Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Traumatic Brain Injury

A

Blow to the head that interferes with brain function

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2
Q

Which brain injury is most mild?
Direct
Acceleration/Deceleration
Blast

A

Direct

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3
Q

What does a direct brain injury do that an acceleration/deceleration or blast injury will not do?

A

Resolves in 10 days

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4
Q

Concussion symptoms

A
  • Headache
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Sensitivity of light and/or sound
  • Changes to reaction in time, balance, and coordination
  • Changes in memory, judgment, and/or speech
  • Sleep pattern changes
  • Risk for reoccurrence higher in first 10 days following initial concussion
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5
Q

Is headache associated with concussion?

A

Yes

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6
Q

Is nausea associated with concussion?

A

Yes

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7
Q

What sensitivities/phobias are associated with concussions?

A

Photophobia and phonophobia

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8
Q

Changes in memory, judgement and speech occur with what type of injury

A

Concussion

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9
Q

With what head injury are sleep patterns altered?

A

Concussion

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10
Q

With a concussion, what is the risk in the next 10 days?

A

Reoccurrence

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11
Q

What is the leading cause of TBI in those older and younger than 65?

A

Over 65 - falls
Under 65 - transportation accidents

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12
Q

Worldwide, TBI is the leading cause of what from accidents?

A

Accident related death and disability.

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13
Q

Worldwide, TBI is the leading cause of what condition?

A

Seizure disorders

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14
Q

These are the symptoms of what?
- Memory impairments
- Disturbed thought processes
- Spastic or involuntary movements
- Personality changes
- Vision and or hearing changes
- Seizures

A

Traumatic Brain Injury

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15
Q

Three primary headaches

A

Tension, migraines, cluster

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16
Q

What is the process for which three primary headaches evolve?

A

Tension - process unclear
Migraines - neuronal dysfunction
Cluster - process unclear

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17
Q

What is the most common headache?

A

Tension headaches

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18
Q

Which headache occurs bilaterally in head, neck, temporal region?

A

Tension

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19
Q

What headache is more mild, sometimes moderate, episodic or chronic, associated symptoms are light sensitivity, no nausea

A

Tension

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20
Q

Stress makes what headache worse, along with aggravation by sustained positions, sleep disturbances

A

Tension

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21
Q

What headache is unilateral and:
Lasts 4-72 hours
Reoccurring
Familial
More woman than men
Connection between estrogen and migraines (pregnant now have them)
Nausea
Triggers – food, alcohol, period, stress, high altitudes
Photo and phonophobia

A

Migraines

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22
Q

What headache has auras (sensory, buzzing, pins and needles, blurred vision), prodrome (behavioral – change in mode, irritability, mood change)

A

Migraines

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23
Q

What headache presents with photophobia and phonophobia?

A

Migraines

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24
Q

What headache has the following characteristics:
Higher in males
Usually during 6-12 month with repeat, usually behind one eye or temple
Intense so usually go to ER with first one.
Can cause swelling around eyes, runny nose,
Rare

A

Cluster headache

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25
What type of headaches is a category containing more pronounced forms of tension, migraine, and medication overuse headaches that last more than 15 days a month for more than 3 months?
Chronic daily headache
26
The following are risk factors for what type of headache: Caffeine ingestion Obesity Use of headache medications (>10 days a month) predisposed to these Sleep and mood disorders 
Chronic daily headache
27
What is SNOOP used for?
Red flag detection tool for secondary headaches
28
What does SNOOP stand for?
Systemic symptoms and secondary risk factors Neurologic symptoms/signs Onset/Other associated conditions Positional/Prior HA/Papilledema (a condition in which increased pressure in or around the brain (intracranial pressure) causes swelling of the part of the optic nerve inside the eye (optic disc).
29
What is Papilledema?
Papilledema (a condition in which increased pressure in or around the brain (intracranial pressure) causes swelling of the part of the optic nerve inside the eye (optic disc).
30
What is papilledema associated with?
SNOOP - Red flag detection tool to rule out secondary headaches.
31
What is a secondary headache that is "the worst of my life?"
Subarachnoid hematoma (Thunderclap headache)
32
Are secondary headaches more severe or less severe than primary headaches?
More severe.
33
What are some secondary headaches?
Glaucoma, subarachnoid hemorrhage, post-concussion headache, meningitis, brain tumor
34
What is a thunderclap headache?
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
35
Three types of traumatic brain injuries?
Direct impact, acceleration/deceleration, blast
36
What type of traumatic brain injury is mild and resolved in 10 days?
Direct impact.
37
What is a traumatic brain injury?
Blow to head that interferes with the function of the brain.
38
Signs of concussion
Headache Nausea/vomiting Sensitivity of light and/or sound Changes to reaction in time, balance, and coordination Changes in memory, judgment, and/or speech Sleep pattern changes Risk for reoccurrence higher in first 10 days following initial concussion
39
Where is the anterior triangle of the neck located?
Edge of mandible, anterior length of sternocleidomastoid muscle
40
Where is the posterior triangle of the neck located?
Posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle, anterior edge of trapezoid, superior border of clavicle.
41
What is Hirsutism?
A condition in women that results in excessive growth of dark or coarse hair in a male-like pattern — face, chest and back.
42
Three things to check on physical examination of the head.
Hair – quantity, distribution, and texture, Hirsutism Scalp – scaling, lumps, lesions Skull – size and contour, deformities, lumps, tenderness
43
Abnormal findings on infant head.
Bulging, shrunken, small or delayed closing in fontenelles. Anterior should close between 9 months -- 2 years. Hydrocephalus.
44
Hydrocephalus
Obstruction of drainage of cerebrospinal fluid results in excessive accumulation, increasing intracranial pressure, and enlargement of the head
45
What is an obstruction of drainage of cerebrospinal fluid results in excessive accumulation, increasing intracranial pressure, and enlargement of the head
Hydrocephalus
46
Facial assessment
• Note facial expression and appropriateness to behavior or reported mood • Facial structures always should be symmetric • Note symmetry of eyebrows, palpebral fissures, nasolabial folds, and sides of mouth • Note any abnormal facial structures (coarse facial features, exophthalmos, changes in skin color or pigmentation), or abnormal swellings • Note any involuntary movements (tics) in facial muscles; normally none occur
47
Exophthalmos
The protrusion of one eye or both anteriorly out of the orbit (bulging).
48
What is the protrusion of one eye or both anteriorly out of the orbit?
Exophthalmos
49
Cushing Disease normal cause
Usually from high dose corticosteroids
50
Visual symptoms of Cushing Disease
Moon cheeks, red cheeks, excessive hair growth especially of chin, mustache, sideburns.
51
Moon cheeks, red cheeks, excessive hair growth especially of chin, mustache, sideburns are symptoms of what?
Cushing Disease
52
What condition is caused when kidneys pass too much protein in urine and results from high bp, type II diabetes?
Nephrotic syndrome
53
Edematous meaning
swollen with an excessive accumulation of fluid
54
What condition presents with these symptoms: Face is edematous and pale. Swelling around eyes in morning. Eyes slits when edema is bad.
Nephrotic syndrome
55
Nephrotic syndrome presents with what symptoms?
Face is edematous and pale, swelling around eyes worse in morning.
56
Acromegaly is a problem of what gland?
Pituitary
57
What is acromegaly?
Excessive growth caused by too much growth hormone produced by pituitary, Bone and soft tissue affected.
58
Facial abnormalities in children
Fetal alcohol syndrome – damage neural crest, lower jaw recessed, etc. Down syndrome, flatter feature, up-slanting eyes, low set smaller ears, smaller neck. Atopic (allergic) facies • Allergic salute • Allergic (shiners)   • Crease above bottom nose • Shiners (swollen eyes)
59
Atopic (allergic) facies in children include:
• Allergic salute • Allergic (shiners)   • Crease above bottom nose • Shiners (swollen eyes)
60
The following of symptoms of what in children: • Allergic salute • Allergic (shiners)   • Crease above bottom nose • Shiners (swollen eyes)
Atopic (allergic) facies
61
Disease that effects the parotid gland
Mumps most common, staph, strep, fungus
62
Submandibular gland issues
Swelling, usually stones - massage, more fluids
63
Lymph node assessment
Pads of index and middle fingers palpate in circular motion Usually examine both sides at once Patient relaxed with neck flexed forward slightly 
64
Verchow’s node
It is the thoracic duct end node
65
Are lymph nodes usually movable?
Yes
66
Abnormal lymph node findings?
Tender  = inflammation Unilateral/fixed/hard = malignancy? Soft, movable – either normal for them or infection. Enlarged – examine regions from which they drain (upstream) Diffuse lymphadenopathy = HIV/AIDS Should be able to move up/down, around.
67
Lymphadenopathy
A disease of the lymph nodes, in which they are abnormal in size or consistency
68
From which two directions can you palpate the thyroid?
From anterior position or posterior position
69
What type of lighting helps accommodate inspection?
Tangential.
70
Causes of these thyroid conditions: Diffuse enlargement Single nodule Multinodular goiter
Diffuse enlargement: Graves, Hashimoto's, Goiter Cyst, benign tumor Malignancy
71
Symptoms of hypothyroidism
Swelling of face, lips, eyelid, tongue​ Coarse hair 
72
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism
Visual changes (Myxedema) Exophthalmos Stare and lid lag Fine hair 
73
What is an impact test?
HIT is a tool used to measure the impact headaches have on your ability to function on the job, at school, at home and in social situations. Your score shows you the effect that headaches have on normal daily life and your ability to function.
74
PQRST test for headaches
PQRST of the pain: provocation, quality, region, strength and time course
75
Pale turbinates associated with what condition?
Allergies
76
What is ptosis?
When the upper eyelid droops over the eye
77
What is miosis?
Excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye
78
What type of headache presents with "that started like the flip of a switch!" 
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
79
Three parts of successful interview
- Gathers complete and accurate data - Establishes and builds rapport and trust for person to share relevant data - Begins teaching for health promotion and disease prevention
80
Stages of the interview
- Pre-interview: self reflection, review the records, set goals, review own clinical behavior and appearance. - Introduction: establish rapport, review agenda - The working phase: (data collection) - Termination: Closing the interview, review/summarize with the patient, make sure I understand everything
81
What is the pre-interview stage of a client interview
Self reflection, review the records, set goals, review own clinical behavior and appearance.
82
In what stage of the client interview do you establish rapport, review agenda?
Introduction
83
In what phase of the client interview does the nurse collect data?
The working phase
84
What happens in the termination phase of a client interview?
Review/summarize
85
In the interview, what type of information are you collecting?
Subjective
86
What are the attributes of a symptom?
Onset Location Duration Characteristics Associated manifestations Relieving factors Treatment
87
Which of the following are internal and what are external factors of the process of communication? Refuse interruptions, dress, listening, physical environment, liking others, note-taking, ensure privacy, empathy.
Internal: Listening Empathy Liking others External: Ensure privacy Refuse interruptions Physical environment Dress Note-taking
88
Questions during the patient interview should proceed from what type to what type?
General to specific
89
What two types of questions exist in the interview?
Open and closed-ended.
90
False reassurance, giving unwanted advice, using authority, using avoidance language, engaging in distancing symptom from client, using professional jargon, leading or biased questions, talking too much, interrupting with "why" questions are examples of what?
Non-therapeutic communication
91
Physical appearance, body posture, gestures, facial expression, eye contact, voice and touch are what type of behaviors?
Non-verbal behaviors
92
Reassurance, silence/active listening, validation, reflection, empathy, clarification, interpretation, explanation, summery are part of what type of communication?
Therapeutic communication
93
Two types of communication
Therapeutic and non-therapeutic
94
The following are present what type of considerations when interviewing a patient? Parent Infant Toddler Schol-age Adolescent Older adult
Developmental considerations
95
How do you talk to an elderly person?
Address by proper name Speak slowly Adjust tone/volume (do not shout) Sit/lean at eye level Touch Use multiple segments to complete the interview
96
Should you use multiple segments to complete an interview with an elderly person?
Yes
97
If someone is acutely ill, should you complete the entire interview?
No.
98
Should you consider cultural considerations when interviewing?
Yes
99
Four parts of motivational interviewing (OARS).
Open-ended questions Affirmation Reflective listening Summarize and teach back
100
When an emotional cue surfaces in an interview, what's the mnemonic for responding?
NURS Naming- "That sounds like a scary experience." Understanding - It's understandable to feel that way." Respecting - You've done better than most..."
101
The NURS mnemonic is applicable to what? Naming- "That sounds like a scary experience." Understanding - It's understandable to feel that way." Respecting - You've done better than most..."
Responding to a patient who is emotional.
102
Two kinds of health history
Risk reduction Focused or problem-solving assessment
103
Nursing analysis clinical reasoning four steps (ICIM)
- Identify abnormal/positive findings - Cluster the findings - Interpret the findings - Make hypothesis
104
Components of health history
Identifying data Chief complaint History of present illness Past history Family history Review of systems Health patterns
105
What are the identifying data in a health history
Name DOB Gender Occupation Marital status Primary language
106
What part of the interview process is the chief complaint included?
Health history - Assessment
107
How do stethoscopes work?
They drown out background noise
108
What type of percussion sound do places with air make?
Produce louder, deeper and longer sound because it vibrates freely.
109
What type of percussion sound do places without make?
Produce softer, higher pitch, shorter sound because it doesn't not vibrate as easily.
110
Characteristics of percussion sounds
Resonance (lungs) Hyperresonance (air trapped in lungs) Tympany Dull (liver) Flat (bone)
111
Four parts of the comprehensive adult physical exam
IPPA: Inspection Palpation Percussion Auscultation (except over abdomen do auscultation second)
112
What three characteristics of percussion occur over areas with air? Without air?
Louder, higher, longer Softer, deeper, shorter
113
When examining kids, what part of the body do you start with?
The periphery, not the face.
114
What part of the stethoscope picks up high pitched sounds?
The diaphragm
115
What part of the stethoscope picks up low-pitched sounds?
The bell
116
What parts of the body do we listen to with the diaphragm of the stethoscope?
Lungs, bowels, breath
117
What parts of the stethoscope do we listen to with the bell of the stethoscope?
Murmurs, extra heart sounds.
118
Objectives of the general survey of the initial inspection of a patient.
Physical appearance Body structure Mobility Behavior
119
BMI levels
Underweight < 18.5 Normal 18.5 - 24.9 Overweight 25 - 29.9 Obesity 30 - 39.9 Extreme obesity > or = 40
120
What levels are the following BMIs: 30 - 39.9 < 18.5 18.5 - 24.9 > or = 40 25 - 29.9
Underweight < 18.5 Normal 18.5 - 24.9 Overweight 25 - 29.9 Obesity 30 - 39.9 Extreme obesity > or = 40
121
Increased risk of heart disease and obesity-related diseases for women and men with a waist circumference greater than what?
Women > 35 in Men > 40 in
122
What is Marfan syndrome?
Genetic problem with the connective tissue that Abraham Lincoln and Michael Phelps have.
123
Nursing analysis: Steps in clinical reasoning.
Identify abnormal/positive findings Cluster the findings Interpret the findings Make hypothesis
124
What part of the nursing care plan contains these steps? Based on real or potential health problems Based on assessment data Sets stage for remainder of care plan
Nursing diagnosis
125
Temperature normal
98.6°F, range 96.4° - 99.1° F 37°C, range 35.8° - 37.3° C
126
What part of the brain regulates temperature?
Hypothalamus
127
In what demographic is the temperature regulations deficient?
Infants
128
What is thermoregulation?
The regulation of the temperature through feedback mechanism
129
Rectal temps measure how much different than oral?
1 degree fahrenheit
130
Stroke volume
70 mL Amount of blood heart pumps into the aorta with every beat
131
What does pulse give?
Rate and rhythm
132
How long do you take a pulse?
30 seconds. If irregular, 1 minute.
133
Pulse rate
60 - 100 bpm
134
Bradycardia
> 60 bpm
135
Tachycardia
> 100 bpm
136
When is tachycardia normal?
During exercise or anxiety
137
When is bradycardia normal?
In well conditioned athletes
138
The force of the pulse is rated how?
0 absent 1+ weak, thready 2+ normal 3+ full, bounding
139
Normal respiration rate is counted how?
Count for 30 seconds, if irregular, count for 1 minute
140
What is blood pressure?
The force of blood against the vessel wall.
141
Systolic pressure -
Maximum pressure on an artery during left ventricular contraction (systole)
142
Diastolic pressure -
Pressure against a vessel wall when heart rests
143
High BP
Over 140/90
144
Normal BP
Below 120/80
145
Elevated BP
120 - 129/<80
146
Hypertension
Stage I - 130-139/80-89 Stage II - > or = 140; = or > 90
147
BP values
Normal below 120/80 Elevated 120 - 129/>80 Hypertension Stage I - 130-139/80-89 Hypertension Stage II - > or = 140, > or = 90
148
What BP errors result in lower BP than should be
BP cuff too big Arm above heart Repeating assessment too quickly Pressing stethoscope too tightly to brachial artery
149
What artery is being used to determine BP?
Brachial artery
150
Errors that result in too high a BP.
Cuff too small Too loose Arm below heart level Inflating/deflating cuff to slowly Deflating cuff too quickly
151
Orthostatic BP is what two measurements?
BP and pulse
152
Abnormal orthostatic BP levels?
Systolic drop 20 mm Diastolic drops 10 mm
153
What does O2 sat measure
Light absorbed by oxyhemoglobin and unoxygenated hemoglobin
154
O2 acceptable sat rate?
> 95%
155
Oxygen saturation is an indicated of oxygen available to what
Deliver to tissues
156
Hypoxia
Inadequate amount of oxygen available at the cellular level
157
What pulse do you palpate/auscultate with infants?
apical pulse
158
Dirunal
24 hour cycle
159
In children older than 2 use what site for pulse?
Radial
160
Use what size of stethoscope and BP cuff for children
Children-sized BP cuff and stethoscope
161
Crying might elevate pediatric BP by how much?
30-50 ?mm Hg
162
Does the heart rate vary more with adults of children?
Children
163
Should you take the vitals of a crying infant
No. Allow the child to settle for 5-10 minutes.
164
Difference between nociceptive and neuropathic pain?
Nociceptive: Injury to tissues Neuropathic: injury to peripheral nerves
165
What are nociceptors?
Specialized nerve endings that detect painful sensations and transmit to CNS.
166
Nociception involves what four pain mechanisms?
Transduction - stimuli causes tissue damage Transmission - relay from peripheral to CNS (dorsal horn processing, thalamus, cerebral cortex). Perception - conscious awareness Modulation - Pain inhibited by modulators
167
Classifications of pain
Somatic and visceral
168
Somatic pain
From BVs, joints, tendons, muscles, bone
169
Visceral pain
From organs, referred pain, neuropathic, phantom
170
Inhibitory neurotransmitters are in insufficient supply until birth at full term (T/F)?
True
171
Does a premie have a higher sensitivity to painful stimuli?
Yes
172
What is the red flag for weight loss?
More than 5% in 6 months
173
Side effects of overnutrition and weight gain.
Reduced metabolism Accumulation of body fluids Depression, eating disorders
174
Percentage of adults in the US who are overweight or obese.
73.6%
175
Percentage of children who are overweight or obese.
35.4%
176
Cracking around lips and in corners of mouth cause by?
B vitamin deficiency
177
Pale conjunctiva can be caused by a deficiency of?
Iron
178
Dark circles under the eyes can be a sign of?
Iron deficiency
179
Adventitious sounds in the lungs can indicate what?
Hydration level
180
Capillary refill is an indication of what?
Perfusion
181
How can you check for perfusion?
Press nail bed. If takes >3 seconds to return to pink, is compromised perfusion
182
Jugular distension is related to?
Heart failure, chronic condition of liver or kidneys, impaired ventricular function of heart
183
Heart failure, chronic condition of liver or kidneys, impaired ventricular function of heart are related to what condition?
Jugular distention
184
Ecchymosis
Discoloration due to bruising
185
Osteomalacia
Vit D deficiency
186
Marasmus
Severe calorie deficiency stunted growth, muscle wasting off growth chart.
187
Health promotion and counseling four steps
1. Measure BMI and assess risk factors 2. Assess dietary intake 3. Assess patient's willingness to change 4. Provide counseling about nutrition and exercise
188
Recommended guidelines for weight loss
Reduce by 500 (to 1000) calories/day 10% reduction in 6 months Weight loss of 1/2 to 1 pound per week Combine with nutrition and exercise
189
Exercise guidelines for weight loss
2 1/2 hours per week of moderate exercise 1 1/4 hours of vigorous exercise
190
Polypharmacy
Multiple medications
191
What two sinuses can be palpated?
Frontal and Maxillary (ethmoid and sphenoid can't be palpated)
192
What part of the pharynx contains the tonsils?
Oropharynx
193
What part of the pharynx contains the Eustachian tubes
Nasopharynx
194
Mumps affects which gland?
Parotid - largest salivary gland
195
How many permanent teeth are there?
32
196
Three parts of a tooth
Crown, neck, root
197
Bacteria in the mouth contribute to what?
Plaque formation via inflammation and increase risk of heart attack 200-300%
198
Babies drool at what age?
At 3 mouths start to salivate. Will drool for a few months before start to swallow saliva.
199
Babies have how many deciduous teeth?
20
200
When do deciduous teeth erupt?
6 months - 2 years
201
When do kids start to lose deciduous teeth?
6 -12 years
202
Major cause of decrease saliva in elderly is what?
Medication
203
Dysphagia
Trouble swallowing
204
Epistaxis
Nose bleed
205
Gag reflex tests what cranial nerves
Gag reflex - glossopharyngeal and vagus
206
Stick out tongue test what cranial nerve?
Hypoglossal
207
Halitosis
Bad breath
208
Get black tongue or candida by taking what?
Antibiotics
209
Uvula rising midline on "ah" tests what cranial nerve
Vagus
210
What condition can occur in the lungs with dehydration
Pleural friction
211
When the pleural space fills with air, is there an increase or decrease in lung expansion?
Decrease
212
By supplying oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide, what two levels are maintained in the body?
pH and acid/base balance
213
Breathing is run by what two centers in the brain?
Pons and medulla
214
A change in what levels is the feedback loop in the brain for breathing?
Carbon dioxide and oxygen
215
Negative or positive pressure? Inspiration Expiration
Inspiration - negative pressure Expiration - positive pressure
216
What muscle does 80% of the work of breathing?
Diaphragm
217
At what stage does fetus have lung surfactant?
32 weeks
218
The elderly experience what changes in vital capacity and residual lung volumes?
Vital capacity decreases Residual volume increases
219
In what condition does a patient do purse-breathing?
COPD
220
What to do in pursed lip breathing to strengthen diaphragm?
Exhale through pursed lips, inhale through nose with mouth closed. Also provides resistance.
221
Clubbing of nails occurs when?
With chronic hypoxia or chronic heart disease that leads to decreased oxygen
222
Why do patient's develop barrel chest
Lungs have trapped air in them from COPD so diaphragm becomes flattened from the force and does not work. Becomes immobile.
223
Five positions?
Supine (on back) Prone (on stomach) Left lateral recumbent Right lateral recumbent Fowler's (45° - Semi-Fowlers or 90°- high Fowlers) Trendelenberg (inverted)
224
What are intercostal/substernal retractions
Sucked in lungs of infant who can't breathe
225
Through what structure do babies breathe?
Through their nose
226
At what level do you place your hands to check for inspiration symmetrically anteriorly and posteriorly?
T9/T10
227
When does unequal expansion occur in the chest?
When breathing occurs only on one side, as in pleurisy.
228
Tactile fremitus is felt how?
By having patient repeat "99" and holding hand over lungs while bronchi and parenchyma transmit vibrations.
229
Is tactile fremitus stronger over structures with air or without?
Exaggerated over mass; decreased over air (normal lung tissue) and further decreased with too much air (COPD
230
On percussion, normal lungs produce what?
Resonance, low-pitched hollow sound.
231
On percussion, fluid or a solid mass presents how?
Dullness
232
On percussion, too much air in the lungs presents how?
Hyperresonance
233
Three types of normal breath sounds
Bronchial/Tracheal (over bronchii - high pitched harsh) Bronchovesicular - over major bronchials where not many ariolar (medium pitch) Vesicular - over air sacs (low piych (wind through the trees)
234
Crackles are what type of sound?
"Hair in front of air" Presence of fluid - possible heart failure. Fluid overload in lower lobes
235
Wheezing is what type of sound?
Edematous airway, airflow obstruction, high-pitched whistling (asthma)
236
Rhonchi are what type of sound?
Thick mucous usually in larger airways - "Rhonchi in the bronchi." Snoring.
237
Stridor are what type of sound?
Obstruction in larynx or trachea, medial emergency - foreign body in kids. Hear when walk into room.
238
What of the four lung sounds is an indication of heart failure?
Crackles
239
Which of the four lungs sounds is an indication of asthma?
Wheezing
240
Which of the four lung sounds is a medical emergency?
Stridor
241
With Bronchophony, sound travels better through masses than air (T/F?)
True
242
Normal O2 Sat level?
Normal is > 95
243
At what sat level should patient's receive O2?
90 or below
244
Hypoxia
Inadequate level of O2 at the cellular level
245
Hyoxemia
Inadequate level of O2 in arterial blood.
246
What is FIO2?
Fraction of inspired O2
247
What is the FIO2 of room air?
21%
248
What is the maximum liters of air that can be delivered via nasal cannula?
4L
249
What is Scoliosis
Curvature of the spine - may decrease lung volume
250
Pectus Excavatum
Hole in sternum - Usually asymptomatic
251
Kyphosis
Hunchback - potential for respiratory system compromise but usually not
252
Tachyapnea
Rapid, shallow breathing, Increased respiratory rate >24
253
Bradyapnea
Decreased respiratory rate, <10
254
Normal respiratory rate
12-20 breaths/minute
255
Hyperventilation
Increased rate/depth
256
Hypoventilation
Irregular breaths, shallow
257
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Increase rate and depth and then decrease periods of apnea (Hospice)
258
Primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention
The primary prevention approach focuses on preventing disease before it develops; secondary prevention attempts to detect a disease early and intervene early; and tertiary prevention is directed at managing established disease in someone and avoiding further complications.
259
Intermittent claudication
Limping