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Diagnostic Techniques Yr2 > Exam revision.. > Flashcards

Exam revision.. Flashcards

1
Q

If a tube has a cap colour of orange + vacutainer colour of green…

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. Lithium heparin
  2. Biochemistry
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2
Q

If a tube has a cap colour of pink + vacutainer colour of purple…

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. EDTA (Ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid)
  2. Haematology
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3
Q

If a tube has a cap colour of yellow + vacutainer colour of grey…

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. Fluoride oxalate
  2. Glucose
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4
Q

If a tube has a cap colour of blue + vacutainer colour of blue…

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. Sodium/lithium citrate
  2. Coagulant profiles
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5
Q

If a tube has a cap colour of white or brown + vacutainer colour of red…

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. No anticoagulant!
  2. Serum collection
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6
Q

If a blood tube has a pink cap..

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. EDTA (Ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid)
  2. Haematology
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7
Q

If a blood tube has a purple cap..

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. Sodium Citrate
  2. Coagulation/Prothombin test
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8
Q

If a blood tube has a white cap..

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. No anticoagulant
  2. All serum tests
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9
Q

If a blood tube has a orange cap..

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. Lithium Heparin
  2. Biochemsitry
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10
Q

If a blood tube has a yellow cap..

  1. What is the anticoagulant inside?
  2. What will this blood be used for?
A
  1. No anticoagulant
  2. Blood glucose
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11
Q

If a serum or plasma sample has turned a pink/red colour, what may this indicate?

A

Haemolysis

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12
Q

If a serum or plasma sample has turned a yellow colour, what may this indicate?

A

Jaundice
(Icteric)

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13
Q

If a serum or plasma sample has turned a milky- white colour, what may this indicate?

A

Lipaemia

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14
Q

Name the 3 Romanowsky stains used for blood smears

A
  1. Leishmann’s
  2. Giemsa
  3. Diff-Quick
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15
Q

Name the Supravital stain used for blood smears

A

Methylene blue

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16
Q

Name the 2 most common types of stains used for blood smears

A
  1. Romanowsky
  2. Supravital
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17
Q

What setting + how long should you spin a PCV sample in a Centrifuge for?

A

10,000 rmp for 5 mins

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18
Q

What type of tube should you use for a PCV?

A

Microhaematocrit tube

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19
Q

What is the piece of equipment you should use to measure a PCV?

A

Hawlsley micro-haematocritc reader

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20
Q

What is the normal PCV for a dog?

A

37 - 55%

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21
Q

What is the normal PCV for a cat?

A

24 - 45 %

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22
Q

What may an increased PCV indicate?

A

Dehydration

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23
Q

What may an decreased PCV indicate?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Haemorrhage
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24
Q

If a patient has:
* Increased PCV
* Increased TS
* Increased USG

What may be the possible cause?

A

Dehydration

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25
Q

If a patient has:
* Normal or decreased PCV
* Normal TS
* Decreased USG

What may be the possible cause?

A

Renal failure

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26
Q

If a patient has:
* Increased PCV
* Normal TS
* Normal USG

What may be the possible cause?

A

Polycythemia

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27
Q

What breed of dog is Polycythemia normal in?

A

Greyhounds

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28
Q

If a patient has:
* Normal PCV
* Increased TS
* Normal USG

What may be the possible cause?

A

Hyperglobulinaemia

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29
Q

If a patient has:
* Normal PCV
* Decreased TS
* Normal USG

What may be the possible cause?

A

Hypoglobulinaemia

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30
Q

If a patient has:
* Decreased PCV
* Normal TS
* Normal USG

What may be the possible cause?

A

Chronic anaemia

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31
Q

If a patient has:
* Decreased PCV
* Decreased TS
* Normal USG

What may be the possible cause?

A

Haemorrhage

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32
Q

What are the normal Total Solid ranges for Dogs?

A

52 - 82 g/L

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33
Q

What are the normal Total Solid ranges for Cats?

A

57 - 89 g/L

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34
Q

What are the normal ranges of blood Lactate for both Cats + Dogs?

A

< 2.5 mmol/L

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35
Q

(mmol/L)

What are the normal BUN ranges for a Dog?

A

2.5 - 9.6 mmol/L

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36
Q

What are the normal BUN ranges for a Cat?

A

5.7 - 12.9 mmol/L

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37
Q

What are the normal Creatinine ranges for a dog?

A

44 - 159 mol/L

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38
Q

What are the normal Creatinine ranges for a cat?

A

71 - 212 mmol/L

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39
Q

What year was the Ionizing Radiation Regulations created?

A

Updated in 2017
(orginally ‘99)

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40
Q

What year was the Health and Saftey at Work Act created?

A

1974

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41
Q

What did the radiation eye doses decrease to in the IRR’17?

A

150 > 30 % MSP

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42
Q

What green + white book did the BVA introduce, in response to IRR’17 for veterinary proffesionals?

A

Shortened form of the IRR’17, with guidance notes for the safe use of Ionizing radiation in the VP

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43
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that contains the anode + cathode?

A

Glass envelope

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44
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that transfers heat away from the anode?

A

Insulating oil

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45
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that is a flat sheet, that covers the window which absorbs any soft x-rays?

A

Aluminium filter

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46
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that disperses heat?

A

Cooling fins

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47
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that is a space where all air or gases have been extracted, allowing electrons to travel in a straight line?

A

Vaccum

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48
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that acts as a conductor of heat and draws the heat away from the tungesten target?

A

Copper stem

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49
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that is part of a low energy circuit in the cathode, that when heated, releases electrons?

A

Filament

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50
Q

What is the area within the x-ray tube that is a recessed area, where the filament lies, directing the electrons toward the anode?

A

Focusing cup

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51
Q

How are x-rays produced?

A
  1. Within the tube head houses the negatively charged Cathode + postively charged Anode
  2. The Cathode consists of a Filament made of Tungsten
  3. The filament is heated by an electric current which produces electrons
  4. The electrons are released by thermionic emmision
  5. The electrons travel at high speed across the tube from the Cathode to the Anode
  6. The electrons hit the Target area + 1% of x-rays are created + 99% of heat is produced
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52
Q

What does PACS stand for?

A

Picture Archiving Communication System

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53
Q

What is Teleradiology?

A

Sending an diagnostic image to refferals or specialists

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54
Q

What types of contrast media are avaliable?

A
  1. Positive
  2. Negative
  3. Double
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55
Q

Give 2 examples of positive contrast mediums

A
  1. Barium Sulphate
  2. Water-soluble Iodine
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56
Q

Give 2 examples of negative contrast mediums

A
  1. Gas
  2. Air
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57
Q

Give 2 examples of double contrast mediums

A
  1. Iodine + Air
  2. Barium + Air
  3. H20 + Air
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58
Q

What is a Double contrast medium?

A

Use of a positive + negative contrast medium together

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59
Q

Name an advantage + disadvantage of using the postitive contrast medium, Barium Sulphate

A

Advantage
1. Non-invasive
2. Laxative if constipated
3. Water-soluble doesn’t do any damage

Diadvantage
1. If leaks, will leak into any damaged tissues + spaces

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60
Q

Name an advantage + disadvantage of using the postitive contrast medium, Water-soluble Iodine

A

Advantages
1. Can be excreted by the kidneys

Disadvantages
1. Can’t be used conscious
2. Can cause fall in BP
3. More expensive
4. Difficult to administer
5. Can cause anaphylaxis
6. If a powder, can be mixed badly

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61
Q

Which type of contrast medium would you use if you were to perform a Double contrast Cystogram?

A

Water-soluble Iodine + Air (or Co2)

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62
Q

What precautions should be wary of when using Water-soluble Iodine + Air for a Cystogram?

A
  1. Don’t want to rupture the bladder
  2. Monitor for anaphylaxis
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63
Q

Essay Q..

A dog has presented to the VP with symptoms associated with an Intestinal perforation.

The VS has decided to perform a series of GI radiographs to confirm the dx.

You have been asked to prepare for the following surgery.

  1. How would you prepare the px?
  2. What equipment would you need?
  3. What contrast medium would you use?
A

Px preparation:
* Gain owner consent
* Fast for 12 hrs
* Take out to toilet
* Enema or bladder expression
* Pain relief given
* Check vitals
* Sedation

Equipment:
* Contrast medium
* Needle + syringe
* PPE
* Sedation/pain relief drugs
* X-ray machine
* Funnel
* Dosing syringe
* Jug/beaker
* Feeding tube to provide CM
* Positioning aids

Contrast medium choice:
* Water-soluble Iodine (+)
* As there is a GI perforation, so Barium Sulphate is contraindicated

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64
Q

Essay Q…

A puppy has been brought into the VP for investigation.

The main CS is anuria.

The VS admits the puppy for further investigation for a double contrast Cystogram.

  1. How would you prepare the px?
  2. What equipment is required?
  3. What contrast medium should be used?

The VS has asked you to assist with the taking of a urine sample.

  1. When should you take this in the day + why?

That should be a 4 ^ but won’t let me change it

A

Px preparation:
* Gain owner consent
* Fast for 12 hrs
* Take out to toilet
* Enema or bladder expression
* Pain relief given
* Check vitals
* Sedation

Equipment:
* Contrast medium
* Needle + syringe
* PPE
* Sedation/pain relief drugs
* X-ray machine
* Funnel
* Dosing syringe
* Jug/beaker
* Feeding tube to provide CM
* Positioning aids

Contrast medium choice:
* Water-soluble Iodine (+) + Gas

Urine sample:
* Take free-catch 1st thing in the morning, after the 1st couple of seconds, so no sediment is present
* Take the sample prior to the contrast procedure as the contrast medium will create a high USG
* Will also create a false-positive for the contrast medium

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65
Q

How does an Ultrasound work?

A
  1. Vibrating crystals in transducer
  2. Make soundwaves
  3. Ultrasonic soundwaves bounce off objects
  4. Changes the shape of the crystals
  5. Machine anaylses the image
  6. Creates an image (+ frozen for dx)
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66
Q

What equipment do you need for an Ultrasound?

A
  1. Coupling gel - takes out air
  2. Clippers
  3. Transducer
  4. Ultrasound computer + control panel
  5. Paper towels
  6. Trolly
  7. Extra pair of hands
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67
Q

How would you prepare a px for an Ultrasound?

A
  1. Consent - make sure dog isn’t a show dog
  2. Fast px for 12hr (food)
  3. If abdo - toilet break, if urinary - keep bladder full!
  4. Toilet break, manual expression, enema - if req
  5. Clip coat of area
  6. Clean site with warm Hibiscrub + Surgical spirit (to de-grease)
  7. Use coupling gel
    5.Use machine + freeze + save image
    6.Wipe off with paper towel
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68
Q

What are somatic affects of radiation?

A

Whole body changes from Ionizing radiation

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69
Q

What are the 2 types of Endoscopes?

A
  1. Flexible
  2. Rigid
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70
Q

Name the parts of the endoscope

A
  1. Eye piece
  2. Probe
  3. Lens
  4. Tip
  5. Handle - air, water + suction
  6. Blue button = air + water
  7. Red button = suction
  8. Fibre optic light source
  9. Instrument channel
  10. Guide wire
  11. Biopsy channel
  12. Umbilicus
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71
Q

What would you use a flexible endoscope for?

A
  1. Any internal tubular/flexible structures
  2. Upper + lower GI tract
  3. Respiratory tract
  4. Urinary tract
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72
Q

How would you clean a flexible endoscope?

A
  1. Pressure test with pump + buttons
  2. Wash with sterile distilled water
  3. Use cleaning wire throughout whole structure x3
  4. Soak in enzymatic cleaner
  5. Hang up to drip-dry
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73
Q

Name the extra parts of the rigid Endoscope, that differ from the flexible endoscope

A
  1. Power source
  2. Lens
  3. Camera
  4. Relay system
  5. Lens
  6. Fibre optic light source
  7. Umbilicus
  8. Eye piece
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74
Q

When is a rigid Endoscope used?

A
  1. Non-tubular channels
  2. Nose
  3. Ears
  4. Joints (Arthroscopy)
  5. For Birds, Fish + Reptiles
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75
Q

Identify several somatic changes that IR can cause

A
  1. Redness
  2. Corneal damage
  3. Cataracts
  4. Blistering
  5. Dehydration
  6. GI upset
  7. Skin cracking
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76
Q

How many years does it take for IR causing Leukaemia to show clinical signs?

A

20 - 30 years

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77
Q

Name the 3 potential hazardous sources or IR, produced from x-rays?

A
  1. Tube head
  2. Primary beam
  3. Scatter/secondary radiation
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78
Q

Identify 7 things that can be done to reduce scattered radiation

A
  1. PPE
  2. Grids
  3. ALARA
  4. Collimate
  5. FFD
  6. Stay 2m away
  7. Reduce KV + mAS
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79
Q

Who can be a RPS?

A

Head or Senior nurses

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80
Q

At what point does the controlled area cease to be the controlled area?

A
  • If the red light is OFF
  • Demarkated
  • Power source is disconnected
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81
Q

Describe the controlled area

A
  • 2x lights - 1x orange, 1x red
  • Thick lead-lined walls
  • Big enough to stay 2m away from the primary beam/source of radiation
  • Demarkation - warning signs
  • Where x-rays are performed!
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82
Q

Name 3 different devices used to asses the exposure of radiation to staff

A
  1. Dosimeters (Film-badge)
  2. PEDs (Personal Electronic Dosimeter)
  3. Thermonic dosimeter
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83
Q

What is the difference between a PEDs, Film-badge Dosimeter + Thermonic Dosimeters?

A

PEDs
* Lasts longer
* Detects real-time exposure (as electronic)

Film-badge dosimeter
* More common
* Checked Q8-12 week
* Contains small metal filters that absorbs IR

Thermonic dosimeter
* Less common
* Lithium Chloride sensitive crystals inside
* Can put in the building to give an exposure rating

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84
Q

Where should dosimeters be worn?

A
  1. On the trunk
  2. Under a lead apron
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85
Q

What is the normal Glucose parameters for a dog?

A

4.11 - 7.94 mmol/L

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86
Q

What is the normal Glucose parameters for a cat?

A

4.11 - 8.83 mmol/L

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87
Q

Why should you never drawback on a plunger when you are in a vein?

A

This will collapse the vein

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88
Q

Why should you always transfer venepunctured blood to a collecting tube ASAP?

A

To prevent contamination + clotting

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89
Q

Why should you always expel blood gently into a tube, after blood collection?

A

To prevent haemolysis/cell damage

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90
Q

How long does it take for blood to clot after contact with tissue, tissue fluids, glass or plastic?

A

10 - 20 seconds

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91
Q

How much blood should you collect, from a venepuncture?

A

Enough to fill the required level within the collection tube

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92
Q

What is phelbitis?

A

Inflammation at the vein
(/site of venepuncture)

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93
Q

What are the 3 layers that are present within a microhaematocrit tube, once it has been spun down in a centrifuge, for a PCV reading?

A
  1. RBCs (Erythrocytes)
  2. Buffy coat
  3. Plasma
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94
Q

How do you read a PCV from a Hawksley Micro-haematocrit Reader?

A
  1. Place tube into slot, sealant end at the bottom
  2. Align top of seal (Bottom of RBCs at line 0)
  3. Move tube holder across until top of plasma is lined up with 100% line
  4. Move adjustable PCV reading line to intersect with top of RBC layer (horizontal white line)
  5. Reccord as percentage
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95
Q

What colour of micohaematocrit tube is most suitable for use with an EDTA blood sample?

A

Blue, as it’s plain!

  • As EDTA has an anticoagulant, LH in it!
  • So will destroy the sample if another anticoagulant is used!
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96
Q

Name 4 Coagulation tests!

A
  1. BMBT (Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time)
  2. ACT (Activated Clotting Time)
  3. Thrombocyte count
  4. PT (Prothrombin time)

PT can also be used alongside aPTT = activiated partial thromboplastin time

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97
Q

What 2 scenarios should you use a Romanowsky stain for?
+
Name 3 types!

A

Scenarios
1. When performing a WBC count
2. Detect blood parasites (i.e Babesia)

3 Types
1. Diff-Quick
2. Leishmann’s
3. Giemsa

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98
Q

What 2 scenarios should you use a Supravital stain for?
+
What is it’s other name?

A

Scenarios
1. Reticulocyte counts
2. To detect Heinz bodies

Other name
1. Methylene blue

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99
Q

Name the order in which you use these for staining a blood smear!

A

BRP!

  1. Blue (Methanol)
  2. Red (Eosin)
  3. Purple (Methylene blue)
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100
Q

How many times should you dip your blood smear into these stains?
+
For how long?

A
  1. Dip 5 times per stain
  2. Dip into stain for a length of 1 second each
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101
Q

What should you rinse your blood smear stain with after using completing the Romanowsky stain procedure?
+
How should you dry it?

A
  1. Rinse with Distilled water
  2. Place vertically + leave to dry
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102
Q

How would you prepare these samples to send them to an external lab?

A
  1. PPE
  2. Check adequate Formalin (preservative)
  3. Labeled with px name, species, breed, age, sex, owner’s name + date
  4. Ensure airtight, moisture-proof + robust
  5. Ensure total vol/mass is not more than 50ml/50g
  6. Wrap container in absorbent material
  7. Wrap in bubble wrap
  8. Place in secondary layer (plastic biohazard specimen bag) + expel any air + secure
  9. Complete lab paperwork + place in biohazard bag’s seperate compartment
  10. Identify w/waterproof marker
  11. Put sender’s name + address on outer packaging
  12. Ensure package states nature of sample + special instructions (Biohazard, handle with care)
  13. Send
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103
Q

What does increased BUN indicate in an adult dog?

A
  1. Infection
  2. Necrosis
  3. High-protein diet
  4. CHF *
  5. Urethral obstruction
  6. Renal failure
  7. Dehydration
  8. Systemic + metabolic conditions
  9. Corticosteroid therapy

  • = Poor renal perfusion > less urea taken to kidneys > greater ax in blood
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104
Q

What 5 things may a decreased TP indicate?

A
  1. Renal disease
  2. Malnutrition
  3. Haemorrhage
  4. Malabsorption
  5. Hepatic + Pancreatic insufficiency
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105
Q

What are these utilised for?

A

To measure:
1. TP/S
2. USG

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106
Q

What is the normal USG range for a Cat?

A

1.035 - 1.60

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107
Q

What is the normal USG range for a Dog?

A

1.015 - 1.045

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108
Q

What is this called?
+
What chemical parameters can be assessed using it?

A
  1. Called a ‘Mutlistix’
  2. Can identify:
    * Glucose
    * Ketones
    * USG
    * Blood
    * pH
    * Protein
    * Nitrates
    * Leucocytes
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109
Q

What stain do you need for a microscopic analysis of a urine sample?
+
How many drops should you apply?

A
  1. Sedi-stain!
  2. 1 - 2 drops
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110
Q

What portion of a urine sample should you remove before adding the sedi-stain?

A

Supernatant, to leave a few drops to resuspend the sediment!

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111
Q

What test should you re-suspend the sediment in, by flicking the base of the tube?

A

Urine sample

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112
Q

What angle should you apply cover-slips onto microscope slides?
+
Why?

A
  1. 45 degrees
  2. To avoid air bubbles
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113
Q

What magnification should you use on the microscope to view a urine sample?

A

x10

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114
Q

What is most commonly found crystal in urine called?

A

Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate

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115
Q

What urinary crystal is this?

A

Uric acid

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116
Q

How many eggs per day does this louse lay for 30 days?
+
Name this louse!

A
  1. Several eggs p/day
  2. Trichodectes canis (Dog chewing louse)
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117
Q

How long does it take for this parasite’s eggs take to hatch?

A

7 - 14 days

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118
Q

How long does it take for these nymphs become reproductive adults?

A

2 weeks

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119
Q

How long is the egg > adult life cycle of Trichodectes canis?

A

30 - 40 days

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120
Q

How long can Linognathus setosus last off its host for?

A

No more than a few days

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121
Q

A dog is presented to the VP with a Dog-sucking-louse infestation.

How often should lice control treatments be repeated for?

A

7 - 10 days after the 1st tx

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122
Q

What are the eggs of this parasite called?
+
Where do they reside on the host?

A
  1. Nits
  2. Hair near skin
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123
Q

How long is the entire life-cycle of Linognathus setosus?

A

3 - 4 weeks

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124
Q

How long does it take for eggs to hatch + become nymphs in Felicola subrostratus?

A

1 - 2 weeks

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125
Q

True or False.

Lice are wingless

A

True

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126
Q

True or False.

Deep skin scrapes are the best method of dx Sarcoptes scabiei

A

True

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127
Q

True or False.

Sarcoptes scabiei has an entire life-cycle as long as 70 days.

A

False.

30 - 60 days

128
Q

True or False.

Sarcoptes scabiei is highly contagious.

129
Q

What ectoparasite can live off of it’s host for 2-3 days?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

130
Q

What is the name given to the parasite that cause Mange in Dogs?

A

Sarcoptes Scabiei

131
Q

What parasite is this indicative of?

A

Walking dandruff

A.K.A Cheyletiella Yasguri

132
Q

Name this burrowing mite

A

Demodex canis

133
Q

What is the scientific name for a tick?

A

Ixodes spp, particulary Ixodes Ricinus

134
Q

What parasite is this?

A) Trichodectes canis
B) Linognathus setosus
C) Cheyletiella yasguri
D) Felicola subrostratus

A

C) Cheyletiella yasguri

135
Q

Where is this surface mite found?

Clues in the name…

A

Ears!

Otodectes cyanotis

136
Q

What nematode is this?

A

Trichuris vulpis
(Whipworm)

137
Q

What is Dirofilaria immitis known as?

A

Heart worm

138
Q

From what age should you worm Toxocara infected puppies + kittens from?

A

2 weeks of age + then every 2 weeks until weaning

139
Q

What type of anthelmintic should you use to remove any accumulated infections that have occured for pets with worms?

A

Broad-spectrum anthelmintics w/additional cestocidal activity

140
Q

How often should adult dogs + cats be wormed?

141
Q

What is the intermediate host for this parasite?

142
Q

How often should you treat px for fleas?

143
Q

What parasite am I…

I am 1-6 mm long, wingless + may lay 20 eggs p/day.

Once I have my 1st blood meal, I need daily blood meals to survive + will remain on the same host for remainder of my life.

I may live up to 160 days.. but commonly only 1-3 weeks as I may get groomed off by my host.. rude!

A

Flea

(Ctenocephalides felis, commonly)

144
Q

What parasite am I…

I’m zoonotic, develop in the SI + can be transported by my kind friends, Ctenocephalides felis + Trichodectes canis and cause my host to bum-scoot!

A

Tapeworm

(Dipylidium caninium)

145
Q

What endoparasite ova does this belong to?

A

Dipylidium caninum

146
Q

What endoparasite ova does this belong to?

A

Trichruis vulpis

147
Q

What endoparasite ova does this belong to?

A

Toxocara canis

148
Q

What endoparasite ova does this belong to?

A

Ancylostoma caninum

149
Q

When do Phlebotomine sandfly egg’s hatch?

A

After 4 - 20 days

(Depends on species, enviro etc)

150
Q

From the mediterranean..

What does the Phlebotomine Sand fly transmit?

A

Leishmaniasis

151
Q

What 4 dx tests can be done to dx Leishmania spp?

A
  1. EDTA for PCR
  2. Clinical signs + Hx
  3. Lymph node FNA
  4. Bone marrow biopsy
152
Q

What is Leishmania?

A

A protozoan intracellular parasite, carried by the Phelobotomine sand fly

153
Q

What crystal am I?

A

Calcium Phosphate

154
Q

How many mls for fluid Maintenance?

A

50mls

(50ml x BW = p/day)

155
Q

What is the fluid calculation for Deficits?

A

10 x BW(kg) x dehydration(%) = ml/day

156
Q

What is the fluid calculation for Additional losses (V+ + D+)?

A

4ml x BW(kg) x no. of episodes = ml/day

157
Q

What is the fluid calculation for Total fluid for 24hrs?

A

Maintenance + Deficits + Additional losses = ml/24hr

158
Q

What is the drip rate for a Standard giving set v Paedatric GS?

A
  1. Standard = 20 drops p/1ml
  2. Paedatric = 60 drops p/1ml
159
Q

Why may negative contrast mediums be safer than positive ones?

A
  • Because they are plasma soluble, therefore less risk of air embolus
  • Decrease in x-ray attenuation
  • Allow x-rays to pass through more easily into surrounding tissues
160
Q

Name the 7 disadvantages of negative contrast

A
  1. Hypersensitivity
  2. Adverse reactions
  3. Thyroid dysfunction
  4. Stomach cramps, constipation, D+, V+ + nauseua
  5. If not a plasma soluble gas, can cause air embolism
  6. Expensive
  7. Difficult to distinguish contour of body
161
Q

Name 3 uses for negative contrast mediums

A
  1. Used mainly in the bladder = Pneumocystogram
  2. GI tract = Pneumogastrogram, Pnuemocolon
  3. Joints = Negative Arthrogram
162
Q

What type of contrast medium gives little information about the mucosal surface, allowing smaller filling defects such as bladder calculi to be overexposed?

A

Negative contrast

163
Q

What is the normal range of Calcium for dogs?

A

1.98 - 3 mml/L

164
Q

What is the normal range of Calcium for cats?

A

1.95 - 2.83 mmol/L

165
Q

What is the normal range of Phosphate for dogs?

A

0.81 - 2.19 mmol/L

166
Q

What is the normal range of Phosphate for cats?

A

1 - 2.42 mmol/L

167
Q

What is the normal range of Cholesterol for dogs?

A

2.84 - 8.27 mmol/L

168
Q

What is the normal range of Cholesterol for cats?

A

1.68 - 5.81 mmol/L

169
Q

What is the normal range of Total Bilirubin for dogs + cats?

A

0 - 15 mmol/L

170
Q

Alanine aminotransferase

What is the normal range of ALT for dogs?

A

0 - 50 IU/I

171
Q

Alanine aminotransferase

What is the normal range of ALT for cats?

A

12 - 130 IU/I

172
Q

Alkaline Phosphatase

What is the normal range of ALKP for dogs?

A

23 - 212 IU/I

173
Q

Alkaline Phosphatase

What is the normal range of ALKP for cats?

A

14 - 111 IU/U

174
Q

What is the possible cause of increased USG?

A
  1. Too concentrated
  2. Dehydration
  3. ARF
  4. DM
  5. Shock
  6. Sediment (crystals)
  7. Haemorrhage
175
Q

What is the possible cause of increased Lactate?

A
  1. Poor tissue oxygenation
  2. Cardiac disease
  3. Rapid exertion
  4. Energy metabolism diseases
176
Q

What is the possible cause of increased Creatinine?

A
  1. Muscle disorders caused by hyperthermia
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Heart disease
  4. Selenium/Vitamin E deficiencies
  5. Muscle trauma
177
Q

What is BUN?

A

Blood, Urine, Nitrogen - but often referred to as Urea

178
Q

What is the possible cause of increased ALT?

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. Severe muscle damage
  3. Feline Hyperthyroidism
  4. Glucocorticoids
179
Q

What is the possible cause of increased ALKP?

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. Gallbladder disease
180
Q

What is the possible cause of increased Glucose?

A
  1. DM
  2. Hyperadrenocorticism
  3. Corticosteriod therapy
  4. Stress
  5. Pancreatitis
  6. Post-feeding samples
181
Q

What is the possible cause of increased Total Bilirubin?

A
  1. Haemolytic anaemia
  2. Liver disease
  3. Biliary obstruction
182
Q

What is the possible cause of increased TP?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Chronic + Immune-mediated disease
  3. Lactation
  4. Infection
  5. Neoplasia
183
Q

What is the possible cause of increased Calcium?

A
  1. Parathyroid gland disease
  2. RD
  3. Neoplasia
184
Q

What is the possible cause of increased Phosphate?

A
  1. Renal insufficiency! - linked with Calcium levels
185
Q

What is the possible cause of increased Cholesterol?

A
  1. DM
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Hyperadrenocorticism
  4. Liver disease
  5. RD
186
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased PCV?

A
  1. Anaemia
  2. Haemodilution (bolous of IV fluids)
187
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased USG?

A
  1. Dilute urine
  2. PD
  3. CRF
  4. Diabetes Insipidus
  5. IVFT
  6. Corticosteroid tx
  7. Pyometra
188
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased Lactate?

A

No disease associated!

189
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased BUN?

A
  1. Low protein diet
  2. Anabolic steroids
  3. LF
  4. Portosystemic shunt
190
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased Creatinine?

A
  1. Muscle loss
  2. LD
  3. Diet
  4. Hyperthyroidism
191
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased ALT?

A

Not considered to be of any significance

192
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased ALKP?

A

Not considered to be of any significance

193
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased Glucose?

A
  1. Hepatic insufficiency
  2. Hypoadrenocorticism
  3. Neoplasia
  4. Malabsorption
  5. Starvation
  6. Insulin tx
194
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased TP?

A
  1. RD
  2. Malnutrition
  3. Malabsorption
  4. Haemorrhage
  5. Hepatic + Pancreatic insufficiency
195
Q

What is the possible cause of decreased Cholesterol?

A
  1. Malabsorption
  2. Maldigestion
  3. Severe hepatic insufficiency
196
Q

What act should PPE come under?

A

HASAWA of 1974

197
Q

What is the minimum thickness of lead apron, legally required to be?

198
Q

What is the minimum thickness of lead gloves, legally required to be?

199
Q

What is the legal Film Focal Distance (FFD)?

200
Q

What 4 propertries make x-rays dangerous?

A
  1. Latent
  2. Invisible
  3. Accumilative
  4. Painless
201
Q

What are the local rules?

A
  • Drawn up by RPA
  • Everybody should have a copy
  • Sign to agree
  • List of everyone able to carry out exposures
  • Info on equipment, procedures, restriction of access to controlled area
  • Displayed within the x-ray room
  • List of actions to be followed
202
Q

What are the Written Systems of Work?

A
  • Apart of the Local rules
  • List of actions to be followed with x-rays
203
Q

Who can’t be allowed in radiography?

A
  1. Pregnant women
  2. Owners
  3. Under 16
204
Q

True or False.

The person taking the exposure should be present if the px is artifically restrained

205
Q

What must qualifications must an RPA have?

A
  • Diploma in Veterinary Radiology
  • Certificate of competence from an awarding body
206
Q

What are the RPA’s responsibilities?

A
  1. Advise on radiation protection
  2. Demarcation of controlled area
  3. Draw up Local Rules + Written Systems of Work
207
Q

What are the RPS’s responsibilities?

A
  1. Ensure radiography is carried out in accordance with the regulations
  2. Ensure local rules are being followed
208
Q

Who can be a RPS?

A
  • Member of Veterinary team
  • Appointed by the practice
  • Practice principle
  • Senior partner
  • Head nurse
  • Senior nurse
209
Q

What are the 3 objectives of the HASAWA of 1974?

A
  • Cover duties of employer + employee
    1. Secure (H&S)
    2. Protect (other persons against risks)
    3. Control (Keep all explosive, highly flammable, dangerous stubstances locked, prevent unlawful possession)
210
Q

What must 5 things must employees do for staff under the HASAWA of 1974?

A
  1. Consider what can harm you + take steps to prevent
  2. Explain risks + how to control these + what your responsibilites are
  3. Protect you from harm in the workplace
  4. Provide training
  5. Provide PPE
211
Q

What legislation covers SOPs in radiography?

A

HASAWA of 1974

212
Q

What must 5 things must we do, as staff, under the HASAWA of 1974?

A
  1. Take care of H&S of ourselves + others by what they do or not do
  2. Cooperate with employer
  3. Obey local rules
  4. Wear PPE
  5. Handle + store transport articles + substances in safe manner
  6. Maintain equipment according to manafactures specifications + legislations
213
Q

What does COSHH 2002 stand for?

A

Control
Of
Substances
Hazardous
to
Health

Regulations of 2002

214
Q

What does COSHH 2002 cover in radiography?

A
  • Controls staff exposure to hazardous substances
  • Steps to prevent + reduce exposure are:
    1. Identify hazard
    2. How to prevent harm to health (assessment)
    3. Control measures
    4. Provide info, instruction + training for employees
    5. Plan emergencies
215
Q

What regulation covers the disposal of waste in Radiography in 1988?

A

Collection and Disposal of Waste Regulations of 1988

216
Q

What does the Collection and Disposal of Waste Regulations of 1988 cover in Radiography?

A
  1. Relationship between collection + disposal authorities
  2. Define difference between household, industrial + commerical waste
  3. Explains when disposal licences are required or not
217
Q

When did the updated IRR’17 legislations come into force?

A

January of 2018

218
Q

What 4 things does the IRR’17 regulations update + clarify?

A

Updates + Clarifies
1. Eye dose exposures from 150 mSv > 20 mSv in 1 year
2. Dose records no longer retained for 50 years, but 30 years
3. Radiation employer is now “an employer who carries out a practice that involves ionising radiation”
4. An estimated radiation dose for the public must be completed

219
Q

What are the 4 exceptional circumstances when a patient undergoing dx examination be supported or manipulated by hand?

A
  1. Severly ill/injured
  2. Congestive HF
  3. Any traumatic injury
  4. Ruptured diaphragm
220
Q

What does the IRR’17 cover?

A
  1. All use of radiation + radioactive materials
  2. Identifies hazards, risks + reduction of exposure to employees + others
  3. Leads to production of Local Rules
  4. How to inform + comply with HSE
  5. Provides a graded approach to risks = 1: Notify, 2: Register + 3: Consent
221
Q

Explain what the lowest risk of work with IR, in the VP ‘Notify’ is classed as

A
  • No cost involved
  • Does not have an expiry date
  • Notification is required for each practice
222
Q

Explain what the medium risk of work with IR, in the VP ‘Register’ is classed as

A
  • Register radiation practice with HSE
  • Intial cost
  • Must be reviewed Q5 years
223
Q

Explain what the highest risk of work with IR, in the VP ‘Consent’ is classed as

A
  • Consent requires licensing or approval
  • Req additional info
  • Renewal fee
  • If VP has multiple branches of different locations, a **consent application **is required for each site
225
Q

What does this do?

A

Helps employees comply with their duties under IRR’17

226
Q

What does this cover?

A
  • A shortened format of the IRR’17 regulations
  • All practices must have a copy
  • Covering:
    1. Equipment
    2. Personnel
    3. Procedures
    4. Minimising radiation doses
227
Q

What legislation states you have to submit a Notification, Registration + Consent?

228
Q

What legislation covers..

  • All employers must take responsiblity to train employees
  • Provide info + instruction
  • Provide PPE + equipment for H&S
  • Take steps to reduce radiation risks
  • Identify hazards + risks in workplace
  • Leads to production of Local rules
  • Risk assessments carried out
A

Ionising Radiation Regulations of 2017

229
Q

Where should this be?

A

In + outwith the controlled room

230
Q

How far back must you stand from the primary beam?

231
Q

What lead lining should be used in walls?

A
  1. Lead ply
    or
  2. Barium plaster
232
Q

What happens when the x-ray machine is not in use + disconnect from the power supply?

A

The controlled room creases to be a controlled area + can be entered

233
Q

What is this an example of?

A

Demarcated controlled room!

234
Q

What legislation applies to all persons at work within the VP?

A

HASAWA of 1974

235
Q

What regulation expands on the general duties within the HASAWA of 1974?

A

The Management of Health and Saftey At Work Regulations 1999

236
Q

When was COSHH first brough into place?

A

1999, amended in 2002

237
Q

What regulation covers accidents, injuries, diseases or dangerous occurrences at work?

A

RIDDOR 1980..

238
Q

What is radiation?

A

Energy that moves from one place to another in a form of waves or particles

239
Q

Name 3 types of radiation

A
  1. Alpha
  2. Beta
  3. Gamma
240
Q

What are the 3 key principles of Radiation Saftey?

A
  1. Justification (clear benefit outweighs risks)
  2. Dose limitation (ALARA)
  3. Optimization of protection (Equipment, training, PPE)
241
Q

Name the 3 potential types of biological damages than can occur from IR?

A
  1. Somatic
  2. Carcinogenic
  3. Genetic
242
Q

What is Stochastic damage?

A
  • Occurs by chance
  • Relating to any dose rate
243
Q

What is Non-Stochastic damage?

A
  • Dose specific threshold
  • Potential to cause radiation burns
244
Q

Name 2 Carcinogenic effect of IR

A
  1. Leukaemia
  2. Skin cancer
245
Q

What are Genetic effects of IR?

A
  • When gonads (ovaries, testicles) are exposed to IR
  • Leads to mutation of chromosomes, genes
  • Lead to inherited abnormalities of offspring + foetus
246
Q

Name the 3 types of standard x-ray machines

A
  1. Portable
  2. Mobile
  3. Fixed
247
Q

True or False.

Photons travel in waved lines but can be focused into the Primary Beam

A

False.

Photons travel in straight lines

248
Q

True or False.

Photons are either absorbed or scattered

249
Q

How are x-rays produced?

A

When electricity from the mains is transformed into a high voltage current, with some of that energy converting in x-rays (1%)

250
Q

What are the properties of x-rays?

A
  • Part of electromagnetic spectrum
  • Energy directly proportional to frequency + proportional to wavelength
251
Q

If an x-ray photon has a high frequency + a short wave, it has …. energy?

252
Q

What is the frequency of an x-ray?

A

The number of waves that pass a certain point in a specificed amount of time

253
Q

wWhat is the wavelength of an x-ray?

A

The distance betwen any 2 corresponding points on adjacent waves

254
Q

Do x-rays require a medium for transmission?

255
Q

What do x-rays pass through in the tube head?

256
Q

What happens when x-rays travel at high speeds + collide with other atoms?

A

They lose their kinetic energy

257
Q

In the basic form, how are x-ray photons created?

A

When rapidly moving electrons are slowed down or stopped!

258
Q

What mm is the aluminium filter in the tube head?

259
Q

What is the tube head seal made of?

A

Aliminium or leaded glass

260
Q

What is the coiled wire made of tungsten + where electrons are produced?

261
Q

What is the focusing cup made of + why ?

A

Molybdenum, has a high melting point, so is a poor heat conductor

262
Q

If the filament contains the cathode and is - charged, what contains the anode and becomes + charged?

263
Q

What degree of angle is the target set at?

264
Q

What is the aluminium filter?

A
  • Flat sheet of aluminium
  • Absorbs soft x-rays
  • Legal requirement
265
Q

Why is there a vaccum in the tube head?

A
  • Extracts gases/air
  • Allow x-rays to travel in a straight line
  • If 02 was present, the x-rays would bounce off the particles + be misdirected
266
Q

Why do bone show up as whiter than soft tissues on an x-ray image?

A

Becaue they have a higher atomic number than soft tissues + thus absorb more x-ray photons

267
Q

What colour is Fat on an x-ray image?

268
Q

What colour is Soft/tissue + Fluid on an x-ray image?

269
Q

What colour is Bone on an x-ray image?

A

Nearly white

270
Q

What colour is Metal on an x-ray image?

271
Q

True or False.

Thicker areas of the body absorb less x-ray photons + appear grey in apperance on x-ray images.

A

False.

Thicker areas of the body absorb more x-ray photons + appear white in apperance on x-ray images.

272
Q

What is mA?

A
  • Milliamperage = current
  • Amount of x-rays
  • Measures quanitity of x-rays produced
  • Controls heating of filament
273
Q

What is kV?

A
  • Kilovoltage = Energy
  • Speed of x-rays
  • Controls electrical current to cathode + temperature of tube filament
274
Q

What is the FFD?

A

Distance between the focal spot + x-ray film/cassette

275
Q

What is the most common FFD used in the VP?

276
Q

What is a FFD often compared to?

A

Camera focal distance

277
Q

Identify 4 postioning aids for radiography

A
  1. Sandbags
  2. Ties
  3. Foam wedges
  4. Troughs/Cradles
278
Q

What is radiopaque?
+
List some radiopaque positoining aids

A

X-rays don’t penetrate it
1. Sandbags
2. Cradles

279
Q

What is radiolucent?
+
List some radiolucent positoining aids

A

X-rays penetrate it
1. Ties
2. Foam wedges

280
Q

Name this expensive piece of diagnostic equipment!

A

Flexible endoscope

281
Q

Name the 4 basic steps to cleaning an endoscope

A
  1. Immerse (dilute enzymatic cleaner for 10-15 mins + flush channel)
  2. Rinse (demineralized water)
  3. Hang
  4. Store
282
Q

Where are grids placed?

A

Between px + table

283
Q

Identify 7 types of Grids

A
  1. Parallel
  2. Potter-Bucky
  3. Linear
  4. Crossed
  5. Focussed
  6. Pseudo-focussed
284
Q

Name 3 indentifying characteritics of Grids

A
  1. Alternating strips - absorb IR
  2. Radiolucent interspace - made of aluminium or carbon plastic fibres
  3. Scatter absorbed by lead strips
285
Q

What is a grid ratio?

A

Ratio of the :
Height of the lead strips : distance between them

Used to calculate grid factor

286
Q

What is the normal urine parameters for a cat + dog?

A

1 - 2 mls/kg/hr
or
24 - 48 mls/kg/day

287
Q

Identify 4 methods of obtaining a urine sample

A
  1. Free catch
  2. Manual bladder expression
  3. Urinary catheterisation
  4. Cystocentesis
288
Q

What 4 physical characteristics of urine can you use for dx?

A
  1. Odour
  2. Turbidity
  3. Colour
  4. SG
289
Q

What is Straguria?

A

Painful passing of urine, often indicative or a bladder infection

290
Q

How many hours can you refridgerate urine for sample?

291
Q

How long do you have to use a urine sample that hasn’t been refridgerated?

292
Q

What container should you use for routine urine sampling?

A

Sterile, universal container

293
Q

What container should you use for bacteriology for urine sampling?

A
  • Sterile, Boric acid container
  • (red top)
  • At 0.1 - 0.2% solution for 48 - 96hrs

Preserves current bac + inhibits other bac growth

294
Q

What are the 2 different materials for urethral catheters?

A
  1. Polypropylene
    or
  2. Rubber
295
Q

What is Cystocentesis?

A

The passing of a sterile needle through the abdominl wall into the bladder for a sterile urine sample

296
Q

What does Ketotic urine smell like + indicate?

A
  1. Pear drops - sweet!
  2. DM
297
Q

What may foul smelling urine indicate?

A

Excess protein

298
Q

What colour or urine indicates biliverdin?
(Oxidation of bilirubin)

A
  • Green/yellow
  • May have greenish-foam on surface
299
Q

What are the potential causes for abnormal turbidity of urine?

A
  1. RBCs
  2. Crystals or casts
  3. Epithelial cells
  4. Bacteria
  5. Yeast
  6. Fungi
  7. Pus (WBCs)
  8. Phosphate precipitation
  9. Prostate or vaginal secretions
300
Q

What can a build up ketones in the body cause?

A
  1. Coma
  2. Death
301
Q

True or False.

Bile salts should be present in trace amounts in dogs + cats.

A

False, they should not be present whatsoever

302
Q

What is the normal pH range for a dog?

303
Q

What is the normal pH range for a cat?

304
Q

Upon microscopic examination of centrifuged sediment, what 7 things may be found in urine?

A
  1. Cells
  2. Casts
  3. Crystals
  4. Bacteria
  5. Yeastgs
  6. Parasites
  7. Spermatozoa
305
Q

What are urine casts?

A

Mucoprotein (matrix of proteins) excreted by the kidney tubules

306
Q

How many grams of faecal matter should you ideally collect for collection?

A
  • 5g
    or
  • Enough to fill the whole tube, as oxidation by bacteria will ruin the sample
307
Q

How long do you have to examin faecal matter?

308
Q

What 2 ways can you store a faecal sample?

A
  1. In the fridge w/little air as possible
  2. Add double volume of 10% Formal Saline
309
Q

What 2 conditions could fatty or mucoid faecal matter indicate?

A
  1. Colitis
  2. Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI)
310
Q

What do you use the diagnostic technique of a Direct smear in faecal matter to look for?

A
  1. Worm eggs
  2. Protozoan oocysts
  3. Partially digested food
311
Q

Name 2 methods of concentrating parasitic material in faeces

A
  1. Flotation
  2. Sediment
312
Q

What is the modified Mcmaster technique used for?

A

Determinng the no. of parasitic eggs per gram of faeces

313
Q

What is Occult blood dx techniques used for?

A

Uses a chemical reaction to determine if there is any hidden blood present in faecal matter

314
Q

Name 4 other faecal examination tests used for dx

A
  1. Faecal trypsin (Protease) (determines level of acitvity of trypsin)
  2. Undigested fat (Sudan IV stain)
  3. Bacterial culture (Sterile rectum collection)
  4. Baermann technique (Recover nematode larvae by adding warm water to stimulate movement)

Diagnostic Techniques Yr2 (21 decks)

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