasts - responsible for demineralisation and degradation of bone matrix.

Answer 6

``` Parathyroid hormone - increases plasma calcium concentration. (mobilises calcium from bone, increases calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of nephron, increases urinary phosphate excretion) Calcitonin - lowers plasma calcium concentration. (reduces calcium resorption from the bone) Vitamin D3 (calcitriol) - increases plasma calcium concentration. Increases plasma calcium concentrations by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium, mobilising calcium from bone and causing calcium resorption in the kidney. ```

Answer 7

A rare bone disease in dogs and cats characterised by defective mineralisation. The disease has been recognised in dogs and cats as being secondary to dietary deficiency of vitamin D or hereditary defect in pathway. Vit D deficiency alone not enough - must be deficient in either calcium or phosphorus in addition to the vit D deficiency to produce the condition. Deficiency of Vit D produces a highly stable cartilage matrix which is uncalcifiable and difficult to resorb. Young dogs have stunted, bowing of limb bones and plantigrade stance with prominent metaphyses.

Answer 8

A rare disease which causes autonomous secretion of PTH - causing hypercalcaemia. Caused by a parathyroid adenoma (also carcinoma or hyperplasia). Seen in the keeshond. Excessive bone resorption and replacement with fibrous tissue occurs. Clinical signs are attributable to hypercalcaemia - PUPD, muscle weakness, vomiting, anorexia, lethargy. Hypercalciria - urolithiasis and UTIS. On biochemistry - hypercalcaemia, increased PTH, low or normal phosphate levels. dx by imaging - cervical ultrasound and radiography. Many dogs will have hypercalcaemia and NORMAL pth levels, but this is innaproppriate in the face of hypercalcaemia.

Answer 9

(more common in reptiles). seen in dogs and cats on an all meat diet or if there is an inability to absorb dietary calcium. seen in growing animals due to their increased calcium demand for bone growth. An al meat diet has dietary mineral imblanaces with a low calcium content, excessive phosphate content +/- inadequate vitamin D. This leads to low - nomral serum calcium levels with chronic stimulation of the parathyroid glands to increase PTH concentration to try to maintain the ionised calcium levels within the normal range. It does so by increasing resorption of bone, renal calcium resorption, phosphate excretion and renal synthesis of calcitriol. Clinical signs include reluctance to move and play, lameness, limb pain, pathological fractures, ligament laxity.

Answer 10

Occurs secondary to chronic renal failure. Reduction in GFR > phosphorus retention > Hyperphosphataemia leads to a relative hypocalcaemia. Triggers PTH release - increased bone resorption to increase calcium. Reduced production of calcitriol - impaired intestinal absorption of calcium, impaired mineralisation of osteoid. clinical signs primarily due to renal disease - vomiting, PUPD, depression. May hav esteopaenia/osteomlacia - loose teeth, pliable mandible, failure to close jaw properly - salivation and tongue protrusion, mandibular fractures.

Answer 11

Unlimiteed access to water, protein/phosphate restriction in diet, renal diets, oral phosphate binders, H2 blockers (famotidine), erythropoietin if anaemia present, assessment/treatment of hypertension.

Answer 12

Usually a condition seen in cats particularly if they have been fed a diet consisting largely of liver. Several months of high vitamin A is needed in the diet before you will start to see clinical signs - malaise, anorexia, lethargy, irritability, stiffness and lameness, scruffy unkempt appearance, thoracic limb neurological deficits, joint ankylosis, exostoses around tendon/ligament attachments and joints. The vitamin A toxicity promotes the breakdown of musculotendinous insertions in the periosteum to trauma. Therefore you get periosteal bone formation and exostoses particularly around the tendon, ligament and joint capsule attachments.

Answer 13

Affects young 2-6 month old dogs, typically large and giant breeds and there is a male predisposition. Aetiology is unknown. Heritability suggested? vit c? infection? no overall single cause. Lameness and pain, depression, inappetance. metaphyseal swelling often hot and painful, may have shifting lameness. Early radiographic changes include a lucent line in the metaphysis parallel to a narrow zone of increased radiodensity immediately adjacent to the physis. In more advanced stages you can get mineralisation of the subperiosteal haematomas and periosteum leading to an extraperiosteal cuff of mineralisation at the metaphysis. The previously obvious radiolucent metaphyseal line may no longer be visible. Usually self limiting - most improve in 7-10 days.

Answer 14

a self limiting, episodic disease of the bone marrow of the long bones, characterised by focal areas of endosteal bone proliferation. seen in 5-12 month old dogs, males predisposed, common in labs, gsd, dobermann. aetiology unknown. There is degeneration of medullary adipocytes, followed by vascular proliferation and intamembranous ossification. this usually occurs around the nutrient foramen in a long bone. Over time the areas of local bone formation in the marrow coalesce and become connected to the endosteum. there is then remodelling of the newly formed bone and adipose bone marrow reappears. Acute onset, shifting leg lameness, pain on palpation, pyrexia, anorexia. On radiographs - thumbprint lesion of increase in medullary opacity.

Answer 15

A bone condition seen in adults characterised by periosteal reaction of the distal extremities, but it can occur in any bone. it is a paraneoplastic syndrome characterised by deposition of periosteal new bone. most often secondary to pulmonary neoplasia. abdominal neoplasia and non neoplastic pulmonary disease also reported. Irritation of the vagus/intercostal nerves leads to reflex increase in periosteal blood flow. Surgical removal of the primary thoracic lesion leads to rapid regression of clinical signs. Lameness is gradual or acute in onset in one or multiple limbs, there is limb swelling which is bilaterally symmetrical, warm but non oedematous. distal limb and spreading proximally. May have thoracic signs e.g dyspnoea, cough.

Answer 16

Large and giant breed dogs. Males > females, median age is 7 years. Small dogs more commonly get axial > appendicular osteosarcoma.

Answer 17

metaphysis of the long bones - away from the elbow, towards the knee. Less commonly: ribs, vertebrae, skull.

Answer 18

Micrometastasis in 90% at the time of initial presentation. Primarily via haematogenous routes > lung most common metastatic site, rarely via lymphatics. Others include liver, kidneys, amputation stump and rarely subcutaneous tissues and adjacent bones.

Answer 19

Lameness, swelling, pain, mass at the primary site. Pathological fractures due to weakened cortical bone.

Answer 20

Neurological deficits, dyspnoea, nasal obstruction/discharge, facial asymmetry.

Answer 21

Commonly normal, alp may be raised. Thoracic radiographs often normal.

Answer 22

Lytic, productive or mixed appearance at the metaphysis of long bones. does not cross the joint. may have a sunburst pattern, codmans triangle, irregular osteolysis.

Answer 23

Surgery + chemotherapy Amputation/limb spare then chemotherapy with carboplatin, cisplatin, doxorubicin. MST is 1 year. Radiation therapy can be palliative. Bisphosphonates can also be used as palliative therapy.

Answer 24

Proximal humerus, rib, scapula, extraskeletal, mammary

Answer 25

Unilateral, craniodorsal. NWB lameness, limb adducted, greater trochanter displaced dorsally (asymmetry), shortening of the affected limb.

Answer 26

Usually due to soft tissue trapped in the acetabulum e.g joint capsule or haematoma.

Answer 27

Prevents weight bearing, maintains internal rotation of the femur, enhances hip stability.

Answer 28

Maintains reduction following craniodorsal luxation. IM pin ventral to tuber ischium, dorsal to femoral neck and through the ventral aspect of the ileum.

Answer 29

Suture of the joint capsule to prevent recurring joint disolation - suture anchor points in the dorsal acetabular rim

Answer 30

Replacement of the LFH with a prosthetic ligament. the ligament is anchored on the medial aspect of the acetabulum with a toggle pin, it passes through the acetabulum at the origin of the LFH and passes into femoral head at insertion of LFH.

Answer 31

There is inadequate blood supply to the femoral head during development which causes avascular necrosis, tarbelcular collapse and inadequate cartilage support. The clinical signs are progressive H/l lameness from 5 months, shifting lameness, muscle atrophy, doing hand stands, bunny hopping gait, crouched stance, pain and crepitus on hip manipulation, reduced ROM. on radiographs - focal areas of lucency within the femoral head and neck. tx - femoral head and neck excision.

Answer 32

Instability of one or both hip joints which leads to degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis, subluxation of the hip, ultimately osteoarthrosis is characterised by loss of articular cartilage, fibrosis bone remodelling and loss of function.

Answer 33

can be seen in any breed, but common in GSh, golden retriever, lab retreiver.

Answer 34

Bunny hopping gait, positive ortolani test, pain on extension of hips, palpable crepitation over the hips. Radiographically less than 50% coverage of femoral head, osteophytes, morgan line.

Answer 35

It involves three cuts, the pubis, ischium and ilium and placement of a special plate on the ileum to rotate the pelvis. this should result in increased acetabular coverage of the femoral head as the patient matures. Patient is not a good candidate if there is any evidence of dJD.

Answer 36

Poor h/q muscle development, lameness, difficulty rising after lying down, rolling gait, bunny hopping, audible noise associated with hip movement, pain & crepitus on hip manipulation.

Answer 37

Signs primarily associated with secondary osteoarthritis, stiffness on rising, after exercise, lameness, exercise intolerance, muscular atrophy, crepitus and pain on hip manipulation, reduced ROM in affected joints.

Answer 38

Gives an objective measure of coxofemoral subluxation. normal is considered >105.

Answer 39

Reduced ability to jump, height of jump lower, stiffness, activity, lameness.

Answer 40

Replace arachidonic acid with eicosapentanoic acid which reduces pain and inflammation.

Answer 41

Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted by ixodes ticks. Clinical signs are seen weeks- months later - waxing/waning signs of polyarthropathy, lymphadenopathy, pyrexia. Culture is difficult and serology cross reacts with leptospires. dx- pcr. Trreatment - tetracylines.

Answer 42

An immune complex disease. there are Igm and Igg antibodies to Fc Igg. type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. Inflammatory response in synovium > pain/synovitis. It is the most common erosive immune mediated joint disease, seen in small/toy breed dogs at 5-6 y/o, erosive changes take time.

Answer 43

Must have 7 of 11; 1. stiffness after rest 2. pain in atleast one joint 3. swelling of at least one joint 4. swelling of atleast one other joint in 3 months 5. symmetrical joint swelling 6. subcutaneous nodules 7. erosive lesions on radiography 8. positive rheumatoid factor 9. poor synovial fluid mucin clot 10. characteristic synovial histopathology 11. characteristic nodular hypertrophy.

Answer 44

A multi organ system disease which causes non erosive polyarthritis, renal disease, dermatological lesions, haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia. it is an immune complex disease. there are autoantibodies to nuclear antigens.

Answer 45

Uncommon but occurs after primary vaccination course, there is an antigenic stimulus in cats by feline calicivirus antigens and in dogs by canine distemper. Resolves rapidly within 7 days. Quantify antibody titre before further vaccination.

Answer 46

Cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfa drugs. Dobermans susceptible to TMPS. Resolves 2-7 days after drugs being stopped.

Answer 47

Pyrexia of known origin, multi limb lameness.

Answer 48

A group of developmental conditions including; Fragmented coronoid process Osteochondrosis of the medial part of the humeral condyle Ununited anconeal process. This is a young dog disease which will lead to degenerative osteoarthritis without treatment. Elbow will be painful on manipulation. look for sclerosis of the ulna and degenerative changes above anconeal process. Common breeds include GSD, bassett hound, bloodhound, labrador retrievers, newfoundlands.

Answer 49

Usually seen 4-12 months, with forelimb lameness, pain on flexion and extension of elbow joint, may be bilateral but not necessarily.

Answer 50

A term to describe poor alignment of the joint surfaces of the elbow. two features illustrate incongruity of the elbow: abnormal shape of the ulnar trochlear notch, step between the radius and ulna, caused by either a short radius or short ulna.

Answer 51

Medical management with Nsaids. Surgical management - arthrotomy/arthroscopy & fragment removal. OA will progress regardless.

Answer 52

Aetiology; genetics, over nutrition, ischaemia. Failure of ossification. Thickens > necrotic chondrocytes. Trauma causes cleft/flap. Clinical signs are when flap is present.

Answer 53

Anconeal process has a separate centre of ossification at 3months. it fuses to the ulna at 5-6 months old. It occurs due to a developmental incongruity - long radius or narrow trochlear notch of the ulna.

Answer 54

Medical management if not painful Surgery to remove - simple but profound OA develops. Lag screw and ulna osteotomy best choice if young dog.

Answer 55

Intercondylar cartilage plate ossifies at 12 weeks usually. A failure of ossification results in a fissure. Spaniels are predisposed. IOHC predisposes to fractures of the humeral condyle.

Answer 56

The correct answer is a portal-systemic shunt. Ptyalism is a sign commonly seen with PSS in cats but not dogs, and the copper-colored iris is a striking and almost pathognomonic finding in conjunction with other clinical findings. Hemolytic anemia could cause icterus but not the change in iris color. Animals with polycystic kidney disease would not have a copper-colored iris. Toxoplasma can cause ocular signs such as uveitis but would not have a copper iris.

Answer 57

This cat likely has a tapeworm infection. Tapeworm segments are typically flat and white and small, resembling a grain of rice. The most common tapeworms in cats are Taenia taeniaeformis and Dipylidium caninum. The only medication that will treat both types is praziquantel. Praziquantel is in the products Drontal Plus and Profender, approved for the use in cats. Drontal Plus also contains pyrantel. Profender also contains emodepside. Both are also effective against roundworm and hookworm. Pyrantel is not effective against tapeworms and treats hookworm and roundworm infection. Fenbendazole (or Panacur), treats Taenia but not Dipylidium, and also treats hookworm, roundworm, and whipworm infection. Revolution treats and prevents hookworm, roundworm, heartworm, fleas, and ear mites in cats. Frontline treats and prevents fleas and ticks. A flea control should be recommended since Dipylidium is transmitted by ingestion of an infected flea. Taenia is transmitted through eating an infected prey.

Answer 58

4-8 months, males > females, mild/moderate lameness, pain on shoulder exam, especially flexion, 50% bilateral. tx- medical 50% improve. Flap becomes detached. Surgical - arthroscopy/arthrotomy & flap removal, prognosis excellent with surgery.

Answer 59

For medial luxation - velpeau For lateral luxation - spica splint Surgical tx available - biceps transposition, prosthetic glenohumeral ligament, arthroscopic repair.

Answer 60

A tear or stretch of the support structures, medial or lateral glenohumeral ligament/subscapularis or biceps brachii tendon of origin. Seen in medium/large breeds, chronic mild to moderate lameness, moderate muscle atrophy, measure shoulder abduction angle to dx. tx - analgesia, controlled exercise or surgical radiofrequency shrinkage, prosthetic stabilisation.

Answer 61

Osteophytes intertubercular groove. On ultrasound there is mineralisation.

Answer 62

Palmaragrade stance, mild - moderate lameness.

Answer 63

Medical management ONLY indicated for puppy laxity. laxity will spontaneously resolve with excercise. For traumatic - surgical tx with pancarpal arthrodesis. excellent prognosis with pancarpal arthrodesis (mechanical lameness)

Answer 64

``` Keep head elevated. Hypertonic saline/colloid solution. Mannitol diuresis to reduce ICP. Oxygenate but avoid hypocapnia. Phenobarbitone - seizure prevention, reduces cerebral catabolism. ```

Answer 65

Bassets, IS, CKCS. Signs include jaw locking open, coronoid impingement on zygomatic arch, pain, difficulty closing mouth, reduced ROM. Treatment is excision arthroplasty, remove zygoma.

Answer 66

Proliferation of new bone on the mandibular rami. It is genetic in some breeds - WHWT, ST, CT. occurs at 3-7 months old. TMJ ankylosis may occur. If total anjylosis occurs prognosis is poor. V painful - give analgesia.

Answer 67

Unable to close mouth, mouth deviates to the normal side.

Answer 68

Paralysis prevents mouth closure. Often due to carrying a heavy object. Treatment is tape muzzle. resolves in

Answer 69

An auto immune condition which causes pain and temporal muscle atrophy and reduces mouth opening. There are antibodies to type 2M m.f. (dx serology test). Treatment is immunosuppression.

Answer 70

Sacroiliac luxations, acetabular fractures and ilial body fractures.

Answer 71

Fractures of the ischium, pubis and tuber sacrale, highly comminuted fractures, old pelvic fractures, minimally displaced stable fractures.

Answer 72

Sighthounds - have very little fat and so have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.

Answer 73

Vincristine

Answer 74

The correct answer is 43 days gestation. The fetal skeleton ossifies at 42-45 days in the dog and 35-39 in the cat. In the dog, a mineralized fetus can usually be seen around 42-46 days. The scapula, humerus, and femur can be made out around 46-51 days. The ribs can be seen at 52-59 days. Teeth and toes can be seen at 58-63 days.

Answer 75

``` Limits cranial translation Limits internal rotation Limits valgus/varus motion Limits stifle extension Proprioception ```

Answer 76

Acute or chronic lameness Mild to severe - usually moderate to severe. stifle effusion, stifle thickening, muscle atrophy, pain on full extension. dx- cranial draw test. Effusion on radiographhy.

Answer 77

Medial menisci

Answer 78

Surgical; debride ligament, meniscus, stabilise. Extracapsular stabilisation (lateral fabella-tibial suture) use monofilament nylon or wire suture through a tibial tunnel, under SPT, around fabella. Or dynamic stabilisation by tibial plateau levelling osteotomy or tibial wedge osteotomy.

Answer 79

``` 1= in sulcus, and spontaneously returns in sulcus when manually luxated 2 = when in sulcus, stays in and when out of sulcus stays out 3= out of sulcus, can be returned in but spontaneously luxates out 4= out of sulcus all the time, cant be put in. ```

Answer 80

Lateral tibial crest transposition/trochlear wedge / block recession, medial desmotomy, lateral capsular overlap.

Answer 81

The correct answer is German Shepherd Dog. EPI is believed to be an autosomal recessive trait in German Shepherd Dogs that results in atrophy of the exocrine pancreas. Dogs lose the ability to digest fat and protein and become emaciated. They have voluminous, soft feces, a voracious appetite, and may develop pica. The trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) is diagnostic for EPI. Treatment entails adding powdered pancreatic enzyme extract, or raw pancreas to meals. These dogs should not be bred.

Answer 82

The correct answer is eccentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and left ventricle. Mitral regurgitation is the process of blood flowing back from the left ventricle to the left atrium due to a defect in the valve. The excess blood flow causes volume overload of the left atrium leading to eccentric hypertrophy or dilation of the chamber. The excess blood volume will then return to the left ventricle during the next diastole, resulting in dilation and eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle as well. Concentric hypertrophy occurs in cardiac chambers when they are pressure overloaded, such as in the case of pulmonic stenosis or aortic stenosis.

Answer 83

he correct answer is right atrium. Although the reason for this predilection is unknown, this is the most common site in the heart for hemangiosarcoma to occur.

Answer 84

Greyhounds

Answer 85

Monoestrus, non seasonal, spontaneous ovulation, polytocous.

Answer 86

Seasonaly polyoestrous and induced ovulators.

Answer 87

after third season.

Answer 88

``` pro oestrus - 7-10 days Oestrus 7-10 days Metoestrus 63 days Anoestrus 3-4 months - bitch said to be in season during prooestrus and oestrus, so the season is therefore 2- weeks in length. ```

Answer 89

during pro oestrus but the bitch will not allow mating untill the oestrus phase. Even quite home orientated bitches may stray when in season.

Answer 90

thin blood stained vulval discharge. Repels male, may roam, more frequent urination. (oestrogen increased ), vulva swollen and turgid.

Answer 91

Discharge mucoid, less bloody, thicker, vulva softer, stands for male, tail deflection, may roam. Oestrogen decreased, progesterone increased.

Answer 92

A progesterone driven hormonal phenomenon that occurs in all non pregnant dos to a certain degree. some dogs show exaggerated igns, to the extent of nest building, lactating, showing behavioural changes. sometimes needs treated if the bitch becomes aggressive.

Answer 93

Seasonally polyoestrous, polytocous, an induced ovulator

Answer 94

Affectionate, writhing/rolling around, vocalizing, when stroked, crouches with hind quarters elevated. Neighbourhood entire toms likely congregating. lasts up to 10 days.

Answer 95

Some cats continuously cycle in response to artificial light eg siamese and a few breeds e.g the sphinx have twice yearly seasons like dogs.

Answer 96

Palpation of the abdomen - 4 weeks Auscultation of abdomen in last 2 weeks of pregnancy - foetal heart beats poss, rate is double maternal rate. Mammary enlargement from 5 weeks onwards Ultrasound from 4 weeks onwards. Xrays from 6 weeks onwards. Relaxin assay from 4 weeks in the bitch - hormone produced by the placenta.

Answer 97

approx 63 days.

Answer 98

Sharp fall of 0.5-1.0C 12-24 hours pre partum.

Answer 99

A drop in body temperature, vagina relaxes, cervix opens, minor uterine contractions commence, restless, panting in bitches, nesting, washing, vocalising in queens.

Answer 100

Active abdominal straining in lateral recumbency or crouching position, foetuses move into pelvic canal and are delivered. usually over within 4-6 hours, depends on how many young are present. there are natural pauses between delivery of individual puppies and kittens.

Answer 101

Placental separation around birth of first foetus results in a discharge, dark green in the bitch, reddish brown in the queen, this discharge is termed uteroverdin and is normal. the placenta of each foetus is usually expelled 5-15 mins after its birth and the uterine horns shorten although sometimes 2-3 foetuses may be born before their placentas follow.

Answer 102

Prolonged first stage labour without progression to second stage. Normally lasts 6-21 hours but up to 24 hours can still be normal. Temperature drop, then a return to normal temperature but with no signs of parturition. Persistent and vigorous and unproductive straining of stage 2 labour for 30 mins - 1 hour. Persistent, vigorous straining with intermittent protrusion of part of a foetus for > 30 mins. Weak irregular straining for > 2-4 hours. delay of >2 hours since rupture of allantochorion but no foetus produced. Delay of >2 hours since birth of last foetus and more known to remain. Dark green or reddish brown discharge but no foetus born with 2-4 hours. Foul smelling vulval discharge. Protracted vomiting.

Answer 103

Primary inertia - myometrium lacks or becomes unresponsive to foetal movement. Caused by single pup which fails to provide suficient physical stimulation of the uterus or by very large litters leading to over stretching of the myometrium and desensitisation. Secondary inertia - signs of labour are evident but myometrium evnetually becomes exhausted and unresponsive, may be caused by obstructive dystocia, very prolonged labour, weak old or obese bitches.

Answer 104

Oestrogen rises throughout pro oestrus and peaks 2 days before the LH surge, declining through ovulation and oestrus, rising slightly again at the end of the luteal phase. Progesterone is basal through pro oestrus and starts to increase at the time of the LH surge, staying elevated for approx 9 weeks before declining at anoestrus or parturition. Ovulation of primary oocytes occurs 2 days after the LH surge and it takes a further 2 days for the eggs to mature before they become fertilisable.

Answer 105

Not inherently pathological. Progesterone levels are maintained in the luteal phase in both pregnant and non pregnant bitches by action of prolactin on the CL. prolactin promotes milk production and behavioural changes in the pregnant and pseudo prgnant bitch. The intensity of the symptoms in pseudopregnancy is a matter of degree. all non pregnant bitches have prolactin production.

Answer 106

Commence 6-8 weeks after oestrus just before a pregnant bitch would whelp, get varying degrees of mammary hypertrophy, lactation and sometimes mastitis, vulval discharge, adoption and protection of toys, anorexia and mournfulness, aggression, nesting behaviour.

Answer 107

Do not treat mild and transient signs, they are normal and self limiting. For bitches where the symptoms are persisting or severe or manifesting as aggression, use cabergoline (galastop) this inhibits prolactin production by its action on the anterior pituitary dopamine receptors. Prolactin falls > progesterone declines > luteal phase ends > anoestrus begins. Its orally dosed for 4-6 days, dogs usually respond within a week.

Answer 108

Main drugs used are progesterone antagonists such as aglepristone (alizin) which block uterine progesterone receptors. Blood progesterone levels are unaltered. Can be used up to 45 days into gestation. Two injcetions are given 24 hours apart. best given in first three weeks after mating. Later administration will cause abortion of foetuses c.f resorption.

Answer 109

Proligestone (delvosterone) - a depot progestagen used to terminate, postpone or suppress oestrus. currently the drug of choice. licensed for both dogs and cats. Should not be used at the first season. A regime for permanent suppression involves injections at 3,4 and then every 5 months in dogs. Spaying would be a better solution. If given once in pro oestrus the season terminates within a few days. If given in anoestrus in dogs, the next season will be postponed and will occur around 6 months after th einjection.

Answer 110

Common in bitches from 2-3 months of age. A purulent vaginal discharge is seen but there ar eno outward signs of il health. The discharge is produced by vaginal glands. Antibiotics are not indicated or successful. only treatment indicated is period bathing or wiping away of discharges with plain water or dilute chlorhexidine and swabs. the discharge will resolve spontaneously with the first season and rising oestrogen levels. Bitches with this condition should be allowed to have a season before spaying.

Answer 111

A persistent vaginal discharge usually in a bitch having had at least one season. vaginitis alone does not produce signs of systemic illness. Antibiotics and local treatment is the treatment for bacterial vaginitis. Swabs may be used for culture and sensitivity.

Answer 112

Common in small animal practice. Usually seen in obese bitches, those with urinary incontinence or in patients with infantile vulva where the vulva is small and recessed. Dermatitis with licking and superficial infection around the vulva occurs. treat with topical and systemic antibiotics. Surgery (episioplasty) may be indicated in severe or recurrent cases or those with the anatomical problems of infantile vulva.

Answer 113

Ovarian tumour, usually seen in older bitches, can become very large, produce signs of space occupying nature (abdominal swelling, vomiting, weight loss) usually endocrinologically inactive but can produce oestrogen and bone marrow suppression can be seen with prologned excess oestrogen or progesterone acycylicity and cystic endometrial hyperplasia can be seen. Do not commonly metastasise but care needed when removing them by ovarihysterectomy not to seed tumour cells throughout the abdomen.

Answer 114

around 12 days after the onset of proestrus - but in some bitches can be as little as 3 days or as much as 30.

Answer 115

Clinically - 4 days after th eonset of vulval softening and the bitch's first inclination to stand for the dog. unreliable. Hormonally - Progesterone produced before ovulation from graafian follicle luteinisation and continues after it. correlates with LH surge. can be assayed in house. Requires repeated testing every 48 hours to detect progesterone rise before ovulation. Cytologically - a moistened swab is applied to the vaginal wall, rolled onto a slide and stained with diff quick - repeat every 2-3 days. Oestrogen makes vaginal mucosa thicker, with larger cells and more layers and the cells lose their nuclei and become cornified.

Answer 116

In pro oestrus - cells will gradually change from parabasal and intermediate cells to superficial cornified cells with numerous RBC. In oestrus there is a predominance of superficial cornified cells. In metoestrus there is a marked drop in the number of superficial cornified cells, reappearance of intermediate, parabasal cells and leucocytes.

Answer 117

It reduces.

Answer 118

Canine herpes virus - infection in the dam can cause early foetal death and resorption, abortion and premature birth. Canine distemper virus Canine adenovirus Canine parvovirus Brucella canis Toxoplasma gondii- rare cause. can cause abortion, premature birth and weak non viable neonates. surviving pups may become carriers.

Answer 119

``` Feline leukaemia virus Feline panleukopaenia virus Feline herpes virus FIP virus Toxoplasma Chlamydophila felis ```

Answer 120

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia

Answer 121

Post partum hypocalcaemia - a medical emergency, affects more smaller breeds than larger but all susceptible, usually occurs after birth and iwthin the first 2-3 weeks but will occasionally be seen before, rare in cats. Calcium losses in milk exceed the bitches ability to maintain a Ca homeostasis > clinical hypocalcaemia.

Answer 122

Agitation, restlessness, pacing and panting, salivation, jerky gait, trembling, pyrexia, tonic clonic muscle spasms, tachycardia, seizures, collapse, coma, death.

Answer 123

Insert Iv catheter - provide oxygen by face mask, give 10% calcium borogluconate solution by slow iv injection, dose is 2-10 ml in the dog and 2-5ml in the cat. Response is dramatic and rewarding. monitor heart by stethoscope or ECG. If get arrythmia - stop Ca infusion. when stable check blood glucose and give 10% dextrose if hypoglycaemic. remove puppies for 24 hours and hand feed. if 4 weeks or older, can wean. Supplement bitch with oral calcium and vit D and feed puppy or kitten food which contains more calcium.

Answer 124

A toxic state ensuing after abortion, dystocia or foetal/placental retention. bacterial infection of the womb. Clinical signs include pyrexia, lethargy, anorexia, vomiting, vaginal discharge.Stabilise with iv fluids, antibiotics, oxytocin, then spay.

Answer 125

Failure of milk production is rare, more likely failure of milk let down which is under neuro hormonal control, inexperienced and nervous bitches may be prone, rarely seen in queens. usually maternal dives and instincs kick in when puppies attempt to suckle. bitch should not be continually disturbed.low doses of oxytocin may be given. in very agitated and nervous bitches a mild sedative may be tried.

Answer 126

Fleas, otodectes cyanotis, neotrombicula autumnalis, sarcoptes scabeiei, demodex, lice, cheyletiella, flea allergic dermatitis, atopic dermatitis, adverse food reactions, bacteria & malassezia, cowpox in cats, acral lick dermatitis/other behavioural neurological causes.

Answer 127

Adult on host life span 7-10 days > eggs laid on host fall into environment > 1-10 days later larvae hatch and feed in environment > 5-18 days later pupate - 7-140 days later adults emerge and climb onto host.

Answer 128

dipylidium caninum and cat scratch fever (bartonella)

Answer 129

Permethrin

Answer 130

Papules, scaling, crusting, excoriation and alopecia. Seen in the ears, face, elbows, hocks and ventral chest.

Answer 131

Variable pruritus and scaling - walking dandruff. truncal distribution.

Answer 132

Adults live in thick vegetation. the larvae infest animals in the late summer and autumn. the bright orange mites can be seen in the ear, axillae, ventral body, interdigital skin and tail. vulnerable to most caricides but animals will be reinfested from environment.

Answer 133

Erythema, papules, alopecia, scaling and comedones.

Answer 134

Can occasionally cause severe dermatitis of the feet and ventral body in kennelled dogs where hygiene is poor.

Answer 135

Infection usually secondary to an underying cause. malassezia otitis and dermatitis - malodorous erythrma, hyperpigmentation, lichenification, seborrhoea and alopecia are common. In cats it is associated with otitis externa, paronychia, feline acne, facial dermatitis, underlying systemic disease.

Answer 136

Boxers, Lab, GSD, WHWT predisposed. Pruritus - saliva stains, erythema Muzzle, ventral pinnae, neck, axillae, abdomen, groin, perineum and feet. Chronic inflammation with hair loss, excoriation, papules, scaling, crusting, hyperpigmentation and lichenification, skin may be dry moist or greasy, chronic or recurrent otitis externa, occasionally unilateral, without other skin lesions. Recurrent staphylococcal pyoderma and malasseiza dermatitis. Adverse food reactions are less common. some animals have concurrent GI signs - can be very subtle.

Answer 137

Eliminate other causes of pruritus, controlling infection, 6-8 week food trial. Allergy testing can be used to identify environmental allergens for avoidance or allergen specific immunotherapy.

Answer 138

Chronic self trauma to the cranial and lateral aspects of the distal limbs. Most involve a long standing deep bacterial folliculitis, lichenification and scaring. numerous potential causes include behavioural problems, musculoskeletal problems, neurological disorders, pruritic skin disease. stress/anxiety can worsen allergic skin disease.

Answer 139

Usually seen in older dogs, the clinical signs can be varied with diffuse or localised erythema, scaling, plaques, ulcers or nodules and pruritus.

Answer 140

Infectious - staphylococcal, demodex, dermatophytosis, leishmania Immune mediated - dermatomyositis Alopecia areata, vasculitis, vaccine associated vasculitis Endocrine - hyperadrenocorticism, hypothyroidism, sex hormone dermatoses, telogen effluvium, paraneoplastic alopecia Epitheliotrphic cutaneous t cell lymphoma Congenital alopecias, follicular dyspnasias, cyclical flank alopecia, alopecia X

Answer 141

Localised juvenile onset demodicosis occurs during adolescence and presents with multifocal alopecia, scaling, comedones and follicular casts. it isn't pruritic unless there is a secondary bacterial or malassezia infection. Generalised demodicosis is more severe, more generalised alopecia, scaling, hyperpigmentation, comedones and follicular casts. Clinical signs may be limited to the feet. Secondary bacterial infection with papules, pustules, furunculosis and draining sinus tracts is common and may be life threatening. There is often peripheral lymphadenopathy with pyrexia and depression. The localised form usually resolves with maturity.

Answer 142

Usually secondary to an underlying disease e.g hyperadrenocorticism, hypothyroidism, diabetes, neoplasia etc. idiopathic cases also occr. the predisposition is probably inherited.

Answer 143

Amitraz dip once weekly. (toxic to chihuahuas and cats). Lime sulphur dip safe and can be effective in mild cases. Advocate spot on once weekly in milder cases. Ivermectin or moxidectin - not licensed but can be used with care. (dont use in collies and related breeds MDR gene) Milbemycin oxime once daily is effective and well tolerated even in MDR positive dogs.

Answer 144

Animals should be treated untill there are 2-3 negative skin scrapes at 7-14 day intervals and then for a further month.

Answer 145

Multifocal alopecia and scaling. less common problems include paronychia, kerions, miliary dermatitis and fungal granulomas. Trichophyton species are more inflammatory causing alopecia, erythema, scaling, crusting and secondary bacterial infection.

Answer 146

Itraconazole licensed in cats. Topical treatment on llocal lesions - chlorhexidine, enilconazole dip. Environmental decontamination.

Answer 147

Focal alopecia with a fine silvery white scaling, depigmentation, nodules, ulcer and crusting of the face, nose pinnae and feet. Lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, anaemia, bleeding, ocular signs, kidney failure, lameness, muscle atrophy, pyrexia.

Answer 148

Bilaterally symmetrical truncal hair loss, comedones, atrophic and inelastic skin, prominent blood vessels and calcinosis cutis. Fragile skin and tearing is more common in cats.

Answer 149

Truncal alopecia with thickened, hyperpigmented and cool skin (myxodema), partial alopecia with a faded coat.

Answer 150

Attraction to male dogs, gynectomastia, pendulous prepuce and linear preputial erythema.

Answer 151

Associated with pancreatic and bile duct carcinomas. The cutaneous signs are highly specific and are usually noted before systemic illness. there is ventral truncal alopecia, with strikingly smooth, shining hthin and translucent skin, if diagnosed early enough the clinical signs are reversible with surgical excision of the tumour although metastases are common and prognosis generally poor.

Answer 152

Commonly causes seasonal hair los on the back and flanks in dogs, the underlying skin is darker but otherwise normal. hair loss and regrowth can vary from year to year. probably related to changes in day length.

Answer 153

Chows, pomeranians, keeshonds, poodles can suffer an unusual pattern of hair loss which starts in adolescence or young adulthood with loss of primary hairs, leaving wooly puppy like coat, eventually there is complete alopecia and hyperpigmentation sparing head and limbs.

Answer 154

An erythematous, papular and crusting dermatitis, commonly seen over the dorsal body, flanks, neck and head. Most commonly associate with flea allergic dermatitis

Answer 155

A rare paraneoplastic syndrome seen in older cats due to a thymoma with focal to generalised erythema, exfoliation and malassezia and or pyoderma.

Answer 156

Pulmonary tumours can metastasise to the digits, infiltrating P3 causing lung digit syndrome.

Answer 157

An uncommon problem - seen mostly in burmese and related cats, present with violent and frenzied self trauma of the mouth, face and neck, neurological problem - response to gabapentin/phenobarbital. Some cases have associated with herpes virus neuritis.

Answer 158

Resemble miliary dermatitis. Lesions are larger with a depressed centre that is usually covered with a small crust. careful examination will distinguish these from miliary lesions. Will also be a primary bite wound or scratch.

Answer 159

Almost always seen in persian cats. affected cats present with thick, black greasy and tightly adherent scales overlying erosions around the eyes and nose. there may be secondary malassezia infection.

Answer 160

an uncommon condition associated with cutaneous atrophy, tearing of the skin and poor wound healing. can be associated with hyperadrenocorticism and diabetes mellitus as well as long term steroid treatment.

Answer 161

It is an inhibitor of T cells. Inhibition of T cells and cytokine production has profound effects on various aspects of the immune system including antigen presentation, iGe production, mononuclear clel activity and development of inflammatory lesions. It also inhibits other cells in allergic reactions such as mast cells and eosinophils. Inhibition of T cell helper function and B cell activation could impair repsonse to vaccine - withdraw treatment for up to 2 weeks either side of vaccination.

Answer 162

It is a topical non halogenated diester glucocorticoid. Esters at C17 and C21 ensure rapid absorption, potent anti inflammatory action and metabolism within the dermis into less active compounds, minimising cutaneous and systemic adverse effects.

Answer 163

A targeted JAK1 inhibitor that specifically inhibits expression of IL-31 controlling pruritus in dogs with allergic dermatitis.

Answer 164

Foreign bodies Ear mites Juvenile cellulitis Atopic dermatitis/adverse food reactions Other skin diseases - immune mediated, hormonal problems allergic contact dermatitis (a whitish discharge with mature non degenerate neutrophils) Ceruminous gland tumours - often obstruct ear canal and cause otitis before tumour is visible. most are benign. Inflammatory polyps Primary secretory otitis media - common in king charles spaniels.

Answer 165

Conformation - pendulous, narrow, hairy ears Warm humid climates Over cleaning, wetting, traumatic cleaning, plucking hairs Swimming - wetting and maceration o the ear canals (may also be a primary cause in some dogs especially in dirty, stagnant water which is often contaminated by pseudomonas)

Answer 166

Polymixin B and miconazole. | Fluoroquinolones, gentamicin and polymixin B are usually effective against pseudomonas.

Answer 167

Framycetin and fusidic acid

Answer 168

Ticarcillin, polymixin B, neomycin, tobramycin, amikacin

Answer 169

Fluoroquinolones.

Answer 170

A rare but severe form of cellulitis, rapid progression with severe cellulitis, swelling, necrosis, infection of deeper tissues, septicaemia and pyrexia.

Answer 171

Focal to multifocal painful nodules that ulcerate with fatty and bloody exdate.

Answer 172

Juvenile lymphangitis - causes acute onset pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, subcutaneous swelling and cutaneous exudation. Bacterial infection is uncommon and secondary despite the name. Treatment is usually based on 1-2 mg/kg prednisolone untill healed and then tapered. Prognosis is good if treated early and aggressively.

Answer 173

Staphylococci are large cocci that form diploid or irregular arrangements. Streptococci, micrococci and enterococci are smaller and form chains or irregular groups. Rod bacteria (bacilli) from the skin include pseudomonas, proteus and coliforms. Mycobacteria do not take up wright giemsa stains but pyogrannulomatous inflammation and the presence of small rod shaped vacuoles is suggestive.

Answer 174

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

Answer 175

Clavulanate amoxicillin, clindamycin, cefadroxil, TMPS

Answer 176

cefovecin, clavulanate amoxicillin, pradofloxacin, cefadroxil

Answer 177

Aminoglycosides, azithromycin, ceftazidime, chloramphenicol, clarithryomycin, florphenicol, imipenem, phosphomycin, piperacillin, rifampicin, tiamphenicol, ticarcillin.

Answer 178

A rare skin disease associated with end stage liver disease and pancreatic atrophy or glucagonomas. Clinical signs include erythematous plaques and erosions overlain by thick, yellowish adherent scales. Lesions usually occur at the mucocutaneous junctions, pressure points, ventrum, genitalia and feet with severe hyperkeratosis.

Answer 179

Common in arctic breeds probably hereditary. Clinical signs include bilaterally symmetrical scaling and alopecia of the face, pinnae, elbows, hocks, paws, genitalia and fissuring of footpads. the diagnosis is based on the history , clinical signs, biopsy and responsive to treatment.

Answer 180

Caused by auto antibody destruction of T cell membrane adhesion molecules resulting in loss of cohsion of superficial epidermal cells. triggers include bacterial and viral infections, chronic inflammatory dermatitis, drugs and neoplasia.

Answer 181

A rare hereditary condition of english bull terriers, causing stunted growth with scaling, crusting, erosions of extremities and pressure points, fissured footpads, onychodystrophy and concave hard palate. Por prognosis.

Answer 182

commonly affects nasal planum causing loss of cobblestone appearance, swelling, depigmentation, erosions, ulcers and crusting.

Answer 183

Relatively common, benign disease with depigmentation of the nasal planum but preserving the cobblestone appearance with no erosion or crusting. May seasonally wax and wane.

Answer 184

Abnormal elasticity of skin which may be fragile and tear easily. Also joint abnormalities and oseoarthritis.

Answer 185

Prednisolone 1-2mg/kg and 2-4mg/kg in cats

Answer 186

Babesia, erhlichia, borrelia and bartonella.

Answer 187

Infections with actinomyces and nocardia the filamentous bacteria are rare and usually inoculated by penetrating injury or foreign body. clinical signs include abscesses, ulceration and draining sinus tracts, panniculitis, nodules which may ulcerate and drain red brown to yellow grey fluid with tissue grains and systemic illness.

Answer 188

Feline leprosy - causes multifocal crusting papules, erosions and granulomas, mainly head and forelimbs. A similar leproid granuloma syndrome is seen in dogs in the US.

Answer 189

Splitting of the claws

Answer 190

Sloughing of claws

Answer 191

Seen in dachshunds and other breds that develop raised hyperpigmented plauqes, especially in the axillae and ventral abdomen. May be associated with malassezia and endocrinopathies.

Answer 192

Boxers - less aggressive | Sharpeis - more high grade tumours at younger ages.

Answer 193

Vinblastine, prednisolone and CCNU.

Answer 194

``` Adrenocortociotrophic hormone (ACTH) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Follicle stimulating hormone (FsH) Luteinising hormone (LH) Growth hormone (GH) Prolactin ```

Answer 195

``` Oxytocin Atidiuiretic hormone (ADH) ```

Answer 196

A rare genetic disorder of GSD. defective development of pituitary gland leads to GH, TSH and prolactin deficiency and impaired release of FSH &LH. Puppies are skeletally stunted, retain soft wooly puppy coat, retain shrill puppy bark, retain deciduous teth and have fox like facial features, show cryptorchidism or anoestrus, show progressive lethargy and mental dullness.

Answer 197

Result of excess GH activity > results in soft tissue proliferation and insulin antagonism. usually due to a functional adenoma of the pituitary gland. It should be considered in any cat with diabetes mellitus which is resistant to insulin therapy. Clinical signs > polyphagia, polyuria, polydipsia, weight gain. Majority are male cats. Increased interdental spaces in the incisor teeth, Enlargement of the head, neck and paws - broad facial features, lion head, increased heart size, heart murmur, congestive cardiac failure, multiple limb lameness, increased size of the abdomen due to liver or kidney enlargement.

Answer 198

Documenting grossly elevated serum IGf1 levels.

Answer 199

Progestagen excess, which induces GH production from the mammary gland. this occurs in intact bitches during dioestrus or due to exogenous progestagen administraion to suppress oestrus. it is not due to pituitary adenomas. Clinical signs are similar to cats except that DM is less consistent. neurological signs not a feature. History may reveal a recent oestrus cycle. panting and laryngeal stridor may occur due to soft tissue compression of upper airways.

Answer 200

Withdraw progestagen therapy, or ovariohysterectomy. if diabetic, insulin therapy.

Answer 201

Failure in the normal synthesis and secretion of ADH by the pituitary gland. it can occur congenitally or as an acquired disease. in the latter case it may be due to trauma, inflammation or neoplastic damage to the pituitary gland. drugs may transiently cause DI eg adrenaline.

Answer 202

Results from a decreased responsiveness of th cells of the renal tubules and collecting ducts to ADH. rarely, this can be congenital. more commonly it is due to acquired damage to receptors in the renal cells by tubular necrosis, interstitial nephritis, pyelonephritis etc - hence secondary to some other underlying disease e.g hyperadrenocorticism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcamemia, hypokalamemia, hepatic failure, pyometra, drugs including glucocorticoids.

Answer 203

Normal haematology & serum bichemistry, hyposthenuria, Assess unrestricted water intake and confirm as >100ml/kg. Modified water deprivation and ADH response test. (time consuming, difficult to interpret, risk), an animal with PP will concentrate urine but if there is medullary washout,response may be minimal. Can also just see response to AVP therapy - administer desmopresin into conjunctival sac. Dogs with Cdi will respond rapidly and those with NDI or PP will not.

Answer 204

CDI - with DDAVP drops given intraocularly once or twice daily. Many owners opt to give only at night and allow dog free access outside during the day. If NDI is confirmed then search for underlying cause and treat this. if none is find, found, feed a low salt diet and give chlorthiazide diuretics.

Answer 205

Lymphocytic thyroiditis and idiopathic follicular atrpohy. Lymphocytic thyroiditis is an immune mediated disorder which results in progressive destruction of the thyroid gland by infiltrating lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages. In idiopathic follicular atrophy there is a loss of thyroid parenchyma and replacement by adipose connective tissue. Thyroid neoplasia resulting in destruction of thyroid tissue is an uncommon cause of hypothyroidism in dogs.

Answer 206

Mean diagnosis 7 years. General insidious in onset clinical signs. Lethargy, weight gain, exercise intolerance and cold intolerance. Alopecia, bilaterally symmetrical or patchy, thinning of hair on tail, skin may also bruise more easily and have poor wound healing, may fail to regrow hair following clipping, myxoedema is a non pitting thickening of the skin particularly eyelids, cheeks and forehead. Irregular oestrus cycles and anoestrus. Sinus bradycardia and weak apex beat. Reduced ventricular function may occur in hypothyroidism. Ocular changes associated with hypothyroidism include corneal lipidosis, uveitis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca.

Answer 207

A mild non regenerative anaemia occurs in 30% of hypothyroid dogs. Fasting hypercholesterolaemia and hypertriglyceridaemia occurs in around 75% of dogs with hypothyroidism.

Answer 208

Total T4 - a normal T2 concentration demonstrates that a dog is euthyroid (UNLESS anti t4 antibodies cause an increase in T4 concentration) . A low T4 does not confirm a diagnosis of hypothyroidism. decreased T4 may also occur due to a non thyroidal illness. Measurement of Free T4 does not always remain within referance range in dogs with sick euthyroid syndrome, but should give a more accurate measurement of thyroid function since only free hormone can enter cells. In primary hypothyroidism, negative feedback should result in TSH concentrations increasing above the reference range. Many dogs with hypothyroidism have a TSH concentration within the reference range. thyrotropin (TSH) stimulation test - measure of T4 before and after TSH administration is a test of thyroid function reserve - most accurate test for diagnosis. Dogs with primary hypothyroidism will not have a significant increase in TT4 post TSH stimulation.

Answer 209

Synthetic l thyroxine (t4). (soloxine, thyroxyl). A liquid formulation (leventa) is also available. initial dose of 0.02-0.04 mg/kg once dail or divided as twice daily dose is recommended.

Answer 210

In the majority of cases it is caused by a functional adenoma, which may be unilateral or bilateral. 2% of cases are due to thyroid neoplasia.

Answer 211

Older cats Weight loss, polyphagia, polyuria, polydipsia, intermittent vomiting and diarrhoea, altered behaviour including irritability/aggression, lack of or excessive grooming. Poor body condition, palpable goitre, tachycardia, gallop rhthmn, cardiac murmur, tachypnoea, plantigrade stance or cervical ventroflexion from mscle weakness, matter unkempt coat or alopecia. Systolic blood pressure may be elevated due to increased sympathetic output.

Answer 212

Elevated T4: this is most commonly performed, but concurrent illness may lower thyroxine into the upper half - normal range in the hyperthyroid cat. Tsh is suppressed in hyperthyroidism.

Answer 213

Medical management - inhibit the enzyme thyroid peroxidase which is involved in a number of steps in the formation of T4 and T3. E.g Methimazole - twice daily dosing. (side effects include facial pruritus, hepatopathy, aplastic anaemia, vomiting, dx) Carbimazole - metabolised into methimazole. Sustained release product vidalta is licensed for once daily dosing. Dietary management - Severely restricting dietary iodine, then the thyroid glands is unable to synthesis thyroxine and t3. only fed EXCLUSIVELY on this diet. Radioactive iodine - best therapy - recurernce is rare. Typically administered by subcut injection, cat held in isolation. Surgical management - ideally should be stabilised prior to surgery. Can offer cost effective treatment, recurrence is likely in 1/5 of patients even where bilaterally thyroidectomy is performed due to ectopic thyroid tissue.

Answer 214

``` Malignancy - lymphoma, anal sac adenocarcinoma, multiple myeloma, carcinomas, malignant melanoma, osteosarcoma, thymoma. Hypoadrenocorticism Chronic renal failure Primary hyperparathyroidism Hypervitaminosis D Granulomatous disease Idiopathic (cats) Young animals ```

Answer 215

Most commonly associated with a solitary adenoma of the parathyroid gland resulting in atrophy of the other glands. the tumour does not respond to usual feedback control so high PTH secretion continues despite high calcium concentrations.

Answer 216

PUPD, listessness, weakness, exercise intolerance, inappetance, muscle wasting, urinary tract signs such as dysuria, haematuria due to urinary tract infection or uroliths, vomiting, constipation, shivering, stiff gait.

Answer 217

by the finding of persistently increased calcium concentrations in the presence of an inappropriately increased Plasma PTH cocentration. Serum phosphate concenrations tend to be below the referance range or normal which means that the risk of soft tissue mineralisation is low. Most parathyroid adenomas can be detected by ultrasound by experienced ultrasonographers.

Answer 218

IV fluid therapy 2-3 times maintenance 0.9% NaCl is advisable in patients with symptomatic hypercalcaemia pending a definitive diagnosis. Surgical removal of parathyroid mass id avisable in al symptomatic cases. The hypercalcaemia typically resolves between 1-3 days post surgery.

Answer 219

Progressive renal disease reduces excretion of phosphorous resulting in hyperphosphataemia and a reciprocal reduction in serum calcium. > an increase in PTH secretion.Typically dogs and cats with CRF will either have normal or low total calcium and only a small minority develop hypercalcaemia. The clinical signs may be related to renal disease or associated with prolonged PTH secretion - may have rubber jaw, bone pain, pathological fractures.

Answer 220

a nutritional disorder that occurs in puppies and kittens that have been fed diets that contain an excessive amount of phosphate and insufficient calcium.Usually all meat diets. Lack of dietary calcium leads to increased PTH concentrations. > calcium resorption from bone > lameness, reluctance to stand or walk and skeletal pain.

Answer 221

``` Primary hypoparathyroidism Eclampsia Acute pancreatitis Hypoalbuminaemia Acute or chronic renal failure Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism Protein losing enteropathies Ethylene glycol toxicity ```

Answer 222

A rare condition which occurs following immune mediated destruction of the parathyroid glands. (also during damage when removin thyroid in hyperthyroid cats). Absence of PTH production leads to a decrease in plasma calcium concentration and an increase in phosphate concentration.

Answer 223

Female predisposition - commonly affets poodles, min schauers, retrievers, gsd. typically age of onset is 5yo. Clinical signs tend to be related to sudden onset of neuromuscular or neurological disturbances which may be worsened or initiated by exercise or excitement. These include nervousness, behavioural changes, focal muscle twitching, muscle cramps, stiff gait, pyrexia, tetany and seizures.

Answer 224

In a dog or cat with persistent hypocalcaemia, hyperphospataemia and normal renal function. Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying low plasma PTH concentration with concurrent hypocalcaemia.

Answer 225

Administration of vitamin D and calcium supplements which is typically divided into acute and chronic treatment phases. in acute - administration of calcium gluconate until clinical signs are controlled. Once stable - oral treatment with vitamin D and calcium supplementation.

Answer 226

Cortex produces - aldosterone form the zona glomerulosa, cortisol from the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis, and sex hormones from the zona reticularis. All are synthesised from cholesterol. the medulla secretes catcholamines adrenaline and noradenaline from chromaffin cells.

Answer 227

Increased sodium resorption, increased renal excretion of potassium, increased water resorption.

Answer 228

A pituitary neoplasm causing autonomous excessive ACTH secretion in 85-90% of cases. Adrenal dependent HAC is due to adrenocortical neoplasia.

Answer 229

``` Polyphagia PUPD Pendulous or enlarged abdomen/obesity Hepatomegaly Excessive panting Muscle atrophy Lethargy skin changes - hyperpigmented, infection, seborrhea, poor wound healing, thin skin Alopecia - bilaterally symmetrical, non pruritic, dull dry coat Anoestrus/testicular atrophy Calcinosis cutis Hypertensive retinopathy ```

Answer 230

``` Raised AP Bile acid concentrations may be normal or marginally elevated Hypercholesterolaemia Hypertriglyceridaemia High normal glucose Low thyroxine in 70% of cases. ```

Answer 231

Basal cortisol secretion - fluctates and so basal cortisol should not be used for diagnosis. ACTH stimulation test - investigates capacity of adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The enlarged adrenal cortex in HAC response to ACTH with excessive cortisol production. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test - Doses of exogenous glucocorticoids suppress blood cortisol concentrations of healthy dogs by negative feedback but are less effective in dogs with naturally occurring HAC. Most dogs with ADH do not suppress at either point, whereas those with PDH may suppress at 4 ours but not at 8 hours. Urinary cortisol/creatinine ratio - cortisol is excreted in urine so ratio provides reliable estimate of cortisol release.

Answer 232

Imaging - in PDH both glands are enlarged. In ADH one gland is enlarged and the other is atrophied. Low dose dexamethasone test - 30% of dogs with PDH suppress cotisol at 4 hours but not 8 hours. Dogs with iatrogenic HAC have atrophic glands of ultrasound imaging.

Answer 233

trilostaine - competitive and reversible inhibitor of 3B hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase so blocks adrenal steroid biosynthesis pathway. Mitotane - cutotoxic and destroys the zona fasciculata and reticularis of the adrenal gland while leaving zona glomerulosa mostly intact. only permitted if trilostane fails to control condition.

Answer 234

surgical removal of adrenal tumour. Trilostane has been reported to be effective in managing adrenal tumours Mitotane is relativelye ffective in adrenocortical neoplasia as it is cytotoxic.

Answer 235

Diabetes mellitus. Cats with insulin resistant diabetes mellitus should always be assessed for presence of HAC. Extreme skin fragility. skin will tear easily even with normal handling and large areas may denude. Weight loss - due to poorly controlled diabetes.

Answer 236

Primary HOC usually arises from idiopathic bilateral adrenocortical atrophy which is thought to be an immune mediated process.

Answer 237

``` 75% of cases are female Young to middle aged dogs (median 4yo) Inappetance Depression Weakness Vomiting Diarrhoea Weight loss shivering, muscle tremors, stiffness PUPD Collapse Dehydration Hypotension Bradycardia and weak pulse Muscle weakness Mild normocytic normochromic anaemia ```

Answer 238

Hyperkalaemia Hyponatraemia Hypochloraemia Reduced plasma:sodium ratio. (

Answer 239

``` Spiking of the T wave Shortening of Q-t interval Prolonged P-r interval Reduced P wave amplitude P waves may disappear. Severe bradycardia, ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest may result. ```

Answer 240

A basal cortisol level

Answer 241

Appropriate fluid therapy - isotonic salive IV, which raises sodium levels and reduces potassium levels and corrects hypovolaemia. If hypoglycaemic - dextrose may be added to fluids. Give glucocorticoids immediatley after the ACTH stimulation test has been completed. Drug of choice is hydrocortisone sodium succinate administered IV. Monitor sodium and potassium concentrations hourly.

Answer 242

Oral mineralocorticoid therapy using fludrocortisone acetate. Some will respond well to daily dose of prednisolone as well even when serum electrolytes are normally. Glucocorticoid dosage should be initiated/increased in times of stress.

Answer 243

Typical clinical and pathological features of glucocorticoid insufficiency but normal serum electrolyte concentrations and no clinical signs related to these - subnormal response in ACTH test. May just have early HOC - should receive physiological replacement of glucocorticoids and be monitored carefully for development of mineralocorticoid deficiency.

Answer 244

Feline primary hyperaldosteronism. Uncommon. Autonomous excessive secretion of aldosterone> excessive sodium retention > excessive potassium secretion. usually due to a unilateral adrenal tumour. Causes hypokalaemia which can be mild and episodic, hypertension (retinopathy, intraocular haemorrhage, acute onset blindness). Consider in cases of severe hypertension where hypokalaemia responds poorly to potassium supplementation. There is an elevated plasma aldosterone with concurrent low plasma renin levels.

Answer 245

functional tumours of the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. usually unilateral. they cause excessive production of catecholamines. release is episodic so clinical signs are intermittent; weakness and lethargy, episodic collapse, restless, panting, anxious, tachycardia, hypertension, pupd. Local invasion common, particularly the caudal vena cava where tumour thrombus may form.

Answer 246

I131 is selectively taken up by the thyroid to be incorporated into thyroid hormone precursors. it emits beta and gamma radiation and so destroys the thyroid tissue. it is selective and not associated with damage to surrounding tissue e.g parathyroid. the draw backs include special facilities and hospitalisation of the cat post treatment as the i131 is eliminated in faeces, urine etc.

Answer 247

type 1 in dog | Type 2 in cats

Answer 248

They stimualte the pancreas to release insulin and increase the peripheral utilisation of insulin. glipizide is the main agent used. It inhibits ATPH-dependent K+ channels causing depolarisation and release of insulin. Kinetics based on human studies show good oral bioavailability with hepatic metabolism and renal excretion.

Answer 249

Used for obesity. MTP and apolipoprotein B are key lipid transfer proteins. Required for the formation of apoB containing lipoproteins, this occurs in enterocytes and the liver within the endoplasmic reticulum. Inhibition of MTPs results in lowering of cholesterol and triglyceride levels , and reduction in absorption of dietary fat and increased faecal excretion of fat.

Answer 250

Porcine - they are identical

Answer 251

Insulin deficiency diabetes associated with a total loss of beta cell function. Common in dos. High blod glucose, low resting insulin, fail to secrete insulin in presence of hyperglycaemia. insulin dependent.

Answer 252

Insulin resistance diabetes. Patients have high resting blood glucose, normal/high levels of insulin > insufficient for demand. most occur because of insulin resistance due to excess diabetogenic hormones or obesity. Peripheral cell insulin receptors are less responsive to insulin, meaning ever hgiher insulin levels are acquired.

Answer 253

Obesity Progesterone (entire females) > production of growth hormone > diabetogenic. Glucocorticoids - antagonise insulin Pancreatitis - chronic pancreatitis may lead to sufficient loss of endocrine tissue to result in DM.

Answer 254

10-12mmol/l in dogs and 12-14mmol/l in cats.

Answer 255

Polpyhagia, PUPD. If ketoacidotic - depression, anorexia, vomiting, dehydration Cats may exhibit a plantigrade stance due to peripheral neuropathy

Answer 256

Clinical signs Persistent fasting blood glucose greater than 14mmol with glucosuria. hyperglycaemia can be as high as 35mmol/l. In cats hyperglycaemia can occur due to stress up to 16mmol/l. Measurement of fructosamine levels may help with interpretation of moderately high blood glucose

Answer 257

Produced by the irreversible glycosylation of albumin in proportion to surrounding glucose levels. its half life is around 1-2 weeks and so levels give an indication of the average blood glucose level over that time span.

Answer 258

``` Formation of cataracts in dogs Retinopathy (rare) peripheral neuropathy in cats Recurrent bacterial infections - uti,skin, dental life threatening diabetic ketoacidosis. ```

Answer 259

``` Insulinoma hunting dog, toy dog or neonatal hypoglycaemia Prolonged starvation Infections Glycogen storage disease hepatic insufficiency hypoadrenocorticism sepsis toxins (ethylene glycol, xylitool) extrahepatic IGF-2 producing tumours Panhypoituitarism. ```

Answer 260

Gastrin secreting tumour in the pancreas. the clinical signs relate to overproduction of gastric acid, with vomiting, anorexia, diarrhoea, gastroduodenal and oesophageal ulceration and perforation, haemtemesis.

Answer 261

0.2mm in cats and 0.5mm in dogs

Answer 262

This is the narrow space that exists between the tooth and the alveolar bone of the jaw in which the tooth is situated. the periodontal space contains the periodontal ligament, blood vessels, nerves and lymphatics.

Answer 263

Fibres of the periodontal ligament which unite the alveolar bone on one side and the cementum on the other in a meshwork of inter woven branches.

Answer 264

up to 1mm in cats and up to 4mm deep in dogs. deeper pockets indicate tooth disease and attachment loss.

Answer 265

The mandibular artery enters the mandible at the manidbular foramen and becomes the inferior alveolar artery. it runs within the mandibular canal and exits at the mental foraminae where branches are now called the mental arteries. along the way, small branches supply individual teeth by penetrating the periodontium.

Answer 266

The maxillary artery and its branches supply these teeth. The main branch running within the infraorbital canal, is the infraorbital artery.

Answer 267

Deciduous teeth - I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 3/3 M 0/0-28 teeth in total Permanent teeth - I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 4/4 M 2/3 - 42 teeth in total

Answer 268

Deciduous I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 3/2 M 0/0 | Permanent I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 3/2 M 1/1

Answer 269

No teeth at birth Deciduous canines by 4 weeks Incisors, premolars through by 5-6 weeks. All deciduous teeth present and correct by 6 weeks in both kittens and puppies. Permanent teeth Incisors, canines - 3 months Premolars - 4 months Molars - 5 months So a puppy or kitten should have all of its primary teeth at 1st vaccination and may be beginning to show early secondary incisor and canine eruption at 2nd vaccination.

Answer 270

Supra gingival and sub gingival plaque accumulates > bacteria colonise. Initial bacteria are aerobes and facultative anaerobes. As condition progresses > oxygen levels in gingival sulcus reduce > anaerobes take over > periodontal pockets form due to tissue destructive actions of bacterial toxic by products. Normal gingiva > plaque > inflamed gingival margin > fluid accumulates in gingival sulcus >bacteria colonise > cellular infiltrate develops > junctional epithelium swells > tissue destruction at periodontal ligament and alveolar bone crest begins > pocket deepens and widens > debris accumulates in pocket > bone resorption progresses > toth becomes progressively more mobile. > eventually lost.

Answer 271

Monocryl 4/0 or 5/0

Answer 272

the initial lesions is an external surface resorption of teh tooth root by multinucleate cells called odontoclasts. hard tissue loss starts in the root cementum, progresses into dentine and then moves up into the dentine of the crown. Eventually the enamel is also eaten away in a scalloped fashion giving the characteristic clinical lesion of a shiny bright red area on the crown surface. the red substance is a granulation like tissue filling in the enamel void.

Answer 273

The lesions are almost always located on the buccal aspect of the tooth and certain teeth are more commonly affected. The mandibular third premolars on the LHS 307 and 407 on the RHs are often the first affected. Many of the cats with broken or missing teeth that you see in practice will have had this condition.

Answer 274

Painful, irritability, changes in food preferance, drooling, head shyness.

Answer 275

Normal tooth root density and appearance, periodontal ligament space visible, often associated with general periodontal disease.

Answer 276

Roots hard to see, may be replaced by alveolar bone or ghosted in outline, the periodontal ligament space is not clear, gingivitis associated with the affected tooth rather than general periodontal disease.

Answer 277

Teeth affected by crown enamel resorption should almost always be extracted. Type 1 lesions require standard extraction with root retrieval. If a root tip fractures it should be found and removed. Type 2 lesions can be treated with coronal amputation. the crown is amputated and no attempt is made to retrieve roots. the flap can be replaced using a suture with monocryl.

Answer 278

The aetiology is uncertain but the condition appears to be an aberrant immune response to low levels of plaque antigens. Associations are suggested with feline calicivirus, FeLV, FIV and FHV, Increased numbers of cats in the household or social stress, gram negative anaerobes, purebreeds. The lesion is a submucosal infiltration of plasma cells, lymphocyts, macrophages and neutrophils. the palatoglossal folds and the oral mucosa lying lateral to these are most commin sites for inflammation.

Answer 279

Supply a 10 day course of antibiotic. suitable choices are clindamycin, metronidazole, amoxicillin clavulanate. then perform a careful scale and polish including subgingival treatment, extract teeth affected by periodontal disease and FORLS. supply chlorhexidine based gel for the owner to apply daily on an on going basis. Unfortunately many cases will persist after the above treatment. Other possibilities include, removal of all cheek teeth, upper and lower quadrants, both sides.Radical extraction results in improvement in 87% of cases. Steroids may be a good option for the owner if unable to afford extensive treatment. Interferon can be used for cats non responsive to radical extractions. The interferon is given sub gingivally or subcut until the cat tests FCV negative.

Answer 280

Because of this cat's history and blood results, an upper GI obstruction is highly suspected. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis is a classic finding in a pet with an upper GI obstruction and should be ruled out first, especially in a young cat with these clinical signs.

Answer 281

Faecal oral route , by direct contact and via environmental contamination. very sable and can survive for over a year at room temperature in organic material.

Answer 282

In utero - death resorption or abortion. In late stage of gestation - kittens with profound and permanent suppression of immune system (lymphopenia and neutropenia). Infections in older kittens - typically follow incubation period of up to 10 days and rage from subclinical to peracute death. Mild forms include self limiting diarrhoea and panleucopaenia. Other kittens may show profound diarrhoea, secondary bacterial infection, panleucopaenia, sepsis and death. Affected kittens often present with a sudden onset of depression, anorexia, pyrexia and apparent thirst but do not actually drink. vomiting and diarrhoea, may contain blood, marked dehydration and collapse.

Answer 283

Presence of clinical signs, vaccinal status, age, and environment, accompanied by profound panleucopaenia, particularly neutropaenia. Virus isolation or PCR tests can be performed on faecal samples, oropharyngeal swabs in transport media or post mortem material. Canine parvo snap tests can be used for detection of antigen in faeces.

Answer 284

Supportive care - fluid therapy, broad spectrum antibiotics, anti emetics, gut protectants, B vitamins, provision of a warm clean environment, good nursing care, feline interferon omega can be very helpful.

Answer 285

over 80% of cases are caused by infection with either feline calicivirus or feline herpes virus. Other oragnisms may be involved including feline coronavirus, mixed bacteria, bordetella bronchiseptica, pasteurella multocida and mycoplasma and chlamydophila felis.

Answer 286

Most of the organisms that typically cause cat flu are transmitted by aerosol and direct contact of the eyes, noses and mouths.

Answer 287

Ulceration of the tongue, hard palate, soft palate, pharynx and external nares.

Answer 288

Sneezing is typically the first sign observed, followed by a serous ocular and nasal discharge which rapidly becomes mucopurulent due to secondary bacterial infection. Affected cats are usually depressed and pyrexic. conjunctivitis can cause the eyelids to become sticky. coughing and dyspnoea are less commonly seen and tend to be associated with FHV and B bronchiseptica.

Answer 289

presumptive diagnosis made on clinical signs and history of possible exposure to causal organisms. Nasal or oropharyngeal swabs can be taken for isolation and culture and in the case of FHV1 and C felis, PCR tests. Serology can be used to determine whether or not a cat has been previously exposed to FCV or FHV - limited value since most cats have been vaccinated.

Answer 290

symptomatic therapies and good nursing care. Feline IFN omega may be helpful as an antiviral. Other options are oral famcyclovir ororal L lysine. Safeb road spectrum antibiotics for 2-3 weeks. Where B bronchiseptica, mycoplasma or C felis have been detected give doxycyline. Oesophageal feeding tubes are preferred as the cats nasal turbinates are already inflamed. Mirtazapine can be used as an appetite stimulant Mucolytics may help to ease respiratory tract congestion e.g bromhexine (bisolvon)

Answer 291

Mycoplasma haemofelis, M turicensis and mycoplasma haemominutum.

Answer 292

The parasites adhere to red blood cells changing their cell surface and making them antigenic so they are removed by the spleen and liver. the replication cycle of this parasite takes 2-8 weeks so clinical disease tends to be cyclic. Infection may be subclinical but most likely to result in disease when the cat is co infected with FelV.

Answer 293

Via saliva through biting and possibly fleas. Transmission from queens to kitens in utero or via milk may also occur.

Answer 294

May be asymptomatic or just show fever. other cats develop acute disease with signs of lethargy, pale mm, tachypnoea, tachycardia and occasionally dyspnoea. splenomegaly is common and pyrexia is variable. Where the anaemia is severe a haemic murmur may be detected.

Answer 295

Parasitaemia waxes and wanes, but giemsa or acridine orange stained blood smears can be used for detection of the organism attached to red cells. Detection of the organism is variable and repeat smears may be required. A regenerative anaemia should be present, with polychromasia and normoblasts.

Answer 296

Doxycyline 5-10mg/kg/day PO. where AIHA is present give prednisolone.

Answer 297

P27 - it is the most abundant of the core proteins.

Answer 298

Transmitted by cat to cat contact, with the virus being excreted in saliva, biting, licking and mutual grooming are important means of virus transfer, urine, faeces and milk.

Answer 299

Infection is maintained in bone marrow, inadequate virus is present to result in a viraemia so these cats are usually negative on conventional FeLV elisa and IFA tests. In latent infections the virus can sometimes be identified on bone marrow samples by culture or PCR.

Answer 300

Immunosuppression - causing cytopenia, neutrophil and lymphocyte dysfunction and thymic atrophy. May predispose to opportunist infections. Anaemia - Regenerative anaemia due to FELV associated immune mediated haemolytic anaemia or due to M haemofelis infection wihlst marrow disorders can result in non regenerative nanaemia. Pure red cell aplasia can result form felv subgroup C infection. Neoplastic diseases - lymphoma is the most common type. Can be multicentric or disseminated. The multicentric form is seen as LSA affecting several separate sites such as the kidneys, nose and nervous system. Myeloproliferative disorders can result from FeLV infection where proliferation of a myeloid cell ine in a myeloid leukaemia can result in crowding out of other non malignant marrow cell lines. Felv can also cause severe haemorrhagic enteritis, similar to FPV infection.

Answer 301

A lentivirus

Answer 302

Older male cat that is free to roam outdoors. The major route of transmission is via saliva, especially through biting so those cats exhibiting territorial aggression are most at risk.

Answer 303

primary phase - virus replicates rapidly in lymphoid tissue. 3 weeks after infection. may be subclinical. More typically it results in pyrexia, malaise, lymphadenopathy. Most cats then become asymptomatic and remain healthy for an indefinite period of time. during the asymptomatic phase, levels of ciruclating virus are low but viral replication continues within infected tissues. Immunosuppression develops as the virus causes a reduction in CD4+ T helper cell numbers. Both cell mediated immunity and humeral immunity become defective as T and B lymphocyte function is suppressed. initial signs are usually secondary infections.

Answer 304

Gingivitis/stomatitis, weight loss, rhinitis, diarrhoea, skin disease and ocular signs. Fever, lymphadenopathy, respiratory disease, otitis, recurrent abscesses, chronic enteritis, chronic renal insufficiency. Many infections to which healthy cats would usually show greater resistance - eg demodicosis, dermatophytosis, toxoplasmosis. Incidence of neoplasia is also increased - lymphoma, myeloproliferative disease, squamous cell carcinoma, mammary gland carcinoma.Clinical signs are v similar to those associated with FeLV.

Answer 305

By detecting either virus or FIV specific antibodies in blood or saliva. Elisa CITE and Snap tests detect antibodies to core protein FIV P24, while RIM tests detect antibodies to envelope protein gp40.

Answer 306

Itraconazole rather than griseofulvin since griseofulvin can induce severe neutropaenia in cats.

Answer 307

Feine coronavirus. Up to 40% of the general population have antibodies against FCOV, many are usually harmless and at most cause only mild enteric signs, however it is believed that when FCOVs are able to replicate rapidly they undergo mutation and this can lead to increased pathogenicity. This enables the viruses to infect macrophages and in some cases cause FIP.

Answer 308

Faeco - oral route. higher incidence of FIP in cats housed in colonies and burmese, persian birman and bengal breeds.

Answer 309

Effusive / wet form - fluid accumulates in peritoneal and/pleural cavities with lesions on peritoneum and pleura. Non effusive/dry form - small focal lesions develop in the peritoneum, kidneys liver mesenteric LN and pancreas. The eyes are often involved presenting as anterior uveitis and posterior uveitis. the history usually includes anorexia, weight loss, pyrexia, dullness.

Answer 310

Definitive host - cat, oocysts are passed in faeces, ingested by intermediate host (mouse/rat),, then cats usually become infected by ingestion of encysted organisms present in the tissues of a chronically infected intermediate host. the cyst wall is digested by the cat,, releasing infectious organisms which penetrate the intestinal wall and replicate throughout the body as rapidly dividing tachyzoites. The organisms invade and replicate in the intestinal epithelial cells where sexual reproduction results in the formation of oocysts which are excreted in the faeces.

Answer 311

Cats previously unexposed to T gondii usually begin shedding oocysts between 3 and 10 days after ingestion of ingested tissue, and continue shedding for around 10-14 days, during which time many millions of oocysts may be produced. Once immune, further shedding of oocysts is extremely rare. After oocysts have been passed in the faeces they undergo sporulation which takes 1-5 days. Prior to this they are not infectious. Oocysts are very resistant and may survive in the environment for well over a year.

Answer 312

Rodents, birds, sheep, pig, cattle, become infected by ingestion of sporulated oocysts. An extra intestinal cycle of infectious occurs and results in encysted bradyzoites which are infectious to cats and other intermediate hosts.

Answer 313

Clinical disease v rare. most common in young cats, may be due to a poorly developed immune response. Reactivation of infection in older cats linked to co infection with FIV or FELV. most common clinical signs are anorexia, weight loss, lethargy, dyspnoea due to pneumonia, ocular signs, iritis, chorioretinis and pyrexia.

Answer 314

Looking for faecal oocysts > clinical signs do not usually develop untill after oocyst shedding has caesed. Serology - igG seroconversion occurs after 2-4 weeks with peak titres by 4-6 weeks. However in many cases clinical signs will develop either before seroconversion occurs or not untill after peak titres have developed. IgG serology is therefore often difficult to interpret and a single antibody titre is rarely of any value. High Igm titres demonstrate recent or reactivated infection with T gondi.

Answer 315

Clindamycin. | Azithromycin good second choice.

Answer 316

No - infection is correlated with eating undercooked meat.

Answer 317

Cats are usually infected with cow pox by bank voles, field voles and wood mice which are known to carry the infection. It can also be occasionally found in the house mouse. Affected rodents do not usually show signs of infection.

Answer 318

The virus enters the skin through a bite wound, infection becomes apparent after a few days as a small ulcerated nodule. This may be followed by secondary bacterial infection causing abscessation/cellulitis. The virus multiplies in the lungs, nasal passages and lymphoid tissues fr 5 days producing a transient viraemia. Numerous skin lesions appear 10 days to several weeks later, they are oval to circular ulcerated plaques and up to 1cm in size which may occur on any part of the body. they are not pruritic.Usually resolves after 6-8 weeks.

Answer 319

A positive titre is supportive of recent infection (previous 6months). Titres may be positive 7-14 days after intital exposure. crust material from skin lesions can be sent in a sterile container for analysis, pcr, viral culture or electron microscopy.

Answer 320

M bovis or M microti. Most cats that are infected are keen hunters. The areas affected are the areas most likely to be bitten when playing with prey (face and front legs).

Answer 321

Loccalised disease affecting the skin or systemic signs related to the alimentary/respiratory tracts. the most common form is the cutaneous form affecting the face, extremities, tail base or perineum. They are typically firm raised dermal nodules which may be ulcerated or form non healing wounds with draining sinus tracts. Submandibular or prescapular lymphadenopathy may be the only clinical finding. When the infection spreads to the lungs, tubercles arise in the lungs or hilar lymph nodes and affected cats present with weight loss, anorexia, dyspnoea and coughing.

Answer 322

Thorough evaluation to assess degree of systemic involvement. The IFn gamma test is good at detecting members of the tuberculosis complex. Cats do not react strongly to intra dermally administered tuberculin adn the results from intra dermal skin testing are unreliable. To confirm mycobacterial involvement, aspirates or biopsy samples hsould be stained with Zieehl Neelsen stain. While finding AFB confirms the presence of mycobacteria, it is important to culture the organism to determine the exact species involved.

Answer 323

this is notifiable to the VLA.

Answer 324

Consider potential zonotic risk. Surgical excision of small cutaneous lesions may be considered but debulking larger lesions risks wound dehiscence. Interim therapyw ith a fluoroquinolone has been recommended. This should only be considered in cases of localized cutaneous infection. initial treatment phase with rifampicin, pradofloxacin, clarithromycin, azithromycin, followed by a continuation phase of rifampicin and either pradofloxacin or clarithryomycin/azithromycin. All medications acn be given as liquids and placed in a single syringe prior to oral administration.

Answer 325

A disease caused by non tuberculosis mycobacteria, by infection form rodents (m lepraemurium) or by saprophytic usually non pathogenic organisms from the soil, water and decaying vegatation contaminating cutaneous wounds.

Answer 326

Granulomatous panniculitis - multiple punctate draining tracts occur, subcutaneous nodules and coalescence produces large areas of ulcerated, non healing tissue. affected areas can be painful. the inguinal fat pads, flanks and tail base are affected most frequently. Feline leprosy syndrome is seen as a single or multiple cutaneous or subcutaneous nodules which may be haired, alopecic or ulcerated and are typically seen on the head, limbs and occasionally trunk. they are non painful and freely mobile. regional lymphadenopathy may be present but systemic disease is rare.

Answer 327

Aerosol or droplet exposure - high concentration in respiratory secretions as well as in urine and faeces.

Answer 328

Depends on level of CDV antibody titres and adequacy of cell mediated immunity. Individuals with adequate antibodies show no clinical signs although they can still shed virus. Intermediate levels results in infection of epithelial tissues and development of clinical signs, recovery is associated with long term immunity and cessation of viral shedding. Poor immune status results in severe disease and virus usually persists until death.

Answer 329

Bilateral discharge, coughing, dyspnoea. Serous to mucopurulent bilateral conjunctivitis, mild anterior uveitis, degeneration/necrosis of the retina vomiting and diarrhoea, anorexia, dehydration weight loss. Pustular dermatitis, digital hyperkeratosis Seizures, vestibular isease, ataxia or MYOCLONUS, acute meningio encephalitis may occur in conjunction with other systemic signs. Neonatal infection prior to eruption of permanent dentition results in damage to enamel and dentine, resulting in distemper rings.

Answer 330

Clinical signs in an unvaccinated dog especially 3-6 month old puppies. The following may be present; Distemper inclusions on peripheral blood smears, Non specific biochemical changes relating to dehydration, and or polyclonal gammopathy, CSF may show increased protein content and cell count, distemper inclusions on peripheral blood smears. Immunofluorescent antibody on conjunctival smears is helpful int he acute phase of the disease or on tonsilar tissue, leukocytes or respiratory epithelium. ELISA can be done on serology to detect anti CDV IgG and IgM. PCR can be performed on various tissues e.g CSF, respiratory secretions.

Answer 331

ICH is caused by canine adenovirus 1, a virus with haemagglutinating surface antigens.

Answer 332

Oronasal route from infected urine, faeces and fomites. urinary excretion of virus may persist for 6-9 months after infection.

Answer 333

CAV1 initially localises in tonsils before progressing along the lymphatics to regional LNs and via the thoracic duct to blood. Viraemia results in dissemination to various tissues with hepatic parenchyma and vascular endothelium being the primary targets. In the liver it causes widespread centrilobular to panlobular necrosis, Dogs with high antibody titres are usually asymptomatic. A partial neutralising antibody response may develop chronic active hepatitis and subsequent hepatic fibrosis. Low level titres are associated with widespread hepatic necrosis and may be fatal. Damage to vascular endothelium results in bleeding diathesis including vasculitis and disseminated intravascular dissemination.

Answer 334

Pyrexia, anorexia, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, jaundice, abdominal distension, petechiation, epistaxis, CNS signs depression, disorientation, seizures.

Answer 335

highly contagious, infection usually results from exposure to contaminated faces. incubation is 4-14 days.

Answer 336

Severe vomiting and diarrhoea with anorexia and rapid dehydration Profuse foul smelling bloody diarrhoea Pyrexia initially proceeding to hypothermia DIC may result from gram negative septicaemia with associated haemorrhage Neurological signs may develop as a consequence of hypoglycaemia, CNS haemorrhage, sepsis or acid base abnormalities.

Answer 337

Suspicion in young unvaccinated dogs with suddeon onset foul smelling foetid diarrhoea. Other organisms such as salmonella and campylobacter should be considered. Electrolyte and acid base imbalances are common. IDEXX cITE test - detects virus in the faeces. A negative does not eliminate possibility of parvovirus. Serology - Rising antibody titre, haemagglutination inhibition test. PCR detects virus antigen in faeces. Indirect IFA on histopath samples from PM.

Answer 338

``` Usually Leptospirosis interrogans ictohaemorrhagica Leptospirosis interrogans canicola Leptospirosis interrogans grippothyphosa Leptospira interrogans pomona Leptospira interrogans bratislava ```

Answer 339

Via urine, veneral and palcental transfer, bite wounds or ingestion of infected tissue. Indirect via exposure to contaminated water sources, soil, food and bedding.

Answer 340

Leptospires penetrate mucous membranes and abraded skin and rapidly divide in the blood before spreading to other tissues including the liver and kidneys, lungs, spleen, CNS, eyes and genital tract. the extent of target organ damage depends on the dose of infection, host susceptibility and the virulence of the organism. In surviving hosts organism is shed in urine for months ot years.

Answer 341

Sudden death, vomiting, rapid dehydration, cardiovascular collapse. Acute infections result in a mixture of ; pyrexia, anorexia, dehydration, polydipsia, oliguria, congested mm, jaundice, abdominal pain, paraspinal pain, anterior uveitis.

Answer 342

Dark field microscopy for organism in urine, culture from urine, bloody in early acute disease. PCR in blood or urine, IFA on liver or kidney or urine, serology to demonstrate a rising antibody titre, may be negative in first 7-10 days, rising after 2-4 weeks.

Answer 343

Penicilins - immediately stop replication of the organism and reduce fatal complications. Elimination of the carrier state is achieved by administering tetracyclines, erythromycin or fluorquinolones.

Answer 344

Canine parainfluenza virus CAV-2 Bordetella bronchiseptica Canine influenza virus

Answer 345

CDV , canine herpes virus Pasteurella, strep, pseudomonas, mycoplasma

Answer 346

Coughing, sudden onset, retching, typically there will be a history of a visit to boarding kennels, coughing often brought on by excitement, dry or hacking cough, expectoration of mucus may occur and should be differentiated from vomiting, usually the dog is othewise healthy and active. Occasionally secondary opportunistic bacterial infection will result in the development of bronchopneumonia, mucopurulent rhinitis and conjunctivitis.

Answer 347

Pet must be microchipped. Must be vaccinated against rabies for 21 days before travel. Must have valid EU pet passport. Before re entering the UK must be treated against tapeworms (between 24-120 hours before the pet is checked in with transport company). Don't need to be treated if coming from Republic of ireland, malta, finland or norway. Tapeworm treatment must contain praziquantel. (for echinococcus multilocularis) tick treatments no longer required but strongly advised.

Answer 348

Anaplasma phagocytophilum are obligate intracellular bacteria transmitted by ixodes ricinus ticks. tick attachment >24hr needed for disease to occur.

Answer 349

acute onset fever, anorexia, lethargy, lameness, occasional cough, pale mucous membranes, mild to severe immune mediated thrombocytopenia. lymphopenia then lymphocytosis. can be diagnosed using Snap 4DX for A phagocytophilium, b burgdorferi, ehrlichia canis and dirofilaria. PCR on blood or synovial fluid most sensitive. tx with doxycyline.

Answer 350

Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted by ixodes ticks. can be transient or recurrent. clinical signs include fever, anorexia, swollen painful joints, lethargy, lymphadenopathy, immune mediated renal disease with depression, ovmiting, anorexia, PUPD. a positive PCR confirms diagnosis.tx with doxycyline.

Answer 351

Ehrlichia canis is an obligate intracellular bacteria, transmitted by ticks. E canis vector is rhipcephalus sanguineous. Acute clinical signs include pyrexia, anorexia, lymphadenopathy, bleeding diathesis, uveitis, polyarthritis. May become chronic with bone marrow infection resulting in pancytopenia. Diagnosis based on presence of intraceullar organism on blood smear, pcr, or serology. Tx with doxycyline.

Answer 352

Babesia canis canis - protozoan organismm tarnsmitted by ticks, rhipcephalus sanguinous major ector. sporozoites attach to erythrocyte membrane and undergo endocytosis. haemolytic anaemia occurs due to immune mediated destruction of erythrocytes. Haemolytic anaemia associated with babesia infection has similarities with idiopathic IMHA. Autoagglutination is seen in approx 21% of cases and 85% are coombs positive. Diagnosis is by PCR on EDTA blood.

Answer 353

Protozoan parasite leishmania infantum with dogs as the main resevoir, transmitted by phlebotomus sandfly and is endemic in southern europe. Clinical signs tend to arise as a result of hyperglobulinaemia and immune complex deposition and include glomerulonephritis, polyarthritis and uveitis. Infected dogs tend to become emaciated. in 90% of cases dermatological disease is present with dry desquamation and alopecia. Treatment includes allopurinol, antimonial drugs. and prevention by deltamethrin.

Answer 354

Dirofilaria immitis is transmitted by mosquitos. Following infection l3 migrate to pulmonary artery where they mature to adult nematode. Clinical signs relate to presence of adult nematodes in the pulmonary arteries and range from mild exercise intolerance and coughing to dyspnoea due to allergic pneumonitis nad right sided congestive heart failure, pulmonary hypertension and syncope. Diagnosis based on detected microfilaria an antigen test which is dependent on presence of mature female nematodes, or antibody test as a screening. Treatment with melarsomine and microfilaricidal drugs such as milbemycin. Prevention with milbemycin, selamectin.

Answer 355

following the bite, there is local viral replication in striated muscle spreading to motor nerve endings, the viral load of the bite and distance from the brain will affect how long it takes for clinical signs to appear. virus spreads inspinal cord neurons, rapid spread to CNS causing progressive paralysis of lower motor neurons, viral spread through peripheral and cranial nerves into other tisues including salivary glands but also kidneys, eyes, skin, adrenal glands.

Answer 356

Prodromal phase - lasts for around three days, subtle behavioural changes, sensitivity to noise/light, biting/licking of wound, anorexia. Dromal phase - in furious form there is aggressive ,attacking animals, agitation, convulsions, vocalisation, drooling. In the dumb form; dullness, dyspnagia, profuse salivation, dropped jaw, prolapsed third eyelid, beginning of paralysis. Paralytic phase - progressive paralysis of hind limbs, staggering gait, paralysis of swallowing muscles, foaming at the mouth, severe respiratory difficulties, lapsing into a coma and death.

Answer 357

Fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue | Also rabies tissue culture inoculation test for confirmation, examine inoculated tissue after 3-4 days using FAT.

Answer 358

European bat lyssavirus 2. evidence suggests that bats can recover form EBLV or assume silent carrier status. method of transmission is similar to terrestrial rabies. clinical signs include incoordination and abnormal behaviour e.g active during daylight hours.

Answer 359

Inhibit contralateral antigravity muscles so head body eye tilt circling TOWARDS lesion - will circle towards left.

Answer 360

``` Aniscoria Stabismus Dropped jaw Changed facial sensation Paralysis of eyelid, lip or ear Dysphagia Megaoesophagus Laryngeal paralysis Head tilt, circling, nsytagmus Deaffness ```

Answer 361

Ataxia in all limbs with good reflexes

Answer 362

Poor reflexes in thoracic limbs, ataxia in pelvic limbs

Answer 363

ataxia with good reflexes in the pelvic limbs

Answer 364

good reflexes in thoracic limbs, poor reflexes in pelvic limbs

Answer 365

abnormal behaviour - apathy, aggresion, failure to recognise the owners, loss of trained habits, staring at walls, getting stuck in corners, abnormal mental status, disorientation, stupor, coma, circling in wide circles toward the side of the lesion, continuous pacing, normal gait with delayed postural reactions in contralateral limbs. impaired vision in the eye contralateral to lesion and normal PLR, facial sensory deficits, head turn towards side of lesion, generalised seizures, partial seizures,

Answer 366

Most inherited as autosomal recessive, clinical signs of diffuse neurological dysfunction evident before 1 year of age, progressive leading ot premature death. Laforas disease in beagle, basset hound or other breedsm Fucosidosis - springer spaniels Ceroid lipofuscinosis - english setter, cocker spaniel, dalmation, dachshund.

Answer 367

Diuretics such as furosemide, corticosteroids, and other carbonic anhydrase inhibitors such as acetozalamide to decrease CSF production.

Answer 368

In an older animal with progressive neurological signs or pets > yo with sudden onset of seizures. some breeds such as boxer have higher incidence. Gliomas most common in brachycephalic dogs and meningiomas in doliocephalic dogs.

Answer 369

subacute, chronic non suppurative inflammation of the CNs, commonly affecting female middle age small breed dogs. unknown aetiology, suspected immune disorder. Three clinical forms: disseminated, focal and ocular.

Answer 370

Described mainly in pug dogs, amltese dogs and yorkshire terriers but also in other small breeds such as chihuahuas. The necrotizing meningoencephalitis in pug and maltese dogs affects young dogs with a chronic and progressive course characterized by seizures poorly responsive to anticonvulsant drugs. Yorkshire terriers are affected between 1 and 10 yo and the clinical signs are associated with a brainstem lesion usually. prognosis is poor, corticosteroid and anticonvulsant therapy provides only a temporary improvement.

Answer 371

4MP for dogs, ethanol for cats.

Answer 372

Maintain ventilation, avoid hypotension, prevent/treat cerebral edema, treat increased intracranial pressure

Answer 373

periods of hyperventilation which taper off gradually to periods of apnea of variable duration. when respiration resumes gradually accelerates to the point of hyperventilation. lesion in deep cerebral hemispheric structures, basal ganglia and diencephalon.

Answer 374

Unconscioussness> abnrormal PLR > opisthotonus > extension of thoracic and pelvic limbs

Answer 375

Alert, normal PLR, opisthotonus, extension of thoracic limbs, extension or active flexion of pelvic limbs.

Answer 376

Nausea/vomiting, decreased PLR, decreased level of conscioussness, cushings reflex - hypertension and bradycardia, abnormal respiratory pattern, increased limbs extensor tone

Answer 377

Increased ICP decreases cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral blood flow, inducing cerebral ischaemia, ischaemi triggers a sympathetic response causing elevated heart rate and systemic extracranial vasoconstriction to push more blood to the brain and improve its perfusion > reflex systemic hypertension > severely elevated systemic arterial blood pressure will stimulate the carotid baroreceptors which in turn slow down the heart rate > reflex bradycardia.

Answer 378

Animal suddenly gets stiff and unresponsive, then falls in lateral recumbency with rigid extension of the front limbs, and the head and neck become rigidly extended backward, symmetrical orofacial movements may precede the tonic phase. the patient can be apneic for a while, the eyes are usually open and the pupils are mydriatic, jaw could be wide open or clenched, paddling movement when clonic phase starts, drooling, urination/defecation, then relaxes.

Answer 379

More than two seizures in a 24 hour period or over 2-3 consecutive days.

Answer 380

A seizure that shows no clinical signs of arresting after 5-10 minutes ofa ctivity or recurrent seizures with no recovery of normal/baseline neurological functions between them.

Answer 381

Phenothiazines such as acepromazine, metoclopramide, penicilin, chloramphenicol, enrofloxacin and estrogens or testosterone, may lower seizure threshold.

Answer 382

The pathologic nystagmus has the fast phase directed AWAY from the lesion. (the exception is the paradoxical vesticular disease in which a central vestibular lesion could induce nystagmus with fast phase toward the side of the lesion')

Answer 383

Enopthalmos, protruding third eyelid, ptosis, miosis and sweating of the ipsilateral face in horses. it is caused by a lesion in the sympathetic innervation of the eye. the sympathetic nerve courses through the middle ear in dos and cats and is often affected in otitis media.

Answer 384

Acute, idiopathic, peripheral vestibular disease associated with vomiting, nausea, severe vestibular deficits. in 3-2 days there is spontaneous improvement and usually back to normal in 7-10 days. in some cases it takes up to 2-3 weeks. residual head tilt possible, recurrence possible.

Answer 385

Vestibular ataxia, vertical nystagmus, anorexia

Answer 386

I - olfactory - smell II - optic- vision and PLR III - oculomotor - innervates parasympathetic fibers for constriction of pupil, dorsal medial and ventral recti m. IV - trochlear - medio ventral rotation of eye (dorsal oblique extraocular m) V - trigeminal N - sensation to eye and cornea, sensation to maxillary and mandibular, motor inervation to muscles of mastication. VI - abducens - lateral movement of eye through innervation of lateral rectus m. rectraction of eye bulb. VII - facial- motor to muscles of facial expression, taste, salivation, skin sensation of ear VIII - vestibulocochlear - balance and posture, eheairng CN IX - glossopharyngeal - motor and sensation to pharynx, taste, salivation CN X - vagus n. motor and sensation to larynx, taste ,salivation, parasympathetic innervation to viscera. CN XI - accessory n.motor to trapezius m. CN XII - hypoglossal n. motor to the tongue.

Answer 387

If the animal is blind but the PLRs are intact the lesion is after the optic tracts, in the contralateral cerebral hemisphere. If the animals i blind and PLR is absent the lesion is in the eye itself, optic nerve, optic chiasm or optic tract.

Answer 388

Via kidneys

Answer 389

They have enhanced GABA synpatic transmission (gaba agonists)

Answer 390

Crosses neuronal Cl- channels more readily than Cl-. Gaba enhances this influx of bromide leading to neuronal hyperpolarization thus bromide stabilizes neurones against excitatory input from epileptic foci. Halide element and causes neuronal hyperpolarization by entering neurons via chloride channels. it is synergistic with phenobarbital.

Answer 391

Much less common than in the dog, more often reflects structural disease, metabolic tolerance to phenobarbital does not occur. Diazepam has been used for maintenance therapy in the cat.

Answer 392

``` Cerebellar ataxia - failure of motor coordination, broad base stance hypermetria and titubation titubation - swaying of body dysmetria - high stepping gait intention tremors vestibular signs decreased or absent menace increased muscle tone and normal to exaggerated spinal reflexes delayed postural reactions aniscoria ```

Answer 393

Neurons in the cerebellum develop and differentiate normally but then start to degenerate and die prematurely. seen in kerry blue, gordon setter, rough coated collie, brittany spaniel. Normal gait at the time they begin to walk. clinical signs are insidious onset, progressive and symmetrical.

Answer 394

Cerebellar malformation, associated with genetic disorders, in utero viral infections or toxins. Neurological deficits are apparent in the animal at first attempt to ambulate. not progressive and some animals may learn to compensate. Commonly associated with feline panleukopenia virus, canine herpes virus and bovine viral diarrhoea.

Answer 395

Ataxia with intact reflexes present in all 4 limbs : c1-c5 ataxia in all limbs, Decreased reflexes in thoracic limbs, present in pelvic limbs c6-t2 Thoracic limbs normal, pelvic limb ataxia with intact reflexes t3-l3 Thoracic limbs normal, reflexes decreased decreased in pelvic limbs - LS intumescence Reflexes absent in all four limbs - Diffuse LMN

Answer 396

I - extrusion only, chondrodystrophic breeds, young (3-6yo), risk of rupture of annulus & herniation of nucleus pulposus into vertebral canal. II - protrusion only, non chondrodystrophic breeds, older dogs, fibrous degeneration.

Answer 397

Sudden onset disease in mostly non chondrodysplastic dogs, non painful, non progressive. source of cartilage is unknown, treatment is conservative.

Answer 398

More common in young, large breed dogs and colony beagles. causes sudden onset extreme pain, commonly obtunded, pyrexic, suppurative leptominngitis/arteritis. most dogs respond well to high dose steroids. Bacterial meningitis v uncommon in small animals.

Answer 399

Pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis. Common in young to middle aged dogs. Present with pain and plegia. The resulting erosive lesions of the intervertebral disc and the vertebral body endplates may result in instability, extradural spinal cord or cauda equina compression due to granulation tissue, collapse of the intervertebral space and/or pathological vertebral fractures or luxation.

Answer 400

seen in GSD >5yo, causing progressive paraparesis and tetraplegia, widespread demyelination of the spinal cord, most severe in T-L region, no treatment and prognosis is poor.

Answer 401

Caudal occipital malformation syndrome and subsequent syringomyelia has been commonly reported in Cavalier King Charles Spaniels and less commonly in other small breed dogs. The malformation is comparable to the Chiari type-I malformation described in people and includes a congenital malformation of the occipital bone, resulting in a crowded caudal fossa and cerebellar herniation at the foramen magnum. The subsequent disruption of CSF flow results in formation of syringomyelia. A large proportion of asymptomatic Cavalier King Charles Spaniels have the caudal fossa malformation. Although the malformation is present at birth, clinical signs often do not appear until later in life. Clinical signs vary but commonly include paresthesias (eg, face rubbing, phantom scratching of the back of the head), ataxia, and weakness from syringomyelia. Medical management is often not curative but can be attempted with gabapentin (10 mg/kg, PO, tid) for paresthesias, omeprazole (0.7 mg/kg/day, PO) for reduction of CSF production, and analgesics for pain management. Surgical decompression via caudal occipital craniectomy is preferred as definitive treatment; however, recurrence rates of 25%–47% have been reported.

Answer 402

An inflammatory condition primarily involving multiple nerve roots, with sudden onset of paresis, paralysis or tetraplegia, some appear to be hyperaesthetic, cranial nerve involvement ay be prominent. associated with a racoon bite. ''coonhound paralysis''

Answer 403

Toxin binds on nerve terminal and is internalised into the vesicle. botulinum toxin remains at neuromuscular junction and prevents acetylcholine exocytosis.

Answer 404

Internalised by inhibitory interneuron > inhibits release of glycine and gaba.

Answer 405

Presynaptic, synaptic or post synaptic defects in neuromuscular transmission. Congenital and acquired forms present. Acquired form usually associated with serum antibodies to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. sometimes associated with thymoma. many go into spontaneous remission. Csx - exercise related appendicular muscle weakness, megaoesophagus, laryngeal/pharyngeal muscle weakness.

Answer 406

Anticholinesterase challenge test - tensilon | anti achr antibody serology

Answer 407

Anticholinesterase - pyridostigmine bromide, immunosuppressants

Answer 408

Causes facial dermatitis and mild generalised myositis in collie dogs, poor response to treatment.

Answer 409

Coughing caused by left atrial enlargement. May be one of the first signs noted in chronic mitral insufficiency or DCM. Dyspnoea is generally associated with congestive heart failure. it may be caused by pulmonary oedema (left sided heart failure) or pleural effusion (right sided heart failure). It may also be present with right to left shunts, and with pericardial effusions. Exercise intolerance Syncope - occurs on exertion or excitement, no warning signs, short duration, lack of salivation, vocalisation, urination, defecation, tonic clonic spasms, rapid recovery. Abdominal enlargement - right heart failure may result in hepatic congestion and secondary ascites, in some animals this may be the first sign noticed by the owner. Weight loss common with biventricular failure. Lethargy

Answer 410

Cats with left atrial enlargement rarely present coughing, they usually present with dyspnoea as pulmonary oedema develops. Exertional dyspnoea may be present in cats but not observed by the owner because of the cats reluctance to move. Anorexia Weight loss common with biventricular failure. Lethargy

Answer 411

The width and length of heart is measured on the lateral view against the number of vertebral bodies starting at t4. then added together. average in dogs is 9.7 (8.5-10.5 normal) and cats should not exceed 8.

Answer 412

Mitral insufficiency, dilated cardiomyopathy, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, PDA.

Answer 413

Mitral insufficiency, endocardiosis, mitral dysplasia, dilated cardiomyopathy, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, patent ductus arteriosus, ventricular septal defect.

Answer 414

endocardiosis, pulmonic stenosis, dilated cardiomyopathy, restrictive cardiomyopathy.

Answer 415

The interstitial tissue of the lungs becomes more prominent in interstitial pulmonary oedema. this appears as an ill defined increase in density starting in the hilar area in dogs, which may blur underlying markings. Cats tend to have a more generalised or patchy appearance. alveolar markings may develop in severe pulmonary oedema, once alveolar flooding has occurred. In severe cases the only lucent areas will be in the bronchi which will be black and surrounded by soft tissue density 'air bronchograms'

Answer 416

Depolarization of atria in response to SA node triggering.

Answer 417

Depolarization of the ventricles, triggers main pumping contractions

Answer 418

Ventricular repolarization.

Answer 419

Red - right forelimb Yellow - left forelimb Green - left hindlimb Black - right hindlimb

Answer 420

Indicates atrial depolarization, which has not been conducted through the atriventricular node to the ventricles. i.e AV BLOCK. Long PQ interval - First degree AV block. No consistent relationship - third degree av block

Answer 421

There are either ectopic complexes, atrial fibrillation or sinoventricular complexes.

Answer 422

Left atrial enlargement

Answer 423

right atrial enlargement

Answer 424

Left ventricular enlargement or left bundle branch block

Answer 425

Left ventricular enlargment

Answer 426

Pericardial/pleural effusion

Answer 427

Pericardial effusion

Answer 428

Right ventricular enlargement

Answer 429

In hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hypthermia.

Answer 430

Heart rate varies with respiration, normal P waves and normal QRS complexes. not a normal rhythm in cats.

Answer 431

No evidence of atrial activity for a period in excess of the two proceeding r-r intervals. If the period of block is an exact multiple of the proceeding R-r intervals then sinus block is more likely. Recognised in dogs with high vagal tone e.g brachycephalics with underlying respiratory disease. Ventricular escape beats may be recognised. If related to high vagal tone - should be easily abolished with atropine.

Answer 432

Common in min schnauzers. Periods of sinus arrest without appropriate escape beats. no response to atropine. Spuraventricular tachycardia may occur. Most cases present because of syncope.

Answer 433

May be a normal rhthmn, may also be recognised in patients with hypothermia, hyperkalaemia, cns lesion, digoxin toxicity or high doses of calcium channel antagonists.

Answer 434

No atrial activity and no p waves. heart rate is slow. QRS complexes may be wide and bizarre. this is associated with hyperkalaemia,

Answer 435

1st - conduction across AV node is slowed. Pq interval is long. 2nd - Some of P waves are not conducted across the AV node and do not result in QRS complex. In mobitz Type I, the P-r interval may be variable, increasing prior to a block. in Mobitz type II the P-R interval is constant. this is generally more serious. 3rd - no conduction across the AV node. the p waves are not associated with the QRS complexes. There tends to be a constant and regular P wave rate. The ventricles beat at a regular escape rate, which is much lower than the P wave rate. These cases usually tend to present with syncope due to slow heart rate. This may be idiopathic or due to fibrosis occuring in the AV node. tx of choice is pacemaker implantation.

Answer 436

If more than 4 premature supraventricular beats occur together this is called a run of supraventricular tachycardia. It is caused by atrial stretch or infiltration.

Answer 437

A chaotic rhythm where several foci are discharging at the same time in the atria. there are no recognisable P waves. the QRS complexes are of normal morphology as conduction is through the Av node. the rate is frequently rapid and irregular. This is caused by atrial stretch in small animals and is commonly seen with DCM. On clinical exam there is a marked pulse deficit.

Answer 438

Complexes occur early and are wide and bizarre in appearance as they are ventricular in origin, no associated P wave, may occur with primary cardiac disease or due to stretch, hypoxia or infiltration of the ventricular wall. Frequently associated with systemic disease e.g GDV, splenic mass, CNS disease.

Answer 439

More than 4 premature ventricular complexes occuring together Aetiology is the same as for ventricular premature complexes. Treat with iv lignocaine, then oral procainamide, mexiletine .

Answer 440

These occur late. they are wide and bizarre in appearance. there is no associated P Wave. they are rescue beats and should not be suppressed.

Answer 441

Digoxin, Beta blockers Calcium cahnnel blockers.

Answer 442

Heart sounds are muffled, jugular veins distended, pulse frequently weak and pulsus paradoxus may be present. The R waves may vary in height (electrical alternans), this reflects the swinging of the heart in the pericardial fluid.

Answer 443

Periocardiocentesis on first presentation but recurrence is common and is best treated by sub total pericardectomy. Diuretics should be avoided as may lead to severe hypotension. Periocardiocentesis best through 5-6th intercostal space. The effusion is typically haemorrhagic however it does not clot and thus can be differentiated from ventricular blood.

Answer 444

The adult worm - angiostrongylus vasorum, parasitise the pulmonary artery and right ventricle. Eggs are laid in the pulmonary parencyma and hatch to first stage larvae and enter the airways, and are coughed up swallowed and passed in the faeces. Snails or slugs act as intermediate hosts as they ingest alrvae from dog faeces. a dog becomes infected by eating infected snails or slugs. From the intestine the larvae migrate through the lymphatic system or hepatic portal vessels to the right heart. Rare in scotland. Crenosoma more widespread.

Answer 445

Many are subclinica. coughing may be the most common clinical presentation with a duration of a few to several months. additional clinical signs include weakness, subcutaneou swelling, lameness, anaemia, pulmonary crepitation, right sided heart failure, collapse, dspnoea, respiratory distress. Stage 1 larvae can usually be found in the faeces.

Answer 446

fenbendazole and moxidectin

Answer 447

Infection of the pulmonary arteries and occasionally right heart by the nematode dirofilaria immitis. Life cycle of D immitus must pass through a female mosquito. Maturation time in the mosquito is 10-14 days in optimal conditions. Once injected into the host the larvae migrate in tissues and moult, the final maturation phase int he pulmonary arteries takes a further 3-4 months. Female worms produce microfilaria that pass into the circulation. the presence of parasites in the pulmonary arteries leads to local changes in blod vessels and can lead to pulmonary hypertension. pulmonary hypertension may result in right sided congestive heart failure.

Answer 448

Coughing, dyspnoea, tachypnoea. Exercise intolerance, syncope, haemoptysis, ascites and hepatomegaly also reported. Rarely dogs may present with caval syndrome, large number of worms in right ventricle causing poor cardiac output and intravascular cell lysis.

Answer 449

Boxers, German shepherd dogs, newfoundland, rottweiler and golden retrievers.

Answer 450

Systolic ejection type murmur loudest over the left heart base, radiates up the carotid arteries. murmur intensity correlates with severity of the stenosis.

Answer 451

Left ventricular wall thickening, abnormal valvular or subvalvular anatomy, increased outflow velocities on doppler echocardiography. Velocities are used to grade the stenosis into mild, moderate and severe. On electrocardiography - left ventricular enlargement, increased R wave amplitude and QRS duration, myocardial hypoxia, ventricular arrhythmias.

Answer 452

Prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis, exercise restriction, adrenergic blocking drugs indicated in moderate to severe cases.

Answer 453

Connects the main pulmonary artery to the aorta in the foetus.

Answer 454

Blood from systemic circulation flows into the pulmonary vasculature. There is pulmonary enlargement and decreased pulmonary compliance. Large defects may develop severe pulmonary hypertension, which causes shunting of unoxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery into the systemic circulation which causes chronic hypoxia resulting in increased erythropoietin release by the kidneys, increased RBC production by the bone marrow and the development of polycythaemia.

Answer 455

King charles cavaliar spaniels, poodles, german shepherd dogs, springer spaniels, collies, shetland sheepdogs, pomeranians.

Answer 456

A high grade, continuous machinery heart murmur audible over the left heart pase. steep water hammer pulse, right to left shunting defects may have no audible murmur.

Answer 457

Lef atrial enlargement, wide P waves, left ventricular enlargement, tall wide R aves, arrhthmias including atrial and ventricular premature complexes and atrial fibrillation.

Answer 458

Occlusion of the ductus by surgical ligation or transvenously using a variety of occluding devices. left sided congestive heart failure may require management with diuretics and ACE inhibitor therapy.

Answer 459

Miniature schauzers, boxers, beagles, bull mastiffs, bull dogs, cocker spaniels, chihuahuas. Harsh, left base systolic murmur, often radiates across to the right heart base.

Answer 460

Harsh pansystolic murmur audible loudest over the left apex.

Answer 461

Harsh systolic murmur audible loudest over the right apex, jugular venous distension and pulsations may also be noted on clinical examination. right atrium markedly enlarged.

Answer 462

Ventricular septal defect.

Answer 463

Left ventricle to right or less commonly from right to the left.

Answer 464

Four different abnormalities, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy and an overriding aorta. results in right to left shunting of blood and resultant chronic hypoxia.

Answer 465

Great Dane, wolfhound, Newfoundland, Irish setter, Doberman, cocker spaniel

Answer 466

Doxorubicin

Answer 467

Low grade apical murmur, diastolic gallop, sinus tachycardia arrhythmias common, atrial fibrillation in Irish wolfhound and Great Danes

Answer 468

Left atrial enlargement - wide P waves and left ventricular enlargement - tall r waves, wide QRS, st coving

Answer 469

Pimobendan- an inodilator (positive INotrope and vasodilator.

Answer 470

As taurine is added in commercial cat foods

Answer 471

Great Dane, wolfhound, Newfoundland, Irish setter, Doberman, cocker spaniel

Answer 472

Doxorubicin

Answer 473

Low grade apical murmur, diastolic gallop, sinus tachycardia arrhythmias common, atrial fibrillation in Irish wolfhound and Great Danes

Answer 474

Left atrial enlargement - wide P waves and left ventricular enlargement - tall r waves, wide QRS, st coving

Answer 475

Pimobendan- an inodilator (positive INotrope and vasodilator.

Answer 476

As taurine is added in commercial cat foods

Answer 477

Hypertension - check renal function and systemic BP | And hyperthyroidism

Answer 478

Beta blockers or calcium channel antagonists act as negative chronic ropes and negative inotropes resulting in improved diastolic filling diuretics and ace inhibitors indicated in congestive heart failure and aspirin every 3rd day or daily clopidogrel.

Answer 479

They have a high platelet mass/kg body weight and platelet aggregation occurs readily. Blood stasis occurs in left atrium in myocardial disease leading to thrombus formation. Emboli zeroing commonly occurs to external iliacs and renal arteries

Answer 480

Hindlimb paresis, severe pain, spasm of muscles, cyanotic nail beds, absence of femoral pulse. Analgesia, sedation, possible ACP, heparin to prevent further embolism, aspirin or clopridogrel, circulatory support but be v careful if congestive heart failure is present. Treat underlying disease. Physiotherapy. Prognosis guarded. Limb fiction returns after 14 days but many have recurrences.

Answer 481

Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy in boxers. Causes sudden death. Genetic component . RIGHT Ventricle is replaced by fibrous tissue.

Answer 482

Left side of the heart - septic emboli are seeded to the joints and kidneys. In dogs periodontal disease may be a major primary source of infection.

Answer 483

Useful in cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. It is a venodilator, absorbed through the skin. Short term therapy only

Answer 484

It is a phosphide stress inhibitor and calcium sensitiser. Calcium sensitisation without increased myocardial oxygen consumption probably most important for myocardial effect. It is orally bio available but is reduced in the presence of food, administered BID one hour prior to feeding.

Answer 485

A synthetic b1 adrenergic agonist, minimal b2 or a2 adrenergic effects. B1 adrenergic stimulation - increase in adenylyl cyclase - increase in camp- protein kinase A - increase in intracellular calcium. The main indication is in severe acute heart failure with poor left ventricular function. Also used in horses during anaesthesia to maintain MAP.

Answer 486

Aim to decrease the preload and after load, results in reduced cardiac workload and congestion.

Answer 487

Block effects of angiotensin II. Eg enalapril, Benazapril. Several months before benefits of ACE seen.

Answer 488

A calcium channel antagonist

Answer 489

It is a Class 1a anti arrythmogenic. It increases SA node discharge and conduction. It is used in atrial fibrillation in the heart, ventricular tachycardia in the horse.

Answer 490

It is a class 1B anti arrythmogenic. It increases the ratio of ERP to AP duration, accelerates repolarisation and decreases automaticity and conduction velocity primarily in diseased tissue. It is the treat of choice for emergency treatment of life threatening ventricular arrhthmias.

Answer 491

a class 1b anti arrythmogenic. it has similar properties and effects to lidocaine.

Answer 492

B1 selective antagonist - B blocker. It is selective for b1 adrenergic receptors in the heart so minimal vasodilatory or bronchoconstrictive effects. Can all cause hypotension and bradycardia. the transient hypertension may be reported at the start of treatment.

Answer 493

Has beta blocker and K+ channel blocker effects, prolongs action potential duration and decreases automaticity, slows AV conduction and refractorinessm eliminated via the kidney unchanged.

Answer 494

Block the slow calcium channels, and have a profound effect on nodal tissue, slows sinus rate, speed of conduction and induces vasodilation. e.g Diltiazam, verapamil and amlodipine.

Answer 495

A cardiac glycoside - causes positive inotorpy and negative chronotrophy.

Answer 496

Usually more long term abnormalities due to disease within the heart and tend to respond poorly to medical management but pacemaker is the treatment of choice. Condition may be due to something else e.g hyperkalaemia. Drugs that can be used include muscarinic antagonists e.g atropine and glycopyrronium.

Answer 497

the main site of action is the Distal convoluted tubule, they are excreted in to the PCT and need to be in the tubule to exert an effect. moderate diuretics due to site of action. inhibit the Na/cl co transport system by binding to it. They prevent sodium and chloride ion reabsorption but much sodium has already been reabsorbed by this time. They increase the loss of K+ since more sodium is presented in the collecting tubule and more urine flow due to increased volume. They are used for mild cardiac failure to manage oedema, and can be combined with other diuretics e.g furosemide. Generally quite safe, main side effect is hypokalaemia. Decrease effect of insulin.

Answer 498

thiazide diuretics - mechanism of thiazides unclear. D insipidus can be central or nephrogenic. central form vasopressin treatment of choice. Thiazides - loss of sodium and water in the DCT leads to hypovolaemia. More sodium and water reabsorbed in the PCT. Less urine in the loop of helne > less urine presented to the collecting tubule.

Answer 499

Site of action is the thick ascending loop of henle > inhibit the cotransport of Na+K+/2cl from the lumen into the tubule cell. This reduces the hypertonicity of the medulla responsible for the reabsorption of water from the collecting tubule and the descending loop of henle, which results in a dramatic increase in water loss by the kidney. potassium also lost due to decreased reabsorption in the ascending loop and also increased sodium presentation in the collecting tubule. Ca2+ loss is increased also.

Answer 500

Heart failure for the management of oedema, given i/v vasodilationc an help to reduce preload and increase renal perfusion. treatment of hypercalcaemia since promotes calcium loss.

Answer 501

It is an aldosterone antagonist. since it inhibits the effects of aldosterone the effect is a loss of sodium and water and the retention of potassium.

Answer 502

A potassium sparing diuretics. prevents the reabsorption of sodium through the luminal sodium channels. Reduces the loss of potassium and increases the loss of sodium. Potassium sparing effect is greater where potassium loss is elevated. There main use is in conjunction with other diuretic agents in the management of severe cardiac failure. used with furosemide since it complements the potassium loosing effect of this diuretic.

Answer 503

an osmotic diuretics. it is freely filtered by the glomerulus. As Na and water are removed in the PCT the mannitol becomes progressively concentrated. It reduces the rebabsorption of water int he PCT. Na + remoal then declines. Prostaglandin release enhances the renal medullary blood flow reducing the hypertonicity of the medulla. It is used in the management of acute renal failure to restore urine production, used to reduce CSF pressure, used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma.

Answer 504

Carbonic anhydrase allows the reformation of Hco3- and H+ > H2o and Co2. The net effect is the reabsorption of HCO3- from the PCT. when carbonic anhydrase is inhibited, bicarbonate stays in the lumen together with NA+ and K+. This causes a rise in urine volume and an increase in the urinary pH. Metabolic acidosis ensues due to the reduced HCO3 which in turn reduces the actions of the diuretics.

Answer 505

It is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, used to treat glaucoma since carbonic anhydrase on the ciliary epithelia is involved in the formation of aqueous humour.

Answer 506

Corneal ulcers, neovascularisation and pigmentary keratitis.

Answer 507

Lateral lower lid

Answer 508

Excisional correction not always required in younger patients where there is still considerable anticipated growth but a temporary procedure is necessary to relieve discomfort and prevent damage to the cornea. Vertical mattress sutures or vertically orientated surgical staples are left in place for a few weeks but may be all that is required in a younger patient, particularly the sharpei. For simple anatomical entropion the Hotz celsus technique is straight forward and effective.

Answer 509

loss of tone in the skin of the upper eyelid, combined with an excessive amount of head skin, can result in the lateral upper lid drooping to the extent that hairs and cilia impinge on the cornea causing discomfort and corneal damage. This is common in cocker spaniels. best treated with the stades procedure.

Answer 510

A very common condition where abnormally positioned cilia emerge form the lid margin, usually at or close to the tarsal gland openings. Most show no clinical signs. Corneal ulceration has been reported but v rare. electrolysis or cryosurgery can be performed. The hairs will regrow if plucked but this will allow the significance of the distichiasis hairs as a source of irritation to be determined.

Answer 511

Much less common than distichiasis - usually a single hair emerging through the palpebral conjunctiva a few millimetres from the lid margin at right angles to the cornea. very painful. Frequently there is a shallow, vertically orientated ulcer opposite the emerging cilia. Treatment is by excision of a wedge of tissue containing the cilium from the conjunctival surface.

Answer 512

Periocular hairs growing in a normal location which may be directed abnormally towards the ocular surface, which may cause conjunctivitis and keratitis. trichiasis results form entropion and can be associated with nasal folds, medial canthus and caruncle.

Answer 513

Tarsal adenomas, followed by melanomas. most are benign but may abrade the cornea or bleed and should be removed if causing problems.

Answer 514

Dorsal prolapse of the nictitans gland - smooth pink swleling at the medial canthus. The mass is seen to protrude from behind the leading edge of the membrane. this is seen in young dogs, especially cocker spaniels, beagles and bracycephalic breeds as well as mastiffs and great danes.

Answer 515

Although the gland can be excised, there is an unacceptably high post operative risk of ry eye. surgical replacement should therefore be attempted. two techniques include the pocket technique and the anterior anchoring technique. care should be taken with suture placement in the pocket technique to avoid corneal damage.

Answer 516

A condition affecting the GSD and collie types, with bilateral depigmentation of the membranem a pink/red fleshy infiltrate and a rough irregular surface. the infiltrate consists of plasma cells and lymphocytes and is often concurrent with chornic superficial keratitis. there is usually minimal discomfort. tx is ith topical corticosteroids and cyclosporine may also be used.

Answer 517

Infection within the ocnjunctival sac before the eyelids are opened - usually at 10-15 days

Answer 518

Resulting from a deficiency in the aqueous portion of the tear film produced by the lacrimal and nictitans glands. caused by immune mediated destruction of the lacrimal tissue with progressive loss. the great majority of cases are immune mediated. most commonly seen in westies, cocker and CKCS, shi tzu, lhaso apso. It can be drug induced due to Sulphonamide antibiotic (sulphadiazine and sulphasalazine)

Answer 519

>15mm is normal. Mean normal is around 21mm in the dog. values of 12-15 should be interpreted on the basis of ocular surface appearance and level of discomfort.

Answer 520

Conjunctival hyperaemia, pain, lustreless cornea, low STT readings. Conjunctivitis, mucopurulent discharge.

Answer 521

Tear replacement with lubrithal gel, vislube, optixcare or lacrilube if let alone for any length of time. Tear stimulation with cyclosporine ointment either in conjunction with tear replacement or alone BID. Tacrolimus can be tried is cyclosporine doesnt work.

Answer 522

Overflow of tears due to poor drainage.

Answer 523

Seen in the limbus along with new blood vessels in response to a variety of chronic corneal insults damaging the ocular surface. It is most frequently seen in brachycephalic breeds, due to prominence of the globe, macropalpebral fissure, nasal folds, medial canthal trichiasis, medial canthal entropion - all of which disrupt the tear film. also seen in KCS, entropion, pannus etc.

Answer 524

A chronic superficial vascular keratitis occuring mostly in gsd, a rough fleshy looking infiltarte of inflammatory tissue, pigment and vessels advances across the cornea from the ventro lateral llimbus. the corneal epithelium is intact, therefore does not stain with flueorescein and signs of discomfort are mild or absent.

Answer 525

Bilateral, can be assymetrical, degenerative condition of the corneal endothelium, occurring as a senile change in old dogs. The loss of endothelial cells causes failure of the endothelial pump mechanism, resulting in the steamy blue appearance of stromal oedema.

Answer 526

primary, secondary and tumours arising from the adjacent structures - 90% are malignant with low long term survival rates.

Answer 527

external trauma hair/lash trauma - entropion and ectopic cilia Infection - fehv in cat, bacterial colonisation secondary to trauma, rarely fungal. Tear film abnormalities - acute dry eye Exposure keratopathy. Ectopic cilium should be suspected when the ulcer is dorsally located. Ulcers under the third eyelid should not be overlooked, check for a foreign body. Exposure keratopathy refers to the central corneal damage resulting from inadequate protection of the cornea by the eyelids and third eyelid, which may be compounded by inadequacy of the pre ocular tear film. Seen in prominent globe with poor lid closure or facial nerve paralysis.

Answer 528

If the ulcer extends through the full thickness of the stroma to decemets membrane, fluorescein staining of a descmetocoele produces a characteristic green halo of stain with a clear centre as descemet's membrane repels the stain.

Answer 529

They arise from the posterior surface of the iris or the ciliary body, usually spontaneously, but sometimes following uveitis, they often break free and move around the anterior chamber. they may rupture, leaving remnants on the corneal endothelium. Treatment is not usually necessary, the main concern being distinguishing them form intraocular melanoma. Iris cysts are spherical, not solid, Black labs predisposed.

Answer 530

Anterior uveal melanoma. usually the appearance is of a heavily pigmented solid mass within the iris or the ciliary body. They are often unrecognised by the owner until the development of secondary glaucoma. Benign and grow slowly, unucleation is usually curative.

Answer 531

Inflammation of the iris and ciliary body. pain can be intense. Pain, visual disturbance, red eye, corneal oedema, breakdown of blood aqueous barrier - aqueous flare. Miosis - constricted pupil which responds poorly to light due to direct aciton of prostaglandins and other inflammatory mediators on the pupillary sphincter muscle. Swelling of the iris- it looks puffy with loss of detail. Reduced intraocular pressure - drainage of aqeuous via the uveoscleral pathway is increased resulting in ddecreased IOP.

Answer 532

Deal with cause Reduce intra ocular inflammation and restore blood aqeuous barrier achive moderate mydriasis and pain relief monitor iOP in order to detect any econdary glaucoma. Steroids or NSAIds may be given otpically or systemically. Topical corticosteroids should begin immediately if cornea is intact. Topical NSAIDS may be used i the cornea is ulcerated although may slow cornea re epithelisation. Systemic steroids are indicated when the inflammation is severe and involves the posterior segment. Atropine dilates the pupil, reducing the risk of extensive posterior synechiae formation. Give frequently in initial stages as much less effective in an inflamed eye.

Answer 533

Dogs 16.8+/-4.0mmhg | Cat 20.3 +/- 5.5mmHg

Answer 534

Pain:lethargy, avoidance behaviour visual loss - may be unilateral so go unnoticed Episcleral congestion Corneal oedema Moderately dilated pupil, poorly responsive to light. Elevated IOP. IOP measurement should be performed in every patient with unexplained red eye, ocular pain or visual loss.

Answer 535

Intravascular haemolysis releases haemoglobin directly into the circulation. Haemoglobin binds avidly to plasma haptoglobin, which prevents the haemoglobin from spilling into the urine. Massive release of haemoglobin during acute severe intravascular haemolysis overwhelms haptoglobin binding, leading to haemoglobinaemia and haemoglobinuria.

Answer 536

``` Primary lens luxation Uveitis intraocular neoplasia intraocular haemorrhage retinal detachment pigmentary glaucoma of the cairn terrier. ```

Answer 537

Prostaglandin analogues - cause miosus and should be avoided in glaucoma secondary to uveitis/anterior lens luxation. usedd to treat acute primary glaucoma. Osmotic diuretics - only used in emergency situation, contract the vitreous and will keep IOP down for several hours. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - reduce aqueous production by up to 40% by reducing the amount produced by active secretion. Acetalozamide given systemically, side effects common so rarely used, better to give brinzolamide or dorzolamide topically. B blockers -small reduction in aqueous production by reducing blood flow through ciliary process.

Answer 538

primary, secondary and tumours ariing from the adjacent structures - 90% are malignant with low long term survival rates.

Answer 539

Electroretinography - ERG is present in optic neuritis, flat line in SARD. Assessing the pupillary and dazzle light reflezes using red abd blue light of specific wavelengths can also be used to distinguish conditions of the outer retina such as SARD form optic neuritis, as PLR and dazzle reflexes may persist when the blue light is used in SARD patients.

Answer 540

Frequently observed in association with systemic disease, particularly diarrhoea,

Answer 541

primarily causes conjunctivitis without respiratory infection in all ages of ccats. it does not cause corneal ulceration.

Answer 542

Conjunctivitis and ulceration, usually 'cat flu' in young cats, in older cats - recrudescence of laterent infection can cause refractory ulcers, stromal keratitis or chornic conjunctivitis. corneal sequestrum formation and KCS quite common.

Answer 543

Only seen int he cat, persians predisposed. clinical signs - a black plaque extruding through the corneal epithelium. Best treated by keratectomy. a conjunctival pedicle graft may be useful. sometimes no discomfort, the lesion appearing as tan coloured stromal discolouration - may not need treated.

Answer 544

The correct answer is basal cell tumor. This is the most common skin tumor in the cat (about 20% of all feline skin tumors). These tumors are usually hairless, dome-shaped, raised masses as described. They are most frequently found on the head, neck, and shoulders. They are almost always benign although histologically, they may have aggressive characteristics.

Answer 545

It is not effective against pseudomonas.

Answer 546

``` Immune mediated Microangiopathic haemolysis (DIC, haemangiosarcoma) Babesia infection Heinz body haemolytic anaemia Copper toxicity associated with hepatic necrosis Zinc induced haemolytic anaemia Severe hypophosphataemia FelV associated haemolytic anaemia Mycoplasma haemofelis. ```

Answer 547

Toxicities due to paracetamol, onions, zinc and propylene glycol

Answer 548

``` Iron deficiency anaemia (chronic blood loss) chronic renal failure endogenous hyperoestrogenism Felv associated non regnerative anaemia Drug induced marrow failure e.g chemotherapeutics IMHA of RBC precursors in bone marrow. Anaemia of chronic disease Lead poisoning Chronic liver disease Hypothyroidism Hypoadrenocorticism ``` ``` Pure red cell aplasia Aplastic anaemia Myelopthisis Myelofibrosis Myelodyspasia Haemopoietic neoplasia Ineffective erythropoiesis ```

Answer 549

pulmonary edema typically occurs immediately with administration of the drug to cats. Cisplatin causes renal toxicity as well as nausea in dogs, but the fatal pulmonary edema is by far the most relevant side effect in cats.

Answer 550

II, VII IX and X

Answer 551

when platelet count drops below 40-50 x10^9, usual refereance range is 200-500

Answer 552

If platelet numbers are sufficient, platelet function can be evaluated via the buccal mucosal bleeding time. this should only be performed if the platelet count is not low eg below 50. the BMBt is the time elapsed until cessation of bleeding from a small standardised incision made in the buccal mucosa.

Answer 553

Secondary haemostasis can be rapidly evaluated via the activated clotting time. the ACT is the time taken for fresh whole blood to clot in a glass tube containing a contact activator. A prolonged ACT indicates an abnormality affecting the intrinsic and common pathways of secondary homeostasis.

Answer 554

Secondary haemostasis can be precisely evaluated by laboratories via analysis of prothrombin time, which tests extrinsic and common pathways and activated partial thromboplastin time, which tests intrinsic and common pathways.

Answer 555

high levels of FDPs, the end products of fibrin breakdown. D dimer tests for specific FDPS have also been used.

Answer 556

Aplastic anaemia, myeloproliferative disorders, megakaryocyte hypoplasia, neoplasia, chemotherapy, myelofibrosis, drugs. Immune mediated thrombocytopaenia. Consumptive coagulopathies e.g disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Answer 557

NSAIDS Penicillins aggravate clinical haemorrhage Acepromazine, diazepam, ketamine propofol all impair platelet aggregation. Famotidine has less of an effect on platelets than either cimetidine or ranitidine. These H1 and H2 blockers impair platelet aggregation.

Answer 558

An autosomally inherited haemostatic disorder caused by a deficiency of von willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that facilitates platelet function and is needed for primary haemostasis. Affected patients have a prolonged BMBT and decreased plasma levels of vwf. Desmopressin is sometimes used as a treatment.

Answer 559

7 throws start and finish

Answer 560

It is characterised by accelerated clotting leading to wide spread formation of microthrombi. The condition is often only recognised when uncontrolled thrombus formation leads to defective haemostasis and bleeding. widespread formation of microthrombi causes depletion of platelets and clotting factors and thereby predisposes to haemorrhage. Excessive quantities of FDP may be released as the fibrinolytic system attempts to break down the fibrin within microthrombi. FDP inhibit both paltelet function and various factors in the clotting cascade. DIC can be a complication of any severe systemic disease and is especially prevalent in haemangiosarcoma. DIC should be strongly suspected if haemostatic testing reveals thrombocytopenia, elevated FDP, decreased fibrinogen and prolonged BMBT, ACT

Answer 561

Glucocorticoid therapy. Decreases destruction of antibody coated cells byt he mononuclear phagocytic system. Dogs with IMT may respond to a single intravenous bolus of vincristine. Platepet rich plasma or fresh plasma may also be given although the increase in platelet numbers from plasma is usually minimal. Once thrombocytopenia has been in remission for 3-6 months therapy can be cautiously withdrawn.

Answer 562

I - a single node affected II - two or more nodes affected in a regional area III - generalised LN involvement IV - Stage III plus liver and spleen involvement Stage V - bone marrow and or non lymphoid organ involvement such as eye, CNs, lung. a) all stage denotes no systemic clinical signs b) all stage denotes presence of systemic clinical signs.

Answer 563

nephrotoxicity

Answer 564

oral prednisone and chlorambucil.

Answer 565

malignant transofmarion and clonal expansion of a plasma cell . Typical features include hypergammaglobulinaemia - monoclonal gammopathy . Osteolytic bone lesions - lytic lesions often poorly defined or sharply punched out and may affect either the appendicular or axial skeleton. diagnosis of multiple myeloma requires; plasmacytosis of bone marrow, serum monoclonal gammoapthy, osteolytic lesions, bence jones proteinuria (two of the four).

Answer 566

Frequently have coagulation abnormalities such as DIC or thrombocytopenia, Haematology may show polychromasia, hypochromasia, reticulocytosis, schisocytes, and nucleated RBCS on blood smears.

Answer 567

External rectus sheath.

Answer 568

True hernias - enclosed in a peritoneal sac | False hernias - protrusions of organs outside a normal abdominal opening, not enclosed in a sac.

Answer 569

levator ani muscle - acquired degeneration of pelvic diaphragm.

Answer 570

A sublingual sialocoele

Answer 571

Chronic rhinitis Nasal regurgitation of food Aspiration pneumonia malnutrition

Answer 572

200-600mg /kg in dogs | 50-100 mg/kg in cats

Answer 573

There are low levels of glucuronyl transferase in the cat and thus reduced capacity for glucuronide conjugation, which means that biotransformation to Toxic metabolites occurs at a lower dose. Toxic effects are usually minimised by glucuronide conjugation of these metabolites.

Answer 574

the RBC is most susceptible to oxidative injury > haemoglobin is oxidised to methaemoglobin resulting in cyanosis and chocolate coloured mucous membranes. haemoglobin is also denatured resulting in heinz body anaemia. Signs include vomiting, ataxia, collapse and facial and pulmonary oedema.

Answer 575

the liver is most susceptible to injury. Hepatocellular necrosis leads to the typical clinical signs of liver failure including depression,weakness, anorexia, vomiting and jaundice. Methaemoglobin/haemoglobinuria is also observed.

Answer 576

Induction of emesis or gastric lavage within 1-2 hours of ingestion, administration of activated charcoal, supplemental oxygen, IVFT, blood transfusion. Glutathione precursors are administered to replenish cellular glutathione, N acetylcystine or S adenosyl -methionine. Vitamin C and methylene blue can be used to reduce methaemoglobin to haemoglobin.

Answer 577

Vomiting, depression, anorexia, diarrhoea, melena and PUPD. Various factors increase the risk - v young or old animals, hypoalbuminaemia, concurrent use of glucocorticoids, gastrointestinal perforation may also occur with animals presenting with peritonitis.

Answer 578

IVFT, induce emesis/gastric lavage, activated charcola, misoprostol, h2 antagonists, proton pump inhibitors and sucralfate.

Answer 579

EG itself causes vomiting due to gastrointestinal irritation and CNS depression, toxicity is caused by metabolism of EG to glycoaldehyde, glycolic acid and oxalate. Glycoaldehyde results in CNS depression, ataxia, stupor and seizures. Severe metabolic acidosis occurs as a result of glycolic acid accumulation. Glycoaldehyde results in CNS depression, ataxia, stupor and seizures. Severe metabolic acidosis occurs as a result of glycolic acid accumulation. Most of the metabolites are directly toxic to the renal tubular epithelium and formation of calcium oxalate crystals, contributes to anuric/oliguric renal failure.

Answer 580

High anion gap - metabolic acidosis, before the onset of ARF. Renal damage, azotaemia, hhyperphosphataemia, hyperkalaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hyperlycaemia, isosthenuria, calcium oxalate crystalluria, renal ultrasonography 0 increased cortical echogenicity and medullary rim sign.

Answer 581

administration of drugs which inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase eg ethanol or 4-methylpyrazole. Thiamine and pyridoxine enhance metabolism of glycoxylic acid to non toxic metabolites. aggressive IVFT to maintain renal perfusion. mannitol to promote diuresis. bicarbonate therapy for metabolic acidosis.

Answer 582

Easter lily - cats | Raisin/grape/sultana - dogs

Answer 583

It inhibits yamino-butyric acid (GABA). Clinical signs occur within 1-3 hours and incluce abdominal discomfort, salivation vomiting, tachycardia, tachypnoea, hyperaesthesia, hyperthermia, opisthotonus and convulsions.

Answer 584

Permethrins affect sodium channels resulting in repetitive nerve stimulation and most commonly seen in excitatory neurological signs - tremors, seizures, although ataxia and depression may also be seen.

Answer 585

chocolate contains theobromine, a methylxanthine like caffeine and theophylline, which antagonises the effects of adenosine. Acute intoxication results in restlessness, panting,diuresis, vomiting and diarrhoea and may progress to give rise to CNS excitation and cardiac arrythmias. Supportive therapy with IVFT, muscle relaxants, anti arrhythmic drugs, beta blockers, may be required for supraventricular tachycardias.

Answer 586

These are insecticides that exert their neurotoxicity by inibition of acetylcholinesterase which results in prolonged activity of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. nicotinic signs include muscle tremors, generalised muscle tetany followed by weakness due to the inability of the membranes to repolarise adequately. CNS signs include anxiety, hyperactivity, tonic clonic seizures to severe CNS depression. In addition, muscarinic signs of salivation, lacrimation, urination and defecation are usually observed prior to the onset of nicotinic signs. Bradycardia, dyspnoea and miosis may also occur.

Answer 587

Avermectins cause CNS depression due to enhanced GABA activity. collie breeds appear to be more sensitive due to an inability to expel these compounds fmor the CSF. clinical signs include bradycardia, respiratory depression, CNS deoression and coma. Reduce further absiorption, induce emesis or perform gastric lavage if within 1-2 hours of ingestion. Administer activated charcoal. IVFT, maintenance of body temperature, respiratory support.

Answer 588

Anticoagulants include warfarin, bromadiolone, and difenacoum. They inhibit vitmain K epoxide reductase and prevent recycling of vitamin K in the liver. The result is that synthesis of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X is impaired and these factors become depleted resulting in coagluopathy. there may be a lag of 3-5 days between ingestion of toxin and clinical signs. Common presentation includes epistaxis, haemoptysis, dyspnoea due to haemorrhage, haematoma, pallor of mucous membranes. Diagnsis based on prolongation of both prothrombin time, and activated partial thromboplastin time, as both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation factors are affected.

Answer 589

Vitamin K1 therapy subcut followed by oral administration, continued for as long as 4 weeks. PT should be measured 36-48 and 72 hours after cessation of therapy. due to short half life of factor VII 6 hours, the PT is the first parameter to become prologned if duration of therapy is not sufficient. Treatment should then be continued for a further 7 days then coagulation re assessed.

Answer 590

Impression smear of nasal discharge for C neoformans + Positive LCAT. Histopathology and fungal culture of nasal biopsy for aspergillus. supportive features would include destruction of nasal turbinates on radiography/ct and positive aspergillus serollogy. tx- topical infusion of clotrimazole via nasal catheters, systemic itraconazole.

Answer 591

toy breeds. other anatomical abnormalities such as hypoplastic trachea, laryngeal collapse, extended soft palate etc more common in toy and brachycephalic dogs.

Answer 592

Terrier breeds.

Answer 593

Tracheal collapse

Answer 594

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.

Answer 595

Laryngeal paralysis.

Answer 596

inspiratory - due to reopening of airways that have closed during expiration.

Answer 597

High pitched sounds that can be inspiratory or expiratory and are due to narrowing of the bronchial lumen. common in feline asthma.

Answer 598

Low pitched sounds due to high airflow velocity through the larger airways, can be inspiratory or expiratory and can be normal if exercise or excitement associated. In disease they can arise because of anything necessitating increased respiratory effort with pneumonia and pulmonary oedema being a good example.

Answer 599

Small breeds of dogs, toy breeds, especially yorkshire terrier. Lack of structural integrity increases the collapsibility of the trachea. Clinical signs mainly apparent in middle age, with severe tracheal abnormality causing problems in young dogs. Coughing (goose-honk or seal bark sond) associated with excitement, exercise and lead pulling easily elicited on gentle tracheal compression. Isnpiratory dyspnoea occurs if extra thoracic trachea is prone to colapse while expiratory dyspnoea is caused by intra thoracic tracheal collapse. cyanosis and syncope during particularly severe attacks. radiography might demonstrate collapse of the trachea, primarily at the thoracic inlet and cranial mediastinal area. Bronchoscopy demonstrates dorsoventral flattening of the trachea and redundancy of the dorsal membrane. Treatment is by controlling obesity, use of a harness, avoidance of excessive exercise and stressful situations. Surgical correction or intra lumenal stenting of the collapse can be of value and may be the only course of action in severely affected animals.

Answer 600

Acute tracheobronchitis - infective material is transmitted by direct contact, as aerosolised infective respiratory secretions and via fomites. Agents include bordetella bronchiseptica, parainfluenza III, canine distemper virus, canine adenovirus II and canine herpes virus. There is harsh non productive coughing exacerbated by exercise or excitement, mild pyrexia, lethargy and inappetance and naso ocular discharge. Condition is usually self limiting with the clinical signs persisting for up to three weeks. Tetracyclines and potentiated sulphonamides are usually effective in reducing the duration of clinical signs but antibacterial therapy is not necessarily required. In a small proportion of cases, residual coughing may be present.

Answer 601

A sporadically occuring condition, recognised primarily in dogs that have had kennel cough. There appears to be a heightened cough reflex, resulting in harsh non productive coughing. clinical signs usually appear severeal weeks after apparent resolution of kennel cough with no other clinical abnormalities. Bronchoscopy and bronchial cytology are normal in the majority of dogs. Radiography shows a mild to moderate increase in bronchial markings. No specific therapy is recommended, spontaneous resolution over a period of months may occur, the use of anti tussives may help, a harness rather than a dog collar may help. If bordetella positive wash then a 3 week course of doxycyline should be tried. Dogs can continue to cough for several years.

Answer 602

A mucus hypersecretory disorder affecting the bronchi. Excessive mucus production is a reaction to airway inflammation and a cause of further bronchopulmonary problems. Recurrent bouts of bacterial bronchitis and bronchopneumonia causes irreversible damage leading to alveolar fibrosis and respiratory failure. On radiography a prominent bronchial pattern is often present. Secondary cardiac changes may also be noted. Anti tussives should not be used under any circumstances. Progressive, irreversible, prognosis poor

Answer 603

A loss of bronchial wall rigidity, elderly dogs with chronic cough, often seen with chronic bronchitis, no treatment. Similar clinical presentation as chronic bronchitis. Misshapen larger airways that easily collapse during expiration.

Answer 604

Probably a type I immediate type hypersensitivity reaction to inhaled allergens. clinical signs can vary from mild coughing to severe dyspnoea, cyanosis and death. paroxysmal coughing, wheezing usually associated with the coughing attacks. Dyspnoea and tachypnoea with head extension and open mouth breathing. Haematology - circulating eosinophilia may be found and is highly supportive of a diagnosis. radiography findings vary from mild bronchial markings to severe interstitial changes with right middle lobe collapse/consolidation. The majority of cats are controlled with oral low dose alternate day prednisolone. nebulized glucocorticoids and B adrenoceptor agonists are used by some.

Answer 605

Crenosoma vulpis - dog Aleurostrongylus abstrusus - cat Angiostrongylus vasorum Reactive tracheitis, bronchitis and alveolitis results giving the clinical signs of paroxysmal episodes of a harsh cough, dyspnoea if airways are occluded or infection is widespread. Radiography usually normal. reactive nodules may be seen at the carina. interstitial pattern if significant lung eosinophil infiltration. Grey brown to white ish reactive nodules visible at the carina on bronchoscopy. Treatment - benzimidazole anthelmintics are effective e.g fenbendazole and spot ons eg advocate.

Answer 606

Acute onset coughing that can be continuous, harsh and very distressful, subsides over subsequent days and becomes chronic. pronounced halitosis will develop over the following weeks to months. signs of acute bronchopneumonia or pleural effusion can develop in complicated cases. Bronchoscopy allows identification of the foriegn body, its eact location and retrieval.

Answer 607

An inflammatory disease of the lung parenchyma including the interstitium, alveolar spaces and the msaller bronchi, bronchioles and respiratory bronchioles are grouped together as pneumonia. viral and primary bacterial agents causes are not that important in the aetiology. Secondary bacterial infection is common and typical agents include pasteurella, klebsiella and proteus. acitnomyces and nocardia spp occasionally involved. often secondary to other diseases such as chronic bronchitis, inhalation of foreign material, systemic illness. Haematology that shows the presence of a leucocytosis with a neutrophilia and left shift is suggestive of acut ebacterial bronchopneumonia. An alveolar pattern on radiographs will be seen with distinctive air bronchograms - attributed to bronchopneumonia. On bronchoscopy - mucopurulent material in the airways. Anti tussives are contraindicated .empirical antibacterial therapy is acceptable with broad spectrum. Mucolysis using nebulised solutions and steam vapour can be useful.

Answer 608

Grou of espiratory isease, eosinoophil is the predominant cell type, PIE is believed to involve a hypersensitivity reaction to inhaled allergens or migrating ascarid parasites, clinical signs vary, affected dogs are usually otherwise clinically normal, coughing is seen with tachypnoea and dyspnoea, marked circulating eosinophilia may be present, circulating basophilia more significant. Moredate interstital pattern common on radiographs. The treatment is glucocorticoids. Prognosis can vary with some dogs responding to a single treatment and others requiring chronic treatment due to recurrence.

Answer 609

Terrier breeds, particularly the west highland white and cairn terrier are affected, lung fibrosis, gradual onset and progressive deterioration, coughing, tachypnoea, dyspnoea and exercise intolerance, cyanosis, marked crackles are audible on chest auscultation, CT is the best method of diagnosis with characteristic changes including ground glass appearance, sub pleural fibrosis, parenchymal bands, traction bronchiectasis and occasionally honey comb appearance to lung. Glucocorticoid therapy is beneficial in some cases and some dogs seem to benefit from additional bronchodilator therapy. sildenafil and pimobendan for those with pulmonary hypertension gives symptomatic relief.

Answer 610

Adenocarcinoma. on rads - commonly a well delineated mass. alleviation of clinical signs with glucocorticoids for several weeks to months. Surgical removal can be attempted if localised to single lobes. Terminal disease.

Answer 611

Pleural effusion restricts lung expansion resulting in varying degrees of tachypnoea, dyspnoea and exercise intolerance. With severe effusions cyanosis may develop. Pyrexia may be present with pyothorax. Muffling of respiratory and cardiac sounds in alteration in chest percussion can be found. Thoracocentesis sampling form pleural space allows identification of the effusion type and culture of the infective organisms. biochemistry identifies hypoalbuminaemia sufficient to cause transudate as well as evidence of hepatic dysfunction. Serum triglyceride levels can be compared to levels in effusions.

Answer 612

A homogenous ground glass appearance, pleural fluid lines, lung lobe border delineation, lung lobe compression.

Answer 613

Hypoalbuminaemia, congestive heart failure

Answer 614

Increased numbers of cells and protein, yellow/pink - cardiac disease, hypoalbuminaemia, obstruction of lymphatic drainage, inflammatory, reaction to neoplasia, herniation of abdominal cnotents.

Answer 615

Inflammation, infection, neoplasia

Answer 616

Trauma, neoplasia, infections, idiopathic, congenital, congestive heart failure.

Answer 617

Treat vigorously with intermittent or continuous chest drainage. this allows chest lavage with warmed normal saline. long term antibacterial therapy on the basis of culture and sensitivity testing. penicillins, other B lactam agents, clindamycin, potentiated sulphonamides for dealing with anaerobic infections.

Answer 618

Dietary control of fat intake and surgical ligation of the thoracic duct. treatment of underlying infections and neoplastic diseases. benzopyrones in the treatment of chylothorax in dogs may be of potential benefit but their efficacy is still being assessed and no definite recommendation on their use is available.

Answer 619

Coughing, dyspnoea, dysphagia, regurgitation, neck/forelimb oedema, ascites and hindlimb oedema, chylothorax, horners syndrome, laryngeal dysfunction.

Answer 620

Tracheal or oesophageal rupture, iatrogenic puncture of trachea or bronchi, idiopathic pneumomediastinum is found although it may be assocaited with forceful respiratory manoevres such as coughing, deep neck wounds with air migrating along the neck/muscle facial planes.

Answer 621

Demodex gatoi and Demodex cati are the two demodex mites seen in cats. Demodex gatoi is the more short and stubby mite which lives superficially and Demodex cati is the long slender mite which lives in the hair follicles. Demodex gatoi is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus.

Answer 622

They are the most effective bronchodilators - they relax airway smooth muscle, some of them may also modulate mediator release from mast cells and TNF-a release from monocytes. B receptors also stimulate airway mucus secretion. Specific b2 agonsts include short acting agents such as salbutamol, terbutaline and clenbuterol. Maximum effects occur within minutes. Duration of action is 4-6h.

Answer 623

also bronchodilators - reduce cAMP breakdown via PDE inhibition. They decrease effort associated with breathing. this class includes caffeiene, theobromine, theophylline.

Answer 624

They break down thick dry mucous, they may act on mucus secreting cells or on mucus directly. modifiers of mucus synthesi include bromhexine (bisolvon) and dembrexine (sputulosin) and are often used to treat chronic bronchitis. they reduce the viscosity of secreted mucus and possibly by increasing lysosomal breakdown of mucopolysacharide within the gland cell.

Answer 625

They can act centrally or peripherally. centrally acting drugs include narcotic opiate analgesics cdeine, hydrocodone, butorphanol, and non narcotic opioids dextromethoprhan, diphenyoxylate. Their use is limted to those cases where coughing is of little value and cannot b controlled by other means and is causing significant discomfort to the dog. Care should be exercised in their use when coughing is of benefit to the patient eg chronic bronchitis and pneumonia.

Answer 626

Majority are gram negative aerobes so - fluoroquinolones. Pradofloxacin has enhanced anti gram positive activity. A typical approach would be any three of clindamycin, a cephalosporin, potentiated sulphonamides and an early generation fluoroquinolone. Amoxicillin clavulanate is limited on its penetration into infected lung. If mycoplasma suspected then use doxycyline, Gentamycin can also be considered for highly resistant pseudomonas infection but parenteral fluoroquinolones or ticarcilin are more feasible. tx for a minimum of 4 weeks in bronchopneumonia.

Answer 627

Sildenafil and pimobendan - likely acting as PDE5 inhibitors.