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Pharmacology > Exams > Flashcards

Exams Flashcards

1
Q

A 25-year old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking medications for 3 months now. Two weeks ago, she complains of problem with her vision. What is the likely drug that may cause this symptom?

  • Isoniazid
  • Ethambutol
  • Streptomycin
  • Rifampicin
A

Ethambutol

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2
Q

A benzodiazepam:

  • Alprazolam
  • Diazepam
  • Lorazepam
  • None of the above.
A
  • Alprazolam
  • Diazepam
  • Lorazepam
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3
Q

A known side effect of immunosuppressants:

  • There is enhanced system function.
  • There is increased antibody production.
  • Patients are more prone to infection.
  • Patients feel better about themselves.
A

Patients are more prone to infection.

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4
Q

A non-benzodiazepine:

  • Alprazolam
  • Diazepam
  • Zolpidem
  • Lorazepam
A

Zolpidem

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5
Q

A patient complains of hearing problem that started three days after starting an antibiotic. Which is the most likely antibiotic the patient is taking?

  • Streptomycin
  • Cefalexin
  • Sulfamethoxazole
  • Isoniazid
A

Streptomycin

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6
Q

A patient on anti TB drugs complains of dizziness. Which drugs is most likely causing the symptom?

  • Streptomycin
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Isoniazid
  • Ethambutol
A

Streptomycin (?)

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7
Q

A skeletal muscle relaxant:

  • Dantrolene sodium
  • Zolpidem
  • Alprazolam
  • Diazepam
A

Dantrolene sodium (?)

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8
Q

Action of Paracetamol:

  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Anti-platelet
  • Anti-coagulation
  • Anti-pyresis
A

Anti-pyresis (?)

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9
Q

Actions of NSAIDS include:

  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Anti-platelet
  • Antipyresis
  • None of the Above.
A
  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Anti-platelet
  • Antipyresis
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10
Q

Acts on Alpha-2 receptors:

  • Diazepam
  • Tizanidine
  • Baclofen
  • All of the above.
A

Tizanidine

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11
Q

Acts on GABA-A receptors:

  • Diazepam
  • Tizanidine
  • Alprazolam
  • All of the above.
A

Diazepam

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12
Q

Advantage of use of acetaminophen or paracetamol:

  • Is an NSAID.
  • Has anti-coagulant effects.
  • Not associated with upper GI tract irritation.
  • Has anti-inflammatory effects.
A

Not associated with upper GI tract irritation. (?)

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13
Q

Adverse effects of chemotherapy, except:

  • Diarrhea
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms
  • Hair loss
  • Nausea, vomiting
  • Pain
A

Extrapyramidal symptoms

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14
Q

After taking Biphosphonates, we advise the patient that he/she should lie down for better drug absorption.

  • True
  • False
A

False

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15
Q

An angiotensin receptor blocker:

  • Nifedipine
  • Losartan
  • Amlodipine
  • Furosemide
A

Losartan

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16
Q

An anti-diabetic drug that decreases triglyceride and LDL levels as well as enhances weight loss:

  • Acarbose
  • Glipizide
  • Metformin
  • Repaglinide
A

Metformin (?)

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17
Q

An anti-diabetic drug that induces secretion of insulin from the beta cells:

  • Acarbose
  • Gliclazide
  • Metformin
  • Rosiglitazone
A

Gliclazide

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18
Q

Anti-inflammatory effects of corticosteroids include:

  • Suppress the transcription of genes involved in inflammation.
  • Inhibit the phospholipase A2 which release arachidonic acid from the cell membrane.
  • Stabilize lysosomal membranes, thereby making them less fragile and susceptible to rupture.
  • Decrease vascular permeability that helps control swelling and erythema at the site of inflammation.
  • None of the choices.
A
  • Suppress the transcription of genes involved in inflammation.
  • Inhibit the phospholipase A2 which release arachidonic acid from the cell membrane.
  • Stabilize lysosomal membranes, thereby making them less fragile and susceptible to rupture.
  • Decrease vascular permeability that helps control swelling and erythema at the site of inflammation.

(?)

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19
Q

Antibiotics causing increased sensitivity to UV light EXCEPT:

  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Sulfamethoxazole
  • Doxycycline
  • Bacitracin
A

Bacitracin

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20
Q

Antibiotics used for TB are:

  • Rifampicin
  • Isosorbide Dinitrate
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol
A
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol

(?)

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21
Q

Antineoplastic drugs, except:

  • Docetaxel
  • Vinblastine
  • Methotrexate
  • Daunorubicin
  • Isoprinosine
A

Isoprinosine

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22
Q

Bactericidal:

  • Inhibits the growth of infection.
  • Eradicates the infection.
  • Needs the host immune system to battle infection.
  • Given to immunocompetent patients.
A

Eradicates the infection. (?)

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23
Q

Benzodiazepines increase the affinity of GABA that increases the influx of:

  • Na ions
  • Cl ions
  • K ions
  • Ca ions
A

Cl ions

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24
Q

Blocks calcium entry into myocardial and vascular smooth-muscle cells causing it relax:

  • Furosemide
  • Irbesartan
  • Amlodipine
  • Metoprolol
A

Amlodipine

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25
Q

Bronchodilators:

  • Salmeterol
  • Salbutamol
  • Theophylline
  • None of the choices.
A
  • Salmeterol
  • Salbutamol
  • Theophylline
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26
Q

By mouth:

  • I.V.
  • I.M.
  • P.O.
  • A.C.
A

P.O.

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27
Q

Chemo drugs that may cause peripheral neuropathy:

  • Cisplatin, Vinca alkaloids, and Doxorubicin only.
  • Bleomycin, Vinca alkaloids and Taxanes only.
  • Vinca alkaloids and Taxanes only.
  • Taxanes only.
A

Vinca alkaloids and Taxanes only.

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28
Q

Correct pair/s of drug administration?

  • Enteral – sublingual
  • Enteral – oral
  • Enteral – rectal
  • Parenteral – inhalation
  • None of the choices.
A
  • Enteral – sublingual
  • Enteral – oral
  • Enteral – rectal
  • Parenteral – inhalation
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29
Q

Dantrolene specifically affects:

  • Smooth muscles
  • Cardiac muscles
  • Skeletal muscles
  • None of the above.
A

Smooth muscles (?)

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30
Q

Decongestant:

  • Ephedrine
  • Loratadine
  • Brompheniramine
  • Dimenhydrinate
A

Ephedrine

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31
Q

Decongestant:

  • Anticholinergic
  • Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist
  • Beta-adrenergic agonist
  • Leukotriene
A

Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist

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32
Q

Decongestant, except:

  • Pseudoephedrine
  • Dextromethorphan
  • Phenyleprine
  • Oxymetazoline
A

Dextromethorphan (?)

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33
Q

Enhance the immune response, except:

  • Thalidomide
  • Imiquimod
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Interferons (α, β, γ)
  • Interleukins
A

Glucocorticoids (?)

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34
Q

Examples of cephalosphorins EXCEPT:

  • Ceftriaxone
  • Cefoperazone
  • Cefaclor
  • Celecoxib
A

Celecoxib

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35
Q

Expectorants:

  • Facilitate the production and ejection of mucus.
  • Decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions.
  • Treat respiratory allergies or allergic cough.
  • To suppress an annoying dry cough.
A

Facilitate the production and ejection of mucus.

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36
Q

For annoying dry cough:

  • Montelukast
  • Reloxifen
  • Pseudoephedrine
  • Chlorpheniramine
  • None of the choices.
A

None of the choices. (Antitussives)

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37
Q

Give to avoid rejection of transplanted organs:

  • Thalidomide
  • Imiquimod
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Interferons (α, β, γ)
  • Interleukins
A

Glucocorticoids

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38
Q

Given for moderate to severe pain:

  • Acetaminophen
  • Glucocorticoids
  • NSAIDs
  • Opioids
  • Aspirin
A

Opioids

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39
Q

Given to enhance immunity against infectious diseases:

  • Colony stimulating factor
  • Resiquimod
  • Isoprinosine
  • All of the choices.
  • None of the choices.
A
  • Colony stimulating factor
  • Resiquimod
  • Isoprinosine
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40
Q

Glucocorticoids

  • increase blood glucose and liver glycogen.
  • facilitates the breakdown of muscle into amino acids.
  • facilitates the breakdown of lipids into free fatty acids.
  • None of the choices.
A
  • increase blood glucose and liver glycogen.
  • facilitates the breakdown of muscle into amino acids.
  • facilitates the breakdown of lipids into free fatty acids.
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41
Q

Glucocorticoids inhibit which enzyme to prevent release of arachidonic acid from the cell membrane:

  • Lypoxygenase
  • Phospholipase
  • HMG-CoA
  • None of the Above.
A

Phospholipase

42
Q

Increases myocardial contractility:

  • Verapamil
  • Digoxin
  • Nifedipine
  • Captopril
A

Digoxin (?)

43
Q

Inhibits sugar breakdown in the intestines and delay glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract:

  • Acarbose
  • Metformin
  • Rosiglitazone
  • Repaglinide
A

Acarbose

44
Q

Management of Osteoporosis include:

  • Anabolics
  • Estrogen
  • Vitamin D Analogs
  • Calcium Supplements
  • None of the Above
A
  • Anabolics
  • Estrogen
  • Vitamin D Analogs
  • Calcium Supplements
45
Q

Means “without”:

  • s
  • o
  • c
  • d
  • q
A

s

46
Q

Mucolytics:

  • Facilitate the production and ejection of mucus.
  • Decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions.
  • Treat respiratory allergies or allergic cough.
  • To suppress an annoying dry cough.
A

Decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions.

47
Q

Muscle relaxants can be used for this condition:

  • Stroke
  • Spinal Cord Injury
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • None of the above.
A
  • Stroke
  • Spinal Cord Injury
  • Multiple Sclerosis
48
Q

Non-Opioid Analgesic:

  • Tramadol
  • Codeine
  • Fentanyl
  • Aspirin
A

Aspirin

49
Q

Non-selective cyclooxygenase inhibitors inhibit:

  • COX 1 only
  • COX 2 only
  • Both 1 & 2
  • None of the above.
A

Both 1 & 2

50
Q

Not an antitussive:

  • Codeine
  • Dextromethorphan
  • Montelukast
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Hydrocodone
A

Montelukast (?)

51
Q

NOT TRUE of Paracetamol:

  • A generic name.
  • A trade name.
  • A component in Biogesic.
  • All of the choices.
  • None of the choices.
A

A trade name.

52
Q

Paracetamol causes relief of fever:

  • Adverse drug effect
  • Side effect
  • Toxic effect
  • Therapeutic effect
  • None of the choices.
A

Therapeutic effect

53
Q

Patients with osteoporosis will not know they have the disease until they fracture.

  • True
  • False
A

True (?)

54
Q

Pharmacokinetics include the following:

  • Absorption
  • Elimination
  • Distribution
  • None of the choices.
A
  • Absorption
  • Elimination
  • Distribution
55
Q

Responsible for the different responses to drugs, EXCEPT:

  • Age
  • Sex
  • Diet
  • Medical condition
  • Cost of drug
A

Cost of drug

56
Q

Route to administer laxatives and suppositories:

  • Injection
  • Rectal
  • Parenteral
  • Oral
  • Topical
A

Rectal

57
Q

Routes passing through the skin:

  • Topical
  • Transdermal
  • Both
  • Neither
A
  • Topical

- Transdermal

58
Q

Site of action of oral hypoglycemic agent Metformin is:

  • Liver
  • Pancreas
  • Muscle
  • Intestine
A

Liver

59
Q

SL means:

  • Under the tongue
  • Sublingual
  • An enteral route
  • None of the choices
A
  • Under the tongue
  • Sublingual
  • An enteral route
60
Q

Suppresses the immune response except:

  • Polyclonal antibodies
  • Monoclonal antibodies
  • Rh (D) immune globulin
  • Interleukin
A

Interleukin

61
Q

The analysis of what the drug does to the body:

  • Toxicology
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Pharmacology
  • Pharmacy
A

Pharmacodynamics

62
Q

The following are barbiturates EXCEPT:

  • Zolpidem
  • Pentobarbital
  • Phenobarbital
  • Secobarbital
A

Zolpidem

63
Q

The following are side effects of Metformin:

  • Vit B12 malabsorption
  • Rashes
  • Lactic acidosis
  • All of the above.
A
  • Vit B12 malabsorption
  • Rashes
  • Lactic acidosis

(?)

64
Q

The following are the effects of estrogen in the prevention of osteoporosis EXCEPT:

  • Slow down apoptosis of osteoclasts.
  • Decrease activation of bone remodeling.
  • Maintain bone formation.
  • None of the above.
A

None of the above. (?)

65
Q

The following are the general strategies for the pharmacologic treatment of hypertension EXCEPT:

  • Increase renal blood flow
  • Vasodilation of blood vessels.
  • Prevents aldosterone secretion.
  • Facilitate conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin.
A

Facilitate conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin. (?)

66
Q

The following drugs are sulfonylureas except:

  • Glimepiride
  • Repaglinide
  • Glibenclamide
  • Gliclazide
A

Repaglinide

67
Q

The length of time for bone formation is the same as the time it takes for bone resorption.

  • True
  • False
A

False

68
Q

The score that is needed for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:

  • T-score
  • Z-score
A

T-score

69
Q

Thiazoldinediones except:

  • Pioglitazone
  • Sitagliptin
  • Rosiglitazone
  • Metformin
A

Metformin

70
Q

This anti-coagulant drug interferes with Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors:

  • Dabigatran
  • Enoxaparin
  • Warfarin
  • Lepirudin
A

Warfarin

71
Q

This drug can cause sedation:

  • Diazepam
  • Tizanidine
  • Baclofen
  • None of the above.
A
  • Diazepam
  • Tizanidine
  • Baclofen
72
Q

This drug is used in the emergency treatment of coronary artery thrombosis:

  • Abxicimab
  • Bivalirudin
  • Streptokinase
  • Riavaroxaban
A

Streptokinase

73
Q

Toxicology is a branch of:

  • Pharmacotherapeutics
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Pharmacology
  • None of the choices.
A

Pharmacology

74
Q

True of COX 2:

  • Present if there is inflammation
  • Present in most tissues.
  • Physiologic
  • Found in GI tract.
A

Physiologic

75
Q

Vaccine to stimulate production of antibodies against Tuberculosis:

  • Bacillus Calmette‑Guerin (BCG)
  • Basiliximab
  • Colony stimulating factor
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Rh (D) immune globulin
A

Bacillus Calmette‑Guerin (BCG)

76
Q

Which anti-TB drug can cause muscle and joint pain?

  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol
  • Streptomycin
  • Rifampicin
A

Pyrazinamide

77
Q

Which does not refer to Botulinum toxin administration?

  • Intramuscular
  • Parenteral route
  • Injection
  • Enteral
  • Needing a syringe/needle
A

Enteral

78
Q

Which drug prevents conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?

  • Captopril
  • Irbesartan
  • Bisoprolol
  • Furosemide
A

Captopril

79
Q

Which drugs are calcium channel blockers?

  • Atenolol
  • Atorvastatin
  • Amlodipine
  • Hydrochlorothiazide
A

Amlodipine

80
Q

Which is a usual side effect of Meglitinides?

  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyperglycemia
  • GI disturbances
  • Headache
A

Hypoglycemia

81
Q

Which is an ACE inhibitor?

  • Nifedipine
  • Labetolol
  • Amlodipine
  • Captopril
A

Captopril

82
Q

Which of the following can induce osteoporosis when the level is increased beyond normal?

  • Calcitonin
  • Parathyroid hormone
  • Estrogen
  • Glucagon
A

Parathyroid hormone

83
Q

Which of the following cells is responsible for bone formation?

  • Osteocytes
  • Osteoblasts
  • Osteoclasts
  • Osteoprogenitor cells
A

Osteoblasts

84
Q

Which of the following does NOT causes sensitivity to UV lights?

  • Tetracyclines
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Sulfonamides
  • Cephalosporins
A

Cephalosporins

85
Q

Which of the following drugs improve insulin resistance?

  • Acarbose
  • Sitagliptin
  • Metformin
  • Pioglitazone
A

Pioglitazone (?)

86
Q

Which of the following facilitates deposition of calcium to the bone in the event of high serum calcium?

  • Estrogen
  • Parathyroid hormone
  • Calcitonin
  • Cholecalciferol
A

Calcitonin (?)

87
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

  • Insulin is the treatment for Type 1 diabetes.
  • Oral antidiabetic agents are the preferred treatment for Type 1 diabetes.
  • Insulin is the treatment for juvenile-onset diabetes mellitus.
  • All statements are true.
A

Oral antidiabetic agents are the preferred treatment for Type 1 diabetes. (?)

88
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?

  • Advance age
  • Obesity
  • Smoking
  • Chronic steroid intake
A

Advance age (?)

89
Q

Which of the following is the gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis?

  • Central DEXA
  • CT scan
  • MRI
  • X-ray
A

Central DEXA

90
Q

Which of the following patients will most likely to have primary osteoporosis?

  • 62-year-old female, menopause
  • 65-year-old male with COPD
  • 43-year-old female on steroid therapy
  • All of the above.
A

62-year-old female, menopause

91
Q

Which of the following will lead to bone loss?

  • Activation of osteoclasts.
  • Slowing of osteoblasts.
  • Increased rate of bone remodeling.
  • None of the above.
A
  • Activation of osteoclasts.
  • Slowing of osteoblasts.
  • Increased rate of bone remodeling.
92
Q

Which of the following should be used with caution in patients with bronchial asthma?

  • Diuretics
  • Beta-blockers
  • Calcium-channel blockers
  • Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
A

Beta-blockers

93
Q

Which of these pairs is not correctly matched to its mechanism of action?

  • Cephalosporins - Inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
  • Macrolides – Inhibition of protein synthesis.
  • Aminoglycoside – Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis.
  • Fluoroquinolones – Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
A

Aminoglycoside – Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis. (?)

94
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

  • Platelets that aggregate lead to coagulation and thrombosis.
  • Anti-platelets as drugs are taken to avoid thrombosis.
  • Aspirin inhibits phospholipase A2.
  • Low doses of aspirin are effective in preventing thrombus formation.
  • Aspirin is a non-selective NSAID which means both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes are inhibited.
A

Platelets that aggregate lead to coagulation and thrombosis. (?)

95
Q

Will make lung secretions less viscous?

  • Carbocisteine
  • Acetylcysteine
  • Bromhexine
  • Ambroxol
  • None of the choices.
A
  • Carbocisteine
  • Acetylcysteine
  • Bromhexine
  • Ambroxol
96
Q

Will stop cancer cells from multiplying:

  • Azathioprine
  • Steroids
  • Methotrexate
  • Colony stimulating factor
  • Levamisole
A

Methotrexate

97
Q

Women continuously lose bone mass and is accelerated after menopause.

  • True
  • False
A

True

98
Q

You have a patient complaining of abdominal pain each time you have a PT session in the morning. She is currently on Aspirin. Using your knowledge in Pharmacology, which is the BEST question to ask?

  • Do you have a feeling of bloatedness?
  • Do you take Paracetamol in the morning?
  • Did you take your NSAIDS before or after breakfast?
  • Did you shower today?
A

Did you take your NSAIDS before or after breakfast?

99
Q

“as needed”:

  • P.N.R
  • T.I.D
  • B.I.D
  • P.R.N
  • NOCT.
A

P.R.N

100
Q

Which of the following is an antitussive?

  • Codeine
  • Ipatropium
  • Fluticasone
  • Theophylline
A

Codeine

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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