Exit 3

Question 1

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient’s lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?

A. Elevated serum calcium.
B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH).
C. Elevated serum vitamin D.
D. Low urine calcium.

Answer 1

A. Elevated serum calcium.

The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. In hyperparathyroidism, the serum calcium level will be elevated.

Option B: Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low.
Option C: The body will lower the level of vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium.
Option D: Urine calcium may be elevated, with calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels. This may cause renal stones.

Question 2

A patient with Addison’s disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is NOT recommended?

A. A diet high in grains.
B. A diet with adequate caloric intake.
C. A high protein diet.
D. A restricted sodium diet.

Answer 2

D. A restricted sodium diet.

A patient with Addison’s disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Adequate caloric intake is recommended with a diet high in protein and complex carbohydrates, including grains.

Question 3

A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn’t able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms?

A. Anesthesia reaction.
B. Hyperglycemia.
C. Hypoglycemia.
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis.

Answer 3

C. Hypoglycemia.

A post-operative diabetic patient who is unable to eat is likely to be suffering from hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common symptoms.

Option A: An anesthesia reaction would not occur on the second postoperative day.
Options B and D: Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis do not cause confusion and shakiness.

Question 4

A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?

A. Bowel perforation.
B. Viral Gastroenteritis.
C. Colon cancer.
D. Diverticulitis.

Answer 4

A. Bowel perforation

Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy. Important signs include progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia, which indicate advancing peritonitis.

Options B and C: Viral gastroenteritis and colon cancer do not cause these symptoms.
Option D: Diverticulitis may cause pain, fever, and chills, but is far less serious than perforation and peritonitis.

Question 5

A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation?

A. Partial thromboplastin time.
B. Prothrombin time.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin

Answer 5

A, B, and C.

Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included in coagulation studies.

Option D: The hemoglobin level, though important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy, does not assess coagulation.

Question 6

A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission?

A. Sexual contact with an infected partner.
B. Contaminated food.
C. Blood transfusion.
D. Illegal drug use.

Answer 6

B. Contaminated food.

Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food.

Options A, C, and D: Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids.

Question 7

A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this?

A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously.
B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously.
C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis.
D. Crohn’s disease in remission.

Answer 7

A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously.

Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily fluids, such as blood, causing inflammation of the liver. Patients with hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection in the recipient.

Cholecystitis (gallbladder disease), diverticulosis, and history of Crohn’s disease do not preclude blood donation.

Question 8

A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?

A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn).
B. Calcium carbonate.
C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin).
D. Furosemide (Lasix).

Answer 8

A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn).

Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis.

Option B: Calcium carbonate is used as an antacid for the relief of indigestion and is not contraindicated.
Option C: Clarithromycin is an antibacterial often used for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori in gastritis.
Option D: Furosemide is a loop diuretic and is NOT contraindicated in a patient with gastritis.

Question 9

The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following information is important to communicate?

A. The patient must maintain a low-calorie diet.
B. The patient must maintain a high protein/low carbohydrate diet.
C. The patient should limit sweets and sugary drinks.
D. The patient should limit fatty foods.

Answer 9

D. The patient should limit fatty foods.

Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder, is most commonly caused by the presence of gallstones, which may block bile (necessary for fat absorption) from entering the intestines. Patients should decrease dietary fat by limiting foods like fatty meats, fried foods, and creamy desserts to avoid irritation of the gallbladder.

Question 10

A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

A. Slow, deep respirations.
B. Stridor.
C. Bradycardia.
D. Air hunger.

Answer 10

D. Air hunger.

Patients with pulmonary edema experience air hunger, anxiety, and agitation.

Options A and C: Respiration is fast and shallow and heart rate increases.
Option B: Stridor is noisy breathing caused by laryngeal swelling or spasm and is not associated with pulmonary edema.

Question 11

A nurse caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
B. A post-operative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Answer 11

C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.

An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator delivers an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. This is necessary for a patient with significant ventricular symptoms, such as tachycardia resulting in syncope.

Option A: A patient with myocardial infarction that resolved with no permanent cardiac damage would not be a candidate.
Option B: A patient recovering well from coronary bypass would not need the device.
Option D: Atrial tachycardia is less serious and is treated conservatively with medication and cardioversion as a last resort.

Question 12

A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?

A. The patient is allergic to shellfish.
B. The patient has a pacemaker.
C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia.
D. The patient takes anti-psychotic medication.

Answer 12

B. The patient has a pacemaker.

The implanted pacemaker will interfere with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner and may be deactivated by them.

Option A: Shellfish/iodine allergy is not a contraindication because the contrast used in MRI scanning is not iodine-based.
Options C and D: Open MRI scanners and anti-anxiety medications are available for patients with claustrophobia. Psychiatric medication is not a contraindication to MRI scanning.

Question 13

A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the nurse most likely observed?

A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to the family.
B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.
C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the nurse hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs.
D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite.

Answer 13

B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.

Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately.

Options A and C: A patient with pulmonary embolism will not be sleepy or have a cough with crackles on the exam.
Option D: A patient with fever, chills, and loss of appetite may be developing pneumonia.

Question 14

A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.

Answer 14

C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.

A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture and should be resected as soon as possible. No other appropriate treatment options currently exist.

Question 15

A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?

A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.

Answer 15

D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.

A platelet count of 25,000/microliter is severely thrombocytopenic and should prompt the initiation of bleeding precautions, including monitoring urine and stool for evidence of bleeding.

Options A and B: Monitoring for fever and requiring protective clothing are indicated to prevent infection if white blood cells are decreased.
Option C: Transfusion of red cells is indicated for severe anemia.

Question 16

A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?

A. Bulging anterior fontanel.
B. Repeated vomiting.
C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM.
D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches.

Answer 16

B. Repeated vomiting

Increased pressure caused by bleeding or swelling within the skull can damage delicate brain tissue and may become life-threatening. Repeated vomiting can be an early sign of pressure as the vomiting center within the medulla is stimulated.

Option A: The anterior fontanel is closed in a 4-year-old child.
Option C: Evidence of sleepiness at 10 PM is normal for a four-year-old.
Option D: The average 4-year-old child cannot read yet, so this too is normal.

Question 17

A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?

A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
C. There is low-grade fever.
D. The lesions have a “teardrop-on-a-rose-petal” appearance.

Answer 17

A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.

Koplik’s spots are small blue-white spots visible on the oral mucosa and are characteristic of measles infection.

Option B: The body rash typically begins on the face and travels downward.
Option C: High fever is often present.
Option D: “Teardrop on a rose petal” refers to the lesions found in varicella (chickenpox).

Question 18

A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is NOT correct?

A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria.
B. “Strawberry tongue” is a characteristic sign.
C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
D. The pharynx is red and swollen

Answer 18

C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.

Petechiae on the soft palate are characteristic of rubella infection.

Options A, B, and D are characteristic of scarlet fever, a result of group A Streptococcus infection.

Question 19

A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?

A. It is the correct dose.
B. The dose is too low.
C. The dose is too high.
D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms.

Answer 19

B. The dose is too low.

This child weighs 30 kg, and the pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day (5 X 30 = 150/day). Therefore, the correct dose is 150 mg/day. Divided into 3 doses per day, the child should receive 50 mg 3 times a day rather than 25 mg 3 times a day. Dosage should not be titrated based on symptoms without consulting a physician.

Question 20

The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?

A. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
C. The infant probably has with only one testis.
D. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.

Answer 20

D. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.

Normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. If not, a full assessment will determine the appropriate treatment.

Question 21

A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?

A. The tumor is less than 3 cm. in size and requires no chemotherapy.
B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.

Answer 21

C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.

The staging of Wilm’s tumor is confirmed at surgery as follows:
Stage I, the tumor is limited to the kidney and completely resected
stage II, the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected
stage III, residual nonhematogenous tumor is confined to the abdomen
stage IV, hematogenous metastasis has occurred with spread beyond the abdomen
stage V, bilateral renal involvement is present at diagnosis.

Question 22

A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
C. Brown (“tea-colored”) urine.
D. Generalized edema.

Answer 22

A, B, and C

Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by high urine specific gravity related to oliguria as well as dark “tea-colored” urine caused by large amounts of red blood cells.

Option D: There is periorbital edema, but generalized edema is seen in nephrotic syndrome, not acute glomerulonephritis.

Question 23

Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
D. Nephrotic syndrome.

Answer 23

B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.

Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

Question 24

An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?

A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.

Answer 24

C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.

A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary.

Options A and D: Massaging the area or placing the infant in a supine position would have no effect.
Option B: Surgery is not indicated.

Question 25

A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.

Answer 25

A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.

Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion.

Option B: Fluid overload is not characteristic of PVD.
Option C: There is nothing to indicate a psychiatric disturbance in the patient.
Option D: Skin changes in PVD are secondary to decreased tissue perfusion rather than primary inflammation

Question 26

A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?

A. Family history of heart disease.
B. Overweight.
C. Smoking.
D. Age.

Answer 26

A. Family history of heart disease.

A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor that is not subject to lifestyle change. Having a first-degree relative with heart disease has been shown to significantly increase risk.

Options B and C: Overweight and smoking are risk factors that are subject to lifestyle change and can reduce risk significantly.
Option D: Advancing age increases the risk of atherosclerosis but is not a hereditary factor.

Question 27

Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? Select all that apply:

A. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply.
B. It is characterized by pain that often occurs during rest.
C. It is a result of tissue hypoxia.
D. It is characterized by cramping and weakness.

Answer 27

A, C, and D.

Claudication describes the pain experienced by a patient with a peripheral vascular disease when oxygen demand in the leg muscles exceeds the oxygen supply. The tissue becomes hypoxic, causing cramping, weakness, and discomfort.

Option B: This most often occurs during activity when demand increases in muscle tissue.

Question 28

A nurse is providing discharge information to a patient with peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following information should be included in instructions?

A. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
B. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
C. Avoid crossing the legs.
D. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions at risk of infection.

Answer 28

C. Avoid crossing the legs.

Patients with peripheral vascular disease should avoid crossing the legs because this can impede blood flow.

Option A: Walking barefoot is not advised, as foot protection is important to avoid trauma that may lead to serious infection.
Option B: Heating pads can cause injury, which can also increase the risk of infection.
Option D: Skin lesions at risk for infection should be examined and treated by a physician.

Question 29

A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud’s disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?

A. An adolescent male.
B. An elderly woman.
C. A young woman.
D. An elderly man.

Answer 29

C. A young woman.

Raynaud’s disease is most common in young women and is frequently associated with rheumatologic disorders, such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 30

A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
C. Anxiety attack due to worries about her baby’s health.
D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.

Answer 30

B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs. These clots can then break loose and travel to the lungs.

Options A and D: Myocardial infarction and atherosclerosis are unlikely in a 23-year-old woman, as is congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.
Option C: There is no reason to suspect an anxiety disorder in this patient. Though anxiety is a possible cause of her symptoms, the seriousness of pulmonary embolism demands that it be considered first.

Question 31

Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

A. Air embolus.
B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
C. Expansion of the clot.
D. Resolution of the clot.

Answer 31

B. Cerebral hemorrhage.

Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant risk when treating a stroke victim with thrombolytic therapy intended to dissolve a suspected clot. The success of the treatment demands that it be instituted as soon as possible, often before the cause of stroke has been determined.

Option A: Air embolus is not a concern.
Options C and D: Thrombolytic therapy does not lead to the expansion of the clot, but to resolution, which is the intended effect.

Question 32

An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures.
C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head.
D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size.

Answer 32

A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

In torticollis, the sternocleidomastoid muscle is contracted, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side.

Option B: In craniosynostosis one of the cranial sutures, often the sagittal, closes prematurely, causing the head to grow in an abnormal shape.
Option C: Plagiocephaly refers to the flattening of one side of the head, caused by the infant being placed supine in the same position over time.
Option D: Hydrocephalus is caused by a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain resulting in large head size.

Question 33

An adolescent brings a physician’s note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?

A. The condition was caused by the student’s competitive swimming schedule.
B. The student will most likely require surgical intervention.
C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
D. The student is trying to avoid participation in physical education.

Answer 33

C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.

Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents in rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. Osgood-Schlatter disease is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, including track and soccer.

Option A: Swimming is not a likely cause.
Option B: The condition is usually self-limited, responding to ice, rest, and analgesics.
Option D: Continued participation will worsen the condition and the symptoms.

Question 34

The clinic nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting?

A. Spinal flexibility.
B. Leg length disparity.
C. Hypostatic blood pressure.
D. Scoliosis.

Answer 34

D. Scoliosis.

A check for scoliosis, a lateral deviation of the spine, is an important part of the routine adolescent exam. It is assessed by having the teen bend at the waist with arms dangling, while observing for lateral curvature and uneven rib level. Scoliosis is more common in female adolescents.

Options A, B, and C are not part of the routine adolescent exam.

Question 35

A clinic nurse interviews a parent who is suspected of abusing her child. Which of the following characteristics is the nurse LEAST likely to find in an abusing parent?

A. Low self-esteem.
B. Unemployment.
C. Self-blame for the injury to the child.
D. Single status.

Answer 35

C. Self-blame for the injury to the child.

The profile of a parent at risk of abusive behavior includes a tendency to blame the child or others for the injury sustained.

Options A, B, and D: These parents also have a high incidence of low self-esteem, unemployment, unstable financial situation, and single status.

Question 36

A nurse is assigned to the pediatric rheumatology clinic and is assessing a child who has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate?

A. The child has a poor chance of recovery without joint deformity.
B. Most children progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment.
D. Physical activity should be minimized.

Answer 36

C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment.

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are important first line treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). NSAIDs require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic anti-inflammatory effects to be realized.

Options A and B: Half of children with the disorder recover without joint deformity and about a third will continue with symptoms into adulthood.
Option D: Physical activity is an integral part of therapy.

Question 37

A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her athletic shoe and entered the flesh of her foot. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started?

A. The admission orders are written.
B. A blood culture is drawn.
C. A complete blood count with differential is drawn.
D. The parents arrive.

Answer 37

B. A blood culture is drawn.

Antibiotics must be started after the blood culture is drawn, as they may interfere with the identification of the causative organism.

Option C: The blood count will reveal the presence of infection but does not help identify an organism or guide antibiotic treatment.
Option D: Parental presence is important for the adjustment of the child but not for the administration of medication.

Question 38

A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child’s symptoms?

A. Possible fracture of the tibia.
B. Bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle.
C. Possible fracture of the radius.
D. No anatomic injury, the child wants his mother to carry him.

Answer 38

A. Possible fracture of the tibia.

The child’s refusal to walk, combined with swelling of the limb is suspicious for fracture.

Option B: Toddlers will often continue to walk on a muscle that is bruised or strained.
Option C: The radius is found in the lower arm and is not relevant to this question.
Option D: Toddlers rarely feign injury to be carried, and swelling indicates a physical injury.

Question 39

A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

A. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays.
B. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction, as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties.
C. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.
D. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues.

Answer 39

Answers: A, B, and D.

Delayed developmental milestones are characteristic of cerebral palsy, so regular screening and intervention is essential. Because of injury to upper motor neurons, children may have ocular and speech difficulties. Parent support groups help families to share and cope. Physical therapy and other interventions can minimize the extent of the delay in developmental milestones.

Question 40

A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

A. Duchenne’s is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
B. Duchenne’s is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.

Answer 40

A. Duchenne’s is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.

The recessive Duchenne gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If her son receives the X bearing the gene he will be affected. Thus, there is a 50% chance of a son being affected. Daughters are not affected, but 50% are carriers because they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome comes from the father, who cannot be a carrier.