Exit 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The client is having an arteriogram. During the procedure, the client tells the nurse, “I’m feeling really hot.” Which response would be best?

A. “You are having an allergic reaction. I will get an order for Benadryl”
B. “That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected”
C. “That feeling of warmth indicates that the clots in the coronary vessels are dissolving”
D. “I will tell your doctor and let him explain to you the reason for the hot feeling that you are experiencing”

A

B. “That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected”

It is normal for the client to have a warm sensation when dye is injected. Options A, C, and D indicate that the nurse believes that the hot feeling is abnormal, so they are incorrect.

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2
Q

The nurse is observing several healthcare workers providing care. Which action by the healthcare worker indicates a need for further teaching?

A. The nursing assistant wears gloves while giving the client a bath
B. The nurse wears goggles while drawing blood from the client
C. The doctor washes his hands before examining the client
D. The nurse wears gloves to take the client’s vital signs

A

D. The nurse wears gloves to take the client’s vital signs

It is not necessary to wear gloves to take the vital signs of the client. If the client has an active infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, gloves should be worn. Options A, B, and C indicate proper knowledge of infection control.

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3
Q

The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Which of the following indicates that the client’s ECT has been effective?

A. The client loses consciousness
B. The client vomits
C. The client’s ECG indicates tachycardia
D. The client has a grand mal seizure

A

D. The client has a grand mal seizure

During ECT, the client will have a grand mal seizure, indicating the completion of the electroconvulsive therapy. Options A, B, and C do not indicate that the ECT has been effective.

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4
Q

The 5-year-old is being tested for enterobiasis (pinworms). To collect a specimen for assessment of pinworms, the nurse should teach the mother to:

A. Examine the perianal area with a flashlight 2 or 3 hours after the child is asleep
B. Scrape the skin with a piece of cardboard and bring it to the clinic
C. Obtain a stool specimen in the afternoon
D. Bring a hair sample to the clinic for evaluation

A

A. Examine the perianal area with a flashlight 2 or 3 hours after the child is asleep

The mother should use a flashlight to examine the rectal area about 2-3 hours after the child is asleep. Placing clear tape on a tongue blade will allow the eggs to adhere to the tape, which should then be brought in to be evaluated.

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5
Q

The nurse is teaching the mother regarding treatment for enterobiasis. Which instruction should be given regarding the medication?

A. Treatment is not recommended for children less than 10 years of age
B. The entire family should be treated
C. Medication therapy will continue for 1 year
D. Intravenous antibiotic therapy will be ordered

A

B. The entire family should be treated

Enterobiasis, or pinworms, is treated with Vermox (mebendazole) or Antiminth (pyrantel pamoate). The entire family should be treated to ensure that no eggs remain.

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6
Q

The registered nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant nurse?

A. The client receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer
B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer
C. The client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer
D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer

A

A. The client receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer

The client receiving linear accelerator therapy travels to the radium department for therapy and does not pose a radiation risk to the pregnant nurse. Options B, C, and D involve clients with radioactivity present, posing a risk.

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7
Q

The nurse is planning room assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to a private room if only one is available?

A. The client with Cushing’s disease
B. The client with diabetes
C. The client with acromegaly
D. The client with myxedema

A

A. The client with Cushing’s disease

The client with Cushing’s disease has adrenocortical hypersecretion, causing immunosuppression. Options B, C, and D do not pose risks to others or themselves.

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8
Q

The nurse caring for a client in the neonatal intensive care unit administers adult-strength Digitalis to the 3-pound infant. As a result of her actions, the baby suffers permanent heart and brain damage. The nurse can be charged with:

A. Negligence
B. Tort
C. Assault
D. Malpractice

A

D. Malpractice

The nurse can be charged with malpractice for administering an incorrect dosage that causes harm. Negligence is failing to perform care, a tort is a wrongful act, and assault is a violent attack.

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9
Q

Which assignment should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse?

A. Inserting a Foley catheter
B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
D. Starting a blood transfusion

A

D. Starting a blood transfusion

The licensed practical nurse should not be assigned to begin a blood transfusion. They can insert a Foley catheter, discontinue a nasogastric tube, and collect a sputum specimen.

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10
Q

The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, and respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?

A. Continuing to monitor the vital signs.
B. Contacting the physician
C. Asking the client how he feels
D. Asking the LPN to continue the post-op care

A

B. Contacting the physician

The vital signs are abnormal and should be reported immediately. Continuing to monitor can lead to deterioration, asking how the client feels provides subjective data, and assigning to an LPN is inappropriate.

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11
Q

Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartum client with preeclampsia?

A. The RN with 2 weeks of experience in postpartum
B. The RN with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery
C. The RN with 10 years of experience in surgery
D. The RN with 1 year of experience in the neonatal intensive care unit

A

B. The RN with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery

The nurse with experience in labor and delivery knows the most about possible complications involving preeclampsia. The other nurses lack sufficient experience with postpartum clients.

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12
Q

Which information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing?

A. The facility fails to provide literature in both Spanish and English
B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days
C. The client fails to receive an itemized account of his bills and services received during his hospital stay
D. The nursing assistant assigned to the client with hepatitis fails to feed the client and give the bath

A

B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days

Incorrect narcotic counts should be reported to the Board of Nursing. The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals may be interested in issues A and C, while the failure to care for a client may result in termination but not Board reporting.

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13
Q

The nurse is suspected of charting medication administration that he did not give. After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:

A. Call the Board of Nursing.
B. File a formal reprimand.
C. Terminate the nurse.
D. Charge the nurse with a tort

A

B. File a formal reprimand

Documenting the incident by filing a formal reprimand is the next action after discussing the problem. Termination and Board reporting are subsequent steps if behavior continues or harm results.

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14
Q

The home health nurse is planning for the day’s visits. Which client should be seen first?

A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago and has a PEG tube.
B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension.
C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line.
D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter.

A

D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter.

The client at highest risk for complications is the client with multiple sclerosis who is being treated with cortisone via the central line. The others are more stable.

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15
Q

The emergency room is flooded with clients injured in a tornado. Which clients can be assigned to share a room in the emergency department during the disaster?

A. A schizophrenic client having visual and auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis
B. The client who is 6 months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm
C. A child whose pupils are fixed and dilated and his parents, and a client with a frontal head injury
D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain

A

B. The client who is 6 months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm

The pregnant client and the client with a broken arm and facial lacerations are the best choices for placing in the same room. The other groupings involve clients who need more specialized or isolated care.

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16
Q

The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of conjunctivitis. Before administering eye drops, the nurse should recognize that it is essential to consider which of the following?

A. The eye should be cleansed with warm water, removing any exudate, before instilling the eye drops
B. The child should be allowed to instill his own eye drops
C. The mother should be allowed to instill the eye drops
D. If the eye is clear from any redness or edema, the eye drops should be held

A

A. The eye should be cleansed with warm water, removing any exudate, before instilling the eye drops

Before instilling eye drops, the nurse should cleanse the area with water. A 6-year-old is not developmentally ready to instill his own eye drops, and although the mother can instill the eye drops, the area must be cleansed first.

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17
Q

The nurse is discussing meal planning with the mother of a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following statements, if made by the mother, would require a need for further instruction?

A. “It is okay to give my child white grape juice for breakfast”
B. “My child can have a grilled cheese sandwich for lunch”
C. “We are going on a camping trip this weekend, and I have bought hot dogs to grill for his lunch”
D. “For a snack, my child can have ice cream”

A

C. “We are going on a camping trip this weekend, and I have bought hot dogs to grill for his lunch”

Hot dogs pose a risk of aspiration for a child due to their size and shape. The other food choices do not pose such a risk.

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18
Q

A 2-year-old toddler is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following nursing interventions would you expect?

A. Ask the parent/guardian to leave the room when assessments are being performed.
B. Ask the parent/guardian to take the child’s favorite blanket home because anything from the outside should not be brought into the hospital.
C. Ask the parent/guardian to room-in with the child.
D. If the child is screaming, tell him this is inappropriate behavior.

A

C. Ask the parent/guardian to room-in with the child.

Rooming-in promotes parent-child attachment and provides comfort to the child. Items familiar to the child should be allowed in the hospital to provide comfort.

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19
Q

Which instruction should be given to the client who is fitted for a behind-the-ear hearing aid?

A. Remove the mold and clean every week.
B. Store the hearing aid in a warm place.
C. Clean the lint from the hearing aid with a toothpick.
D. Change the batteries weekly.

A

B. Store the hearing aid in a warm place.

The hearing aid should be stored in a warm, dry place. It should be cleaned daily, and a toothpick should not be used as it might break off in the hearing aid. Battery replacement frequency depends on usage and type.

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20
Q

A priority nursing diagnosis for a child being admitted from surgery following a tonsillectomy is:

A. Body image disturbance.
B. Impaired verbal communication.
C. Risk for aspiration.
D. Pain.

A

C. Risk for aspiration.

Risk for aspiration is the highest priority due to the potential for airway obstruction from bleeding or swelling after a tonsillectomy.

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21
Q

A client with bacterial pneumonia is admitted to the pediatric unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal?

A. High fever.
B. Nonproductive cough.
C. Rhinitis.
D. Vomiting and diarrhea.

A

A. High fever.

Bacterial pneumonia typically presents with a high fever and a productive cough. Rhinitis and gastrointestinal symptoms are more common with viral infections.

22
Q

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with epiglottitis. Because of the possibility of complete obstruction of the airway, which of the following should the nurse have available?

A. Intravenous access supplies.
B. A tracheostomy set.
C. Intravenous fluid administration pump.
D. Supplemental oxygen.

A

B. A tracheostomy set.

Emergency tracheostomy equipment should be available at the bedside to manage potential complete airway obstruction in clients with epiglottitis.

23
Q

A 25-year-old client with Grave’s disease is admitted to the unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal?

A. Bradycardia.
B. Decreased appetite.
C. Exophthalmos.
D. Weight gain

A

C. Exophthalmos.

Exophthalmos (protrusion of eyeballs) is a common sign of hyperthyroidism seen in Grave’s disease. Clients typically exhibit tachycardia, increased appetite, and weight loss.

24
Q

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to the mother of an 8-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following foods, if selected by the mother, would indicate her understanding of the dietary instructions?

A. Ham sandwich on whole-wheat toast.
B. Spaghetti and meatballs.
C. Hamburger with ketchup.
D. Cheese omelet.

A

D. Cheese omelet.

A cheese omelet is gluten-free, making it appropriate for a child with celiac disease. The other options contain gluten.

25
Q

The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old with chronic bronchitis. Upon the morning rounds, the nurse finds an O2 sat of 76%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Notify the physician.
B. Recheck the O2 saturation level in 15 minutes.
C. Apply oxygen by mask.
D. Assess the pulse.

A

C. Apply oxygen by mask.

The priority is to apply oxygen to increase the O2 saturation level. Notification of the physician, rechecking the saturation, and assessing the pulse can be done after applying oxygen.

26
Q

A gravida 3 para 0 is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The doctor performs an amniotomy. Which observation would the nurse be expected to make after the amniotomy?

A. Fetal heart tones 160 bpm.
B. A moderate amount of straw-colored fluid.
C. A small amount of greenish fluid.
D. A small segment of the umbilical cord.

A

B. A moderate amount of straw-colored fluid.

Normal amniotic fluid is straw-colored and odorless. Tachycardia (160 bpm), greenish fluid indicating meconium, and a prolapsed umbilical cord would be abnormal findings.

27
Q

The client is admitted to the unit. A vaginal exam reveals that she is 2 cm dilated. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect her to make?

A. “We have a name picked out for the baby.”
B. “I need to push when I have a contraction.”
C. “I can’t concentrate if anyone is touching me.”
D. “When can I get my epidural?”

A

B. “When can I get my epidural?”

Dilation of 2 cm marks the end of the latent phase of labor. The other statements are less typical of this stage.

28
Q

The client is having fetal heart rates of 90–110 bpm during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is:

A. Reposition the monitor.
B. Turn the client to her left side.
C. Ask the client to ambulate.
D. Prepare the client for delivery.

A

B. Turn the client to her left side.

Bradycardia in the fetus (90–110 bpm) warrants turning the client to her left side to improve blood flow. Repositioning the monitor and asking the client to ambulate are not appropriate initial actions, and there is no indication for immediate delivery.

29
Q

In evaluating the effectiveness of IV Pitocin for a client with secondary dystocia, the nurse should expect:

A. A painless delivery.
B. Cervical effacement.
C. Infrequent contractions.
D. Progressive cervical dilation.

A

D. Progressive cervical dilation.

The expected effect of Pitocin is progressive cervical dilation. Pitocin induces more intense contractions, which can increase pain, rather than making delivery painless. Cervical effacement is caused by pressure on the presenting part, and infrequent contractions are opposite the expected effect of Pitocin.

30
Q

A vaginal exam reveals a footling breech presentation. The nurse should take which of the following actions at this time?

A. Anticipate the need for a Caesarean section.
B. Apply the fetal heart monitor.
C. Place the client in Genupectoral position.
D. Perform an ultrasound exam.

A

B. Apply the fetal heart monitor.

Applying a fetal heart monitor is the correct action at this time. There is no immediate need for a Caesarean section or to place the client in Genupectoral position. An ultrasound is not necessary based on the vaginal exam findings alone.

31
Q

A vaginal exam reveals that the cervix is 4 cm dilated, with intact membranes and a fetal heart tone rate of 160–170 bpm. The nurse decides to apply an external fetal monitor. The rationale for this implementation is:

A. The cervix is closed.
B. The membranes are still intact.
C. The fetal heart tones are within normal limits.
D. The contractions are intense enough for insertion of an internal monitor.

A

B. The membranes are still intact.

The nurse decides to apply an external monitor because the membranes are intact. An internal monitor can only be used if the membranes are ruptured. Cervical dilation of 4 cm and normal fetal heart tones are also considered.

32
Q

The following are all nursing diagnoses appropriate for a gravida 1 para 0 in labor. Which one would be most appropriate for the primigravida as she completes the early phase of labor?

A. Impaired gas exchange related to hyperventilation.
B. Alteration in placental perfusion related to maternal position.
C. Impaired physical mobility related to fetal-monitoring equipment.
D. Potential fluid volume deficit related to decreased fluid intake.

A

D. Potential fluid volume deficit related to decreased fluid intake.

Clients admitted in labor are told not to eat during labor to avoid nausea and vomiting. Ice chips may be allowed, but this amount of fluid might not be sufficient to prevent fluid volume deficit. Hyperventilation, placental perfusion, and mobility issues are less of a concern in the early phase.

33
Q

As the client reaches 8 cm dilation, the nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. The FHR baseline is 165–175 bpm with variability of 0–2 bpm. What is the most likely explanation of this pattern?

A. The baby is asleep.
B. The umbilical cord is compressed.
C. There is a vagal response.
D. There is uteroplacental insufficiency.

A

D. There is uteroplacental insufficiency.

This information indicates late deceleration caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. Compressed umbilical cord results in variable decelerations, while a vagal response indicates early deceleration.

34
Q

The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most appropriate initial action would be to:

A. Notify her doctor.
B. Start an IV.
C. Reposition the client.
D. Readjust the monitor.

A

D. Reposition the client.

The initial action should be to reposition the client, usually to her side, to alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord. Notifying the physician might be necessary if repositioning does not help, and starting an IV or readjusting the monitor is not immediately appropriate.

35
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern?

A. A fetal heart rate of 170–180 bpm.
B. A baseline variability of 25–35 bpm.
C. Ominous periodic changes.
D. Acceleration of FHR with fetal movements.

A

D. Acceleration of FHR with fetal movements.

Accelerations with fetal movements are normal and reassuring. A fetal heart rate of 170–180 bpm and baseline variability of 25–35 bpm are outside normal limits, and ominous periodic changes are concerning.

36
Q

The rationale for inserting a French catheter every hour for the client with epidural anesthesia is:

A. The bladder fills more rapidly because of the medication used for the epidural.
B. Her level of consciousness is such that she is in a trancelike state.
C. The sensation of the bladder filling is diminished or lost.
D. She is embarrassed to ask for the bedpan that frequently

A

C. The sensation of the bladder filling is diminished or lost.

Epidural anesthesia decreases the urge to void and sensation of a full bladder. A full bladder can impede labor progress.

37
Q

A client in the family planning clinic asks the nurse about the most likely time for her to conceive. The nurse explains that conception is most likely to occur when:

A. Estrogen levels are low.
B. Luteinizing hormone is high.
C. The endometrial lining is thin.
D. The progesterone level is low.

A

B. Luteinizing hormone is high.

Luteinizing hormone (LH) peaks just before ovulation, making it the most likely time for conception. Estrogen levels are high, not low, the endometrial lining is thick, and progesterone levels rise after ovulation.

38
Q

A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the:

A. Age of the client.
B. Frequency of intercourse.
C. Regularity of the menses.
D. Range of the client’s temperature.

A

C. Regularity of the menses.

The rhythm method depends on the regularity of the menstrual cycle to predict ovulation. The age of the client, frequency of intercourse, and temperature range are less critical factors.

39
Q

A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding methods of birth control. Which method of birth control is most suitable for the client with diabetes?

A. Intrauterine device.
B. Oral contraceptives.
C. Diaphragm.
D. Contraceptive sponge.

A

C. Diaphragm.

The diaphragm is a suitable method as it does not affect glucose metabolism. Intrauterine devices can cause inflammation, oral contraceptives can affect glucose levels, and contraceptive sponges are less effective.

40
Q

The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?

A. Painless vaginal bleeding.
B. Abdominal cramping.
C. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant.
D. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant

A

D. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant.

Ectopic pregnancy symptoms include sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant due to tubal rupture. Painless vaginal bleeding indicates placenta previa, abdominal cramping indicates labor, and throbbing pain in the upper quadrant is not associated with ectopic pregnancy.

41
Q

The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about nutritional needs during pregnancy. Which menu selection will best meet the nutritional needs of the pregnant client?

A. Hamburger patty, green beans, French fries, and iced tea.
B. Roast beef sandwich, potato chips, baked beans, and cola.
C. Baked chicken, fruit cup, potato salad, coleslaw, yogurt, and iced tea.
D. Fish sandwich, gelatin with fruit, and coffee.

A

C. Baked chicken, fruit cup, potato salad, coleslaw, yogurt, and iced tea.

This selection includes a balance of protein, fruits, vegetables, and dairy, providing a range of nutrients essential during pregnancy.

42
Q

The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing:

A. Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration.
B. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration.
C. Respiratory acidosis without dehydration.
D. Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration.

A

B. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration

Hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to persistent vomiting and dehydration, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

43
Q

A client tells the doctor that she is about 20 weeks pregnant. The most definitive sign of pregnancy is:

A. Elevated human chorionic gonadotropin.
B. The presence of fetal heart tones.
C. Uterine enlargement.
D. Breast enlargement and tenderness.

A

B. The presence of fetal heart tones.

Fetal heart tones are the most definitive sign of pregnancy. Elevated hCG, uterine enlargement, and breast tenderness can be due to other conditions.

44
Q

The nurse is caring for a neonate whose mother is diabetic. The nurse will expect the neonate to be:

A. Hypoglycemic, small for gestational age.
B. Hyperglycemic, large for gestational age.
C. Hypoglycemic, large for gestational age.
D. Hyperglycemic, small for gestational age.

A

C. Hypoglycemic, large for gestational age

Infants of diabetic mothers are typically large for gestational age due to the high levels of glucose crossing the placenta. After birth, the infant’s glucose levels fall rapidly, leading to hypoglycemia.

45
Q

Which of the following instructions should be included in the nurse’s teaching regarding oral contraceptives?

A. Weight gain should be reported to the physician.
B. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics.
C. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken per day for 1 week.
D. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physician.

A

B. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics

Antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so an additional method of birth control is necessary. Weight gain and changes in menstrual flow are common and not necessarily concerning. If a client misses a pill, she should follow specific instructions from her healthcare provider.

46
Q

The nurse is discussing breastfeeding with a postpartum client. Breastfeeding is contraindicated in the postpartum client with:

A. Diabetes.
B. Positive HIV.
C. Hypertension.
D. Thyroid disease.

A

B. Positive HIV

Breastfeeding is contraindicated for clients with HIV due to the risk of transmitting the virus to the infant through breast milk. Clients with diabetes, hypertension, and thyroid disease can typically breastfeed safely.

47
Q

A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit complaining of vaginal bleeding with very little discomfort. The nurse’s first action should be to:

A. Assess the fetal heart tones.
B. Check for cervical dilation.
C. Check for firmness of the uterus.
D. Obtain a detailed history.

A

A. Assess the fetal heart tones.

The first action should be to assess the fetal heart tones to ensure fetal well-being. Cervical checks should be done cautiously to avoid increasing bleeding. Checking the firmness of the uterus and obtaining a history are important but secondary.

48
Q

A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:

A. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
B. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
C. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
D. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.

A

D. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.

Regular contractions that are 5 minutes apart typically indicate the onset of labor. Waiting until contractions are 2 minutes apart or experiencing abdominal pain and frequent urination are not definitive indicators. Back pain and bloody discharge can also occur for other reasons.

49
Q

The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of cigarette smoke on fetal development. Which characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy?

A. Low birth weight.
B. Large for gestational age.
C. Preterm birth, but appropriate size for gestation.
D. Growth retardation in weight and length.

A

A. Low birth weight.

Babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy are often low in birth weight. Smoking can also lead to preterm birth and growth retardation, but low birth weight is the most characteristic outcome.

50
Q

The physician has ordered an injection of RhoGam for the postpartum client whose blood type is A negative but whose baby is O positive. To provide postpartum prophylaxis, RhoGam should be administered:

A. Within 72 hours of delivery.
B. Within 1 week of delivery.
C. Within 2 weeks of delivery.
D. Within 1 month of delivery.

A

A. Within 72 hours of delivery.

RhoGam should be given within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the mother’s immune system from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which could affect future pregnancies.