Exam revision.. Flashcards
1
Q
If a tube has a cap colour of orange + vacutainer colour of green…
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- Lithium heparin
- Biochemistry
2
Q
If a tube has a cap colour of pink + vacutainer colour of purple…
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- EDTA (Ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid)
- Haematology
3
Q
If a tube has a cap colour of yellow + vacutainer colour of grey…
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- Fluoride oxalate
- Glucose
4
Q
If a tube has a cap colour of blue + vacutainer colour of blue…
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- Sodium/lithium citrate
- Coagulant profiles
5
Q
If a tube has a cap colour of white or brown + vacutainer colour of red…
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- No anticoagulant!
- Serum collection
6
Q
If a blood tube has a pink cap..
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- EDTA (Ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid)
- Haematology
7
Q
If a blood tube has a purple cap..
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- Sodium Citrate
- Coagulation/Prothombin test
8
Q
If a blood tube has a white cap..
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- No anticoagulant
- All serum tests
9
Q
If a blood tube has a orange cap..
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- Lithium Heparin
- Biochemsitry
10
Q
If a blood tube has a yellow cap..
- What is the anticoagulant inside?
- What will this blood be used for?
A
- No anticoagulant
- Blood glucose
11
Q
If a serum or plasma sample has turned a pink/red colour, what may this indicate?
A
Haemolysis
12
Q
If a serum or plasma sample has turned a yellow colour, what may this indicate?
A
Jaundice
(Icteric)
13
Q
If a serum or plasma sample has turned a milky- white colour, what may this indicate?
A
Lipaemia
14
Q
Name the 3 Romanowsky stains used for blood smears
A
- Leishmann’s
- Giemsa
- Diff-Quick
15
Q
Name the Supravital stain used for blood smears
A
Methylene blue
16
Q
Name the 2 most common types of stains used for blood smears
A
- Romanowsky
- Supravital
17
Q
What setting + how long should you spin a PCV sample in a Centrifuge for?
A
10,000 rmp for 5 mins
18
Q
What type of tube should you use for a PCV?
A
Microhaematocrit tube
19
Q
What is the piece of equipment you should use to measure a PCV?
A
Hawlsley micro-haematocritc reader
20
Q
What is the normal PCV for a dog?
A
37 - 55%
21
Q
What is the normal PCV for a cat?
A
24 - 45 %
22
Q
What may an increased PCV indicate?
A
Dehydration
23
Q
What may an decreased PCV indicate?
A
- Anaemia
- Haemorrhage
24
Q
If a patient has:
* Increased PCV
* Increased TS
* Increased USG
What may be the possible cause?
A
Dehydration
25
If a patient has:
* **Normal** or **decreased** PCV
* **Normal** TS
* **Decreased** USG
What may be the possible cause?
Renal failure
26
If a patient has:
* **Increased** PCV
* **Normal** TS
* **Normal** USG
What may be the possible cause?
Polycythemia
27
What breed of dog is Polycythemia normal in?
Greyhounds
28
If a patient has:
* **Normal** PCV
* **Increased** TS
* **Normal** USG
What may be the possible cause?
Hyperglobulinaemia
29
If a patient has:
* **Normal** PCV
* **Decreased** TS
* **Normal** USG
What may be the possible cause?
Hypoglobulinaemia
30
If a patient has:
* **Decreased** PCV
* **Normal** TS
* **Normal** USG
What may be the possible cause?
Chronic anaemia
31
If a patient has:
* **Decreased** PCV
* **Decreased** TS
* **Normal** USG
What may be the possible cause?
Haemorrhage
32
What are the normal Total Solid ranges for **Dogs**?
52 - 82 g/L
33
What are the normal Total Solid ranges for **Cats**?
57 - 89 g/L
34
What are the normal ranges of blood Lactate for both **Cats** + **Dogs**?
< 2.5 mmol/L
35
# (mmol/L)
What are the normal BUN ranges for a **Dog**?
2.5 - 9.6 mmol/L
36
What are the normal BUN ranges for a **Cat**?
5.7 - 12.9 mmol/L
37
What are the normal Creatinine ranges for a **dog**?
44 - 159 mol/L
38
What are the normal Creatinine ranges for a **cat**?
71 - 212 mmol/L
39
What year was the Ionizing Radiation Regulations created?
Updated in 2017
(orginally '99)
40
What year was the Health and Saftey at Work Act created?
1974
41
What did the radiation eye doses decrease to in the IRR'17?
150 > 30 % MSP
42
What green + white book did the BVA introduce, in response to IRR'17 for veterinary proffesionals?
Shortened form of the IRR'17, with guidance notes for the safe use of Ionizing radiation in the VP
43
What is the area within the x-ray tube that **contains the anode + cathode**?
Glass envelope
44
What is the area within the x-ray tube that **transfers heat away from the anode**?
Insulating oil
45
What is the area within the x-ray tube that is **a flat sheet, that covers the window which absorbs any soft x-rays**?
Aluminium filter
46
What is the area within the x-ray tube that **disperses heat**?
Cooling fins
47
What is the area within the x-ray tube that is **a space where all air or gases have been extracted, allowing electrons to travel in a straight line**?
Vaccum
48
What is the area within the x-ray tube that **acts as a conductor of heat and draws the heat away from the tungesten target**?
Copper stem
49
What is the area within the x-ray tube that is **part of a low energy circuit in the cathode, that when heated, releases electrons**?
Filament
50
What is the area within the x-ray tube that is a **recessed area, where the filament lies, directing the electrons toward the anode**?
Focusing cup
51
How are x-rays produced?
1. Within the tube head houses the **negatively charged Cathode** + **postively charged Anode**
2. The Cathode consists of a **Filament made of Tungsten**
3. The **filament** is **heated by an electric current** which produces electrons
4. The **electrons are released** by **thermionic emmision**
5. The electrons **travel at high speed across** the tube from the **Cathode to the Anode**
6. The electrons **hit the Target area** + **1% of x-rays** are created + 99% of heat is produced
52
What does PACS stand for?
Picture Archiving Communication System
53
What is Teleradiology?
Sending an diagnostic image to refferals or specialists
54
What types of contrast media are avaliable?
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Double
55
Give 2 examples of **positive** contrast mediums
1. Barium Sulphate
2. Water-soluble Iodine
56
Give 2 examples of **negative** contrast mediums
1. Gas
2. Air
57
Give 2 examples of **double** contrast mediums
1. Iodine + Air
2. Barium + Air
3. H20 + Air
58
What is a **Double** contrast medium?
Use of a positive + negative contrast medium together
59
Name an advantage + disadvantage of using the postitive contrast medium, **Barium Sulphate**
Advantage
1. Non-invasive
2. Laxative if constipated
3. Water-soluble doesn't do any damage
Diadvantage
1. If leaks, will leak into any damaged tissues + spaces
60
Name an advantage + disadvantage of using the postitive contrast medium, **Water-soluble Iodine**
Advantages
1. Can be excreted by the kidneys
Disadvantages
1. Can't be used conscious
2. Can cause fall in BP
3. More expensive
4. Difficult to administer
5. Can cause anaphylaxis
6. If a powder, can be mixed badly
61
Which type of contrast medium would you use if you were to perform a **Double contrast Cystogram**?
Water-soluble Iodine + Air (or Co2)
62
What **precautions** should be wary of when using **Water-soluble Iodine + Air** for a **Cystogram**?
1. Don't want to rupture the bladder
2. Monitor for anaphylaxis
63
# Essay Q..
A **dog** has presented to the VP with symptoms associated with an **Intestinal perforation**.
The VS has decided to perform a **series of GI radiographs** to confirm the dx.
You have been asked to **prepare** for the following surgery.
1. **How** would you **prepare** the px?
2. What **equipment** would you need?
3. **What contrast medium** would you use?
Px preparation:
* Gain owner consent
* Fast for 12 hrs
* Take out to toilet
* Enema or bladder expression
* Pain relief given
* Check vitals
* Sedation
Equipment:
* Contrast medium
* Needle + syringe
* PPE
* Sedation/pain relief drugs
* X-ray machine
* Funnel
* Dosing syringe
* Jug/beaker
* Feeding tube to provide CM
* Positioning aids
Contrast medium choice:
* Water-soluble Iodine (+)
* As there is a GI perforation, so Barium Sulphate is contraindicated
64
# Essay Q...
A **puppy** has been brought into the VP for investigation.
The main CS is **anuria**.
The VS admits the puppy for further investigation for a **double contrast Cystogram**.
1. **How** would you **prepare** the px?
2. What **equipment** is required?
2. What **contrast medium** should be used?
The VS has asked you to assist with the taking of a **urine sample**.
3. **When** should you **take** this in the day + **why**?
## Footnote
That should be a 4 ^ but won't let me change it
Px preparation:
* Gain owner consent
* Fast for 12 hrs
* Take out to toilet
* Enema or bladder expression
* Pain relief given
* Check vitals
* Sedation
Equipment:
* Contrast medium
* Needle + syringe
* PPE
* Sedation/pain relief drugs
* X-ray machine
* Funnel
* Dosing syringe
* Jug/beaker
* Feeding tube to provide CM
* Positioning aids
Contrast medium choice:
* Water-soluble Iodine (+) + Gas
Urine sample:
* Take free-catch 1st thing in the morning, **after** the 1st couple of seconds, so no sediment is present
* Take the sample prior to the contrast procedure as the contrast medium will create a high USG
* Will also create a false-positive for the contrast medium
65
How does an Ultrasound work?
1. **Vibrating crystals in transducer**
1. Make soundwaves
1. Ultrasonic soundwaves bounce off objects
2. Changes the shape of the crystals
3. Machine anaylses the image
1. Creates an image (+ frozen for dx)
66
What equipment do you need for an Ultrasound?
1. Coupling gel - takes out air
2. Clippers
3. Transducer
4. Ultrasound computer + control panel
5. Paper towels
6. Trolly
7. Extra pair of hands
67
How would you prepare a px for an Ultrasound?
1. Consent - make sure dog isn't a show dog
2. Fast px for 12hr (food)
3. If abdo - toilet break, if urinary - keep bladder full!
4. Toilet break, manual expression, enema - if req
3. Clip coat of area
3. Clean site with warm Hibiscrub + Surgical spirit (to de-grease)
4. Use coupling gel
5.Use machine + freeze + save image
6.Wipe off with paper towel
68
What are somatic affects of radiation?
Whole body changes from Ionizing radiation
69
What are the 2 types of Endoscopes?
1. Flexible
2. Rigid
70
Name the parts of the endoscope
1. Eye piece
2. Probe
2. Lens
3. Tip
4. Handle - air, water + suction
5. Blue button = air + water
6. Red button = suction
7. Fibre optic light source
8. Instrument channel
9. Guide wire
10. Biopsy channel
11. Umbilicus
71
What would you use a flexible endoscope for?
1. Any internal tubular/flexible structures
2. Upper + lower GI tract
2. Respiratory tract
3. Urinary tract
72
How would you clean a flexible endoscope?
1. Pressure test with pump + buttons
2. Wash with sterile distilled water
2. Use cleaning wire throughout whole structure x3
3. Soak in enzymatic cleaner
3. Hang up to drip-dry
73
Name the extra parts of the **rigid** Endoscope, that **differ** from the **flexible** endoscope
1. Power source
2. Lens
3. Camera
3. Relay system
4. Lens
5. Fibre optic light source
6. Umbilicus
7. Eye piece
74
When is a **rigid** Endoscope used?
1. Non-tubular channels
2. Nose
3. Ears
4. Joints (Arthroscopy)
5. For Birds, Fish + Reptiles
75
Identify several somatic changes that IR can cause
1. Redness
2. Corneal damage
3. Cataracts
4. Blistering
5. Dehydration
6. GI upset
7. Skin cracking
76
How many years does it take for IR causing **Leukaemia** to show clinical signs?
20 - 30 years
77
Name the 3 potential hazardous sources or IR, produced from x-rays?
1. Tube head
2. Primary beam
3. Scatter/secondary radiation
78
Identify 7 things that can be done to reduce scattered radiation
1. PPE
2. Grids
3. ALARA
4. Collimate
5. FFD
6. Stay 2m away
7. Reduce KV + mAS
79
Who can be a RPS?
Head or Senior nurses
80
At what point does the controlled area cease to be the controlled area?
* If the red light is OFF
* Demarkated
* Power source is disconnected
81
Describe the controlled area
* 2x lights - 1x orange, 1x red
* Thick lead-lined walls
* Big enough to stay 2m away from the primary beam/source of radiation
* Demarkation - warning signs
* Where x-rays are performed!
82
Name 3 different devices used to asses the exposure of radiation to staff
1. Dosimeters (Film-badge)
2. PEDs (Personal Electronic Dosimeter)
3. Thermonic dosimeter
83
What is the difference between a PEDs, Film-badge Dosimeter + Thermonic Dosimeters?
PEDs
* Lasts longer
* Detects real-time exposure (as electronic)
Film-badge dosimeter
* More common
* Checked Q8-12 week
* Contains small metal filters that absorbs IR
Thermonic dosimeter
* Less common
* Lithium Chloride sensitive crystals inside
* Can put in the building to give an exposure rating
84
Where should dosimeters be worn?
1. On the trunk
2. Under a lead apron
85
What is the normal **Glucose** parameters for a **dog**?
4.11 - 7.94 mmol/L
86
What is the normal **Glucose** parameters for a **cat**?
4.11 - 8.83 mmol/L
87
Why should you never drawback on a plunger when you are in a vein?
This will collapse the vein
88
Why should you always transfer venepunctured blood to a collecting tube ASAP?
To prevent contamination + clotting
89
Why should you always expel blood gently into a tube, after blood collection?
To prevent haemolysis/cell damage
90
How long does it take for blood to clot after contact with tissue, tissue fluids, glass or plastic?
10 - 20 seconds
91
How much blood should you collect, from a venepuncture?
Enough to fill the required level within the collection tube
92
What is phelbitis?
Inflammation at the vein
(/site of venepuncture)
93
What are the 3 layers that are present within a microhaematocrit tube, once it has been spun down in a centrifuge, for a PCV reading?
1. RBCs (Erythrocytes)
2. Buffy coat
3. Plasma
94
How do you read a PCV from a Hawksley Micro-haematocrit Reader?
1. Place tube into slot, sealant end at the bottom
2. Align top of seal (Bottom of RBCs at line 0)
3. Move tube holder across until top of plasma is lined up with 100% line
4. Move adjustable PCV reading line to intersect with top of RBC layer (horizontal white line)
5. Reccord as percentage
95
What colour of micohaematocrit tube is most suitable for use with an EDTA blood sample?
Blue, as it's plain!
* As EDTA has an anticoagulant, LH in it!
* So will destroy the sample if another anticoagulant is used!
96
Name 4 Coagulation tests!
1. BMBT (Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time)
2. ACT (Activated Clotting Time)
3. Thrombocyte count
4. PT (Prothrombin time)
## Footnote
PT can also be used alongside aPTT = activiated partial thromboplastin time
97
What 2 scenarios should you use a **Romanowsky** stain for?
+
Name 3 types!
Scenarios
1. When performing a WBC count
2. Detect blood parasites (i.e Babesia)
3 Types
1. Diff-Quick
2. Leishmann's
3. Giemsa
98
What 2 scenarios should you use a **Supravital** stain for?
+
What is it's other name?
Scenarios
1. Reticulocyte counts
2. To detect Heinz bodies
Other name
1. Methylene blue
99
Name the order in which you use these for staining a blood smear!
BRP!
1. Blue (Methanol)
1. Red (Eosin)
1. Purple (Methylene blue)
100
How many times should you dip your blood smear into these stains?
+
For how long?
1. Dip **5** times per stain
2. Dip into stain for a length of **1 second** each
101
What should you rinse your blood smear stain with after using completing the Romanowsky stain procedure?
+
How should you dry it?
1. Rinse with **Distilled** water
2. Place **vertically** + leave to dry
102
How would you prepare these samples to send them to an external lab?
1. PPE
2. Check adequate Formalin (preservative)
3. Labeled with px name, species, breed, age, sex, owner's name + date
4. Ensure airtight, moisture-proof + robust
5. Ensure total vol/mass is not more than 50ml/50g
6. Wrap container in absorbent material
7. Wrap in bubble wrap
8. Place in secondary layer (plastic biohazard specimen bag) + expel any air + secure
9. Complete lab paperwork + place in biohazard bag's seperate compartment
10. Identify w/waterproof marker
11. Put sender's name + address on outer packaging
12. Ensure package states nature of sample + special instructions (Biohazard, handle with care)
13. Send
103
What does **increased** **BUN** indicate in an adult **dog**?
1. Infection
2. Necrosis
3. High-protein diet
4. CHF *
5. Urethral obstruction
6. Renal failure
7. Dehydration
8. Systemic + metabolic conditions
9. Corticosteroid therapy
## Footnote
* = Poor renal perfusion > less urea taken to kidneys > greater ax in blood
104
What 5 things may a **decreased** **TP** indicate?
1. Renal disease
2. Malnutrition
3. Haemorrhage
4. Malabsorption
5. Hepatic + Pancreatic insufficiency
105
What are these utilised for?
To measure:
1. TP/S
2. USG
106
What is the normal **USG** range for a **Cat**?
1.035 - 1.60
107
What is the normal **USG** range for a **Dog**?
1.015 - 1.045
108
What is this called?
+
What chemical parameters can be assessed using it?
1. Called a 'Mutlistix'
2. Can identify:
* Glucose
* Ketones
* USG
* Blood
* pH
* Protein
* Nitrates
* Leucocytes
109
What stain do you need for a microscopic analysis of a urine sample?
+
How many drops should you apply?
1. Sedi-stain!
2. 1 - 2 drops
110
What portion of a urine sample should you remove before adding the sedi-stain?
Supernatant, to leave a few drops to resuspend the sediment!
111
What test should you re-suspend the sediment in, by flicking the base of the tube?
Urine sample
112
What angle should you apply cover-slips onto microscope slides?
+
Why?
1. 45 degrees
2. To avoid air bubbles
113
What magnification should you use on the microscope to view a urine sample?
x10
114
What is most commonly found crystal in urine called?
Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate
115
What urinary crystal is this?
Uric acid
116
How many eggs per day does this louse lay for 30 days?
+
Name this louse!
1. Several eggs p/day
2. Trichodectes canis (Dog chewing louse)
117
How long does it take for this parasite's eggs take to hatch?
7 - 14 days
118
How long does it take for these nymphs become reproductive adults?
2 weeks
119
How long is the egg > adult life cycle of Trichodectes canis?
30 - 40 days
120
How long can Linognathus setosus last off its host for?
No more than a few days
121
A dog is presented to the VP with a Dog-sucking-louse infestation.
How often should lice control treatments be repeated for?
7 - 10 days after the 1st tx
122
What are the eggs of this parasite called?
+
Where do they reside on the host?
1. Nits
2. Hair near skin
123
How long is the entire life-cycle of Linognathus setosus?
3 - 4 weeks
124
How long does it take for eggs to hatch + become nymphs in Felicola subrostratus?
1 - 2 weeks
125
True or False.
Lice are wingless
True
126
True or False.
Deep skin scrapes are the best method of dx Sarcoptes scabiei
True
127
True or False.
Sarcoptes scabiei has an entire life-cycle as long as 70 days.
False.
30 - 60 days
128
True or False.
Sarcoptes scabiei is highly contagious.
True!
129
What ectoparasite can live off of it's host for 2-3 days?
Sarcoptes scabiei
130
What is the name given to the parasite that cause Mange in Dogs?
Sarcoptes Scabiei
131
What parasite is this indicative of?
Walking dandruff
A.K.A Cheyletiella Yasguri
132
Name this burrowing mite
Demodex canis
133
What is the scientific name for a tick?
Ixodes spp, particulary Ixodes **Ricinus**
134
What parasite is this?
A) Trichodectes canis
B) Linognathus setosus
C) Cheyletiella yasguri
D) Felicola subrostratus
C) Cheyletiella yasguri
135
Where is this surface mite found?
Clues in the name...
Ears!
Otodectes cyanotis
136
What nematode is this?
Trichuris vulpis
(Whipworm)
137
What is Dirofilaria immitis known as?
Heart worm
138
From what age should you worm Toxocara infected puppies + kittens from?
2 weeks of age + then every 2 weeks until weaning
139
What type of anthelmintic should you use to remove any accumulated infections that have occured for pets with worms?
Broad-spectrum anthelmintics w/additional cestocidal activity
140
How often should adult dogs + cats be wormed?
Q3 months
141
What is the intermediate host for this parasite?
Flea!
142
How often should you treat px for fleas?
Q3 months
143
What parasite am I...
I am 1-6 mm long, wingless + may lay 20 eggs p/day.
Once I have my 1st blood meal, I need daily blood meals to survive + will remain on the same host for remainder of my life.
I may live up to 160 days.. but commonly only 1-3 weeks as I may get groomed off by my host.. rude!
Flea
(Ctenocephalides felis, commonly)
144
What parasite am I...
I'm zoonotic, develop in the SI + can be transported by my kind friends, Ctenocephalides felis + Trichodectes canis and cause my host to bum-scoot!
Tapeworm
(Dipylidium caninium)
145
What endoparasite ova does this belong to?
Dipylidium caninum
146
What endoparasite ova does this belong to?
Trichruis vulpis
147
What endoparasite ova does this belong to?
Toxocara canis
148
What endoparasite ova does this belong to?
Ancylostoma caninum
149
When do Phlebotomine sandfly egg's hatch?
After 4 - 20 days
(Depends on species, enviro etc)
150
# From the mediterranean..
What does the Phlebotomine Sand fly transmit?
Leishmaniasis
151
What 4 dx tests can be done to dx Leishmania spp?
1. EDTA for PCR
1. Clinical signs + Hx
1. Lymph node FNA
1. Bone marrow biopsy
152
What is Leishmania?
A protozoan intracellular parasite, carried by the Phelobotomine sand fly
153
What crystal am I?
Calcium Phosphate
154
How many mls for fluid Maintenance?
50mls
(50ml x BW = p/day)
155
What is the fluid calculation for Deficits?
10 x BW(kg) x dehydration(%) = ml/day
156
What is the fluid calculation for Additional losses (V+ + D+)?
4ml x BW(kg) x no. of episodes = ml/day
157
What is the fluid calculation for Total fluid for 24hrs?
Maintenance + Deficits + Additional losses = ml/24hr
158
What is the drip rate for a Standard giving set v Paedatric GS?
1. Standard = 20 drops p/1ml
2. Paedatric = 60 drops p/1ml
159
Why may negative contrast mediums be safer than positive ones?
* Because they are plasma soluble, therefore less risk of air embolus
* Decrease in x-ray attenuation
* Allow x-rays to pass through more easily into surrounding tissues
160
Name the 7 disadvantages of **negative** contrast
1. Hypersensitivity
2. Adverse reactions
3. Thyroid dysfunction
4. Stomach cramps, constipation, D+, V+ + nauseua
5. If not a plasma soluble gas, can cause air embolism
6. Expensive
7. Difficult to distinguish contour of body
161
Name 3 uses for negative contrast mediums
1. Used mainly in the bladder = Pneumo**cystogram**
2. GI tract = Pneumo**gastrogram**, Pnuemo**colon**
3. Joints = **Negative Arthrogram**
162
What type of contrast medium gives l**ittle information about the mucosal surface**, allowing smaller filling defects such as **bladder calculi to be overexposed**?
Negative contrast
163
What is the normal range of **Calcium** for **dogs**?
1.98 - 3 mml/L
164
What is the normal range of **Calcium** for **cats**?
1.95 - 2.83 mmol/L
165
What is the normal range of **Phosphate** for **dogs**?
0.81 - 2.19 mmol/L
166
What is the normal range of **Phosphate** for **cats**?
1 - 2.42 mmol/L
167
What is the normal range of **Cholesterol** for **dogs**?
2.84 - 8.27 mmol/L
168
What is the normal range of **Cholesterol** for **cats**?
1.68 - 5.81 mmol/L
169
What is the normal range of **Total Bilirubin** for **dogs** + **cats**?
0 - 15 mmol/L
170
# Alanine aminotransferase
What is the normal range of **ALT** for **dogs**?
0 - 50 IU/I
171
# Alanine aminotransferase
What is the normal range of **ALT** for **cats**?
12 - 130 IU/I
172
# Alkaline Phosphatase
What is the normal range of **ALKP** for **dogs**?
23 - 212 IU/I
173
# Alkaline Phosphatase
What is the normal range of **ALKP** for **cats**?
14 - 111 IU/U
174
What is the possible cause of **increased** **USG**?
1. Too concentrated
2. Dehydration
2. ARF
3. DM
4. Shock
5. Sediment (crystals)
6. Haemorrhage
175
What is the possible cause of **increased** **Lactate**?
1. Poor tissue oxygenation
2. Cardiac disease
3. Rapid exertion
4. Energy metabolism diseases
176
What is the possible cause of **increased** **Creatinine**?
1. Muscle disorders caused by hyperthermia
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Heart disease
4. Selenium/Vitamin E deficiencies
5. Muscle trauma
177
What is BUN?
Blood, Urine, Nitrogen - but often referred to as Urea
178
What is the possible cause of **increased** **ALT**?
1. Liver disease
2. Severe muscle damage
3. Feline Hyperthyroidism
4. Glucocorticoids
179
What is the possible cause of **increased** **ALKP**?
1. Liver disease
2. Gallbladder disease
180
What is the possible cause of **increased** **Glucose**?
1. DM
2. Hyperadrenocorticism
3. Corticosteriod therapy
4. Stress
5. Pancreatitis
6. Post-feeding samples
181
What is the possible cause of **increased** **Total Bilirubin**?
1. Haemolytic anaemia
2. Liver disease
3. Biliary obstruction
182
What is the possible cause of **increased** **TP**?
1. Dehydration
2. Chronic + Immune-mediated disease
3. Lactation
4. Infection
5. Neoplasia
183
What is the possible cause of **increased** **Calcium**?
1. Parathyroid gland disease
2. RD
3. Neoplasia
184
What is the possible cause of **increased** **Phosphate**?
1. Renal insufficiency! - linked with Calcium levels
185
What is the possible cause of **increased** **Cholesterol**?
1. DM
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperadrenocorticism
4. Liver disease
5. RD
186
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **PCV**?
1. Anaemia
2. Haemodilution (bolous of IV fluids)
187
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **USG**?
1. Dilute urine
2. PD
3. CRF
4. Diabetes Insipidus
5. IVFT
6. Corticosteroid tx
7. Pyometra
188
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **Lactate**?
No disease associated!
189
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **BUN**?
1. Low protein diet
2. Anabolic steroids
3. LF
4. Portosystemic shunt
190
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **Creatinine**?
1. Muscle loss
2. LD
3. Diet
4. Hyperthyroidism
191
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **ALT**?
Not considered to be of any significance
192
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **ALKP**?
Not considered to be of any significance
193
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **Glucose**?
1. Hepatic insufficiency
2. Hypoadrenocorticism
3. Neoplasia
4. Malabsorption
5. Starvation
6. Insulin tx
194
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **TP**?
1. RD
2. Malnutrition
3. Malabsorption
4. Haemorrhage
5. Hepatic + Pancreatic insufficiency
195
What is the possible cause of **decreased** **Cholesterol**?
1. Malabsorption
2. Maldigestion
3. Severe hepatic insufficiency
196
What act should PPE come under?
HASAWA of 1974
197
What is the minimum thickness of lead **apron**, legally required to be?
0.25 mm
198
What is the minimum thickness of lead **gloves**, legally required to be?
0.5 mm
199
What is the legal **Film Focal Distance** (FFD)?
75 cm
200
What 4 propertries make x-rays dangerous?
1. Latent
2. Invisible
3. Accumilative
4. Painless
201
What are the **local rules**?
* Drawn up by RPA
* Everybody should have a copy
* Sign to agree
* List of everyone able to carry out exposures
* Info on equipment, procedures, restriction of access to controlled area
* Displayed within the x-ray room
* List of actions to be followed
202
What are the **Written Systems of Work**?
* Apart of the Local rules
* List of actions to be followed with x-rays
203
Who can't be allowed in radiography?
1. Pregnant women
2. Owners
3. Under 16
204
True or False.
The person taking the exposure should be present if the px is artifically restrained
True
205
What must qualifications must an RPA have?
* Diploma in Veterinary Radiology
* Certificate of competence from an awarding body
206
What are the **RPA**'s responsibilities?
1. Advise on radiation protection
2. Demarcation of controlled area
3. Draw up **Local Rules** + **Written Systems of Work**
207
What are the **RPS**'s responsibilities?
1. Ensure radiography is carried out in accordance with the regulations
2. Ensure local rules are being followed
208
Who can be a RPS?
* Member of Veterinary team
* Appointed by the practice
* Practice principle
* Senior partner
* Head nurse
* Senior nurse
209
What are the 3 objectives of the HASAWA of 1974?
* Cover duties of **employer** + **employee**
1. **Secure** (H&S)
2. **Protect** (other persons against risks)
3. **Control** (Keep all explosive, highly flammable, dangerous stubstances locked, prevent unlawful possession)
210
What must 5 things must **employees** do for staff under the **HASAWA of 1974**?
1. Consider **what** can **harm you** + **take steps to prevent**
2. **Explain risks** + **how to control** these + what **your responsibilites** are
3. **Protect you from harm** in the workplace
4. Provide **training**
5. Provide **PPE**
211
What legislation covers SOPs in radiography?
HASAWA of 1974
212
What must 5 things must **we** do, as staff, under the **HASAWA of 1974**?
1. Take **care of H&S of ourselves** + **others** by **what they do or not do**
2. **Cooperate** with **employer**
3. **Obey local rules**
4. Wear **PPE**
5. **Handle** + **store** transport articles + **substances** in safe manner
6. **Maintain equipment** according to **manafactures specifications** + legislations
213
What does COSHH 2002 stand for?
Control
Of
Substances
Hazardous
to
Health
Regulations of 2002
214
What does **COSHH 2002** cover in radiography?
* **Controls staff exposure** to hazardous substances
* **Steps** to **prevent** + **reduce exposure** are:
1. **Identify hazard**
2. **How to prevent** harm to health (**assessment**)
3. **Control measures**
4. Provide **info**, **instruction** + **training** for employees
5. **Plan emergencies**
215
What regulation covers the disposal of waste in Radiography in 1988?
Collection and Disposal of Waste Regulations of 1988
216
What does the Collection and Disposal of Waste Regulations of 1988 cover in Radiography?
1. **Relationship between collection** + **disposal authorities**
2. **Define difference** between **household**, **industrial** + **commerical** waste
3. Explains **when disposal licences are required** or not
217
When did the updated IRR'17 legislations come into force?
January of 2018
218
What 4 things does the IRR'17 regulations **update** + **clarify**?
Updates + Clarifies
1. Eye dose exposures from **150** mSv > **20** mSv in 1 year
2. **Dose records** no longer retained for 50 years, but **30 years**
3. **Radiation employer** is now "**an employer who carries out a practice that involves ionising radiation**"
4. An **estimated radiation dose for the public** must be completed
219
What are the 4 **exceptional circumstances when** a patient undergoing dx examination be **supported** or **manipulated by hand?**
1. Severly ill/injured
2. **Congestive HF**
3. Any traumatic injury
4. **Ruptured diaphragm**
220
What does the IRR'17 cover?
1. All use of radiation + radioactive materials
2. Identifies hazards, risks + reduction of exposure to employees + others
3. Leads to **production of Local Rules**
4. How to inform + comply with HSE
5. **Provides a graded approach** to **risks** = 1: **Notify**, 2: **Register** + 3: **Consent**
221
Explain what the **lowest** risk of work with IR, in the VP '**Notify**' is classed as
* **No cost** involved
* Does **not** have an **expiry date**
* **Notification is required** for each practice
222
Explain what the **medium** risk of work with IR, in the VP '**Register**' is classed as
* **Register** radiation **practice with HSE**
* Intial **cost**
* Must be **reviewed Q5 years**
223
Explain what the highest risk of work with IR, in the VP '**Consent**' is classed as
* **Consent requires licensing** or **approval**
* Req additional info
* **Renewal fee**
* If VP has **multiple branches** of different locations, a **consent application **is required for **each site**
224
225
What does this do?
Helps employees comply with their duties under IRR'17
226
What does this cover?
* A **shortened format** of the **IRR'17** regulations
* **All practices must have a copy**
* Covering:
1. **Equipment**
2. **Personnel**
3. **Procedures**
4. **Minimising radiation doses**
227
What legislation states you have to submit a **Notification**, **Registration** + **Consent**?
IRR'17
228
What legislation covers..
* All employers must take responsiblity to train employees
* Provide info + instruction
* Provide PPE + equipment for H&S
* Take steps to reduce radiation risks
* Identify hazards + risks in workplace
* Leads to production of Local rules
* Risk assessments carried out
Ionising Radiation Regulations of 2017
229
Where should this be?
In + **outwith** the controlled room
230
How far back must you stand from the primary beam?
2m
231
What lead lining should be used in walls?
1. Lead ply
or
1. Barium plaster
232
What happens when the x-ray machine is not in use + disconnect from the power supply?
The controlled room creases to be a controlled area + can be entered
233
What is this an example of?
Demarcated controlled room!
234
What legislation applies to all persons at work within the VP?
HASAWA of 1974
235
What regulation expands on the general duties within the HASAWA of 1974?
The Management of Health and Saftey At Work Regulations 1999
236
When was COSHH first brough into place?
1999, amended in 2002
237
What regulation covers accidents, injuries, diseases or dangerous occurrences at work?
RIDDOR 1980..
238
What is radiation?
**Energy** that **moves** from one place to another in a form of **waves** or **particles**
239
Name 3 types of radiation
1. Alpha
2. Beta
3. Gamma
240
What are the **3 key principles** of Radiation Saftey?
1. **Justification** (clear benefit outweighs risks)
2. **Dose limitation** (ALARA)
3. **Optimization of protection** (Equipment, training, PPE)
241
Name the **3** potential types of **biological damages** than can occur from IR?
1. Somatic
2. Carcinogenic
3. Genetic
242
What is **Stochastic** damage?
* **Occurs by chance**
* Relating to any dose rate
243
What is **Non-Stochastic** damage?
* Dose specific threshold
* **Potential to cause radiation burns**
244
Name 2 Carcinogenic effect of IR
1. Leukaemia
2. Skin cancer
245
What are Genetic effects of IR?
* When gonads (ovaries, testicles) are exposed to IR
* Leads to mutation of chromosomes, genes
* Lead to inherited abnormalities of offspring + foetus
246
Name the 3 types of standard x-ray machines
1. Portable
2. Mobile
3. Fixed
247
True or False.
Photons travel in waved lines but can be focused into the Primary Beam
False.
Photons travel in straight lines
248
True or False.
Photons are either absorbed or scattered
True
249
How are x-rays produced?
When electricity from the mains is transformed into a high voltage current, with some of that energy converting in x-rays (1%)
250
What are the properties of x-rays?
* Part of electromagnetic spectrum
* Energy directly proportional to frequency + proportional to wavelength
251
If an x-ray photon has a high frequency + a short wave, it has .... energy?
High
252
What is the **frequency** of an x-ray?
The **number of waves** that **pass** a **certain point** in a **specificed amount of time**
253
wWhat is the **wavelength** of an x-ray?
The **distance betwen** **any 2 corresponding points** on **adjacent** waves
254
Do x-rays require a medium for transmission?
No
255
What do x-rays pass through in the tube head?
Vaccum
256
What happens when x-rays travel at high speeds + collide with other atoms?
They lose their kinetic energy
257
In the basic form, how are x-ray photons created?
When **rapidly moving electrons** are **slowed down** or **stopped**!
258
What mm is the aluminium filter in the tube head?
0.5mm
259
What is the tube head seal made of?
Aliminium or leaded glass
260
What is the coiled wire made of tungsten + where electrons are produced?
Filament
261
What is the focusing cup made of + why ?
Molybdenum, has a high melting point, so is a poor heat conductor
262
If the filament contains the cathode and is - charged, what contains the anode and becomes + charged?
Target
263
What degree of angle is the target set at?
20%
264
What is the aluminium filter?
* Flat sheet of aluminium
* Absorbs soft x-rays
* Legal requirement
265
Why is there a vaccum in the tube head?
* Extracts gases/air
* Allow x-rays to travel in a straight line
* **If 02 was present, the x-rays would bounce off the particles + be misdirected**
266
Why do bone show up as whiter than soft tissues on an x-ray image?
Becaue they have a **higher atomic number** than soft tissues + thus **absorb more x-ray photons**
267
What colour is **Fat** on an x-ray image?
Dark grey
268
What colour is **Soft/tissue + Fluid** on an x-ray image?
Mid-grey
269
What colour is **Bone** on an x-ray image?
Nearly white
270
What colour is **Metal** on an x-ray image?
White
271
True or False.
**Thicker areas** of the body **absorb less** x-ray photons + appear **grey** in apperance on x-ray images.
False.
Thicker areas of the body absorb **more** x-ray photons + appear **white** in apperance on x-ray images.
272
What is mA?
* Milliamperage = current
* **Amount of x-rays**
* Measures quanitity of x-rays produced
* Controls heating of filament
273
What is kV?
* Kilovoltage = Energy
* **Speed of x-rays**
* Controls electrical current to cathode + temperature of tube filament
274
What is the FFD?
Distance between the focal spot + x-ray film/cassette
275
What is the most common FFD used in the VP?
75cm
276
What is a FFD often compared to?
Camera focal distance
277
Identify 4 postioning aids for radiography
1. Sandbags
2. Ties
3. Foam wedges
4. Troughs/Cradles
278
What is **radiopaque**?
+
List some radiopaque positoining aids
X-rays don't penetrate it
1. Sandbags
2. Cradles
279
What is **radiolucent**?
+
List some radiolucent positoining aids
X-rays penetrate it
1. Ties
2. Foam wedges
280
Name this expensive piece of diagnostic equipment!
Flexible endoscope
281
Name the 4 basic steps to cleaning an endoscope
1. Immerse (dilute enzymatic cleaner for 10-15 mins + flush channel)
2. Rinse (demineralized water)
3. Hang
4. Store
282
Where are grids placed?
Between px + table
283
Identify 7 types of Grids
1. Parallel
2. Potter-Bucky
3. Linear
4. Crossed
5. Focussed
6. Pseudo-focussed
284
Name 3 indentifying characteritics of Grids
1. Alternating strips - absorb IR
2. Radiolucent interspace - made of aluminium or carbon plastic fibres
3. Scatter absorbed by lead strips
285
What is a grid ratio?
Ratio of the :
Height of the lead strips : distance between them
| Used to calculate grid factor
286
What is the normal urine parameters for a cat + dog?
1 - 2 mls/kg/hr
or
24 - 48 mls/kg/day
287
Identify 4 methods of obtaining a urine sample
1. Free catch
2. Manual bladder expression
3. Urinary catheterisation
4. Cystocentesis
288
What 4 physical characteristics of urine can you use for dx?
1. Odour
2. Turbidity
3. Colour
4. SG
289
What is Straguria?
Painful passing of urine, often indicative or a bladder infection
290
How many hours can you refridgerate urine for sample?
< 6 hours
291
How long do you have to use a urine sample that hasn't been refridgerated?
1hr MAX
292
What container should you use for routine urine sampling?
Sterile, universal container
293
What container should you use for bacteriology for urine sampling?
* Sterile, Boric acid container
* (red top)
* At 0.1 - 0.2% solution for 48 - 96hrs
| Preserves current bac + inhibits other bac growth
294
What are the 2 different materials for urethral catheters?
1. Polypropylene
or
1. Rubber
295
What is Cystocentesis?
The passing of a sterile needle through the abdominl wall into the bladder for a sterile urine sample
296
What does Ketotic urine smell like + indicate?
1. Pear drops - sweet!
2. DM
297
What may foul smelling urine indicate?
Excess protein
298
What colour or urine indicates biliverdin?
(Oxidation of bilirubin)
* Green/yellow
* May have greenish-foam on surface
299
What are the potential causes for abnormal turbidity of urine?
1. RBCs
2. Crystals or casts
3. Epithelial cells
4. Bacteria
5. Yeast
6. Fungi
7. Pus (WBCs)
8. Phosphate precipitation
9. Prostate or vaginal secretions
300
What can a build up ketones in the body cause?
1. Coma
1. Death
301
True or False.
Bile salts should be present in trace amounts in dogs + cats.
False, they should not be present whatsoever
302
What is the normal **pH** range for a **dog**?
5 - 7 pH
303
What is the normal **pH** range for a **cat**?
7 - 9 pH
304
Upon microscopic examination of centrifuged sediment, what 7 things may be found in urine?
1. Cells
2. Casts
3. Crystals
4. Bacteria
5. Yeastgs
6. Parasites
7. Spermatozoa
305
What are urine casts?
Mucoprotein (matrix of proteins) excreted by the kidney tubules
306
How many grams of faecal matter should you ideally collect for collection?
* 5g
or
* Enough to fill the whole tube, as oxidation by bacteria will ruin the sample
307
How long do you have to examin faecal matter?
2 hrs
308
What 2 ways can you store a faecal sample?
1. In the fridge w/little air as possible
2. Add double volume of 10% Formal Saline
309
What 2 conditions could fatty or mucoid faecal matter indicate?
1. Colitis
2. Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI)
310
What do you use the diagnostic technique of a Direct smear in faecal matter to look for?
1. Worm eggs
2. Protozoan oocysts
3. Partially digested food
311
Name 2 methods of concentrating parasitic material in faeces
1. Flotation
2. Sediment
312
What is the modified Mcmaster technique used for?
Determinng the no. of parasitic eggs per gram of faeces
313
What is Occult blood dx techniques used for?
Uses a chemical reaction to determine if there is any hidden blood present in faecal matter
314
Name 4 other faecal examination tests used for dx
1. **Faecal trypsin** (Protease) (determines level of acitvity of trypsin)
2. **Undigested fat** (Sudan IV stain)
3. **Bacterial culture** (Sterile rectum collection)
4. **Baermann technique** (Recover nematode larvae by adding warm water to stimulate movement)
315
