Exit 17 Flashcards

1
Q

A client is scheduled for insertion of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. Nurse Patricia consults the physician about withholding which regularly scheduled medication on the day before the surgery?

A. Potassium Chloride
B. Warfarin Sodium
C. Furosemide
D. Docusate

A

B. Warfarin Sodium

In the preoperative period, the nurse should consult with the physician about withholding Warfarin Sodium to avoid the occurrence of hemorrhage.

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2
Q

A nurse is planning to assess the corneal reflex on an unconscious client. Which of the following is the safest stimulus to touch the client’s cornea?

A. Cotton buds
B. Sterile glove
C. Sterile tongue depressor
D. Wisp of cotton

A

D. Wisp of cotton

A client who is unconscious is at greater risk for corneal abrasion. For this reason, the safest way to test the corneal reflex is by touching the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton.

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3
Q

A female client develops an infection at the catheter insertion site. The nurse in charge uses the term “iatrogenic” when describing the infection because it resulted from:

A. Client’s developmental level
B. Therapeutic procedure
C. Poor hygiene
D. Inadequate dietary patterns

A

B. Therapeutic procedure

Iatrogenic infection is caused by the health care provider or is induced inadvertently by medical treatment or procedures.

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4
Q

Nurse Carol is assessing a client with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse recognizes bradykinesia when the client exhibits:

A. Intentional tremor
B. Paralysis of limbs
C. Muscle spasm
D. Lack of spontaneous movement

A

D. Lack of spontaneous movement

Bradykinesia is the slowing down from the initiation and execution of movement.

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5
Q

A client who suffered from an automobile accident complains of seeing frequent flashes of light. The nurse should expect:

A. Myopia
B. Detached retina
C. Glaucoma
D. Scleroderma

A

B. Detached retina

This symptom is caused by the stimulation of retinal cells by ocular movement.

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6
Q

Kate with severe head injury is being monitored by the nurse for increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which finding should be the most indicative sign of increasing intracranial pressure?

A. Intermittent tachycardia
B. Polydipsia
C. Tachypnea
D. Increased restlessness

A

D. Increased restlessness

Restlessness indicates a lack of oxygen to the brain stem which impairs the reticular activating system.

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7
Q

A hospitalized client had a tonic-clonic seizure while walking down the hall. During the seizure, the nurse’s priority should be:

A. Hold the client’s arms and leg firmly
B. Place the client immediately on a soft surface
C. Protect the client’s head from injury
D. Attempt to insert a tongue depressor between the client’s teeth

A

C. Protect the client’s head from injury

Rhythmic contraction and relaxation associated with tonic-clonic seizure can cause repeated banging of the head.

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8
Q

A client has undergone a right pneumonectomy. When turning the client, the nurse should plan to position the client either:

A. Right side-lying position or supine
B. High Fowler’s position
C. Right or left side-lying position
D. Low Fowler’s position

A

A. Right side-lying position or supine

The right side-lying position or supine position permits ventilation of the remaining lung and prevents fluid from draining into the sutured bronchial stump.

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9
Q

Nurse Jenny should caution a female client who is sexually active about taking Isoniazid (INH) because the drug has which of the following side effects?

A. Prevents ovulation
B. Has a mutagenic effect on ova
C. Decreases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives
D. Increases the risk of vaginal infection

A

C. Decreases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives

Isoniazid (INH) interferes with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, and clients of childbearing age should be counseled to use an alternative form of birth control while taking this drug.

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10
Q

A client has undergone a gastrectomy. Nurse Jovy is aware that the best position for the client is:

A. Left side-lying
B. Low Fowler’s
C. Prone
D. Supine

A

B. Low Fowler’s

A client who has had abdominal surgery is best placed in a low Fowler’s position. This relaxes abdominal muscles and provides maximum respiratory and cardiovascular function.

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11
Q

During the initial postoperative period of the client’s stoma, the nurse evaluates which of the following observations should be reported immediately to the physician?

A. Stoma is dark red to purple
B. Stoma oozes a small amount of blood
C. Stoma is slightly edematous
D. Stoma does not expel stool

A

A. Stoma is dark red to purple

A dark red to purple stoma indicates inadequate blood supply.

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12
Q

Kate, who has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis, is following the physician’s order for bed rest with bathroom privileges. What is the rationale for this activity restriction?

A. Prevent injury
B. Promote rest and comfort
C. Reduce intestinal peristalsis
D. Conserve energy

A

C. Reduce intestinal peristalsis

The rationale for activity restriction is to help reduce the hypermotility of the colon.

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13
Q

Nurse KC should regularly assess the client’s ability to metabolize the total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution adequately by monitoring the client for which of the following signs:

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen concentration

A

A. Hyperglycemia

During Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) administration, the client should be monitored regularly for hyperglycemia.

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14
Q

A female client has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to see?

A. Constipation
B. Hypertension
C. Ascites
D. Jaundice

A

D. Jaundice

Jaundice may be present in acute pancreatitis owing to obstruction of the biliary duct.

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15
Q

A client is suspected to develop tetany after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following symptoms might indicate tetany?

A. Tingling in the fingers
B. Pain in hands and feet
C. Tension on the suture lines
D. Bleeding on the back of the dressing

A

A. Tingling in the fingers

Tetany may occur after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands are accidentally injured or removed.

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16
Q

A 58-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse is aware that the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include:

A. Diarrhea
B. Vomiting
C. Tachycardia
D. Weight gain

A

D. Weight gain

Typical signs of hypothyroidism include weight gain, fatigue, decreased energy, apathy, brittle nails, dry skin, cold intolerance, constipation, and numbness.

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17
Q

A client has undergone an ileal conduit, the nurse in charge should closely monitor the client for the occurrence of which of the following complications related to pelvic surgery?

A. Ascites
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Inguinal hernia
D. Peritonitis

A

B. Thrombophlebitis

After pelvic surgery, there is an increased chance of thrombophlebitis owing to the pelvic manipulation that can interfere with circulation and promote venous stasis.

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18
Q

Dr. Marquez is about to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation and says in a loud voice “clear”. What should be the action of the nurse?

A. Place conductive gel pads for defibrillation on the client’s chest
B. Turn off the mechanical ventilator
C. Shut off the client’s IV infusion
D. Step away from the bed and make sure all others have done the same

A

D. Step away from the bed and make sure all others have done the same

For the safety of all personnel, if the defibrillator paddles are being discharged, all personnel must stand back and be clear of all contact with the client or the client’s bed.

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19
Q

A client has been diagnosed with glomerulonephritis and complains of thirst. The nurse should offer:

A. Juice
B. Ginger ale
C. Milkshake
D. Hard candy

A

D. Hard candy

Hard candy will relieve thirst and increase carbohydrates but does not supply extra fluid.

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20
Q

A client with acute renal failure is aware that the most serious complication of this condition is:

A. Constipation
B. Anemia
C. Infection
D. Platelet dysfunction

A

C. Infection

Infection is responsible for one-third of the traumatic or surgically induced death of clients with renal failure as well as medically induced acute renal failure (ARF).

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21
Q

Nurse Karen is caring for clients in the OR. The nurse is aware that the last physiologic function that the client loses during the induction of anesthesia is:

A. Consciousness
B. Gag reflex
C. Respiratory movement
D. Corneal reflex

A

C. Respiratory movement

There is no respiratory movement in stage 4 of anesthesia; prior to this stage, respiration is depressed but present.

22
Q

The nurse is assessing a client with pleural effusion. The nurse expects to find:

A. Deviation of the trachea towards the involved side
B. Reduced or absent breath sounds at the base of the lung
C. Moist crackles at the posterior of the lungs
D. Increased resonance with percussion of the involved area

A

B. Reduced or absent breath sounds at the base of the lung

Compression of the lung by fluid that accumulates at the base of the lungs reduces expansion and air exchange.

23
Q

A client admitted with newly diagnosed Hodgkin’s disease. Which of the following would the nurse expect the client to report?

A. Lymph node pain
B. Weight gain
C. Night sweats
D. Headache

A

C. Night sweats

Assessment of a client with Hodgkin’s disease most often reveals enlarged, painless lymph nodes, fever, malaise, and night sweats.

24
Q

A client has suffered from a fall and sustained a leg injury. Which appropriate question would the nurse ask the client to help determine if the injury caused a fracture?

A. “Is the pain sharp and continuous?”
B. “Is the pain a dull ache?”
C. “Does the discomfort feel like a cramp?”
D. “Does the pain feel like the muscle was stretched?”

A

A. “Is the pain sharp and continuous?”

Fractured pain is generally described as sharp, continuous, and increasing in frequency.

25
Q

The nurse is assessing the client’s casted extremity for signs of infection. Which of the following findings is indicative of infection?

A. Edema
B. Weak distal pulse
C. Coolness of the skin
D. Presence of a “hot spot” on the cast

A

D. Presence of a “hot spot” on the cast

Signs and symptoms of infection under a casted area include odor or purulent drainage and the presence of “hot spots,” which are areas on the cast that are warmer than others.

26
Q

Nurse Rhia is performing an otoscopic examination on a female client with a suspected diagnosis of mastoiditis. Nurse Rhia would expect to note which of the following if this disorder is present?

A. Transparent tympanic membrane
B. Thick and immobile tympanic membrane
C. Pearly-colored tympanic membrane
D. Mobile tympanic membrane

A

B. Thick and immobile tympanic membrane

Otoscopic examination in a client with mastoiditis reveals a dull, red, thick, and immobile tympanic membrane with or without perforation.

27
Q

Nurse Jocelyn is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. Nurse Jocelyn assesses the client for symptoms of which acid-base disorder?

A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

A

D. Metabolic alkalosis

Loss of gastric fluid via nasogastric suction or vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis because of the loss of hydrochloric acid, which is a potent acid in the body.

28
Q

A male adult client has undergone a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. Which of the following values should be negative if the CSF is normal?

A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Insulin
D. Protein

A

A. Red blood cells

The adult with normal cerebrospinal fluid has no red blood cells.

29
Q

A client is suspected of developing diabetes insipidus. Which of the following is the most effective assessment?

A. Taking vital signs every 4 hours
B. Monitoring blood glucose
C. Assessing ABG values every other day
D. Measuring urine output hourly

A

D. Measuring urine output hourly

Measuring the urine output to detect excess amounts and checking the specific gravity of urine samples to determine urine concentration are appropriate measures to determine the onset of diabetes insipidus.

30
Q

A 58-year-old client is suffering from the acute phase of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following would the nurse in charge identify as the lowest priority of the plan of care?

A. Prevent joint deformity
B. Maintaining usual ways of accomplishing tasks
C. Relieving pain
D. Preserving joint function

A

B. Maintaining usual ways of accomplishing tasks

The nurse should focus more on developing less stressful ways of accomplishing routine tasks.

31
Q

Among the following, which client is autotransfusion possible?

A. Client with AIDS
B. Client with ruptured bowel
C. Client who is in danger of cardiac arrest
D. Client with wound infection

A

C. Client who is in danger of cardiac arrest

Autotransfusion is acceptable for the client who is in danger of cardiac arrest.

Autotransfusion is a process wherein a person receives their own blood for a transfusion, instead of banked allogenic (separate-donor) blood.

32
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of thromboembolism?

A. Edema
B. Swelling
C. Redness
D. Coolness

A

D. Coolness

The client with thromboembolism does not have coolness.

33
Q

Nurse Becky is caring for a client who begins to experience a seizure while in bed. Which action should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?

A. Position the client on the side with the head flexed forward
B. Elevate the head
C. Use a tongue depressor between the teeth
D. Loosen restrictive clothing

A

A. Position the client on the side with the head flexed forward

Positioning the client on one side with the head flexed forward allows the tongue to fall forward and facilitates drainage of secretions, thereby preventing aspiration.

34
Q

A client has undergone a bone biopsy. Which nursing action should the nurse provide after the procedure?

A. Administer analgesics via IM
B. Monitor vital signs
C. Monitor the site for bleeding, swelling, and hematoma formation
D. Keep the area in a neutral position

A

C. Monitor the site for bleeding, swelling, and hematoma formation

Nursing care after a bone biopsy includes close monitoring of the puncture site for bleeding, swelling, and hematoma formation.

35
Q

A client is suffering from low back pain. Which of the following exercises will strengthen the lower back muscles of the client?

A. Tennis
B. Basketball
C. Diving
D. Swimming

A

D. Swimming

Walking and swimming are very helpful in strengthening back muscles for the client suffering from lower back pain.

36
Q

A client with a peptic ulcer is being assessed by the nurse for gastrointestinal perforation. The nurse should monitor for:

A. (+) guaiac stool test
B. Slow, strong pulse
C. Sudden, severe abdominal pain
D. Increased bowel sounds

A

C. Sudden, severe abdominal pain

Sudden, severe abdominal pain is the most indicative sign of perforation. When perforation of an ulcer occurs, the nurse may be unable to hear bowel sounds at all.

37
Q

A client has undergone surgery for retinal detachment. Which of the following goals should be prioritized?

A. Prevent an increase in intraocular pressure
B. Alleviate pain
C. Maintain a darkened room
D. Promote a low-sodium diet

A

A. Prevent an increase in intraocular pressure

After surgery to correct a detached retina, the prevention of increased intraocular pressure is the priority goal.

38
Q

A client with glaucoma has been prescribed miotics. The nurse is aware that miotics are for:

A. Constricting the pupil
B. Relaxing the ciliary muscle
C. Constricting intraocular vessels
D. Paralyzing the ciliary muscle

A

A. Constricting the pupil

Miotic agents constrict the pupil and contract the ciliary muscle. These effects widen the filtration angle and permit increased outflow of aqueous humor.

39
Q

When suctioning an unconscious client, which nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize in maintaining cerebral perfusion?

A. Administer diuretics
B. Administer analgesics
C. Provide hygiene
D. Hyperoxygenate before and after suctioning

A

D. Hyperoxygenate before and after suctioning

It is a priority to hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning to prevent hypoxia and to maintain cerebral perfusion.

40
Q

When discussing breathing exercises with a postoperative client, Nurse Hazel should include which of the following teachings?

A. Short, frequent breaths
B. Exhale with the mouth open
C. Exercise twice a day
D. Place the hand on the abdomen and feel it rise

A

D. Place the hand on the abdomen and feel it rise

Abdominal breathing improves lung expansion.

41
Q

Louie, with burns over 35% of the body, complains of chilling. In promoting the client’s comfort, the nurse should:

A. Maintain room humidity below 40%
B. Place a top sheet on the client
C. Limit the occurrence of drafts
D. Keep the room temperature at 80 degrees

A

C. Limit the occurrence of drafts

A client with burns is very sensitive to temperature changes because heat is lost in the burn areas.

42
Q

Nurse Trish is aware that temporary heterograft (pig skin) is used to treat burns because this graft will:

A. Relieve pain and promote rapid epithelialization
B. Be sutured in place for better adherence
C. Debride necrotic epithelium
D. Be concurrently used with topical antimicrobials

A

A. Relieve pain and promote rapid epithelialization

The graft covers the nerve endings, which reduces pain and provides a framework for granulation.

43
Q

Mark has multiple abrasions and a laceration to the trunk and all four extremities and says, “I can’t eat all this food.” The food that the nurse should suggest to be eaten first should be:

A. Meatloaf and coffee
B. Meatloaf and strawberries
C. Tomato soup and apple pie
D. Tomato soup and buttered bread

A

B. Meatloaf and strawberries

Meat provides proteins and the fruit provides vitamin C, both of which promote wound healing.

44
Q

Tony returns from surgery with a permanent colostomy. During the first 24 hours, the colostomy does not drain. The nurse should be aware that:

A. Proper functioning of nasogastric suction
B. Presurgical decrease in fluid intake
C. Absence of gastrointestinal motility
D. Intestinal edema following surgery

A

C. Absence of gastrointestinal motility

This is primarily caused by the trauma of intestinal manipulation and the depressive effects of anesthetics and analgesics.

45
Q

When teaching a client about the signs of colorectal cancer, Nurse Trish stresses that the most common complaint of persons with colorectal cancer is:

A. Abdominal pain
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Change in caliber of stools
D. Change in bowel habits

A

D. Change in bowel habits

Constipation, diarrhea, and/or constipation alternating with diarrhea are the most common symptoms of colorectal cancer.

46
Q

Louis develops peritonitis and sepsis after surgical repair of a ruptured diverticulum. The nurse in charge should expect an assessment of the client to reveal:

A. Tachycardia
B. Abdominal rigidity
C. Bradycardia
D. Increased bowel sounds

A

B. Abdominal rigidity

With increased intra-abdominal pressure, the abdominal wall will become tender and rigid.

47
Q

Immediately after a liver biopsy, the client is placed on the right side. The nurse is aware that this position should be maintained because it will:

A. Help stop bleeding if any occurs
B. Reduce the fluid trapped in the biliary ducts
C. Position the client with the greatest comfort
D. Promote circulating blood volume

A

A. Help stop bleeding if any occurs

Pressure applied to the puncture site indicates that a biliary vessel was punctured, which is a common complication after a liver biopsy.

48
Q

Tony was diagnosed with hepatitis A. The information from the health history that is most likely linked to hepatitis A is:

A. Exposure to arsenic compounds at work
B. Working as a local plumber
C. Working at a hemodialysis clinic
D. Dishwasher in restaurants

A

B. Working as a local plumber

Hepatitis A is primarily spread via the fecal-oral route. Sewage-polluted water may harbor the virus.

49
Q

Nurse Trish is aware that the laboratory test result that most likely would indicate acute pancreatitis is an elevated:

A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Serum amylase level
C. Potassium level
D. Sodium level

A

B. Serum amylase level

Amylase concentration is high in the pancreas and is elevated in the serum when the pancreas becomes acutely inflamed. It also distinguishes pancreatitis from other acute abdominal problems.

50
Q

Dr. Marquez orders serum electrolytes. To determine the effect of persistent vomiting, Nurse Trish should be most concerned with monitoring the:

A. Chloride and sodium levels
B. Phosphate and calcium levels
C. Protein and magnesium levels
D. Sulfate and bicarbonate levels

A

A. Chloride and sodium levels

Sodium, which is concerned with the regulation of extracellular fluid volume, is lost with vomiting. Chloride, which balances cations in the extracellular compartments, is also lost with vomiting. Because sodium and chloride are parallel electrolytes, hyponatremia will accompany.