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Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Describe common phases of bacterial growth:

A
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2
Q

Enterobacteriaceae can be example of:

a) obligate anaerobes
b) facultative anaerobes
c) obligate aerobes

A

B

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3
Q

Penicillin binding proteins are responsible for:

a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) production of penicillin in Peniclillium notatum
c) inhibition of beta lactic antibiotics action

A

A

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4
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be an example of:

a) obligate anaerobes
b) facultative anaerobes
c) obligate aerobes

A

C

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5
Q

Insertion sequences are responsible for:

a) . Reorganization of genetic elements
b) replication of DNA
c) division of bacterial cell

A

A

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6
Q

Enveloped viruses are:

a) more stable than non-enveloped
b) less stable than non-enveloped

A

B

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7
Q

Acid Fast stain bacteria:

a) have different cell wall and can’t be stained by Gram stain method
b) are part of G- bacteria
c) are part of G+ bacteria
d) cannot stain by Ziehl - Nielsen method

A

A

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8
Q

Write 3 mechanisms of horizontal transfer of genes among bacteria

A

Transduction: exchange of genetic material via Bacteriopahges with subsequent integration into genome

Transformation: free DNA from surrounding of prokaryotic cell is taken up and built into genome

Conjugation: genetic material in the form of plasmids is directly exchanged between 2 prokaryotes . Contact and exchange is mediated by Pili

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9
Q

3 Examples of extracellular living bacteria

A

Bacillus Athracis, E. Coli, Vibrio cholera, Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus

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10
Q

2 Examples of obligate intracellular pathogens

A

Rickettsia spp. , Coxiella spp. ,

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11
Q

Porkaryotic cells are characterized by:

a) Peptidogylkan in the cell wall
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Respiration via mitochondria
d) Sterols in cytoplasmic membrane

A

A

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12
Q

Prokaryotic cells are characterized by:
a) Strands of DNA diploid genome
b) Single circular DNA haploid genome
C) present of Golgi bodies
D) Presence of ER

A

B

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13
Q

Description of cell wall

A
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14
Q

2 Examples of spore forming bacteria

A

Clostridium spp. / Bacillus spp. (i.e. Anthracis)

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15
Q

Gram stain is based on:

a) thickness of peptidoglycan in cell wall
b) acidity of cytoplasm
c) presence of Lipopolysaccharides

A

A

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16
Q

Insertion sequences are responsible for:

a) reorganization of genetic elements
b) replicaton of DNA
c) division of bacterial cell

A

A

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17
Q

Describe nucleocapsid structure

A

Nucleic acid
Structural proteins
Enzymes and other proteins

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18
Q

What organisms cause community acquired pneumonia ? Min. 2 examples

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamdia pneumonia, Moraxella catarrhalis S. pneumoniae….

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19
Q

What diseases can Staphylococcus aureus cause ? (Write 3 examples)

A

Food Poisoning , Toxic shock syndrome, Wound infections, pneumonia

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20
Q

Write 2 examples of disease caused by Enterococcus spp.

A

Urinary tract infections, Wound infections, Bacteremia, Endocarditis

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21
Q

What disease can be caused by Bacillus anthracis ?

A

Anthrax

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22
Q

What is the recommended treatment of infections caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?

A

Local therapy with silver nitrate / Doxycycline / Ceftriaxon

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23
Q

What microbiological tests should be done in patient with species meningitis ( 2 essential tests or specimens that should be sent for microbiological diagnosis)

A

Blood cultivation/ Serology + Liquor/CSF cultivation

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24
Q

What specimens would you send to microbiology. Laboratory in the case of suspected meningococcemia? (write 2 most important examples)

A

Blood and CSF

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25
Q

Write min. 2 examples of bacteria assoc. with autoimmune diseases:

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, Chlamydia, Treponema pallidum, Borelia, Helicobacter pylori

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26
Q

What Is recommended treatment of suspected bacterial meningitis caused by unknown agent (empiric therapy )?

A

3rd generation chepalosporins, Ampicillin

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27
Q

Which microbial. Test should be done in patient with a fever of unknown reason ? (usually in hospital)

A

Serology / Blood cultivation -> Haemoculure (Explain process - see below)

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28
Q

Write 2 examples of clinically important toxins that can be produced by Staphylococcus aureus ?

A

Toxic Shock syndrome toxin / Exfoliative toxins (superantigens/ Enterotoxins) / alpha and beta toxin / PVL

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29
Q

What is the recommended treatment of infections by Haemophilius influenzae?

A

Ampicilin, Ceftriaxon, Ceftaxim

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30
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is:

a) G+ rod
b) G- rod
c) G+ coccus
d) G- coccus usually from pairs (diplococcus)

A

C

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31
Q

Staphylococcus aureus:

a) can be part of normal bacterial flora (is facultative pathogen)
b) is an obligate pathogen (every finding of this microbe is an indication f. Treatment)
c) is non pathogenic

A

A

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32
Q

Antibiotic that should be used as recommended treatment of infections caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin G/V, alternative beta lactams or Macrolides

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33
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is

a) G+ rod
b) G- rod

c) G+ coccus
d) G- coccus usually diplococcus

A

C

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34
Q

Most common bacterial agent causing urinary tract infection in community ?

A

E.coli

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35
Q

In case of colonization of pregnant women with Steprococcus agalactiae:

a) antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered before birth
b) no necessity for prophylaxis, because this microbe is part if normal flora and there is no risk of infection in baby
c) antibiotic therapy should be started 1 month before expected birth for complete decolonization

A

A,C

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36
Q

Write 2 examples of diseases caused by Enterococcus spp.

A

Urinary tract infections, Bacteremia, Wound infections, Endocarditis

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37
Q

Infections caused by Listeria monocytogenes should be treated by:

a) 3rd generations cephalosporins
b) ampicillin (can be administered in combination with gentamicin)
c) 2nd generation cephalosporins in combination with amikacin

A

B

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38
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea can be spread

a) only by human contact (sexual)
b) rats can be vectors of this bacteria
c) by airways

A

A

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39
Q

What is the most important virulence factor of Hemophilius influenzae?

a) capsule
b) A-B toxin
c) adhesins

A

A

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40
Q

What is the causative agent of plaque ?

A

Yersinia pestis

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41
Q

What is the causative agent of typhoid fever ?

A

Salmonella typhi

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42
Q

What disease can be caused by Listeria monocytogenes ? 2 Examples

A

Meningitis, Sepsis

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43
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be stained by:

a) Gram strain (red)
b) Giesma stain
c) Ziehl Nielsen method (rods of the bacterium have red colour)

A

C

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44
Q

Causative agent if Pontiac fever ?

a) Legionella spp.
b) Pontia Pontiae
c) Rubeolla pontinica

A

A

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45
Q

What symptom is NOT typical for cholera ?

a) watery diarrhea
b) vomiting
c) hypovolemic shock
d) meningitis

A

D

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46
Q

Write 2 examples of obligate pathogens that belong to Enterobacteriaceae

A

Salmonella spp, Shigella spp.

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47
Q

Streptococcus pneumonias is:

a) G+ rod
b) G- rod
c) G+ coccus
d) G- diplococcus

A

C

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48
Q

What is the most important virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhea ?

a) adhesion factors (pilin)
b) capsule
c) flagella

A

A

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49
Q

What patients are in the risk of fungal infections ? (Min. 2 examples)

A

Immunodeficient patients, People with Long- Term antibiotic or Corticosteroid treatment, Diabetic Patients, HIV Patients

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50
Q

Dimorphic fungi

A

Fungi that can exist in the form of both - yeast and hypae

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51
Q

Which antigen can be used for fungal infection diagnosis ?

a) peptidoglycan
b) galactomannan
c) chitin

A

B

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52
Q

What diseases can be caused by Cryptococcus ?

A

Meningitis / Meningoencephalitis / Pneumonia

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53
Q

What is the most common site of aspergillosis ?

A

Lungs

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54
Q

What is most common manifestation of aspergillosis?

A

Cough, allergic symptoms, skin + mucosal irritations, chronic weakness,
chronic contact leads to bronchopulmonal Aspergillosis

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55
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum is causative agent of:

a) dermatomycoses
b) lung and disseminated infections
c) diarrhea

A

B

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56
Q

Write 3 types of candidiasis

A

superficial, organic, systemic mycosis

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57
Q

Microsporium gypsum is causative agent of:

a) dermatomycoses
b) lung infections
c) meningitis

A

A

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58
Q

Microsporium canis causative agent of:

a) dermatomycoses
b) lung infection
c) meningitis

A

A

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59
Q

Crypotococcus is

a) fakultative pathogen (in immunocompomised patients )
b) obligate pathogen
c) non- pathogenic

A

A

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60
Q

Penicillium spp. Is:

a) ubiquitous mould with very low clinical significance
b) common fungal pathogen with at least 3 pathogenic species
c) responsible for zygomycoses

A

A

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61
Q

Which yeast is the most important pathogen of humans ?

A

Candida albicans

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62
Q

Zygomycoses are

a) life- threatening, very invasive, infections
b) important toxin- producers
c) can cause very slow infections usually found in travelers

A

A

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63
Q

What do these abbreviations mean ?

ETEC

EPEC

EHEC

A 
ETEC = Enterotoxigenic E.coli
EPEC = Enteropathogenic E.coli
EHEC = Enterohemmorrhagic E.coli
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64
Q

Causative agent of cholera

A

Vibrio cholerae

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65
Q

Typical primary site of tuberculosis

A

Lung

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66
Q

Write min. 2 Examples of the targets of antibiotics:

A

Bacterial Proteinsynthesis
Cell Wall synthesis
RNA/DNA synthesis

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67
Q

Write the component of bacterial cell wall which is target for beta lactam Antibiotics

A

Transpeptidases ( e.g. Penicillin binding protein )

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68
Q

Define clinical resistance to antibiotics (EUCAST definition)

A

Likelyhood that the antibiotic treatment will fail

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69
Q

Define supectability to antibiotics (EUCAST def. )

A

Likelyhood that the antibiotic treatment will be successful

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70
Q

Which antibiotics are preferably used for empiric therapy of diseases caused by Steptococcus pneumonia ?

A

Penicillin G, Amoxillin (alternative: Cephalosporins, Vancomycin)

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71
Q

Antibiotic for staphylococcus aureus ?

A

Oxacillin, Methicillin (=pencillinase resistant penicillins, Vancomyin as alternative)

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72
Q

Treatment for herpes simplex virus ?

A

Virostatics like Aciclovir, Valacyclovir

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73
Q

Write at least 1 anti. Influenza drug:

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors like Tamiflu, Relenza

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74
Q

Which antibiotic is used for empiric therapy of meningitis ?

A

3rd generation cephalosporins, Ampicillin

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75
Q

What is target of anti influenza drug ?

A

Neuraminidase -> enables release of newly formed viruses, by drug activity of that enzyme is blocked

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76
Q

Component of cell wall target for beta lactams ?

A

Transpeptidases (PBP)

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77
Q

Dangerous side effect of chloramphenicol ?

A

Irreversible Bone Marrow aplasia

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78
Q

Target of tetracycline antibiotic ?

A

Binds to bacterial ribosomes -> inihibits Peptidyltransferase- reaction -> interrupts Proteinsynthesis

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79
Q

Syndrome after rapid injection of vancomycin?

A

Red Man syndrome due to massive Histamine release

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80
Q

Glycopeptides inhibit:

a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis

c) DNA replication

81
Q

Write 1 example of bactericidal antibiotic:

A

Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Vancomycin

82
Q

Write at least 1 example of beta lactase inhibitor

A

Clavulinic acid

83
Q

G- bacteria are:

a) usually suspect able to glycopeptides
b) naturally resistant to glycopeptides

84
Q

Tetracyclins inhibit:

a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication

85
Q

Carbapenems should be:

a) reserved for infections caused by multiresistant strains
b) used for empiric therapy of community acquired pneumonia
c) used for empiric therapy of community acquired meningitis

86
Q

Red Man syndrome is a typical reaction after the administration of:

a) gylcopeptides
b) beta lactams
c) macrolides

87
Q

Write an example of anti- tuberculotic antibiotics

A

Streptomycin, Kanamycin, Rifampin, Isoniazid, Ethambutol, Pyraminazid

88
Q

Beta lactam antibiotics inhibit:

a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication

89
Q

Fluoroquinolones inhibit:

a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication

90
Q

What does abbreviation VRE mean?

A

Vancomycin resistant enterococcus

91
Q

Macrolides inhibit:

a) peptidogylcan synthesis
b) Protein synthesis
c) DNA replication

92
Q

What does the abbreviation MRSA mean ?

A

Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

93
Q

Which time can we expect effect of bactericidal antibiotics after?

a) 144h
b) 72-96 h
c) 48 h

94
Q

Which time can we expect effect of bacteriostatic antibiotics after?

a) 144h
b) 72-96 h
c) 48h

95
Q

Write at least 2 examples of beta lactams active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa:

A

Carbapenem, Gentamicin, Piperacillin, Cephalosporin 4th gen

96
Q

Chloramphenicol is:

a) an antibiotic with a broad spectrum and should be used as an empiric therapy of many diseases
b) an antibiotic with broad spectrum, but should not be commonly used due to the potential hematotoxicity
c) an antibiotic active against G+ bacteria only

97
Q

Write at least 1 example of the site of infection by HPV ?

A

Oral cavity, uterine cervix, Penis, Anus

98
Q

3 common causative agents of pneumonia

A

Influenza virus A,B, Coronavirus, Adenovirus

99
Q

2 viruses causing GIT infections

A

Adenovirus, Rotavirus, CMV

100
Q

Which infections is caused by ureaplasma ?

A

Genital tract infections, (Respiratory tract infection)

101
Q

Which infection is caused by legionella pneumophilia ?

A

Pneumonia, Pontiac fever, Legionaers disease

102
Q

Which continent can still observe infection by variola virus ?

A

None, it was eradicated 1980, Last case 1977 in Somalia but may still exist in laboratories in US/ Russia

103
Q

2 diseases caused by streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Tonsillitis/ Necrotizing Fasciitis

104
Q

Most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections?

A

Viruses (influenza A,B, other)

105
Q

Describe HIV and Syndrome caused by it

A

HIV = Human inmunnedeficiency Retrovirus (STD, body fluid transmission)
Causes AIDS = Aquired Immune deficiency syndrome

106
Q

Manifestation of smallpox

A

Papular Skin efflorescence

107
Q

2 Dermatophytes

A

Microsporium Gypseum/ Canis
Trichophyton

108
Q

Autoimmune disease caused by streptococcus pyogenes

A

Rheumathic fever / Acute glomerular nephritis

109
Q

Causative agent of progressive multifocal leukocytoencephalopathy is:

a) Polyomavirus JC
b) Papillomavirus
c) Herpes virus 1

110
Q

Adenovirus is:

a) enveloped virus
b) non-enveloped virus

111
Q

What is the most common manifestation of Vericella zoster virus?

A

Skin rash on trunk and head -> Herpes Zoster, Chickenpox

112
Q

Write 2 examples of viruses that belong to the group of Picornaviruses:

A

Hepatitis A virus, Enterovirus (Coxsackie Virus), Rhinovirus

113
Q

What is the common manifestation of Enterovirus:

a) enteritiditis
b) conjunctivitis
c) encephalitis

114
Q

What is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr virus

115
Q

Write an example of disease caused by Poliovirus

A

Poliomyelitis

116
Q

Polyomaviruses are important in:

A

a) immunocompromised patients
b) children
c) sexually active adults

117
Q

Human Herpesviruses 1/ 2 attack:

a) neurons
b) GIT
c) Epithelium of respiratory tr.

118
Q

Write 1 example of diseases caused by EBV virus:

A

Infectious Mononucleosis, Also associated with Burkitt Lymphoma, x-linked lymphproliferative disease

119
Q

Direct quantification of viral particles in specimens can be done by

a) immunodiffusion method
b) Direct counting of viral particles under the microscope
c) real time PCR

120
Q

Write the name of the virus causing smallpox

A

Orthopoxvirus variola, Variola vera

121
Q

Write 2 examples of clinical manifestation of parainfluenza virus

A

Rhinitis, Laryngitis, Tonsillitis, Cough, Fever

122
Q

What is the target of antivirotics active against influenza virus:

a) Hemagglutinin
b) Neuraminidase
c) DNA replication

123
Q

What disease can be caused by virus from the group of Rhabdoviruses ? (Write 1 of the most important examples)

124
Q

Rotarviruses are causative agents of

a) Encephalitis
b) infantile diarrhea
c) respiratory tract infections

125
Q

Smallpox were eradicated:

a) at the end of 18th century (immediately after discovering of the vaccine by Jenner)
b) in 1980 (last case in Africa in 1977)
c) were not eradicated yet

126
Q

Flioviruses (Ebola, Marburg virus) are:

a) non enveloped viruses stable in environment
b) enveloped RNA viruses unstable in environmental conditions
c) enveloped DNA viruses with a certain stability in the environment with possible air way spread

127
Q

Write 1 example of causative agent of viral hemorrhagic fever

A

Ebola virus/ Marburg Virus

128
Q

In the final host, parasite

a) reproduces sexually
b) reproduces asexually
c) doesn’t reproduce, only develops

129
Q

Sexual reproduction of parasite can be possible in:

a) final host
b) intermediate host
c) vector

130
Q

What is a vector for Trypanosoma spp. ?

a) Ixodes ricinus
b) Tse- tse fly
c) Anopheles spp

131
Q

Write 2 examples of clinical manifestation of Leishmaniasis

A

Cutaneous ulcers or Mucocutaneous lesions -> inflammation of face + nasal mucosa, chronic rhinitis, destruction of mucosa
Visceral type- hepatospleomegaly

132
Q

Write 2 examples of possibilities of diagnosis of Leishmaniasis

A

Microscopy after biopsy of skin ulcer
Leishmannin skin test/ Montenegro test (Serology)

133
Q

One example of sexually transmitted parasite

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

134
Q

Write clinical manifestation of the disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica

A

Intestinal mucosa destruction -> ulcerations, exudative diarrhea, via blood can spread to liver -> necrosis

Minuta form: no cysts, usually asymptomatic

Magna form: cyst production, invasive

135
Q

Intermediate host is:

a) a host with asexual or no reproduction of parasite
b) host with complete life cycle of parasite
c) a host with sexual reproduction of parasite

136
Q

Trypansosoma rhodesiense if causative agent of:

a) human and animal trypanosomiasis with an acute form of disease
b) human trypanosomiasis only with a chronic form of disease
c) non- pathogenic species of Tryoanosoma spp.

137
Q

Sleeping stage of trypanosomiasis is due to:
a) invasion of parasite to CNS
b) production of toxins in the blood vessels and their spread to CNS
C) after the toxin treatment of the disease

138
Q

Write example of micriobiol. Test for diagnosis of trypanosomiasis:

A

Microspcopy of blood, Biopsy of LN, CSF cultivation, Elisa, PCR

139
Q

The vector for Plasmodium spp. Is:

A

a) Ixodes ricinus
b) Tse tse fly
c) Anopheles spp.

140
Q

Write a correct name of the disease caused by Plasmodium vivax

A

Malaria tertiana

141
Q

Correct name of the disease caused by Plasmodium falciparum

A

Malara tropica

142
Q

Prevalence of Leishmaniosis is restricted on:

a) Africa only
b) south America
c) have been found in all continents except Australia

143
Q

Shistosoma spp. Is a typical parasite of:

a) skin
b) pharynx
c) blood vessels

144
Q

Typical final host of Toxoplasma gondii is:

a) cat
b) dog
c) fox

145
Q

Incubation time of Malaria:

a) 1-2 weeks (in some cases few months)
b) 1 year
c) 2-8 days

146
Q

Method for diagnosis of malaria (min. 1 possibility)

A

Serology, Microscopy ->Giemsa Staining

Fast test for the detection of antigen particles

147
Q

What is horizontal transfer ?

A

Exchange of genes between 2 organisms not via inheritance but via transduction, transformation and conjugation

148
Q

Bacteria causing gastroenteritis ?

A

Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli

149
Q

Which organisms cause community acquired pneumonia ?

A

Influenza A,B, other

S. pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae…

150
Q

Antibiotic for s. Pyogenes ?

A

Penicillin / beta lactams / macrolides

151
Q

Write 2 examples of diseases caused by enterococcus spp.?

A

Urinary tract infections, Wound infections

152
Q

What is penicillicum ?

A

Mould like colonies, mycelium with septate hypae spp. With low clinical significance, ubiquintinous

153
Q

What does VRE stand for ?

A

Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus

154
Q

Write 2 examples of b. Lactam antibiotic against pseudomonas aureginosa ?

A

Ciprofloxacin (Chinolone) , 4th cephalosporine

155
Q

Give 2 methods for detection of viruses in blood

A

PCR

Tissue cultures

Electron microscope

ELISA

156
Q

Medication for Flu ?

A

Tamiflu, Relenza

157
Q

Which part does the influenza medication effect in virus ?

A

Neuraminidase

158
Q

Describe lung tissue during purulent pneumonia

A

Bacterial infiltration follwing by Leukocytic infiltration, mucous filled alveoli, increased thickness of bronchial wall

159
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis infections ?

A

Conjungtivitis (Trachom), Urogential infections,Lymphogranuloma venerum

160
Q

Write 3 strains causing malaria ?

A

Plasmodium vivax/ ovale/ falciparum

161
Q

Direkt method in microbiology ?

A

Micrsocopy, PCR, Cultivation

162
Q

Diagnostic method of herpes simplex virus ?

A

PCR, Tissue culture, Antigen proof by direct immunofluorescence

163
Q

Write 3 examples of extracellular living bacteria ?

A

Vibrio cholerae, Bacillus anthracis, Haemophilius influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus

164
Q

Examples for bactericidal antibiotics

A

Vancomycin / penicillin

165
Q

Recommended treatment for infections caused by haemophilius influenza ?

A

Cephalosporin 3rd gen (Cefotaxim/ Ceftriaxon) Ampicillin, Amoxicillin

166
Q

Which mobile elements can be transferred horizontally ?

A

Parts of plasmids, transposons in specific

167
Q

Endotoxins are responsible for ? ( 3 examples)

A

=shock, vasodilatation, vascular permeability increase

168
Q

Which strains of E.coli can cause toxin- mediated life- threatening infections ?

A

Enterotoxigenix E.coli

169
Q

Write 3 examples of cosmopolitan parasite ?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma gondii

170
Q

What is relevant specimens for diagnosis of toxoplasmosis ?

A

serology – ELISA

AIDS patients: microscopical examination of cerbrospinal fluid, biopsy of lymh nodes, muscles, etc

171
Q

What is an intermediate host of Schistosoma spp. ?

172
Q

Where are adult schistosoma hematobium located ?

A

Wall of urinary bladder

173
Q

Diagnosis of enterobius vermicularis infection ?

A

Stool, swap of anus with sticky band with subsequent microscopy

174
Q

What do you do with BAL (bronchoalveolar lavage) and sputum ?

A

Cultivation and Micrsocopy, Ab detection, ELISA

175
Q

Describe the process done with urine samples and the parameters evaluated

A

Samples are refrigerated to prevent bacterial growth, culture plates seeded -> nr. Of colonies are counted (CFU)

176
Q

What does PCR mean and explain it

A

A method of DNA amplification used for various diagnostic and research purposes. It requires 4 components: a DNA template containing a target sequence, DNA polymerase to synthesize the new DNA, primers that are complementary to the target sequence, and nucleotides as DNA building blocks. It takes place in 3 phases: denaturation of the double helix, primer hybridization, and elongation and amplification of the target region.

177
Q

Name 2 parasitic blood infections

A

Malaria, Trypansonoma burcei

178
Q

Name 2 diagnostic methods for dermatophytes

A

Skin sample -> culture + microscopy, PCR of blood sample

179
Q

2 methods for detection of HIV

A

Real Time PCR
Serology -> Elisa

180
Q

Empiric therapy for streptococcus pyogenes

A

Cephalosporine 1st and 2nd gen, Penicillin G afterwards

181
Q

Which bacteria do you use XLD agar for?

A

Gram negative bacteria, detection of intestinal pathogens (salmonella/shigella)

182
Q

Name 2 parasites of GIT

A

Giardia intestinalis, Enterobius vermicularis, Entamoeba histolytica

183
Q

Staining of mycobacterium tuberculosis 2 examples

A

Acid alcohol fast stain

Ziehl Nielsen Stain
Fluorochrom Auramin and counterstain with Rhodamine

184
Q

One diagnostic method for herpes simplex organism

A

PCR, Antibody detection in serum

185
Q

Bacteremia - specimens and examination ?

A

Blood -> Haemoculture in specific bottle which is sterile and contains nutritive medium + gas mix suitable for anaerobe and aerobe agents. Samples stored at 37° for several days then follows identification of infectious agent and resistance

186
Q

Which infections is caused by corynebacterium diphtheria and its most important virulence factor ?

A

Diphtherie, Pharyngitis, Endocarditis, Respiratory tract infections

Toxin production most important virulence factor (diphteria toxin)

187
Q

Which method can be used to detect EBV (min. 1)

188
Q

Which method is used to detect HSV-2?

A

PCR, Cultivation with Antigen detection, detection of antibodies in Serum

189
Q

Target of tetracycline antibiotic ?

A

Ribosomes- inhibit protein synthesis

190
Q

How does Acinetobacter Baumanni look like in microscope ?

A

Short gram negative rod

191
Q

Clinical manifestation of smallpox

A

Papular efflorescence, Fever, Joint pain, inflammation of airways, typical itching skin rash

192
Q

What does H5N1 stand for and what disease is it ?

A

Heamaglutinin type 5, Neuraminidase type 1

Birds Flu, subtype of Influenza A Virus

193
Q

What is Ureoplasma Ureolyticum ?

A

Small bacterium belonging to the family of mycoplasmataceae, causes sexually transmitted urinary tract infection and neonatal disease

194
Q

Which staining method is used for detection of parasites

195
Q

Method for detection of syphilis?

A

Primary stage PCR, Dark field microscopy
2nd/ 3rd stage Serology, Antibody detection with Elisa

196
Q

Which group of bacteria can be cultivated on Ziehl Nielsen stain based on microscopy appearance

A

Mycobacterium spp. + Nocardia -> „acdid resistant“ bacteria = acid fast bacteria
-> contain special lips (waxes + mycelia acid ) in their cell wall

197
Q

What does H5N1 mean and which virus can be designated by it

A

Vogelgrippe, Birds flu, subtype influenza A, H for Haemagglutinin, N for neuraminidase

198
Q

What does MIC mean ?

A

Minimal Inhibitory concentration = lowest concentration which prevents visible growth of a bacterium

199
Q

Describe abbreviation VZV and disease ?

A

Varizella Zoster Virus belongs to group of herpes viruses, causative agent of chickenpox

Microbio (6 decks)

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