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exam questions Flashcards

1
Q

glycogen is stored

A

in the liver and in skeletal muscle

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2
Q

Gamma motor neurons innervate:

A

Intrafusal muscle fibers found in muscle spindles

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3
Q

Chain fibers & flowerspray sensory neurons monitor:

A

change in muscle length

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4
Q

where is the gate in gate control located?

A

Substantia gelitanosa

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5
Q

Micro Villi , plica circulares, and villi all work to:

A

increase surface area in the small intestines

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6
Q

The ganglia are where the ________and ________ motor neurons synaps

A

parasypethetic, sympathetic Ns

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7
Q

Group A nerve fibers are

A

Heavily mylinated

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8
Q

Group B nerve fibers are

A

moderately myelinated

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9
Q

group c nerve fibers are

A

unmylinated

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10
Q

A delta fibers are involved in perception of

A

Fast, sharp, localized, acute pain

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11
Q

cranial nerves III,_____ Ix, and x supply the parasympathetic NS

A

IV

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12
Q

Mechano receptors are faster then nociceptors

A

gate control theory

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13
Q

Mechano receptors gives sence of?

A

Touch, pressure, Vibration

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14
Q

Proprioceptors give sense of

A

movement

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15
Q

Nociceptors give sense of

A

Pain, noxious stimuli

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16
Q

The 2nd order interneuron can be inhibited in the neuromatrix of pain by mechano and ________

A

ascending tracts

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17
Q

The __________ causes the contents of the transvers colon to move into the rectum when the stomach is full

A

gastrocolic reflex

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18
Q

Slowest nerve fibers are: a alpha/a gamma/___/b

A

C fibers

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19
Q

Pain that is experienced in the dermatome supplied by a nerve is________

A

nerve root pain

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20
Q

deep connective tissue structures supplied by a spinal segment/ nerve is _______

A

Sclerotome pain

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21
Q

Pain originating from deep visceral structures that is percieved to come from somatic structures that share the same spinal segment is__________

A

Referred pain

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22
Q

________ postganglionic fibers release acetylcholine

A

Parasympathetic

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23
Q

The 2nd order associated neuron/transmission neuron transmits noxious stim up through which spinal tract?

A

Dorsal columns

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24
Q

Where are endogenous opiates released?

A

substantia gelatinosa

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25
Q

Brush border secretes enzymes to break down

A

Carbs and proteins. NOT LIPIDS

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26
Q

light touch and vibration

A

Meissner’s corpuscle

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27
Q

Deep pressure, deep dermis, subcutaneous tissues, with rapid adaptations

A

Pacinian corpsucle

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28
Q

receptor found in the dermis, and joint capsules, stimulated by stretch, slow adaptaions

A

Ruffini corpuscle

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29
Q

Mechanoreceptor, in the epidermal junction, mucosal membranes, with slow adaptation

A

merkel dics

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30
Q

3 main components of the liver:

A

hepatocytes, bile canaliculi, and hepatic sinusoids

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31
Q

The portal triad around the perimeter of hepatic lobules consists of 3 basic structures:

A

bile duct, hepatic artery branch, and hepatic portal vein branch

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32
Q

The sphincter between the stomach and small intestine:

A

pyloric sphincter

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33
Q

The componant of muscle spindles that is primarily tonic

A

Flowerspray neuron

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34
Q

extrafusal muscle fibers are the normal skeletal muscle cells outside of the muscle spindle and are innervated by

A

alpha motor neurons

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35
Q

sensory nerves are found near the _______ of a muscle spindle

A

centre

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36
Q

Nuclear bag fibers + annulosprial sensory neurons sense:

A

rate of change of length, and adapt quickly
(phasic receptor annulospiral sensory neuron)

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37
Q

Nuclear chain fibers + flower spray sensory neuron sense:

A

muscle length (tonic receptor flowerspray)

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38
Q

muscle spindle is a

A

proproceptive sense organ that is found in muscle bellies and monitors changes in length of a skeletal muscle.

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39
Q

The sympathetic innervation for the abdominal visera is supplied by _________from the pervertebral ganglia

A

splanchnic N.

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40
Q

Fiber in the ANS that is unmylinated type C ________

A

Postganglionic fibre

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41
Q

The preganglionic fiber found in the lateral grey horn is

A

myelinated type B

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42
Q

Nociceptors can be stimulated by

A

damage to tissues, pain, inflammatory chem.

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43
Q

a collection of neuro cell bodies in the PNS

A

Ganglia

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44
Q

Ending segment of the large intestine:

A

Anal canal

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45
Q

Funtion of bile

A

Emulsifies lipids

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46
Q

Sense organs in the joint capsule

A

Ruffini

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47
Q

the Vegus N supplies the parasympathetic from the neck to

A

the small intestine and ascending colon

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48
Q

Ganglia in the sympathatic NS found lateral to vertebral bodes

A

Chain Ganglia

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49
Q

modified ganglion innervated by the sympathetic NS:

A

adrenal medulla

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50
Q

Organ that stores bile

A

gallbladder

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51
Q

Gray rami communicates are

A

unmyelenated structures that provide a short connection from the sympathetic chain ganglion to the spinal N that contains postganglionic sympathtic fiber

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52
Q

grey rami communicated to

A

target organ

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53
Q

The parasympathetic ganglia are located

A

just outside or within the wall of the target organ

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54
Q

the sympathetic central neuron cell bodies are round in the lateral grey horn of

A

T1-L5

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55
Q

where are the prevertebral ganglia found in the sympathetic NS

A

Anterior to the vertebral column in the abdominal cavity

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56
Q

the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct form the

A

ampulla of vater

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57
Q

Sympethetic post ganglionic fibers travel with spinal nerves to sweat glands _______, blood vessels, skin, and skeletal muscles

A

pilli

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58
Q

Which nutrients are reabsorbed by the PCT?

A

glucose, amino acids, vitamins

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59
Q

Which part of the nephron is impermeable to water?

A

ascending limb of loop of henle

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60
Q

Which organ is used to segment the different parts of the urethra in men?

A

prostate

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61
Q

Control of the sphincters of the urinary bladder, are under the complete control of the autonomic nervous system.

A

False

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62
Q

Which capillary is involved with the reabsorption from the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

peritubular

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63
Q

The minor calyces are structures that:

A

collect urine from the papillary ducts

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64
Q

The key structure in monitoring the rate of filtration by the kidney is the:

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus

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65
Q

Which of the following hormones causes principle cells to increase the reabsorption of Na and water in the collecting ducts?

A

aldosterone

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66
Q

The renal pyramids are part of the:

A

renal medulla

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67
Q

Which of the following is not allowed through the filtration membrane in the glomerular capsule?

A

large proteins

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68
Q

Adequate blood flow to the kidney is essential to the function of the organ.

A

True

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69
Q

The kidney plays a large role in pH maintenance in the body. Which cells are responsible for secreting H+ in the collecting duct?

A

intercalated cells

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70
Q

The final adjustments to urine composition are made in which part of the nephron?

A

collecting ducts

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71
Q

Creatinine is a nitrogenous waste product cleared from the body by the kidneys. Which tissue is the source of this waste?

A

muscle

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72
Q

Which of the following is not normally a component of urine in a healthy individual?

A

RBC

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73
Q

Which epithelial cells make up the proximal and distal convoluted tubules? DCT

A

simple cuboidal

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74
Q

The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule of the nephron is formed by specialized epithelial cells called:

A

podocytes

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75
Q

Which of the following is the breakdown product of purine nucleotides?

A

uric acid

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76
Q

In females the bladder is directly anterior to which of the following organs?

A

uterus

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77
Q

Which of the following does NOT contribute to urine flow in the ureters?

A

osmotic pressure

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78
Q

Which of the following hormones causes pores to develop in the principle cells, to increase water retention?

A

antidiuretic hormone

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79
Q

The transitional epithelium within the bladder allows for which of the following functions?

A

stretching

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80
Q

Plasma filtration occurs in which part of the nephron?

A

renal corpuscle

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81
Q

Which of the following is not synonymous term for micturition?

A

defecating

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82
Q

Which of the following ions is the key to reabsorption?

A

Na+

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83
Q

Which of the following comes immediately after Bowman’s capsule in the nephron?

A

PCT

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84
Q

The ureters connect which two structures?

A

renal pelvis and bladder

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85
Q

The kidneys are located:

A

in the retroperitoneal space at the level of T12-L3

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86
Q

Which of the following lists the vessels in the correct order of blood flow around the nephron?

A

afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillary/vasa recta

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87
Q

The glomerular filtration rate increases under which of the following situations?

A

efferent arteriole is constricted and afferent arteriole dilated

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88
Q

Gametes contain how much of the DNA compared to the parent cell

A

half

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89
Q

The beta cells in the pancreas secrete with hormone

A

insulin

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90
Q

in down regulation there’s a decrease in which chemical/structure in a cell responce to increase hormone levels

A

receptors

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91
Q

which part of the pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamis via blood vessels

A

anterior

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92
Q

The function of yellow bone marrow

A

energy storage

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93
Q

which protien within red blood cells carries oxygen

A

hemoglobin

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94
Q

Which blood cell transports oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

erythrocytes
(red blood cells)

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95
Q

Which structure in osteons connect osteocytes with the central canal?

A

Canaliculi

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96
Q

Connective tissue is classifed into categories of loose and dense by?

A

arrangement and density of fibers

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97
Q

Lipid hormones bind to receptors found where/in/on target cells

A

Inside the cell binding on a receptor protien

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98
Q

Only cells that have a receptor for the hormone will respond to the hormone

A

true

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99
Q

Which of the following hormones is found to be elevated durring the resistance stage?
renin/calcitonin/aldonterone/insulin

A

insulin

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100
Q

The formation of blood cells in the red bone marrow is called

A

hemopoieses

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101
Q

Fribrinolysis is defined as

A

process in which coagulation is localized to a region and then ended

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102
Q

Cartilaginous joints are held together by fribrocartilage (symphis) or

A

Hyaline cartilage (synchondrosis)

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103
Q

what increases water retention in the body

A

antidiuretic hormone

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104
Q

durring external respiration, gases are exchanged between the

A

alveoli and the blood

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105
Q

the middle layer of the adrenal cotex is called____ and secretes______

A

zona fasciculata; glucocorticoids

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106
Q

the amount of air moved durring quiet breath is

A

tidal volume

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107
Q

the cells in the inner layer of the joint capsule secrete

A

synovial fluid

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108
Q

functions of the nose

A

sense of smell
warming inspired air
collection point for mucus
(not external respiration)

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109
Q

Muscles of active expiration

A

Internal intercostals; abdominals

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110
Q

Amphortharosis is defined as

A

slightly movable

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111
Q

which structural type of joint is diarthrotic (freely moveable)

A

Synovial

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112
Q

The parathyroid hormone _________ blood calcium levels

A

Raises
(calcitonin decreases)

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113
Q

Which type of circulation involves circulation to the lungs

A

plumonary

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114
Q

The 2 areas of the brain that contain respiration centers are the

A

Medulla oblongata and the pons

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115
Q

Boyles law

A

as the volume in the container increases the the pressure with in the container decreases

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116
Q

Which alveolar cells produce surfactant

A

type II alveolar cells

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117
Q

Surface tension of the alveoli is reduced by the secretion of

A

Surfaciant

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118
Q

The removal of an amine group (nitrogen) from amino acids is called

A

deamination

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119
Q

Lactic acid is produced in which type of situation

A

oxygen depleted

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120
Q

Which portion of the pharynx receives the openings from the auditory tubes

A

nasopharynx

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121
Q

Compliance is affected primarily by the amount of elastic tissue in the lungs and the

A

Amount of surfactant

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122
Q

Bones become weaker as we age because of decrease in protein synthesis and

A

demineralization

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123
Q

Which canal in the osteon contains the blood vessel and nerve?

A

Haversian Canal

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124
Q

The activity of the epiphyseal plate allows bone to grow in

A

Length

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125
Q

Which syndrome involves a temporary abnormal resetting of the bodys homeostatic control mechanisms

A

general adaptation syndrome

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126
Q

Hormones that are formed by removing a fatty acid chain from the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane are called

A

Eiconsanoids

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127
Q

The alpha cells in the pancreas secrete which hormone?

A

glucagen

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128
Q

Hormones can be devided into classes reffered to as

A

lipid based and protien based

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129
Q

Most carbon dioxide is transported in blood by

A

Conversion to bicarbonate ion

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130
Q

a type 1 aveolar cell is a

A

simple squamous epithelial cells

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131
Q

Collagen provides which type of strenth to bones

A

tensile

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132
Q

which of the following fibrocartilage structures in a synovial joint increase the congruency of the joint

A

meniscus

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133
Q

Which layer of periosteum do muscles attach to

A

the outer dense irregualr connective tissue layer

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134
Q

The type of epithelium lining the internal nose

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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135
Q

what are the basic functions of epithelial tissue

A

protection, diffusion, filtration, sensory

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136
Q

The amount of air that remains in the lungs at the end of full expiration

A

residual volume

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137
Q

the endocrine system uses hormones to stimulate target organs and tissue

A

true

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138
Q

Oxytocin is a hormone stored and secreted by the

A

Posterior pituitary gland

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139
Q

Spongy bone receives blood from

A

red bone marrow

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140
Q

There is only fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones in a

A

suture

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141
Q

the formation of tyglycerides from non-fat sources is called

A

Lipogenesis

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142
Q

synathrosis is

A

Immovably fixed joint

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143
Q

Up regulation will _______ receptors when there is a _______ in circulating hormones

A

increase; decrease

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144
Q

The bony structures found in cancellous bone that allows it to be strong yet light is called

A

trabeculae

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145
Q

durring internal respiration

A

oxygen difuses from the blood into the tissues

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146
Q

The hypothalamus is the anatomical site where the _______ and the _______ interact

A

nervous; endocrine

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147
Q

Which hormone type stimulates amplification to happen within the target cell when the hormone binds to the receptor

A

Lipid based

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148
Q

The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood occurs over

A

2 basment membranes and 2 simple squamous epithelium

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149
Q

Which part of general adaptation syndrome is a long-term reaction to chronic stress

A

exhaustion stage

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150
Q

Which hormone is released in response to low blood calcium levels

A

PTh

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151
Q

The pleura is the

A

the serous membrane surrounding the lungs

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152
Q

The last step in healing from a bone fracture

A

remodeling stage

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153
Q

Airway resistance is affected primarily by the

A

diameter of the bronchioles

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154
Q

Which vitamin increases the absorption of calcium from the intestine

A

vit d

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155
Q

Which vitamin is required in the synthesis of plasma protiens (coagulation)

A

vit. k

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156
Q

What is the process of fluid being drawn into the capillaries called in starlings law of capilaries

A

reabsorption

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157
Q

Cartilage repairs slowly because of its avascular character

A

true

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158
Q

each lung can be divided into segments supplied by secondary bronchi called

A

lobes

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159
Q

fibrocartilage has the highest ratio of collagen fibers thus increasing the rigidity and stiffnes
T/F

A

F

Hayaline cartilage has the highest ration of collagen fibers

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160
Q

Function of T3 and T4

A

Synthesize protiens, breakdown fats, increase ATP production

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161
Q

A chemical that acts on a neighboring cell is

A

Paracrine

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162
Q

Which spinal level contributes to the phrenic N

A

C3-C5

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163
Q

Which gland is both endocrine and exocrine

A

pancrease

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164
Q

compact bone contains osteons
t/f

A

True

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165
Q

An increase in which chemical in the blood stream Will cause increased inhalation

A

CO2

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166
Q

Iodine is needed to produce which thyriod hormone

A

T3 and t4

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167
Q

all gasses in a mixture of air exert a pressure that is porpotrional to the content of each gas. the pressure a single gas exerts is reffered to as

A

partial pressure

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168
Q

most oxygen is transported in the body by

A

hemoglobin and red blood cells

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169
Q

The adreanal medulla secretes which hormones?

A

epinephrin and norepinephrine

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170
Q

Which hormones acts on the lactotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland

A

Prolactin releasing hormone

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171
Q

The end of long bones is knows as the

A

epiphysis

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172
Q

The trachea divides into

A

left and right bronchi

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173
Q

The somatorophs of the anterior pituitary secrete

A

Growth hormone

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174
Q

What hormone directly stimulates the production of t3 and t4 from the follicular cells in the thyroid gland?

A

TSH

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175
Q

Which cell produces bone matrix

A

osteoblasts

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176
Q

durring puberty, bone growth is stimulated by

A

testosterone and estrogen

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177
Q

Hemoglobin will have increased affinity for oxygen when

A

temp decreases

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178
Q

Which hormone Increases water retention in the body

A

Anti diuretic hormone ADH

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179
Q

What is the main constitution of ground substance in bones

A

hydrocyapatite

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180
Q

Gas echange in the lung begins at the level of the

A

respiratory bronchioles

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181
Q

How is the posterior pituitary gland connected to the hypothalamus?

A

infundibulum, neurons

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182
Q

Which type of ossification goes from mesenchymal cells to cartilage then bone?

A

intramembraneous ossification

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183
Q

Melatonin is secreated by

A

pineal gland

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184
Q

progesterone and estrogen are secreated by

A

ovaries

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185
Q

Which type of hormone binds to the receptors found on the outside of the cell membrane of the target cells?

A

Amino based

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186
Q

The process of moving air in and out of the lungs is called

A

ventilation

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187
Q

conadotropin releasing hormone CRH is secreted by

A

the hypothalamus

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188
Q

The fuction of the epiglottis is to

A

Close off the larynx durring swallowing

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189
Q

The narrowest part of the fallopian tube is:

A

isthmus

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190
Q

Weeks 9 to 38 of gestation are known as which of the following?

A

fetal

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191
Q

Why is the first 8 weeks of development most vulnerable to malformation?

A

because there is so much cell division

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192
Q

The scrotum is designed to perform which of the following functions?

A

regulate temperature of the testes

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193
Q

Which hormone is considered responsible for the let down reflex of lactation?

A

Oxytocin

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194
Q

Which hormone causes Leydig cells to secrete?

A

LH

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195
Q

Which hormone is directly responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics?

A

testosterone

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196
Q

What part of the fallopian tube that helps to collect the oocyte when it is expelled from the ovary is the?

A

fimbriae

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197
Q

Developing sperm cells are protected from the body’s immune system by the blood-testis barrier formed by:

A

sertoli cells

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198
Q

In which structure does the process of spermatogenesis occur?

A

seminiferous tubules

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199
Q

Which of the following muscle elevates the testicles closer to the body?

A

cremaster muslce

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200
Q

Fertilization results in the formation of which of the following?

A

zygote

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201
Q

Leydig cells secrete:

A

testosterone

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202
Q

Transmit action potentials
in the sarcomere

A

t tubles

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203
Q

prevensts muscle action at rest

A

tropomyosin

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204
Q

Postganglionic fibers that innervate sweat glands, arrector pili muscles, blood vessels to skin and skeletal muscles travel with which structure?

A

spinal nerves

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205
Q

Where are the sympathetic chain ganglia found?

A

on either side of the spine close to the vertebrae

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206
Q

A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber may synapse with twenty or more postganglionic fibers

A

True

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207
Q

Where are the central neurons cell bodies of the sympathetic division of the ANS found?

A

T1 to L2 lateral grey horn
parasymp is cranial sacral

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208
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation to the liver, stomach and gallbladder is provided by fibers travelling with the:

A

vagus nerve

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209
Q

The adrenal medulla receives stimulation from:

A

sympathetic preganglionic fibers

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210
Q

The concept that most internal organs receive innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is called:

A

dual innervation

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211
Q

How many sets of neurons are found in each autonomic motor pathway?

A

2

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212
Q

Autonomic nervous system preganglionic fibres are

A

myelinated type B fibers

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213
Q

What does “SLUDD” stand for in regards of the parasympathetic nervous system:

A

salivation, lacrimation, urination, digestion, defecation

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214
Q

The motor impulses from the ANS innervate which of the following?

A

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands

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215
Q

The major control and integration centre for the autonomic nervous system is the:

A

hypothalamus

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216
Q

The cranial nerves involved in the parasympathetic system are:

A

III, VII, IX, X

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217
Q

The arrector pili, sweat glands and adipose cells only receive innervation from the sympathetic nervous system.

A

true

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218
Q

Parasympathetic ganglia are known as terminal ganglia.

A

true

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219
Q

Which neurotransmitter is used to stimulate the effectors in the sympathetic division of the ANS?

A

norepinephrine

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220
Q

Parasympathetic innervation to the distal colon, the bladder and the reproductive organs is supplied by which of the following:

A

sacral nerves

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221
Q

The post ganglionic fibres in the ANS are what type of fibres?

A

Type C

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222
Q

The sympathetic ganglia that lie close to large abdominal arteries and anterior to vertebral column are the:

A

prevertebral ganglia

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223
Q

The postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division of the ANS are short.

A

false
The postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic NS are long

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224
Q

Which structures receive sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglia?

A

the head

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225
Q

Which of the following responses is initiated by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

increased synthesis of ATP

226
Q

Autonomic central neurons synapse with ganglionic neurons:

A

in ganglia

227
Q

The cell bodies of some parasympathetic central neurons are located in the brain stem.

A

True

228
Q

When the parasympathetic system is active it decreases the activity of which of the following organs.

A

heart

229
Q

Effectors innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system are stimulated by which neurotransmitter.

A

acetylcholine

230
Q

White rami communicantes are so named since:

A

autonomic preganglionic neurons are myelinated

231
Q

What is the major type of sensory information that is monitored by the Autonomic nervous system?

A

sensations from the visceral/internal organs

232
Q

Which of the following is supplied with sympathetic innervation by way of the splanchnic nerves from the prevertebral ganglia?

A

abdominal viscera

233
Q

The final steps of chemical digestion occur along the brush border for all organic molecules except:

A

lipids

234
Q

The chemical breakdown of protein begins with the action of saliva in the mouth.

A

false
In your stomach via

235
Q

The movement of food forward by the contraction of the smooth muscle is known as which of the following?

A

peristalsis

236
Q

The liver is supplied with arterial/oxygenated blood by?

A

hepatic artery

237
Q

Which of the following cells secretes pepsinogen in the stomach?

A

chief cells

238
Q

The end product of digestion in the stomach that is propelled into the small intestine is known as:

A

chyme

239
Q

Pancreatic digestive enzymes are initially secreted as inactive to prevent auto-digestion of the pancreas.

A

true

240
Q

The movement of amino acids across the mucosa of the small intestine and into the blood is an example of absorption.

A

true

241
Q

Control and modulation of the digestive process is purely a parasympathetic function.

A

true

242
Q

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which cells in the stomach?

A

parietal cells

243
Q

Which portion of the esophagus has a muscularis layer composed only of skeletal muscle?

A

upper/ proximal third

244
Q

The beginning segment of the large intestine is called the?

A

cecum

245
Q

Which of the following aids absorption by increasing the surface area of the small intestine?

A

villi

246
Q

Which organ of the GI tract has a muscularis layer composed of three layers of muscle instead of the usual two layers?

A

stomach

247
Q

Fecal material usually contains which of the following?

A

bacteria

248
Q

Which portion of the small intestine is in the retroperitoneal cavity?

A

duodenum

249
Q

Bacteria in the large intestine create and absorb which of the following vitamins?

A

B and K

250
Q

Mixing of chyme (food and enzymes) in the small intestine is enhanced by organized contractions called:

A

segmentation

251
Q

The smooth muscle of the internal anal sphincter and the rectum are under the control of the:

A

parasympathetic nervous system

252
Q

The pancreas is found:

A

tucked into the curve of the duodenum and behind the stomach

253
Q

The function of the gallbladder is

A

store and concentrate bile

254
Q

Chemical digestion of proteins starts in the stomach by which of the following chemicals?

A

hydrochloric acid and pepsin

255
Q

The pyloric sphincter is located at the junction of the:

A

stomach and duodenum

256
Q

Which of the following chemicals emulsifies lipids?

A

bile

257
Q

Which of the following organs is considered an accessory structure of the gastrointestinal system?

A

pancreas

258
Q

Which of the following is a function of saliva?

A

breakdown dietary carbohydrates and lipids

259
Q

Secretion of bile from the gallbladder is promoted by which of the following hormones?

A

CCK

260
Q

Which two structures unite to form the ampulla of Vater (hepatopancreatic ampulla)?

A

common bile duct and pancreatic duct

261
Q

The lobule of the liver is created by the sinusoids, bile canaliculi, hepatocytes and blood vessels.

A

True

262
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the liver

A

production of gastrin

263
Q

The liver

A

stores glycogen
produces bile
produces vit d

264
Q

The largest salivary glands are located:

A

anterior to the ears, around the angle of the mandible

265
Q

Lacteals in the villi of the small intestine collect which of the following nutrient’s?

A

lipids

266
Q

Surface tension of the alveoli is reduced by the secretion of:

A

surfactant

267
Q

The internal nose is lined by an epithelium that is designed to warm and humidify air as well as trap dust. The type of epithelium lining the internal nose is:

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

268
Q

A Type 1 alveolar cell is a:

A

simple squamous epithelial cells

269
Q

Most oxygen is transported in the blood by:

A

hemoglobin in red blood cells

270
Q

The ovaries secrete which of the following hormones when stimulated?

A

both estrogen and progesterone

271
Q

Which hormone is produced by the pineal gland?

A

melatonin

272
Q

The anatomical site where the nervous system and endocrine system interact is the:

A

Hypothalamus-pituitary complex

273
Q

Insulin is produced by which cells of the pancreas?

A

beta cells

274
Q

Which hormone is secreted in response to decreased levels of blood calcium?

A

parathyroid hormone

275
Q

During the phenomena referred to as the general adaptation syndrome which stage is the result of alterations in hormone secretion by the hypothalamus?

A

resistance reaction

276
Q

Hormones that are formed by removing a fatty acid chain from the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane are called:

A

eicosanoids

277
Q

Which type of hormones have their target receptors located within the cytosol of the target cell?

A

lipid soluble hormones

278
Q

Which hormone acts on the somatotroph cells of the Anterior Pituitary gland

A

growth hormone releasing hormone

279
Q

When a hormone stimulates a single receptor a cascade of events within the cell results in a disproportionately large reaction called:

A

amplification

280
Q

Hormones influence the activity of target cells by:

A

binding to hormone specific receptors on the target cells

281
Q

Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) is secreted by:

A

the hypothalamus

282
Q

Water-soluble hormones bind to receptors found:

A

on the outside of the cell membrane of target cells

283
Q

Oxytocin is a hormone stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.

A

true

284
Q

How is the anterior pituitary gland connected to the hypothalamus?

A

via a portal system

285
Q

Which of the following increases water retention in the body?

A

aldosterone

286
Q

Which of the following ions is the production of thyroid hormones dependent on?

A

iodine

287
Q

The endocrine system uses neurotransmitters to excite nerves, muscles and glandular tissue.

A

false
Endocrine system uses hormones

288
Q

Which endocrine gland can be classified as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland?

A

pancreas

289
Q

The outermost layer of the adrenal cortex is called ____________ and secretes _______________.

A

zona fasciculata/ androgens

290
Q

The target organ of thyroid stimulating hormone is the:

A

thyroid

291
Q

A chemical that a cell that releases that acts on that same cell is which of the following?

A

autocrine

292
Q

Glucagon is secreted by which cells of the pancreas.

A

alpha cells

293
Q

The general adaptation syndrome involves a temporary abnormal resetting of the body’s homeostatic control mechanisms.

A

true

294
Q

When a target cell is bombarded by an excess of a hormone it responds by decreasing the number of hormone receptors it has in a process known as:

A

down regulation

295
Q

this hormones is found to be elevated during the resistance reaction?

A

cortisol

296
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by which endocrine gland?

A

adrenal medulla

297
Q

this hormones aids in reduction of blood glucose levels?

A

insulin

298
Q

Which thyroid hormones are involved in synthesis of proteins, breakdown of fats, and increasing metabolism?

A

T3 and T4

299
Q

If there is a reduction in the concentration of a hormone, which of the following will occur?

A

up regulation

300
Q

Which part of the pituitary gland is directly connected to the hypothalamus via neurons?

A

the posterior pituitary gland

301
Q

The lactotrophs of the anterior pituitary secrete which of the following hormones?

A

prolactin

302
Q

What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone?

A

increase water retention in the body

303
Q

Hormones can be divided into two classes referred to as:

A

amino acid and lipid derived

304
Q

The function of osteoblasts is to:

A

produce bone matrix

305
Q

When referring to a joint, a meniscus is:

A

a fibrocartilage disc that extends into the joint cavity

306
Q

The periosteum consists of two layers, the outer layer of dense irregular connective tissue and the inner __________________.

A

osteogenic layer

307
Q

Bones are more brittle in the elderly because:

A

there is less collagen relative to the amount of mineral salts

308
Q

Synovial fluid is produced by:

A

cells in the inner layer of the articular capsule

309
Q

A slightly moveable joint is referred to as a(n):

A

amphiarthrosis

310
Q

Cartilaginous joints are held together by either of the following:

A

fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage

311
Q

Hyaline cartilage has the highest ratio of collagen fibres thus increasing the rigidity and stiffness.

A

FALSE
Check

312
Q

an immovable joint?

A

synarthrosis

313
Q

A function of vitamin D in proper bone development is to:

A

increase absorption of calcium from the intestine

314
Q

hormone increases osteoblast activity?

A

calcitonin

315
Q

Cartilage repairs slowly because of its avascular character.

A

true

316
Q

There is only fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones in a:

A

suture

317
Q

Spongy bone contains osteons.

A

false
Contains trebecule

318
Q

Before puberty, bone growth is stimulated mainly by the hormone:

A

human growth hormone

319
Q

The end of long bones is known as the

A

epiphysis

320
Q

metaphysis is the

A

metaphysis is the wider end of the shaft located between the diaphysis and epiphysis

321
Q

A hormone that increases the number and activity of osteoclasts is:

A

parathyroid hormone

322
Q

type of ossification forms bone directly from mesenchymal cells?

A

intramembraneous ossification

323
Q

The activity of the epiphyseal plate is the only means by which the diaphysis can increase in length.

A

true

324
Q

The artery that pierces the diaphysis of a long bone is known as a:

A

nutrient artery

325
Q

An important energy reserve is provided by the skeletal system in the form of:

A

yellow bone marrow

326
Q

The bony structures found in spongy bone that allows it to be strong yet light is called:

A

trabeculae

327
Q

Why are diarthrosis joints freely moveable?

A

presence of loose joint capsule

presence of synovial fluid

presence of hyaline cartilage

328
Q

Spongy bone does not require a Haversian system to deliver blood because the trabeculae are surrounded by blood.

A

true

329
Q

The first step in the repair of a bone fracture is:

A

development of a fracture hematoma

330
Q

Hydroxyapatite is:

A

the main constituent of the ground substance of bones

331
Q

Which of the following component of bone tissue is responsible for the tensile strength

A

collagen

332
Q

structures serves to decrease the amount of friction between two surfaces around a synovial joint?

A

bursa

333
Q

Canaliculi are:

A

tiny channels connecting osteocytes with the central canal of osteons

334
Q

The central (Haversian) canal of an osteon contains:

A

a blood vessel and nerve

335
Q

Continuous propagation of nerve stimulus as long as a stimulus persists refers to which type of receptor?

A

Tonic

336
Q

Which structure of the muscle spindle mostly monitors rate of change of length?

A

annulospiral sensory neuron

337
Q

Pain that creates hyperalgesia and swelling in a stocking-glove pattern is an example of:

A

sympathetic pain

338
Q

Our brain produces which of the following to modify pain perception?

A

endogenous opiates

339
Q

The gate control theory of pain is established due to which of the following?

A

mechanoreceptor information travels faster than noxious stimulus information

340
Q

Long term chronic pain has been found to alter the central nervous system similar to the effects of:

A

depression

341
Q

Receptor selectivity/specificity refers to the concept that:

A

receptors respond to only one type of stimulus

342
Q

The Substansia Gelatinosa is found where?

A

the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

343
Q

Nociceptors can be stimulated by:

A

inflammatory chemicals

344
Q

Which cell determines if a noxious stimulus is transmitted to the brain from the spinal cord is the:

A

2nd neuron/association neuron

345
Q

Central pain perception and modulation of the pain experience involves:

A

multiple brain centres

346
Q

Pain originating from deep visceral structures is which of the following:

A

referred pain

347
Q

Deep connective tissue that is innervated by the same spinal segment is known as which of the following?

A

sclerotome

348
Q

Which of the following fibers results in the perception of chronic pain?

A

C fibers

349
Q

Rapid adaptation of a receptor to a stimulus classifies the receptor as:

A

phasic receptor

350
Q

Motor units that are used exclusively to innervate the muscle spindle are the:

A

gamma motor units

351
Q

Acute pain is indicative of which of the following:

A

tissue damage

352
Q

Which sense organ is found in the connective tissue around a joint?

A

pacinian corpuscles

353
Q

The fastest conducting nerve fibre type is the:

A

A alpha fibers

354
Q

Which receptor is used to detect pressure?

A

pacinian corpuscle

355
Q

Muscle length is measured and monitored by

A

muscle spindles

356
Q

The component of the muscle spindle that is considered to be primarily phasic in nature is the:

A

nuclear bag fibers

357
Q

Muscle/tendon tension is measured and monitored by the:

A

golgi tendon organs

358
Q

The length of a muscle is mostly detected by:

A

flowerspray sensory neuron

359
Q

Which of the following fibers results in the perception of sharp fast pain?

A

A delta

360
Q

When an afferent impulse reaches the cortex and we become conscious of a stimulus this is known as:

A

perception

361
Q

Nerve root pain is the same as which of the following:

A

radicular pain

362
Q

Which of the following nerve fibers conducts information the slowest?

A

A delta

363
Q

Receptors that signal noxious stimulus are referred to as:

A

nociceptors

364
Q

Noxious stimulus can be inhibited at the spinal cord by the descending pathways from the brain.

A

True

365
Q

The lobule of the liver is created by

A

Hypatocytes

366
Q

the specialized area of the sarcolomma that has many actylcholine receptors is called

A

Motor end plate

367
Q

The components of a reflex are are: receptor, sensory neuron, _______ motor neuron, and effector

A

Interneurons

368
Q

white matter vs grey matter

A

white = mylin, many axons, out side the brain, inside the cord
grey = lack of mylin, many cell bodies + dendrites, outside the brain, inside the cord

369
Q

Splanchic N

A

urinary and reproductive

370
Q
A
371
Q

Parasympathetic increases

A

SLUDD

372
Q

The 2 divisions of the ANS compete at the

A

target effector
(one receptor for Ach(PNS) and one for NE (SNS)

373
Q

The source of the most central control of autonomic function

A

the hypothalamus

374
Q

Somatic NS can only______, ANS can

A

Excite; excite or inhibit

375
Q

somatic NS is _______, ANS is_______

A

Volentary; involuntary

376
Q

Somatic NS does not have _________, ANS does have ______

A

GANGLIA ANS has 2 divisions sympathetic and parasympathetic
Sympathetic has >CHAIN Ganglia parallel to the vertebral column
>Prevertetebral ganglia anterior to vertebral colum
>adrenal medulla modified ganglia

Parasympathetic has terminal/intramural ganglia near or on the wall of the organ in innervates

377
Q

Ganglia in the Sympathtic NS

A

-chain ganglia found parallel to the vertebral column
-prevertebral / collateral ganglia found anterior to the vertebral column near the large abdominal arteries
- adrenal medulla; modified ganglia
-located T1-L2 in the lateral grey horns

378
Q

ganglia in the parasympathetic NS are

A

Terminal/intramural ganglia; near or in the wall of the organ it innervates
- located in craneal nerves III, VII, IX, X and sacral lateral grey horns

379
Q

Preganglionic lenght in the sympathetic NS are_______, post ganglionics lengh is_____

A

Short; long

380
Q

Preganglionic length in the parasympathic NS are_____ Postganglion lenth is_______

A

Long; short

381
Q

Neurotransmitter of the postganglionic neuron in the sympathetic NS is ________, Neurotransmitter of the postganglionis neuron in the PNS is ________

A

NE; Ach

382
Q

unique feature of the sympathetic NS

A

-divergence (one pregnanglionic Neuron can activate many post ganglionic
-organs only innervated by the sympathetic: sweat glands, adrenal medulla, adipose cells, smooth muscle and blood cells

383
Q

in a women the bladder lies

A

anterior to the uterus and posterior to the pubic bone and anterior to the rectum

384
Q

the proper term for urintation or voiding

A

micturition

385
Q

urine passes thought the ureter by

A

waves of peristalsis and hydrostatic pressure and gravity

386
Q

kidneys are the size of

A

your fist and use 25% of cadiac output, right liver can be displaced by the liver

387
Q

renal colums are

A

CT extensions that radiat downward from the cortex throught the medulla to separate the renal pyrmids

388
Q

Nephrons are

A

The functional units of the kidney

389
Q

collection of axons wrapped in CT

A

a tract

390
Q

Which regulatory protien in the sarcomere binds to calcium and changes its shape

A

troponin

391
Q

Protien that blocks myosin heads on actin

A

tropomyosin

392
Q

merkel

A

low frequency/slow adaptation

393
Q

messiers

A

papillary/ rapid addaptation

394
Q

afferent neuron

A

preception
sensory info

395
Q

phasic

A

rapid

396
Q

tonic

A

continious

397
Q

nociceptors

A

noxious/damage

398
Q

chemo

A

chemical- taste/smell/fluid

399
Q

calcitonin

A

Thyroid glands response to too much Ca2+ in the blood.
increases osteoblasts (bone builders)
reduces blood Ca2+ levels

400
Q

PTH (para thyroid hormone)
VIA chief cells

A

Parathyroids responce to Low Blood Ca2+ levels
Stimulates osteoclasts
(bone eaters)
inhibits osteoblasts
(bone makers)
reabsorption of calcium in the kidney

401
Q

osteoblasts

A

Thyroid -calcitonin
as well as estrogen/testosterone
produce bone matrix

402
Q

osteoclasts

A

break down bone (PTH)
multi nucleated
from monocytes and macrophages

403
Q

depolarization

A

dendrite-cell body-axonhillock-axon

404
Q

nuclei

A

collection of neurons in the CNS

405
Q

Ganglion

A

collection of neron cell bodys in the PNS (no ganglons in the somatic NS)

406
Q

PNS
periferal

A

somatic
autonomic-sympathtic/parasymp
sensory/motor/repairable if neuron cell bodys intact and swanna cells active/ slow scartissue

407
Q

CNS
central

A

brain and spinal/no repair/tract

408
Q

Somatic NS

A

volentary
T1-L2 lateral grey horns
skeletal muscle
one motor unit
consciously percived sensations
can only excite
noganglia

409
Q

Autonomic
(hypothalamus)

A

involuntary
Cranial nerves III,Vii,IX,X and sacral lateral grey horns
cardiac and smooth muscle and glands
2 motor neurons
uncontious senses.viceral sanations
can excite or inhibit
has ganglia

410
Q

Dense CT

A

tendons and ligs
parallel fibers
one direction

411
Q

Dense Ireg CT

A

stonger
all directions
reticular layer of the skin

412
Q

elastic CT

A

dense or irregular

413
Q

Areolar CT

A

web
most epitherlial membranes
B/W muscles, surrounds vessels and organs

414
Q

epidermis

A

stratified Squam epithilial
basale/spino/ganul/lucid/corn

StraSEpi
BSGLC

415
Q

merkel

A

mechano

416
Q

axon

A

controls effector

417
Q

pennate

A

greatest force

418
Q

resting muscle

A

ADP+ p attatch to myosin heads

419
Q

NMJ

A

where the axon release Ach, motor end plate is adjacent to the axon terminal at NMJ

420
Q

Smooth muscle

A

involuntary/uni nucleated

421
Q

skeletal

A

voluntay multi Nucleated

422
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

-Epi (around muscle)
-peir(around bundles/fascles)
-endo (around the muscle fibre)

423
Q

Dystophin

A

tansmits tentsion
connects actin to the sacrolemma

424
Q

T tubles

A

transmit action potentials

425
Q

Tropomyosin

A

prevents action at rest

426
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

straited.involentary.multi nucleated

427
Q

actin and myosin

A

contratile protiens
myosin - thick
actin - thin

428
Q

Regulatory protiens

A

troponin, tropomyosin

429
Q

muscle spindles

A

the brain regulates tone via - gamma(fibres) motor neuron
annulo + nuclear bag(phasic) = rate of change
flower + nuclear chain = length

430
Q

Pain is

A

picked up by multiple brain centres
noxious stimulus is inhibited at the spinal cord by down path

431
Q

glial cells

A

support nerons and neron activity
make mylin

432
Q

graded

A

membrane potential

433
Q

action

A

voltage responce

434
Q

excitable

A

alter membrane potential

435
Q

effarent

A

motor, impulse, effects

436
Q

vagus N

A

X - heart/brain stem/Ach/terminal ganglia
III,VI,IX,X

437
Q

Sympathetic

A

T1-L2/lateral grey horn
-Chain ganglia - found parallel to vertebral colum
-pervertebral collateral ganglia found anterior to vertebral colum near large abdominal arteries
Pre-short- mylin type B (chain ganglia are next to vertebral colum)
Post-long - un mylin type C (effector is further away)
NE
DIVERGENT - 10-20 targets
Adrenal medulla modified ganglia (releases epinephrin and NE)

additional branches
Greater and lesser splanic N

EJACULATION

438
Q

parasympathetic

A

“cranial sacral”
Terminal ganglia near or in the wall of the organ
Cranial N III,VI,IX,X
sacral lateral grey horn
Pre- LONG mylin type B
Post - short unmylin Type C
Ach
rest and digest

ERECTIONS

439
Q

Preganglionic fibers are

A

myelinated type B

440
Q

postganglionic fibers

A

travel to the targeted effector and are unmyelinated Type C (SLOW)
Short in the parasymp.
Long in the Sympath.

441
Q

Splanchnic N (symp)
Sacral (Parasymp)

A

digestive, urinary and reproductive

442
Q

vegus N (parasymp)

A

Inervates heart, bronchi, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, galbladder, small intestines, and ascending colon

443
Q

Schwan

A

insulated axons with myline in the PNS
saltery conduction along mylinated axon

444
Q

neuron has

A

body/neuclus/organelles/axon to taget cells/dendrite to synaps info/axonhilac with voltage gated ion channels at

445
Q

Salivary amylase

A

carbs in the mouth

446
Q

pancreatic amylase

A

carbs in the small intestine

447
Q

Brush border enzyme

A

small intestine
carbs/protien/neucleic acids

448
Q

Bacteria

A

LG intestine
Carbs/Protien
Vitamins B and K

449
Q

Lingual lipase

A

in the mouth
activated in the stomach with gastric lipase (chief cells)
LIPIDS

450
Q

Pepsin

A

in the stomach
mixed with HCI
(inactive for pepsinogen via chief cells)
PROTIEN

451
Q

HCI

A

Via parietal cells in the stomach. activates pepsinogen to become pepsin
PROTIENS

452
Q

pancreatic lipase

A

small intestine
with bile to emulsify
LIPIDS

453
Q

Pancriatic protease

A

small intestine
PROTIEN

454
Q

Pancreatic nuleases

A

Small intestine
NEUCLEIC ACIDS

455
Q

Chief cells

A

in the stomach
pepsinogen
gastric lipase
PROTIEN/LIPIDS

456
Q

alderterone - mineralocoricoid
ZONA GLOM - superficial adrenal cortex

A

increase K+
causes retention of water which intern increases blood volume pressure

457
Q

Cortisol - glucocorticoid
ZONA FASCI
- middle adrenal zone

A

down regulates immune system and inhibits inflamatory response

458
Q

Adreneal medulla
sympathetic NS

A

releases NE and epinephrine

459
Q

GAS general adaptation syndrome

A

body tries to manage stress
1. alarm fight or flight epineohrine and NE
2. resistance is a long term reaction to chronic stress (coricotropin, GH, thyrotropin)
3. exhaustion body is depleated

460
Q

Pancrease

A

endorine - insulin (beta cells)
Glucagen (alpha cells)

461
Q

Somatotroph cells

A

Anterior pituitary
growth releasing hormone

462
Q

Lacotrophs

A

anterior pituitary
prolactin

463
Q

portal system

A

connects anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus

464
Q

connected via neurons

A

posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus

465
Q

Zona Glom- mineral carticoids
Zona fasc - glucocorticoids
Zona retic -gonadal androgens

A

3 zons of the adrenal gland superficial to deep

466
Q

CRH - corticotropin releasing hormone

A

hypothalamus

467
Q

accessory organ
tucked into the curve of the duodenum

A

pancrease

468
Q

connects the stomach to the duodenum

A

pyloric sphincter

469
Q

produced in the stomach and released to the small intestine

A

Chyme (food and enzymes)
mixed by segmentation in the intestine

470
Q

begining of the large intestine

A

Cecum

471
Q

elastic tissue + amount of surfactant =

A

compliance in the respatory system

472
Q

Pseudostratified caliated columnar epithelium

A

epitheial lining in the nose

473
Q

stored and secreted in the posterior pituitary - milk let down

A

Oxytocin

474
Q

Houses the osteocyte

A

lacuna
layers of lacuna is lamulle

475
Q

Primary cell in mature bone

A

osteocyte
(mineralization)

476
Q

basic structeral unit of compact bone made of calcified bone with harversian system

A

Osteon

477
Q

Bone from mesenchymal tissue

A

Intra ossification

478
Q

bone from hayaline cartilage

A

endo ossification

479
Q

results in gametes or a cell with 1/2 the DNA f the parent cell

A

meiosis
Reproductive cell division

480
Q

gametes contain____ chromosomes

A

23
1/2 of human (46)

481
Q

M ____ chromosome
F _____ chromosome

A

M= X and small Y
F= two X

482
Q

Sperm production is more efficient 2-4 degrees below core temp. temp regulation is carried out by

A

the scrotum and the cremaster muscles (net that covers the testies
2 muscles that descend from internal oblique)

483
Q

these develop near the kidney, on the posterior abdominal wall and descend into the scrotum durring the 7th month of fetal development

A

Testes, descend throught the inguinal canal

484
Q

stem cells undergoing spermatogenesis are found

A

within the lobules sperm develop in seminiferous tubules

485
Q

surround developing sperm cells and secrete signalling molecules that promote sperm production and can control weather germ cells live or die

A

Sertoli Cells

486
Q

mature sperm is stored

A

in the tail of epididymus (a coiled tube attached to the testies) until ejaculation

487
Q

glands that add secretions to sperm to create semen
(sperm is only 5%)

A

accessory glands:
seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral

488
Q

this gland sits anterior to the rectum at the base of the bladder and surrounds the prostatic urethra

A

Prostate gland

489
Q

beings with the ovarian stem cells (oogonia) formed durring fetal development and divided via mitosis.
Oogonia form primary oocytes in the fetal ovary prior to birth. the primaty oocytes arrest in meiosis and resume at puberty can continues to menopause

A

Oogenesis

Begins in fetal development, paused until puberty and continues to menopause

490
Q

Tertiary follicles are growing and secreting estrogen.
FSH stimulates follicuar growth, LH stimulated the gansulosa and theca cells to produce estrogen.

A

follicular/perovulatory phase

stratum functionalis of the endometrum thickens

491
Q

Large burst of LH causes ovulation of the dominate follicle, stimulating the resumption of meiosis of the primary oocyte to the secondary oocyte

A

Ovulatory phase

The surge of LH stimulates a chane in the granulosa and theca cells that remain in the follicle after the oocyte is ovulated, this is called leutinisation and it transforms the collaped follicle into a new endocrine structure called the corpus luteum (produces progesterone)

492
Q

the increase in progesterone in this phase is key for maintaining a thick stratum funcionalis and prepairs the endometrim lining for implantation

A

Luteal phase

493
Q

LH binds to receptors on this cell in the testies and up reguates the production of testosterone

A

leydig cells
found between the seminiferous tubles and the testes

494
Q

plays a role in muscle development/bone growth/2nd sex charateristics/maintaining libido

A

testosterone

495
Q

corpus letum

A

progestrone production

496
Q

when a sperm and an oocyte combine and their nuclei fuse the new cell is diploid and called a

A

Zygote

497
Q

Stratum functionalis
(given rise from stratum basalis that does not shed)

A

layer that sheds durring mensis

498
Q

stimulates male fetus gonads to secrete testosterone and promotes servival of the corpus lutem

A

function of HCG

499
Q

2 arteries and 1 vein

A

blood vessels in the umbelical cord

500
Q

stage 1, 2 and 3 of child birth

A

1.dialtion
2. dilation10cm to expulsion of baby
3. deliver of placenta

501
Q

Urine should not contains

A

blood,bacteria,protiens,ketones,WBC or RBC

502
Q

very short, incorporated into bladder wal

A

preprostatic utethra

503
Q

passes through the prostate

A

prostatic urethra

504
Q

passes though the deep muscles of the perineum, invested by overlying urethral spincters

A

membranous urethera

505
Q

exits the tip of the penis, after passing though the corpus spongiosum

A

spongy urethra

506
Q

picks up the oocyte

A

fimbriae

507
Q

first section of the filopian tube the oocyte travels through

A

infundibulum

508
Q

falopian tube from ovary to fundus

A

> fimbriae-fingers of the infundibulum
-infundibulum - wide distal end
-ampula - fertilization/middle region of the tube
-isthmus- narrow/medial end connected to the uterus
fundus (top of the uterus

509
Q

Layers of the uterus inside to outside

A

endomitrium/myometrium/perimetrium

510
Q

between the uterus and the cervix

A

uterine isthmus

511
Q

estrogen causes ____ in the smooth muscle of the uterine tube

A

contractions every 4-8 seconds and cordinates movement of cilia

512
Q

body of the uterus

A

middle section

513
Q

superior portion of the uterus that conects to the filopian tubes is the

A

fondus

514
Q

regulated by the involuntary ANS

A

voiding/internal urinary sphincter consisting of smooth musle and voluntary skeletal that forms the external sphincter

515
Q

in women the bladder lies

A

anterior to the uterus
posterior to the pubic bone
anterior to the rectom

516
Q

interior of the bladder is

A

made of transitional cellular epithelium for large volume fluxuations
(0-500,600ml)

517
Q

Properterm for unination or voiding

A

micturition

518
Q

connect the renal pelvis (kidneys) to the bladder

A

ureters
(lined with trasitional epithelium)

519
Q

waves of peristalsis and hydrostatic pressure and gravity

A

move urin thought the ureter

520
Q

ribs 11 and 12 protect ____ in the retroperitoneal space.
left is about t12-t13 right is lower due to liver

A

kidneys - need 25% of cadiac output

521
Q

CT extensions that radiate downward from the cortex through the medulla to separate the renal pyramids and renal papillae

A

renal colums

522
Q

6-8 cone shaped tissues in the medulla of the kidney containing collecting ducts and the loops of henle of the juctaglomerular nephrons

A

Renal pyramids

523
Q

cup like structures recieving urins from the collecting ducts and passes it on to the renal pelvis and ureter
minor and major

A

Calyces

524
Q

fromed from the minor and major calyces.
smooth muscle that funnels urine into the ureter via peristalisis and hydrostatic pressure

A

Renal pelvis

525
Q

the functional unit of the kidney; cleanse the blood and balance the constituents of the circulation

A

Nephrons

526
Q

Afferent Arteriole
Glomerulus
Efferent arteriole
Pertiular capillary
Vasa Recta

AGEPV

A

order of blood vessels around the nephron

AGEPV

527
Q

filtrate moves though the

A

nephron

528
Q

Vasa recta
Peritubular capillary

VP

A

recover most of the solutes and water from the filtrate and return them to circulation

PORTAL SYSTEM

529
Q

parts of the nephron that perform filtration

A

Renal corpuscle:
glomerulus and bowmans capsule

530
Q

parts of the nephron that do secretion and reabsorption

A

Renal Tubules:
PCT -proximal convoluted tubule
DCT - distal convoluted tubule
Loop of henle

531
Q

Parts of the Nephron that make final adjustments

A

Collecting ducts

532
Q

simple squamous epithelium (parirtal layer)
then transitions to glomerular capillaries (viceral layer/ podocytes)

A

outside to of the bowmans capsule

533
Q

cells with finger like arms that cover glomerular capillaries, and project interdigitate to form filtration slits leaving small gaps b/w digits to form a sieve

A

Podocytes

534
Q

3 things that form the filtration membrane

A

fenestrations
basement membraine
podocytes

535
Q

this prevents filtrations of blood cells and larg protiens

A

fenestrations

536
Q

prevents filtration of medium to large protiens

A

basement membrane

537
Q

stops filtration of medium sized protiens and NOT small ones

A

podocytes

538
Q

DTC > JGA (macula densa). a cluster of cuboidal epithelial cells that

A

monitor fluid composition (Na+) flowing through the DTC as well as rate of fluid via nonmotile cilium.

539
Q

JGA releases paracrine signals____ and ____ in responce to Na+ concentration and change in flow rage

A

ATP and adenosine

540
Q

JGA cell that modified smooth muscle cell lining in the afferent arteriole (contract or relax) in response to ATP or adenosine released by the macula densa

A

Juxtaglomular cell

541
Q

jga macula densa releases ATP or adenosine and causes the

A

juxtaglomular cells to contract or relax the afferent arteriole in response to flow/Na+
controlling the GFR (glomerular filtration rate)

542
Q

too much Na+

A

juxtaglomular cells contract and decresase GFR, leading to less plasma filtration and less urine and decreases Na+ in the DTC

543
Q

Not enough Na+

A

Juxtaglomular cells relax and increase GFR, enhancing the loss of water to urine causing Na+ to rise

544
Q

GFR

A

keeps rate of filtration consistant

545
Q

PCT is lined with_____
more substances move across PCT membrane then any other portion of the nephron

A

simple cuboidal cells with microvilli on luminal surface (same as decending Loop of Henle)
67% H2O,Na+,K+ reabsobed in the PCT
100% glucose, amino acids, vitamins etc

546
Q

decending - thick made of simple cuboidal cells similar to PCT
thin portion is made of simple squamous epithelium,
ascending - thick simple cuboital cells with out cilia similar to DCT

A

Loop of henle
ASCENDING is completely impermeable to water due to absence of aquaporin channels, makes filtrate hypoosmotic by the time it reaches the DCT

547
Q

collecting ducts

A

simple squamus epithelium
stimulated by ADH - increases water retention

548
Q

99% of filteration is

A

returned to circulation
1-2L urine/day

549
Q

afferent arterioles change hydrostatic pressure by

A

dilate to increase flow to glomerulus

550
Q

efferent arterioles change hydrostatic pressure by

A

constrict

551
Q

is essential for the reabsorption of nutriens in renal tubles

A

Na+ movement

552
Q

secrete and absorbe acid or bicarbonate

A

intercalated cells

553
Q

causes aquaporin channels to be inserted onto the apical membrane be principle cells. water flows into peritubular capillaries

A

ADH

554
Q

Pricipal cells have receptors for

A

Alderosterone. regulates Na+ recovery

principal cells manufature luminal Na+ and K+ channels and pumps on the basal membrane

555
Q

regulate blood PH and reabsorb K+ and HC03- while sectreting H+ into filtrate and increasing the acidity of urine

A

Intercalated cells

increase acidity

556
Q

nitrogen wastes produce by the removal of amine group of amino acids
(break town of creatine from muscle tissue)

A

deamination
results in urea or uric acid

557
Q

wastes from the break down of purine nucleic acids

A

uric acid

558
Q

Annulo + nuclear bag

A

rate of change in a spindle

559
Q

flower + nuclear chain

A

change in length of a spindle

560
Q
A

Phys (8 decks)

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