Exam III Musculoskeletal Flashcards
1
Q
What type of joint is enclosed in ajoint cavity?
A
Synovial joint
2
Q
Name three types of synovial joints
A
Knee,elbow, shoulder, ankle, wrist,and TMJ.
3
Q
What does a synovial joint secrete and from what tissue does it secrete it?
A
Synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid (lubricant) for joints
4
Q
What is a characteristic of fibrous joints?
A
Not much give.
5
Q
What some fibrous joints in the body?
A
Between radius andulna
Between tibia and fibula
Teeth and alveolar bone, sutures.
6
Q
What type of joint is between the vertebrae, first pair of ribs and sternum?
A
Cartilaginous
7
Q
What characteristic of movement is evident in cartilaginous joints?
A
A little movement
8
Q
What are tendons?
A
Chords of fibrous tissue that connect muscle to bone.
9
Q
Do you strain or sprain a tendon?
A
Strain a tendon
10
Q
Do you strain or sprain a ligament?
A
Sprain a ligament
11
Q
Is a tendon sprained or strained?
A
Strained
12
Q
Is a ligament sprained or strained?
A
Sprained
13
Q
What are rope-like bundles of collagenthat bind articulating bones together?
A
Ligaments
14
Q
Do tendons or ligaments allow stretch?
A
Tendons
15
Q
T/F - Ligaments do not stretch
A
True
16
Q
How many bursa are there in the body?
A
150 bursa
17
Q
What disc-shaped sac in our joint space adds extra cushion to articulating bone space?
A
Bursa
18
Q
What is a bursa filled with?
A
Synovial fluid
19
Q
The bursa help which two tissues glide smoothly over bone to cushion joint action?
A
Muscles and tendons
20
Q
Name the three types of muscle in the body.
A
Cardiac
Skeletal
Smooth
21
Q
What types of muscle are under involuntary control?
A
Cardiac and smooth
22
Q
Is skeletal muscle under conscious or unconscious control?
A
Conscious
23
Q
Is cardiac muscle striated or unstriated?
A
Striated
24
Q
Where is cardiac muscle found?
A
In the wall of the heart
25
What is skeletal muscle attached to?
Bone by tendons
26
What type of muscle is found in the hollow visceral organs (liver, pancreas, and intestines)?
Smooth muscle
27
What are following accessing?
Bathing
Toileting
Dressing
Grooming
Eating
Mobility
Activities of Daily Living
28
What two methods are used for determining range of motion?
Active (the patient moves it) and passive (provider does it for the patient)
29
What is the most sensitive sign of joint disease?
Limited ROM
30
What is crepitation?
A grating sensation or sound from rubbing/friction between bone and cartilage or bone abnormalities such as a tear or overgrowth of bone
31
T/F - Normal joint motion can cause tenderness, pain, or crepitation
False. Joint motion normally causes no tenderness, pain, or crepitation
32
For active limitations in ROM, what should the provider do?
Gently attempt passive motion
33
T/F - Normal ranges of active and passive motion should be same
True
34
What actions are flexion and extension?
Flexion: Closing a joint (decreasing the angle between two bones)
Extension: Opening a joint (increasing the angle between two bones)
35
What are abduction and adduction?
With abduction, limbs (arms, legs or fingers) are moved away from your body's midline. Adduction, however, refers to moving your limbs closer to the midline.
36
What are pronation and supination and in what body part do they occur?
Supination and pronation describe the up or down orientation of your hand, arm, or foot. When your palm or forearm faces up, it's supinated. When your palm or forearm faces down, it's pronated
37
What are dorsiflexion and plantarflexion?
Flex your right foot back, pushing your heel forward and pulling your toes toward you. This is dorsiflexion. Hold for 5 seconds. Then move your foot in the opposite direction, pointing your foot and toes away from you. This is plantarflexion.
38
What are inversion and eversion?
Eversion of the Ankle: Tilting of the sole of the foot outwards to face laterally.
This looks like you are pushing your big toes into the ground and lifting the little toe up.
Inversion: Tilting of the sole of the foot inwards to face medially.
This looks like you are pushing your little toes into the ground and lifting the big toe up.
39
What are internal and external rotation?
Internal shoulder rotation involves rotating your upper arm toward the front side of your torso. External rotation involves rotating it away from the front side of your torso.
40
What are horizontal internal rotation and horizontal external rotation?
41
What are protraction and retraction of jaw and shoulder blades?
Plus, retraction of shoulder blades is bringing your shoulder blades together. Protraction is reaching them forward.
42
What is opposition?
Opposition is a small hand movement consisting of the thumb touching the tips of the other digits.
43
Muscle strength should be equal and what?
Bilateral
44
Muscle strength should be equal bilaterally and should what?
Should fully resist opposing force.
45
What is muscle atrophy?
Atrophy – loss of muscle bulk/wasting
46
What is muscle hypertrophy?
Increase in bulk with proportionate strength
47
What is pseudohypertrophy?
Increase in bulk; not strength (neurological/muscular disorder, overcompensation due to problem elsewhere)
48
Why is muscle tone important?
To protect joints from hyperextending; in infant with decreased muscle tone, limbs hang, muscles don’t protect joints from overextending.
49
What are the following?
Paresis
Plegia
Hemiparesis
Paraplegia
Quadraplegia
Paresis - weakness
Plegia – paralysis
Hemiparesis – one half of body
Paraplegia – paralysis of legs
Quadraplegia – paralysis of all limbs
50
What is effusion?
Effusion – excess synovial fluid in joint space, inflammatory process, more fluid produced in response to injury, WBC response, red, warm, swollen.
51
What is myalgia?
Aches and pains in muscle
52
Arthralgia
Pain in joint without evidence of arthritis.
53
Tendonitis
Repetitive motion injury
54
What joint permits jaw function of speaking and chewing?
TMJ
55
What three joint motions does the TMJ exhibit?
- Hinge action: to open and close jaws
- Gliding action for protrusion and retraction
- Gliding for side-to-side movement of lower jaw
56
Lateral view of the spine shows vertebral column with how many curves?
Four, a double-S
57
Which portions of the spine are convex?
Thoracic and sacrococcygeal
58
Which portions of the spine are concave?
Cervical and lumbar
59
60
In older people, an enhanced thoracic curve is called what?
Kyphosis
61
In obese or pregnant people what is a pronounced lumbar curve called?
Lordosis
62
What is scoliosis?
Spine is S or C-shaped
63
Kyphosis is caused by what?
Kyphosis is often due to weakness in the spinal bones that causes them to compress
64
Movements to check spine ROM
65
Movements for spine ROM
66
What is an articulation of the humerus with the glenoid fossa of the scapula
The shoulder
67
Rotator cuff is a group of which four muscles along with tendons to support and stabilize shoulder?
SITS - Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, terres minor, subscapularis
68
What is a positive arm drop sign?
Positive drop arm sign – use alternating muscles to try to get shoulder to raise. Surgical fix.
69
Between the bones of the wrist are
Synovial joints
70
Flexor tendons of wrist and hand enclosed in...
synovial sheaths
71
Arthritis in the distal metacarpal joint is called
Herberden’s node
72
Arthritis in the middle metacarpal joint is called
Bouchard’s node
73
What test for carpel tunnel syndrome reproduces numbness and burning?
Phalen's test
74
What test for carpel tunnel syndrome produces burning and tingling along the distribution of the median nerve?
Tinel's sign
75
Most problems with the hip are involved in what?
Weight bearing
76
What three points on the hip can you palpate?
- Ischial tuberosity lies under gluteus maximus muscle; palpable when hip flexed
- Greater trochanter of femur below iliac crest
- Superior iliac spine
77
The knee is the articulation of which three bones
Femur, tibia, patella
78
Two sets of ligaments that give knee stability
Cruciate (anterior and posterior) and collateral (lateral and medial)
79
Which test is this:
Firmly stroke up on medial aspect of knee two or three times to displace any fluid; tap lateral aspect and watch medial side in hollow for distinct bulge from a fluid wave.
Bulge sign in knee
80
What three bones are at the articulation of the ankle?
Tibia, fibula and talus
81
What four motions exist in the ankle?
Inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
82
What acute condition is caused by high purines in diet (rich man disease), seafood, red meat, organ meat, alcohol, produce uric acid and build up in joint spaces?
Gout
83
Hammer toes
Common, metatarsal bone displaces
84
Calcaneal bursitis
85
Corn
86
Bunions
Tend to be osteoarthritis, wore heels, narrow tight shoes, great toes grow toward second toes
87
Ruptured achilles tendon presents how?
If achilles bursts, patient will say “someone kicked me.”
88
What motion can a patient not do with a ruptured achilles?
Cannot plantar flex
89
By what gestational age does the fetal have a fully formed cartilaginous skeleton?
3 months
90
Most reliable test to check hips for congenital dislocation; which should be done at every visit until infant is 1 year old, palpable click is dysplasia.
Ortolani’s maneuver
91
Used to check for hip dislocation in infants (dysplasia)
One knee is much lower than the other is positive
ALLIS/GALEAZZI
92
Two devices to correct hip dysplasia in infants
Spica cast
Pavlick harness
93
What causes increased mobility in joints during pregnancy?
Increased levels of circulating hormones (estrogen, relaxin) .
94
What condition causes low back pain in pregnancy?
Progressive lordosis-compensating for enlarging fetus by shifting weight farther back on lower extremities - creates strain on low back muscles
95
What is a pathological break?
Bone breaks first and causes fall.
96
What percentage of falls cause hip fractures?
95% of falls cause hip fractures
97
What percentage of older people die within 6 months of breaking a hip?
50%
98
How much exercise is enough?
2 hours and 30 minutes/week of moderate-intensity, or 1 hour and 15 minutes/week of vigorous-intensity
