Exam Questions to review Flashcards
Blisters below basal lamina is not caused by:
A. JEB
B. DEB
C. EB acquisita
D. PCT
E. DH
A. JEB
Intra-epidermal blister at the basal layer is not seen in:
A. Erythema multiforme
B. LE
C. LP
D. Epidermlysis bulosa
E. Pemphigus vulgaris
E. Pemphigus vulgaris
Hypotrichos is not a feature of:
A. Harlequin ichthyosis
B. KID syndrome
C. Netherton syndrome
D. Arthrogryposis-renal-dysfunction-cholestasis syndrome
E. TTD
A. Harlequin ichthyosis
Eosinophilic spongiosis is not a cause in Which of the following:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. EBA
C. Linear IgA bullous dermatosis
D. Grover’s disease
E. Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
B. EBA
Intra-epidermal blister at the granular layer is not seen in:
A. Friction blister
B. Pemphigus folaicious
C. Subcorneal pustular dermatosis
D. Herpes Virus infection
E. SSSS
D. Herpes Virus infection
Apoptotic keratinocytes is not presenting:
A. Acute cutaneous LE
B. Subacute cutaneous LE
C. Discoid lesion of LE
D. Tumid LE
E. Lupus panniculitis
D. Tumid LE
One of the following induced the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells:
A. C2a
B. C3b
C. C4a
D. C5b
E. C2b
A. C4a
Tetracyclines have anti-inflammatory effects which include:
A. Increasing matrix metalloproteinase activity
B. Inhibit leukocyte chemotaxis
C. Increase production of TNFa
D. Increase production of IL1B
E. Decrease production of IL1B
E. Decrease production of IL1B
Profilagrin is evident in
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum granulosum
C. Stratum lucidum
D. Stratum basale
B. Stratum granulosum
One of the following is not a feature of epidrmophyton conidia:
A. They are smooth walled
B. Microconidia are numerous and diagnostic
C. It is club-shaped
D. May be solitary or clustred
E. The cell wall thickness is intermediate
B. Microconidia are numerous and diagnostic
Cobalt toxicity may leads to:
A. Coagulopathy
B. Diffuse nodular fibrosis
C. Burns
D. Lichenoid drug eruption
B. Diffuse nodular fibrosis
At how many weeks does the fetal basement membrane begin to develop?
7 weeks
Features of congenital generalized lipodystrophy?
Hyperhidrosis
Hypertrichosis - increased, often curly, scalp hair at birth
Acanthosis nigricans, often early onset and widespread
Coarse skin on the upper body
Hyperkeratotic epidermal papillomatosis (may represent an exaggerated form of AN)
Xanthomas
The most common associated malignancy in Dermatitis Herpetiforms is?
A. GI lymphoma
B. Gastric adenocarcinoma.
C. Colon adenocarcinoma.
D. Breast adenocarcinoma.
E. Castelman’s.
A. GI lymphoma
Which of the following are markers on dendritic cells?
A. CD20
B. CD11a
C. CD 86
D. CD 8
E. CD 1A
C. CD 86
Ecthyma gangrenosum, what is the pathophysiology of the formation of skin lesion?
A. Infection of the epidermis and superficial dermis
B. Embolic event
C. Perivascular invasion by organism with release of endotoxin
D. Invasion of bacteria to the vessel lumen
C. Perivascular invasion by organism with release of endotoxin
Ecthyma GANGrenosum = invasive infection by P. aeruginosa
Antifungal contraindicated in hx of porphyria?
Griseofulvin
tetracycline with highest risk of photosensitivity?
Demeclocycline
Terry’s nails seen in?
DM, congestive heart failure and liver cirrhosis
ATM gene function is?
DNA repair
UVA blocker?
Avobenzones & Meradimate*
Stain for endometrial origin of metastasis?
CK 7+, CK20-, ER/PR)+, CEA+
What is the best initial treatment of bleomycin-induced flagellate erythema in a patient without evidence of lung toxicity?
A. Permanent discontinuation of bleomycin
B. Antihistamines and topical steroids
C. Oral corticosteroids
D. Topical ketoconazole
E. Avoid sun exposure
B. Antihistamines and topical steroids
BIFE is typically self-limited and resolves upon cessation of bleomycin. Oral antihistamines and topical steroids are found improve the itching associated with BIFE.
For lungs, initiate Systemic glucocorticoids
A huge hyper pigmented and hyperkeratotic plaque on the abdomen of a diabetic is?
A. Acquired ichthyosis
B. Retention hyperkeratosis
C. Confluent and reticulated papillomatosis (CARP)
D. Drug-induced acanthosis nigricans (AN)
E. Erythrasma
D. Drug-induced acanthosis nigricans
Pathogenesis is induction by insulin and Insulin like Growth Factor.
Drugs that can cause drug-induced AN: injected insulin or Nicotinic cid (20%)
Rash on the chest + mucin on bx think of?
Reticular erythematous mucinosis (REM)
Remember* possible association with internal malignancy and thyroid disease. Hashimoto disease and hyperthyroidism, and malignancies of the lung, breast, and colon.
Stain for mucin?
A. Masson trichrome
B. Prussian blue
C. Gomori trichrome
D. Alcian blue
E. Grocott methenamine silver stain
D. Alcian blue
Tx for Cutaneous sarcoidosis, verrucous subtype?
A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Intralesional corticosteroids
C. Systemic glucocorticoid therapy
D. Methotrexate
E. Antimalarials
C. Systemic glucocorticoid therapy
Best drug for neuroparacoccidioidomycosis?
TMP-SMX
Which of the following is true regarding elephantiasic pretibial myxedema?
A. The disease is most often found in association with hypothyroidism
B. While there are different presentations of pretibial myxedema, the most uncommon is the elephantiasic variant
C. The disease is often responsive to topical corticosteroids and supportive treatment
D. Elephantiasic pretibial myxedema resolves after control of underlying thyroid disease
E. The main cause of elephantiasic pretibial myxedema is chronic lymphedema
B. answer
There are four distinct variants of pretibial myxedema: non-pitting, plaque- like, nodular, and elephantiasic. The elephantiasic variant is the most uncommon and it occurs in less than 1% of patients with pretibial myxedema.
Primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoma vs. Marginal zone lymphoma?
Patients with PCMZL tend to be younger, with no systemic systems, express IgG, IgA, or IgE, and have a predominant of Th1 cytokine inflammatory background. Marginal zone lymphoma patients tend to be older, have systemic symptoms and show expression of IgM.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sebaceous carcinomas
B. Trichilemmomas
C. Cylindromas
D. Amelanotic melanomas
E. Neurofibromas
C. Cylindromas
Cylindromas, solitary or multiple, usually arise on the scalp as firm, rubbery, pink-to-red or bluish papulonodular lesions. When they are numerous, covering the entire scalp, they cause hair loss (‘‘turban tumor’’). Histologically they consist of dermal nodules without connection to the overlying normal-appearing epidermis. Subcutaneous extension may occur. They show lobular growth with a typical jigsaw puzzle pattern. A thick periodic acid-Schiff-positive basal membrane covers each lobule characterized by peripheral palisading of small hyperchromatic cells and larger central cells with vesicular nuclei. Cellular pleomorphism and mitoses are usually absent
Question 2: Which syndrome would you suspect with “turban tumors” cylindromas?
A. Muir-Torre syndrome
B. Cowden syndrome
C. Brooke-Spiegler syndrome
D. Tuberous sclerosis
E. Type I neurofibromatosis
C. Brooke-Spiegler syndrome
Brooke-Spiegler syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant syndrome mutation in CYLD with numerous adnexal tumors, mainly localized on the scalp and face, histologically cor- responding to spiradenomas, cylindromas, and trichoepitheliomas. Malignant transformation of lesions occurs in 5% to 10% of patients, heralded by rapid tumor growth, bleeding, or ulceration. The occurrence of malignant transformation of trichoepithelioma into basal cell carcinoma is very rare or even questioned by some authors, arguing it actually represents unrecognized cases of basal cell carcinoma or collisions of two independent neoplasms, namely basal cell carcinoma and trichoepithelioma. Additionally, patients have an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the salivary glands. Regular clinical follow-up is fundamental, as the risks of malignant transformation and disease severity are not assessable ex ante on the basis of only genotypic and phenotypic characteristics. Acral melanoma was a casual association in our case.
Tx for Nevoid hyperkeratosis of the nipple and areola (NHNA) and dermatitis neglecta?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Keratolytic agents
C. Surgical and ablative procedures
D. Retinoids
E. Vitamin D analogs
B. Keratolytic agents
Keratolytic agents such as urea, salicylic acid, or lactic acid have been used as first-line treatments because of their safety and efficacy in the treatment of NHNA, improving hyperkeratosis by producing lysis of the stratum corneum. Recurrence of the lesions has been reported after cessation.
Pathophysiology of nodular solar elastosis?
There is glycosylation of elastin by chronic ultraviolet radiation. Histology will show Masses of elastotic material filling the reticular dermis, separated from the atrophic epidermis by a thin grenz zone
What are the special stains used to confirm the diagnosis of Benign Cephalic Histiocytosis?
A. Giemsa stain
B. Toluidine blue stain
C. CD117 marker
D. CD68 marker
E. S100 marker
D. CD68 marker
CD68 marker is a marker for macrophages. CD68 is a protein highly expressed by cells in the monocyte lineage, including monocytic phagocytes, osteoclasts, and circulating macrophages, and by tissue macrophages, Kupffer cells, and microglia. It may play a role in macrophage phagocytic activities.
Histology* –> Diffuse infiltrate of histiocytes, mainly in the upper dermis. The cells have oval or reniform vesicular nuclei and ill-defined pale cytoplasm.
Which of the following is a reported treatment option for Multicentric ReticuloHistiocytosis?
A. Gold salts (sodium aurothiomalate)
B. Chlorambucil
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Methotrexate
E. Minocycline
D. Methotrexate
Methotrexate is the most effective treatment. It controls both arthritis and skin lesions. It is the first choice of treatment.
Most common malignancies associated with multicentric reticulohistiocytosis?
Most commonly breast cancer, ovarian adenocarcinoma, ovarian neuroectodermal tumor, cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma, papillary serous endometrial cancer, nasopharyngeal cancer, and hepatocellular carcinoma.
Which of the following immunostains would be most specific for the diagnosis of myeloid leukemia cutis?
A. BCL2
B. CD34
C. CD117
D. Myeloperoxidase
E. Ki-67
D. Myeloperoxidase
Myeloperoxidase is a lysosomal enzyme specific to cells with a monocytic lineage, including the myeloblasts that are constituent cells in myeloid sarcoma.
Ki-67, also known as Mib-1, is a nuclear marker expressed in all active stages of the cell cycle.
Which of the following is not a cutaneous manifestation of essential thrombocythemia?
A. Livedo reticularis
B. Erythromelalgia
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Raynaud phenomenon
E. Lower extremity ulcers
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
Polyarteritis nodosa is a medium-vessel vasculitis often affecting numerous organs, while classically sparing the lungs. It is commonly associated with hepatitis B infection, and may also be triggered by blood dyscrasias such as hairy cell leukemia. However, Essential thrombocythemia is not a known trigger of polyarteritis nodosa.
Moniliform blepharosis is a cutaneous feature seen in:
a. Necrobiotic xanthogranuloma
b. Lipoid proteinosis
c. Syringomas
d. Cicatricial pempegoid
e. Rosacea
b. Lipoid proteinosis
“string of beads on eyelid”
A major feature in the diagnostic criteria of tuberous sclerosis is:
a. Dental enamel pits
b. Lymphangiomyomatosis
c. Gingival fibromas
d. Confetti skin lesions
e. Retinal achromic patch
Answer: b. Lymphangiomyomatosis
a. Dental enamel pits MINOR
b. Lymphangiomyomatosis
c. Gingival fibromas MINOR
d. Confetti skin lesions MINOR
e. Retinal achromic patch MINOR
Erdheim – Chester disease is a variant of:
a. Generalized eruptive histiocytosis
b. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
c. Progressive nodular histiocytosis
d. Xanthoma disseminatum
d. Xanthoma disseminatum
The type of erythema that can be seen in Sjogren’s syndrome is:
a. Erythema multiforme
b. Erythema gyratum repens
c. Erythema marginatum
d. Erythema annulare centrifugum
a. Erythema multiforme
An example of idiopathic cutaneous necrotizing venulitis is:
a. Cryoglobulinemia
b. Churg-Strauss syndrome
c. Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
HHV7 infects?
A. Endothelial cell
B. Keratinocyte
C. T – cell
D. B – cell
C. T – cell
HHV-7 infects CD4+ T cells, epithelial cells in the salivary glands, and cells in the lungs and skin. HHV-7 is frequently shed in saliva at high levels throughout life in most adults and children. The virus has been detected in breast milk and establishes latency in CD4+ cells.
“deck chair sign” is seen in?
“Papuloerythroderma of Ofuji”, Elderly Japanese men. NOT Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis (Ofuji’s disease) which is seen in 30 yo Japanese men
Sneddon’s syndrome is?
Persistent livedo reticularis associated with systemic arterial thrombi; labile hypertension, recurrent neurologic symptoms. = Vascular coagulopathy
One of the following is polyenes antifungal drugs:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Terbinafine
D. Amphotericine B
D. Amphotericine B
PTCH mutation is not characteristic for one of the following?
A. Gorlin syndrome
B. Trichoepithelioma
C. Bladder carcinoma
D. SSS of the esophagi
E. Lymphoma
E. Lymphoma
PTCH1 mutations have been found in sporadic trichoepitheliomas, bladder carcinoma, and SCC of the esophagus.
Profilagrin:
A. Is a large calcium binding Glycoproteins
B. ITS gene has been mapped 1q21
C. Consists of 15 – 20 repeating copies of filagrin
D. Its terminal domain contains calcium binding region used to assembly the molecule
E. Undergoes hydrolysis to release hydrogen
B. ITS gene has been mapped 1q21
One of the following is not correct about properities of transit amplifying cells:
A. Self-renewal, limited
B. Potential for differentiation limited
C. Cycling in normal epidermis slow
D. Proliferative Potential limited
C. Cycling in normal epidermis slow
Acquired ichyosis is associated with Which of the following:
A. Barbiturates
B. Nafcilln
C. Sulfonamides
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Nalidixic acid
D. Nicotinic acid
Certain medications have been reported to cause ichthyosis. These include cholesterol lowering agents (e.g. triparanol, nicotinic acid), targeted cancer therapy (e.g. BRAF inhibitors, EGFR inhibitors), allopurinol and many more.
What is the basis of cutaneous ulcerations associated with interferon-beta therapy?
A. Direct collagen necrosis
B. Thrombosis
C. Immune complexe deposition
D. Non sterile injection technique
B. Thrombosis
Approximately 5% of patients treated with IFN-β-1b for multiple sclerosis
develop skin necrosis at the site of injection secondary to a localized
vasculopathy
Which of the following manifests as reticulated hyperpigmentation in axillae and groin?
A. Dowling-Degos disease
B. Fox - Fordyce disease
C. Vogt – Koyanagi syndrome
D. Dyskeratosis congenital
A. Dowling-Degos disease
Onset is typically during the third to fourth decade of life. The reticulated hyperpigmentation is admixed with and sometimes composed of lentigo-like brown macules; small brown papules with variable hyperkeratosis may also develop. These findings progressively increase overtime, initially appearing in the axillae (Fig. 67.26) and groin followed by the intergluteal and inframammary folds, neck, trunk, and inner aspects of the arms and thighs.
A patient with multiple cylindroma is most likely to have:
A. Trichoepithelioma
B. Eccrine spiradenoma
C. Eccrine poroma
D. Apocrine hidrocystoma
A. Trichoepithelioma
the arterial supply for a paramedian forehead flap is the?
A. Supraorbital artery
B. supratrochlear artery
C. angular artery
D. infratrochlear artery
E. infraorbital artery
B. supratrochlear artery
The paramedian forehead flap recruits the forehead skin for nasal reconstruction, it is based on the blood supply of the supratrochlear artery
In a woman suffering from recurrent angioedema, Which test can most effectively distinguish the hereditary from the acquired type?
A. C1 esterase inhibitor
B. C1q
C. C 2
D. C 3
E. C 4
B. C1q
Note: Screening for angioedema is C4*
Hereditary vs. acquired? C1q
Angioedema? C4
For the color (green), select the associated tattoo substance ?
A. Cadmium sulphide
B. Cobaltous aluminate
C. Carbon
D. Iron oxides
E. Chromium sesquioxide
E. Chromium sesquioxide
Cytophagic histiocytic panniculitis is most commonly a manifestation of Which of the following? A. Subcutaneous T-cell lymphoma B. Multiple myeloma C. Myeloid leukemia D. T-cell rich cutaneous B-cell lymphoma
A. Subcutaneous T-cell lymphoma
WHICH pattern of ANA immunofluorescence are patients with mat-like telangiectasia, eosophgeal dysmobility, sclerodactyly and Raynaud’s phenomenon likely to exihibit?
A. Homogeneous
B. Nucleolar
C. Particulate
D. Peripheral
E. Speckled
E. Speckled
Speckled: suggests anti-U1-RNP ( MCTD, Sjogren syn.)
One of the following is not a symptome of Ramsay- Hunt syndrome associated with Herpes Zoster:
A. Tinnitus
B. Facial palsy
C. Increased salivation
D. Vertigo
E. Loss of taste
C. Increased salivation
Merkel cell carcinoma:
A. Has a low mortality rate
B. Is often suspected clinically
C. May resolve spontaneously
D. Stains – for NSE
E. IS NOT associated with solar UV radiation
D. Stains – for NSE
NSE = Neuron specific enolase
Susceptibility of patients with atopic dermatitis to colonization and infections with staphylococcus aureus is best explained by which of the following:
A. High expression of Th-1 cytokines in involved skin
B. Low expression of Th-2 cytokines in involved skin
C. High expression of beta-defensins in involved skin
D. Low expression of canthelicidin in involved skin
D. Low expression of canthelicidin in involved skin
Multiple inverted follicular keratosis may be a presenting sign of One of the following:
A. Cowden syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Tubereus Sclerosis
D. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
E. Epidermal nevus syndrome
A. Cowden syndrome
In cutaneous tuberculosis, PPD test is negative in?
A) Acute military TB
B) Lupus vulgaris
C) Scfoluderma
A) Acute military TB
Mutation in SCC?
A- TP53
B- BRAF
A- TP53
Wrong regarding electrocautery?
A) Spider angioma: electrocoagulation, monopolar, biterminal
B) Bleeding vessel: electrocoagulation, bipolar, biterminal
C) Syringoma: electrofulgeration, monopolar, monoterminal
C) Syringoma: electrofulgeration, monopolar, monoterminal
Special stains for mucin?
Alcian blue, colloidal iron or toluidine blue
Drug that can cause Grover’s disease, AKA transient acantholytic dermatosis?
Cetuximab, an EGFR inhibitor
All of the following is associated with Grenz zone except:
A) granuloma faciale
B) lepromatous leprosy
C) pseudolymphoma
D) mycosis fungoides
E) multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
D) mycosis fungoides
MF is all over the place, no Grenz zone
Lotion is preferred to the cream in treatment of the followings:
a. scalp lesions
b. palm and sole lesions
c. nail plate lesions
d. flexural lesions
c. nail plate lesions
Onycholysis occur in the following except:
a. psoriasis
b. lichen planus
c. fungal infection
d. local trauma
e. thyrotoxicosis
b. lichen planus
Lichen planus grows it doesn’t ‘onycholysis’
Which of the following is most likely to be found on physical examination of a patient with Gronblad-Srandberg syndrome:
A. Splenomegaly
B. Angioid streaks
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Palpable purpura
B. Angioid streaks
Gronblad-Srandberg syndrome = PXE
In which of the following apoptotic cells develop?
A. Graft-versus-host Disease
B. Hailey-Hailey
C. Bowen
D. Viral disease
A. Graft-versus-host Disease
The virus causing hand, foot and mouth dis belongs to what family of viruses?
A. Poxviridae
B. Picornaviridae
C. Herpesviridae
D. Paramyxoviridae
B. Picornaviridae
non-enveloped, linear +ve sense ssRNA virus
One of the following inherited disorder with abnormal DNA repair has mismatch DNA repair:
A. XP
B. Cockayne syndrome
C. Trichothiodystrophy
D. Muir-Torre syndrome
D. Muir-Torre syndrome
CREST syndrome is a manifestation of complement disorder associated with deficiency of:
A. C1q
B. C2
C. C7
D. C5
E. C3
C. C7
Which is typical of solitary mastocytomas?
A. Macular hypopigmentation
B. Bullous plaque or nodule
C. Occurrence on palms or soles
D. Presence at birth
B. Bullous plaque or nodule
The waxy skin syndrome
A. is limited to insulin-dependent diabetics.
B. is related to diabetic control.
C. ispainful.
D. causes limitation of interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joint extension
D. causes limitation of interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joint extension
Foot drop is most likely to be an adverse reaction to
A. gold.
B. dapsone.
C. plaquenil.
D. prednisone.
B. dapsone.
Which of the following is true about unilateral laterothoracic exanthem?
A. It is caused by an echovirus infection.
B. Topical corticosteroids lead to a quicker resolution.
C. Adolescents are most often affected.
D. The course is self-limiting over 4 to 6 weeks.
D. The course is self-limiting over 4 to 6 weeks.
A fisherman develops a tender violaceous plaque on his hand. He most likely is infected with which of the following organisms?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Pseudomonas mallei
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
The action spectrum for most photoallergens lies within which wavelength?
A. UVC
B. UVB
C. UVA
D. Visible
C. UVA
A Grenz zone is a histologic marker of granuloma
A. actinicum.
B. annulare.
C. faciale.
D. inguinale.
C. faciale.
Menkes kinky hair syndrome (MNK) has recently been cloned and it encodes for
A. zinc binding protein.
B. tyrosine transporting protein.
C. copper transporting protein.
D. retinol binding protein.
C. copper transporting protein.
“Monkey holding a bag of copper coins”
Sweet’s syndrome is most likely to be associated with which type of leukemia?
A. Acute myelocytic
B. Myelomonocytic
C. Acute lymphocytic
D. Chronic lymphocytic
A. Acute myelocytic
Tacrolimus (FK 506)
A. up regulates IL-8.
B. interferes with IL-2 production by T cells.
C. causes pustular flares when administered to psoriatics.
D. unlike cyclosporin, is free of renal toxicity.
B. interferes with IL-2 production by T cells.
Xanthoma disseminatum is frequently associated with which of the following?
A. Hypertriglyceridemia
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Hypoaminoacidemia
C. Diabetes insipidus
Gardner and Muir-Torre syndrome associated malignancy?
Colonic carcinoma
Tattoo pigments and their names?
Blue: Cobalt aluminate
Green: Chromic oxide, Copper phthalocyanine
Red: Mercury sulfide
Yellow: Cadmium sulfide
Ki-1 lymphoma and lymphomatous papulosis express what markers?
CD30+
Tumors associated with which of the following?
Cowden’s
Garner’s
Basal cell nevus syndrome
Muir-Torre syndrome
TS
What drugs can cause peripheral neuropathy?
Dapsone (foot drop) and thalidomide
EVER1/EVER2 mutations correlate with?
Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Elderly, not responding to antifungals?
Onychomatricoma is a rare benign fibroepithelial tumor that is distinguished by clinical features including, splinter hemorrhages in the proximal nail plate, thickened yellow nail plate, and a longitudinal overcurvature. Pathognomonic fx is ‘Honeycomb-like (woodworm-like) cavities’
Which of the following statements is true regarding this diagnosis?
A. The incidence of onychomatricoma is greater in men than in women
B. Surgical excision is not recommended
C. TOC is surgical excision
D. The lesion is typically painful
E. Onychomatricoma is a tumor of the nail bed
F. Onychomatricoma is exclusively seen in adults
C. TOC is surgical excision
Complete excision, as well as surgical removal of the normal nail matrix proximal to the tumor, is recommended to prevent recurrence.
Which of the following features is characteristic of lichen planus pigmentosus inversus?
A. Pruritus
B. Erythema
C. Bilateral presentation
D. Spontaneous resolution
E. Acute onset
C. Bilateral presentation
Most presen- tations of LPP are bilateral; however, there are some reports of a unilateral presentation. Unilateral LPP in the axilla is extraordinarily rare. Tx: Clobetaosl
Stain to diagnose Annular elastolytic giant cell granuloma?
A. Bodian stain
B. Verhoeff-van Gieson stain
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. Grocott methenamine silver stain
E. Alcian blue stain
B. Verhoeff-van Gieson e Correct. AEGCG was confirmed via follow-on Van Gieson staining in the United States, which showed elastophagocytosis at the periphery of the granuloma and a paucity of elastic fibers in the center. Bodian used for nerve fibers, Ziehl-Neelson for acid-fact organisms, Alcian for mucin which is not found in AEGCG
Annular elastolytic giant cell granuloma (AEGCG). The hallmarks of AEGCG are annular erythematous plaques with central clearing in the setting of distinct histologic findings of multinucleated giant cells with elastolysis and elastophagocytosis. Although elastin staining is required for definitive diagnosis, other features on the H&E slide, including rare intracytoplasmic elastin fibrils, aid in the diagnosis. Other features include the absence of necrobiosis and mucin deposition.
What histologic description corre- lates with the diagnosis?
A. Proliferation of spindled and epithelioid endo- thelial cells that form slitlike vascular spaces in a lobular configuration, with deep extension to soft tissue and bone
B. Lobular capillary proliferation in a pale stroma with a neutrophilic or lymphocytic infiltrate and commonly with an epidermal collarette
C. Spindle cell neoplasm characterized by slitlike irregular vascular spaces, formation of new vessels surrounding preexisting vessels, a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate, and HHV8+ staining
D. Dense lobular proliferation of capillaries lined by plump endothelial cells in a stroma composed of spindle fibroblasts, mixed inflammatory infiltrate, and bacterial colonization
C. Spindle cell neoplasm characterized by slitlike irregular vascular spaces, formation of new vessels surrounding preexisting vessels, a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate, and HHV8+ staining
Tx of local ear kapok’s sarcoma?
Cryotherapy
Liquid nitrogen cryotherapy is easily applied and may be successful as a primary therapy for localized KS or as a supplemental therapy for lesions that respond slowly or incompletely to other treatments.
Glomus tumors stain positive with?
smooth muscle actin and vimentin
What is the most common location of glomus tumors?
A. Scalp
B. Face
C. Acral extremities
D. Mucosal
E. Trunk
C. Acral extremities
Acral extremities are the most common location of both solitary and multiple glomus tumors. Approx 90% of patients with multiple glomus tumors had tumors in their extremities.
Which of the following is an uncommon cause of Sweet’s Syndromes?
A. Hematologic malignancies
B. Solid-organ malignancies
C. G-CSF
D. Azathioprine
E. Hydroxychloroquine
E. Hydroxychloroquine
HCQ is part of sweet’s syndrome treatment. AML is commonly assoc with sweet’s. Also, GI/GU tumors. G-CSF and AZA has been implicated as a cause of drug-induced sweet’s.
Diagnosis of macular areas of hypopigmentation, typically on the chest or back, which exhibit perifollicular red-orange fluorescence under Wood’s lamp, is?
Progressive macular hypomelanosis
PMH is associated with Cutibacterium acnes (formerly Propionibacte-
rium acnes). Benzoyl-peroxide and clindamycin are treatments.
The histopathology of a dermal tumor consisting of anastomosing basophilic cells with ductal differentiation in a cribriform pattern without evidence of primary visceral adenocarcinoma is most consistent with?
Primary cutaneous cribriform carcinoma (PCCC). The histopathology of a dermal Answers:
tumor consisting of anastomosing basophilic cells with ductal differentiation in a cribriform pattern without evidence of primary visceral adenocarci- noma is most consistent with PCCC. PCCC is a rare, indolent form of cutaneous adenocarcinoma most commonly located on the upper extremities. It is characterized by small sieve-like spaces of variable size and shape and is surrounded by desmoplastic stroma; it is usually confined to the dermis.
What stain is the most useful in distinguishing Primary cutaneous cribriform carcinoma from metastatic breast cancer?
A. CK7
B. GCDP-15
C. CK20
D. GATA-3
E. CEA
D. GATA-3
GATA3 has a high negative predictive value in distinguishing primary cribriform carcinoma from metastatic breast cancer and is found to be superior in detecting both primary and metastatic breast carcinoma when compared with GCDP-15 and mammaglobin.
Exposure to which of the following is the most likely cause of ‘Coral dermatitis’?
A. Idiopathic, the cause is unknown
B. M alcicornis
C. A braziliense
D. Rutaceae plant family
B. M alcicornis
Branching fire corals, scientifically known as M alcicornis, are endemic to the Bahamas causing a subtype of contact dermatitis.
Which gene plays a role in most cases of urticaria pigmentosa?
A. BRAF
B. KIT
C. GNAQ
D. PTPN11
E. PRKAR1A
B. KIT
Breast cancer patient develops erythematous patch with telangiectasias, pruritic papules and nodules, or pseudovesicular lesions likely developed?
Carcinoma telangiectodes is a form of cutaneous metastasis that results from local intravascular or intralymphatic invasion, seen almost exclusively in breast cancer. Histopathology will show tumoral emboli within dilated dermal vessels.
Which antibiotics should be avoided by a patient allergic to PABA?
A. Penicillins
B. Quinolones
C. Sulfonamides
D. Tetracyclines
C. Sulfonamides
Which of the following fungi causes the endothrix type of tinea capitis?
A. Trichophyton verrucosurn
B. Trichophyton tonsurans
C. Microsporurncanis
B. Trichophyton tonsurans
A decreased level of which of the following distinguishes hereditary from acquired angioedema?
A. C1
B. C2
c. C4
D. CH50
E. Cl esterase inhibitor
A. C1
- Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae infection is an occupational hazard of:
A. barbers.
B. respiratory therapy technicians.
C. florists.
D. fish handlers.
D. fish handlers.
The function of Merkel cells relates most closely to:
A. delayedhypersensitivity.
B. barrier to transepidermal fluid loss.
C. regulation of cutaneous temperature.
D. phagocytosis of bacteria.
E. touch perception.
E. touch perception.
The serum paraprotein in a patient with scleromyxedema is most likely to be:
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
D. IgG
Which spectra are the wavelengths of choice for photodynamic therapy of solid tumors?
A. Superficial and Grenz x-ray
B. UVC and UVB
C. UVBandUVA
D. UVA and visible
E. Visible and infrared
E. Visible and infrared
Which appendageal tumor exhibits trichilemmal keratinization?
A. Pilomatrixoma
B. Trichilemmoma
C. Trichoepithelioma
D. Steatocytoma multiplex
D. Steatocytoma multiplex
Which organism is believed to be an etiologic agent of cat-scratch disease?
A. Brucella abortus
B. Rochalimaea henselae
C. Rochalimaea quintana
D. Rochalimaea vinsonii
B. Rochalimaea henselae
Bacillary angiomatosis is caused by:
A. Treponema pallidurn.
B. Rochalimaea species.
C. Borrelia species.
D. Bartonella bacilliformis.
B. Rochalimaea species.
Fungus causing kerion?
Microsporum canis
Fungus causing Bullous tines pedis and Verrucous tines barbae?
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Drug that can cause acne eruption, pseudolymphoma?
Phenytoin = “Dilantin”
Multiple spontaneous keloids?
Noonan’s syndrome
What drug can cause acanthosis nigricans and what causes erythema nodosum?
Nicotinic acid –> Acanthosis nigricans
OCPs –> Erythema nodosum
