Exit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The primary reason for rapid continuous rewarming of the area affected by frostbite is to:

A. Lessen the amount of cellular damage.
B. Prevent the formation of blisters.
C. Promote movement.
D. Prevent pain and discomfort.

A

A. Lessen the amount of cellular damage.

Rapid continuous rewarming of a frostbite primarily lessens cellular damage. It does not prevent the formation of blisters, promote movement, or prevent pain and discomfort, although pain might increase temporarily as feeling returns.

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2
Q

A client recently started on hemodialysis wants to know how the dialysis will take the place of his kidneys. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that hemodialysis works by:

A. Passing water through a dialyzing membrane
B. Eliminating plasma proteins from the blood
C. Lowering the pH by removing nonvolatile acids
D. Filtering waste through a dialyzing membrane

A

D. Filtering waste through a dialyzing membrane

Hemodialysis works by using a dialyzing membrane to filter waste that has accumulated in the blood. It does not pass water through a dialyzing membrane, eliminate plasma proteins, or lower the pH.

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3
Q

During a home visit, a client with AIDS tells the nurse that he has been exposed to measles. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Administer an antibiotic
B. Contact the physician for an order for immune globulin
C. Administer an antiviral
D. Tell the client that he should remain in isolation for 2 weeks

A

B. Contact the physician for an order for immune globulin

The client who is immunosuppressed and exposed to measles should be treated with medications to boost his immunity to the virus. Antibiotics or antivirals are not effective, and isolation is not a preventive measure at this stage.

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4
Q

A client hospitalized with MRSA (methicillin-resistant staph aureus) is placed on contact precautions. Which statement is true regarding precautions for infections spread by contact?

A. The client should be placed in a room with negative pressure.
B. Infection requires close contact; therefore, the door may remain open.
C. Transmission is highly likely, so the client should wear a mask at all times.
D. Infection requires skin-to-skin contact and is prevented by hand washing, gloves, and a gown.

A

D. Infection requires skin-to-skin contact and is prevented by hand washing, gloves, and a gown.

MRSA spreads through direct contact, not airborne, so negative pressure is unnecessary, and the door can remain open. A mask is not required for the client at all times, but hand washing, gloves, and gowns are essential.

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5
Q

A client who is admitted with an above-the-knee amputation tells the nurse that his foot hurts and itches. Which response by the nurse indicates an understanding of phantom limb pain?

A. “The pain will go away in a few days.”
B. “The pain is due to peripheral nervous system interruptions. I will get you some pain medication.”
C. “The pain is psychological because your foot is no longer there.”
D. “The pain and itching are due to the infection you had before the surgery.”

A

B. “The pain is due to peripheral nervous system interruptions. I will get you some pain medication.”

Phantom limb pain is caused by peripheral nervous system interruptions. It is not psychological, typically does not resolve quickly, and is not related to infection.

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6
Q

A client with cancer of the pancreas has undergone a Whipple procedure. The nurse is aware that during the Whipple procedure, the doctor will remove the:

A. Head of the pancreas
B. Proximal third section of the small intestines
C. Stomach and duodenum
D. Esophagus and jejunum

A

A. Head of the pancreas

The Whipple procedure involves removing the head of the pancreas, part of the stomach, the jejunum, and other structures, not the entire stomach, duodenum, esophagus, or proximal third of the small intestines.

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7
Q

The physician has ordered a minimal-bacteria diet for a client with neutropenia. The client should be taught to AVOID eating:

A. Packed fruits
B. Salt
C. Fresh raw pepper
D. Ketchup

A

C. Fresh raw pepper

Fresh raw or whole pepper can harbor bacteria unless thoroughly cooked. Packed fruits are allowed since they are processed and pasteurized, and salt and ketchup do not pose a bacterial risk.

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8
Q

A client is discharged home with a prescription for Coumadin (sodium warfarin). The client should be instructed to:

A. Have a Protime done monthly
B. Eat more fruits and vegetables
C. Drink more liquids
D. Avoid crowds

A

A. Have a Protime done monthly

Coumadin requires monitoring of bleeding times via Protime tests. Increased intake of dark-green vegetables can affect vitamin K levels and clotting, while drinking more liquids and avoiding crowds are unrelated to Coumadin therapy.

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9
Q

The nurse is assisting the physician with removal of a central venous catheter. To facilitate removal, the nurse should instruct the client to:

A. Perform the Valsalva maneuver as the catheter is advanced
B. Turn his head to the left side and hyperextend the neck
C. Take slow, deep breaths as the catheter is removed
D. Turn his head to the right while maintaining a sniffing position

A

A. Perform the Valsalva maneuver as the catheter is advanced

The Valsalva maneuver helps prevent air embolism during catheter removal. Slow, deep breaths, head turning, or hyperextension of the neck are not recommended during this procedure.

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10
Q

A client has an order for streptokinase. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the client for:

A. Allergies to pineapples and bananas
B. A history of streptococcal infections
C. Prior therapy with phenytoin
D. A history of alcohol abuse

A

B. A history of streptococcal infections

Antibodies from past streptococcal infections can render streptokinase ineffective. Allergies to pineapples, bananas, phenytoin use, or alcohol abuse are irrelevant to streptokinase efficacy.

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11
Q

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for the client with leukemia. The client should be told to avoid:

A. Using oil- or cream-based soaps
B. Flossing between the teeth
C. The intake of salt
D. Using an electric razor

A

B. Flossing between the teeth

Clients with leukemia and bone marrow suppression should avoid flossing due to bleeding risks from decreased platelets. Using oil or cream-based soaps, consuming salt, and using an electric razor are allowed.

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12
Q

The nurse is changing the ties of the client with a tracheotomy. The safest method of changing the tracheotomy ties is to:

A. Apply the new tie before removing the old one.
B. Have a helper present.
C. Hold the tracheotomy with the nondominant hand while removing the old tie.
D. Ask the doctor to suture the tracheostomy in place.

A

A. Apply the new tie before removing the old one.

This method prevents accidental decannulation. Having a helper, holding the tracheotomy with the nondominant hand, or asking for sutures are not as effective in preventing displacement.

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13
Q

The nurse is monitoring a client following a lung resection. The hourly output from the chest tube was 300mL. The nurse should give priority to:

A. Turning the client to the left side
B. Milking the tube to ensure patency
C. Slowing the intravenous infusion
D. Notifying the physician

A

D. Notifying the physician

An output of 300 mL indicates possible hemorrhage and requires immediate medical attention. Turning the client, milking the tube, or slowing the IV infusion are inappropriate actions in this situation.

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14
Q

The infant is admitted to the unit with tetralogy of Fallot. The nurse would anticipate an order for which medication?

A. Digoxin
B. Epinephrine
C. Aminophylline
D. Atropine

A

A. Digoxin

The infant withTetralogy of Fallot involves four heart defects:A large ventricular septal defect (VSD),Pulmonary stenosis,Right ventricular hypertrophy and an Overriding aorta.

Digoxin helps slow and strengthen the heart in tetralogy of Fallot. Epinephrine, aminophylline, and atropine are not indicated as they can increase heart rate, which is not desirable in this condition.

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15
Q

The nurse is educating the lady’s club in self-breast exam. The nurse is aware that most malignant breast masses occur in the Tail of Spence. On the diagram below, sleect where the Tail of Spence is.

A

A. Up into the axilla region

The Tail of Spence is located in the upper outer quadrant of the breast.

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16
Q

The toddler is admitted with a cardiac anomaly. The nurse is aware that the infant with a ventricular septal defect will:

A. Tire easily
B. Grow normally
C. Need more calories
D. Be more susceptible to viral infections

A

A. Tire easily

The toddler with a ventricular septal defect will tire easily due to the extra workload on the heart. The child will not grow normally without surgical intervention and will not need more calories specifically. They will be more susceptible to bacterial rather than viral infections.

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17
Q

The nurse is monitoring a client with a history of stillborn infants. The nurse is aware that a nonstress test can be ordered for this client to:

A. Determine lung maturity
B. Measure the fetal activity
C. Show the effect of contractions on fetal heart rate
D. Measure the wellbeing of the fetus

A

B. Measure the fetal activity

A nonstress test determines fetal activity and well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate responses to movements. It does not determine lung maturity, show contractions, or measure neurological well-being directly.

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18
Q

A client with clotting disorder has an order to continue Lovenox (enoxaparin) injections after discharge. The nurse should teach the client that Lovenox injections should:

A. Be injected into the deltoid muscle
B. Be injected into the abdomen
C. Aspirate after the injection
D. Clear the air from the syringe before injections

A

B. Be injected into the abdomen

Lovenox should be injected into the abdomen for proper absorption. It should not be injected into the deltoid muscle, aspiration is not necessary, and air should not be cleared from the syringe before injection.

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19
Q

The nurse has a preop order to administer Valium (diazepam) 10mg and Phenergan (promethazine) 25mg. The correct method of administering these medications is to:

A. Administer the medications together in one syringe
B. Administer the medication separately
C. Administer the Valium, wait 5 minutes, and then inject the Phenergan
D. Question the order because they cannot be given at the same time

A

B. Administer the medication separately

Valium and Phenergan should be administered separately as they are not compatible in the same syringe. Administering one after the other immediately is acceptable, and questioning the order is unnecessary as they can be given concurrently but separately.

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20
Q

A client with frequent urinary tract infections asks the nurse how she can prevent the recurrence. The nurse should teach the client to:

A. Douche after intercourse
B. Void every 3 hours
C. Obtain a urinalysis monthly
D. Wipe from back to front after voiding

A

B. Void every 3 hours

Voiding every 3 hours helps prevent stagnant urine from allowing bacterial growth. Douching after intercourse is not recommended, obtaining urinalysis monthly is unnecessary, and wiping from back to front can introduce bacteria to the urinary tract

21
Q

Which task should be assigned to the nursing assistant?

A. Placing the client in seclusion
B. Emptying the Foley catheter of the preeclamptic client
C. Feeding the client with dementia
D. Ambulating the client with a fractured hip

A

C. Feeding the client with dementia

A nursing assistant can feed a client with dementia safely. Placing a client in seclusion and emptying the Foley catheter of a preeclamptic client require an RN, and ambulating a client with a fractured hip needs professional assessment and supervision.

22
Q

The client has recently returned from having a thyroidectomy. The nurse should keep which of the following at the bedside?

A. A tracheotomy set
B. A padded tongue blade
C. An endotracheal tube
D. An airway

A

A. A tracheotomy set

Answer: A. After thyroidectomy, the client is at risk for tracheal edema, and a tracheotomy set should be readily available. A padded tongue blade is for seizures, and an endotracheal tube or airway alone will not address tracheal edema.

23
Q

The physician has ordered a histoplasmosis test for the elderly client. The nurse is aware that histoplasmosis is transmitted to humans by:

A. Cats
B. Dogs
C. Turtles
D. Birds

A

D. Birds

Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection transmitted through bird droppings. It is not transmitted by cats, dogs, or turtles.

24
Q

What’s the first intervention for a patient experiencing chest pain and an SpO2 of 89%?

A. Administer morphine.
B. Administer oxygen.
C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECC)

A

B. Administer oxygen.

Administering oxygen is the priority to increase SpO2 levels and prevent further cardiac damage. Morphine and nitroglycerin are administered after oxygen, and an ECG can be obtained once the patient’s oxygenation is addressed.

25
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A. Abdominal pain.
B. Absent pedal pulses.
C. Chest pain.
D. Lower back pain.

A

D. Lower back pain.

Lower back pain results from the pressure applied by the expanding aneurysm. Abdominal pain is a common symptom of impaired circulation. Absent pedal pulses indicate no circulation, and chest pain is related to coronary or pulmonary issues.

26
Q

In which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does cardiac output remain normal?

A. Dilated.
B. Hypertrophic.
C. Obliterative.
D. Restrictive.

A

B. Hypertrophic

Cardiac output remains normal in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because the ventricular size remains unchanged. Dilated, obliterative, and restrictive cardiomyopathies all decrease cardiac output.

27
Q

Which of the following interventions should be your first priority when treating a patient experiencing chest pain while walking?

A. Have the patient sit down.
B. Get the patient back to bed.
C. Obtain an ECG.
D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.

A

A. Have the patient sit down.

The priority is to reduce oxygen consumption by sitting the patient down. Administering nitroglycerin and obtaining an ECG can be done simultaneously once the patient is seated.

28
Q

Which of the following positions would best aid breathing for a patient with acute pulmonary edema?

A. Lying flat in bed.
B. Left side-lying position.
C. High Fowler’s position.
D. Semi-Fowler’s position.

A

C. High Fowler’s position.

High Fowler’s position facilitates breathing by reducing venous return and alleviating pulmonary congestion. Lying flat or side-lying positions worsen breathing and increase the heart’s workload.

29
Q

A pregnant woman arrives at the emergency department (ED) with abruptio placentae at 34 weeks’ gestation. She’s at risk for which of the following blood dyscrasias?

A. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
D. Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT).

A

C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

Abruptio placentae activates the clotting cascade, leading to DIC. Thrombocytopenia results from decreased platelet production, ITP has no definitive cause, and HATT is related to heparin use, which is not a factor here.

30
Q

A 16-year-old patient involved in a motor vehicle accident arrives in the ED unconscious and severely hypotensive. He’s suspected to have several fractures of his pelvis and legs. Which of the following parenteral fluids is the best choice for his current condition?

A. Fresh frozen plasma.
B. 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
C. Lactated Ringer’s solution.
D. Packed red blood cells.

A

D. Packed red blood cells.

In trauma, unmatched (O negative) packed red blood cells are given first to improve oxygen-carrying capacity. Fresh frozen plasma replaces clotting factors, and sodium chloride or Lactated Ringer’s increase volume but can dilute blood excessively.

31
Q

Corticosteroids are potent suppressors of the body’s inflammatory response. Which of the following conditions or actions do they suppress?

A. Cushing syndrome.
B. Pain receptors.
C. Immune response.
D. Neural transmission.

A

C. Immune response.

Corticosteroids suppress the immune response by inhibiting natural inflammatory processes, suppressing eosinophils, lymphocytes, and natural killer cells, and stabilizing lysosomal membranes. They do not suppress pain receptors, neural transmission, or cause Cushing syndrome directly.

32
Q

A patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) begins zidovudine therapy. Which of the following statements best describes this drug’s action?

A. It destroys the outer wall of the virus and kills it.
B. It interferes with viral replication.
C. It stimulates the immune system.
D. It promotes excretion of viral antibodies.

A

B. It interferes with viral replication.

Zidovudine inhibits DNA synthesis in HIV, thereby interfering with viral replication. It does not destroy the virus, stimulate the immune system, or promote antibody excretion.

33
Q

A 20-year-old patient is being treated for pneumonia. He has a persistent cough and complains of severe pain on coughing. What could you tell him to help him reduce his discomfort?

A. “Hold your cough as much as possible.”
B. “Place the head of your bed flat to help with coughing.”
C. “Restrict fluids to help decrease the amount of sputum.”
D. “Splint your chest wall with a pillow for comfort.”

A

D. “Splint your chest wall with a pillow for comfort.”

Splinting the chest wall with a pillow can help reduce discomfort when coughing. Holding in a cough can increase pain, placing the bed flat can worsen coughing, and restricting fluids can thicken sputum, making it harder to expel.

34
Q

A 19-year-old patient comes to the ED with acute asthma. His respiratory rate is 44 breaths/minute, and he appears to be in acute respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should you take first?

A. Take a full medical history.
B. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer.
C. Apply a cardiac monitor to the patient.
D. Provide emotional support for the patient.

A

B. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer

Administering a bronchodilator by nebulizer is the priority to open airways and improve oxygenation. Taking a full medical history, applying a cardiac monitor, and providing emotional support can be done subsequently.

35
Q

A firefighter who was involved in extinguishing a house fire is being treated for smoke inhalation. He develops severe hypoxia 48 hours after the incident, requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. Which of the following conditions has he most likely developed?

A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
B. Atelectasis.
C. Bronchitis.
D. Pneumonia

A

A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Severe hypoxia following smoke inhalation is typically associated with ARDS, not atelectasis, bronchitis, or pneumonia.

36
Q

Which of the following measures best determines that a patient who had a pneumothorax no longer needs a chest tube?

A. You see a lot of drainage from the chest tube.
B. Arterial blood gas (ABG) levels are normal.
C. The chest X-ray continues to show the lung is 35% deflated.
D. The water-seal chamber doesn’t fluctuate when no suction is applied.

A

D. The water-seal chamber doesn’t fluctuate when no suction is applied

The cessation of fluctuation in the water-seal chamber indicates the lung has adequately re-expanded. Drainage, ABG levels, or an incomplete chest X-ray are not definitive measures.

37
Q

Which of the following nursing interventions should you use to prevent foot drop and contractures in a patient recovering from a subdural hematoma?

A. High-top sneakers.
B. Low-dose heparin therapy.
C. Physical therapy consultation.
D. Sequential compressive device.

A

A. High-top sneakers

High-top sneakers can help prevent foot drop and contractures by maintaining proper foot positioning. Physical therapy is important but not the first intervention. Low-dose heparin and sequential compressive devices are unrelated to preventing foot drop.

38
Q

Which of the following signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) would appear first after head trauma?

A. Bradycardia.
B. Large amounts of very dilute urine.
C. Restlessness and confusion.
D. Widened pulse pressure.

A

C. Restlessness and confusion.

The earliest signs of increased ICP are changes in mental status such as restlessness and confusion. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and large amounts of dilute urine appear later.

39
Q

When giving intravenous (I.V.) phenytoin, which of the following methods should you use?

A. Use an in-line filter.
B. Withhold other anticonvulsants.
C. Mix the drug with saline solution only.
D. Flush the I.V. catheter with dextrose solution.

A

C. Mix the drug with saline solution only.

Phenytoin is compatible only with saline solutions. Using an in-line filter or withholding other anticonvulsants is unnecessary, and flushing with dextrose can cause an insoluble precipitate to form.

40
Q

After surgical repair of a hip, which of the following positions is best for the patient’s legs and hips?

A. Abduction.
B. Adduction.
C. Prone.
D. Subluxated.

A

A. Abduction.

After hip surgery, keeping the legs and hips in abduction helps stabilize the prosthesis and prevent dislocation. Adduction, prone, or subluxated positions are inappropriate.

41
Q

Which of the following factors should be the primary focus of nursing management in a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A. Nutrition management.
B. Fluid and electrolyte balance.
C. Management of hypoglycemia.
D. Pain control.

A

B. Fluid and electrolyte balance.

Fluid and electrolyte management is crucial due to losses from vomiting and fluid shifts. Pain control and nutrition are important but secondary, and hypoglycemia management is not typically a concern in pancreatitis.

42
Q

After a liver biopsy, place the patient in which of the following positions?

A. Left side-lying, with the bed flat.
B. Right side-lying, with the bed flat.
C. Left side-lying, with the bed in semi-Fowler’s position.
D. Right side-lying, with the bed in semi-Fowler’s position.

A

B. Right side-lying, with the bed flat.

Positioning the patient on the right side with the bed flat helps splint the biopsy site and minimize bleeding. Other positions do not provide the same benefit.

43
Q

Which of the following potentially serious complications could occur with therapy for hypothyroidism?

A. Acute hemolytic reaction.
B. Angina or cardiac arrhythmia.
C. Retinopathy.
D. Thrombocytopenia.

A

B. Angina or cardiac arrhythmia.

Therapy for hypothyroidism can precipitate angina or arrhythmias due to increased metabolic rate and cardiac workload. Acute hemolytic reactions are related to blood transfusions, retinopathy to diabetes, and thrombocytopenia is not a direct complication of hypothyroidism treatment.

44
Q

Adequate fluid replacement and vasopressin replacement are objectives of therapy for which of the following disease processes?

A. Diabetes mellitus.
B. Diabetes insipidus.
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH).

A

B. Diabetes insipidus.

Diabetes insipidus involves a deficiency in vasopressin, requiring fluid and vasopressin replacement. Diabetes mellitus and diabetic ketoacidosis are managed differently, and SIADH involves excess vasopressin.

45
Q

Patients with Type 1 diabetes mellitus may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?

A. No changes.
B. Less insulin.
C. More insulin.
D. Oral diabetic agents.

A

C. More insulin.

During infection, patients with Type 1 diabetes often need more insulin due to increased blood glucose levels. They do not require oral diabetic agents, which are not used in Type 1 diabetes.

46
Q

On a follow-up visit after having a vaginal hysterectomy, a 32-year-old patient has a decreased hematocrit level. Which of the following complications does this suggest?

A. Hematoma.
B. Hypovolemia.
C. Infection.
D. Pulmonary embolus (PE).

A

A. Hematoma.

A decreased hematocrit level post-surgery suggests a hematoma. Hypovolemia would show increased hematocrit, infection presents with fever and high WBC, and PE shows respiratory symptoms.

47
Q

A patient has partial-thickness burns to both legs and portions of his trunk. Which of the following I.V. fluids is given first?

A. Albumin.
B. D5W.
C. Lactated Ringer’s solution.
D. 0.9% sodium chloride solution with 2 mEq of potassium per 100 ml.

A

C. Lactated Ringer’s solution

Lactated Ringer’s solution is used first in burn patients to replace lost sodium and correct metabolic acidosis. Albumin is used later, D5W is avoided initially due to the risk of pseudodiabetes, and potassium is not added initially due to hyperkalemia risk.

48
Q

Which of the following techniques is correct for obtaining a wound culture specimen from a surgical site?

A. Thoroughly irrigate the wound before collecting the specimen.
B. Use a sterile swab and wipe the crusty area around the outside of the wound.
C. Gently roll a sterile swab from the center of the wound outward to collect drainage.
D. Use a sterile swab to collect drainage from the dressing.

A

C. Gently roll a sterile swab from the center of the wound outward to collect drainage

Rolling a sterile swab from the center outward ensures collection of a representative sample. Irrigating the wound before collection removes bacteria, and swabbing the outside or from the dressing could introduce contaminants.