Exam I Flashcards
The general functions of epithelium.
Absorption, secretion, and to provide a barrier
Sensory functions of epithelium would most likely be found where?
Taste buds, retina in the eye
Basic characteristics of shared among epithelial types.
Cells are adjacent to one another, associated with complete/partial basement membranes, avascular, associated with vascular connective tissue, held together by cell junctions
Which part of the basement membrane is produced by epithelium?
Basal lamina
Which part of the basement membrane is produced by fibroblasts in connective tissue?
Reticular lamina
Basal lamina is produced by:
Epithelium
Reticular lamina is produced by:
Fibroblasts in connective tissue
A partial basement membrane is composed of:
Basal lamina only
Functions of a basement membrane.
Provides a surface for epithelial cell attachment, molecular filter, limits stretch, directs migration of cells
How do epithelial cells obtain nutrition?
Diffusion
Functions of connective tissue.
Provide nutrition and a source of defensive cells
Which cell junction is called a tight junction?
Zonula occludens
These junctions involve the sharing of intrinsic membrane proteins between adjacent cells.
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
Two functions of tight junctions.
Provide strong attachments and prevent passage of materials between cells
Which cell junction is called an adhesion belt?
Zonula adherens
Cadherins and marginal bands are found in which cell junction?
Zonula adherens (adhesion belt)
Functions of zonula adherens.
Provide strong attachments and cell structural stability
Which cell junction is called a desmosome?
Macula adherens
In which cell junction will you find proteins arranged in a cylinder?
Gap junctions
Functions of gap junctions.
Provide strong attachment and transport materials between cells
Which cell junction allows transport of materials between cells?
Gap junctions
Which junction helps to connect epithelial cells to the basal lamina?
Hemidesmosomes
Which junction uses integrin to bind to structural CT glycoproteins and also connects to the cytoskeleton?
Focal point contacts
Which clinical consideration of cell junctions is not an autoimmune disease, but instead caused by bacterial infection?
Cholera
Which clinical consideration of cell junctions causes large, blistering lesions that burst, but do heal?
Bullous pemphigoid
Which clinical consideration of cell junctions causes skin blistering that doesn’t heal easily, with excessive bleeding and can be fatal?
Pemphigus vulgaris
This disease is caused by antibodies that bind to some parts of desmosomes.
Pemphigus vulgaris
This disease is caused by toxins that disrupt proteins in the zonula occludens.
Cholera
This disease is caused by antibodies that bind to some proteins in hemidesmosomes.
Bullous pemphigoid
Epithelium that is a single layer thick is termed:
Simple epithelium
Epithelium found in the lung, parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule and serosa on the outside of organs is most likely what type?
Simple squamous
Functions of simple squamous epithelium.
Living filter, provide a barrier
Epithelium found in the exocrine ducts, thyroid cells, and kidney tubules is most likely what type?
Simple cuboidal
Functions of simple cuboidal epithelium.
Absorption, secretion, provide a barrier
Epithelium found in the stomach, small intestines, gall bladder and larger exocrine ducts is most likely what type?
Simple columnar
Functions of simple columnar epithelium.
Absorption, secretion, provide a barrier
Epithelium found in the trachea, respiratory region of nasal cavity and bronchi is most likely what type?
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar
The 3 cell types associated with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
Goblet cells, ciliated columnar cells, and basal cells
Function of goblet cells.
Produce mucus
Function of ciliated columnar cells.
Move mucus over the surface
Function of basal cells.
To be the stem cell for CPSC epithelium
Finger-like projections at the apical surface on some epithelial cells are called:
Microvilli
Microvilli are also called:
A brushborder or a striated border
Function of microvilli.
To increase surface area to increase absorption
Location of microvilli.
Kidney tubule cells and small intestines
Extremely long microvilli that aren’t related to true cilia are called:
Stereocilia
Location of stereocilia.
Epididymis and cochlear hair cells
Thin, apical hair-like extensions of the cytoskeleton are termed:
Cilia
What are two points about cells with cilia?
Cells have many mitochondria and basal bodies block the free surface so there is no absorption or secretion.
Location of cilia.
Trachea and fallopian tube (oviduct)
The surface layer of glycoproteins and carbs that covers some epithelium is termed:
Glycocalyx
The glycocalyx is produced by:
Epithelium
Functions of the glycocalyx.
Protection and cell recognition
Location of glycocalyx.
Stomach and small intestines
Epithelium that is two or more cell layers thick is called:
Stratified epithelium
Function of stratified squamous epithelium.
Protection from abrasion/friction
Location of stratified squamous epithelium.
Esophagus, oral cavity, tongue and vagina
Problems/limitations of stratified squamous epithelium.
No protection from drying and limited thickness
Location of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
Skin
Function of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
Protection in a dry environment
Which epithelial layer in the skin is the uppermost 2-5 layers that exocytose lipid-filled lamellar granules?
Stratum granulosum
Which epithelial layer in the skin contains mitotic keratinocytes and is closest to the dermis?
Stratum basale
Which epithelial layer in the skin is present only in thick skin and is very difficult to see?
Stratum lucidum
Which epithelial layer in the skin produces lipids and keratohyaline vacuoles?
Stratum spinosum
Functions of the stratum corneum.
Prevents water loss, provides a barrier to microbes and protects against abrasion
Which cells protect against UV radiation?
Melanocytes
Melanocytes are found in which skin epithelial layer?
Stratum basale
Darker pigments in the skin are due to the presence of:
Eumelanin
Reddish pigments in the skin are due to the presence of:
Pheomelanin
Which cells recognize and process external foreign antigens (aka APCs)?
Langerhans cells
Langerhans cells are found in which skin epithelial layer?
Stratum spinosum
Merkel cells are found in which epithelial layer of the skin?
Stratum basale
When exposed to UV light, melanocytes increase/decrease, while Langerhans cells increase/decrease.
Increase; decrease
Which type of epithelium would most likely be found in the larger ducts of sweat glands and salivary glands?
Stratified cuboidal
Which type of epithelium would most likely be found in the larger ducts in the pancreas, parts of the male urethra, and conjunctiva of the eye?
Stratified columnar
Location of transitional (urinary) epithelium?
Most of the urinary tract
Transitional epithelium has several specializations including:
Thin, fenestrated basement membrane, large superficial cells and a well-developed zonula occludens
Why is having a well-developed zonula occludens important?
Due to fenestrated basement membrane and prevents waste/urine from seeping between cells
What is an unusual feature found in transitional epithelium?
Some binucleated superficial cells
Patchy skin lesions, accumulation of cells in stratum corneum, and inflammation in dermal papillae are all indicative of:
Psoriasis vulgaris
An increase in melanin without an increase in melanocyte numbers would present as:
Freckles
Patches that lack melanocytes would be termed:
Vitiligo
Discoloration due to a proliferation of melanocytes would be termed:
Moles
What disease is associated with mitotically active melanocytes that invade the dermis?
Malignant melanoma
Albinism occurs when:
Melanocytes fail to produce melanin.
The most common form of albinism occurs when:
Tyrosinase is missing from melanocytes. When present, converts tyrosine to melanin.
The method of secretion by which the product is released into a duct or directly onto an epithelial surface is termed:
Exocrine secretion
The method of secretion where secretory product is released into nearby CT for vascular dispersal to targets is termed:
Endocrine secretion
Two components of exocrine secretion.
Parenchyma and stroma
What is the most common method of secretion? Where is it located?
Merocrine; goblet cells, salivary glands, pancreas, sweat glands
Which method of secretion is associated with odor?
Holocrine and apocrine
Location of holocrine secretion.
Sebaceous glands, tarsal (Meibomian) glands of eyelid
Which method of secretion secretes cytoplasm, membranes and in-tact vacuoles?
Apocrine
Location of apocrine secretion.
Lactating mammary glands, sweat glands, ceruminous glands and ciliary (Moll’s) glands in eyelid
The smallest division of a gland or group of cells surrounding a cavity is termed:
Acinus
A small group of serous cells attached to a mucus acinus is called:
Serous demilune
Contractile cells that wrap around acini and assist in secretion are called:
Myoepithelial cells
Location of myoepithelial cells.
Salivary/sweat glands, lacrimal glands, and lactating mammary glands
Serous glands produce:
Proteins
Location of serous glands.
Pancreas, parotid gland, chief cells in the stomach
Mucus glands produce:
Mucus
Location of mucus glands.
Goblet cells, mucous cells in stomach, minor salivary glands in tongue and palate
Mixed glands produce:
Serous and mucus
Location of mixed glands.
Sublingual and submandibular salivary glands
How is exocrine secretion regulated?
Myoepithelial cells, hormones, blood supply
Which subtype of endocrine secretion occurs when the signaling cell is its own target?
Autocrine
Which subtype of endocrine secretion occurs when the signaling cell is close to the target cell, so the hormone doesn’t enter the blood?
Paracrine
How is endocrine secretion regulated?
Hormones and the ANS
General functions of CT.
Provide structural support, provide a medium for exchange, defense/protection, storage of adipose
Most CT is derived from:
Mesenchyme
Ground substance is composed of:
GAGs, proteoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins
The important general trait of GAGs is that they are:
Hydrophilic
Examples of sulfated GAGs.
Keratan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate, heparin sulfate and dermatin sulfate
Examples of non-sulfated GAGs.
Hyaluronic acid (Hyaluronan)
Which type of GAG allows for diffusion in tissues by holding water?
Non-sulfated (Hyaluronic acid)
Positive aspects of inflammation include:
Increased fluidity will aid cell movement and increased numbers of defensive cells.
Negative aspects of inflammation include:
Excessive swelling can damage BVs, nerves and cells
What are examples of adhesive glycoproteins?
Laminin and fibronectin
What disease is associated with improperly produced collagen I?
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and scurvy
What disease is associated with underdeveloped elastic fibers?
Marfan’s syndrome
Which type of fiber is not affected by aging and is the first fiber produced during wound healing?
Reticular
Reticular fibers are the same as:
Collagen III
Which cells in CT are derived from mesenchyme cells?
Fibroblasts
Functions of fibroblasts.
Structural- produce and maintain matrix/healing
Defensive- produce cytokines/phagocytosis
Mature, less active fibroblasts that maintain tissue are called:
Fibrocytes
Fibrocytes produce:
HA, ground substance and ventricular fibers
Fibrocytes cannot produce:
Collagen I and elastic fibers
Myofibroblasts primarily function during:
Wound healing and tooth eruption
Which CT cell type produces leptin?
Adipocytes
Which CT cell type is derived from B lymphocytes, have a “clock-faced” nucleus and produces immunoglobulins?
Plasma cells
Which CT cell type is derived from monocytes?
Macrophages
Functions of macrophages.
Phagocytosis of debris and microbes, act as an APC, create foreign body giant cells, release cytokines
Which CT cell type is derived from bone marrow precursors and contain basophils?
Mast cells
Functions of mast cells.
Mediate inflammation/IHR/anaphylaxis/asthma and to release primary and secondary mediators
What are the primary mediators?
Histamine, heparin, ECF and NCF
What are the secondary mediators?
Leukotrienes
Which primary mediator is the “on switch?”
Histamine
Which primary mediator is the “off switch?”
Heparin
What stimuli will activate mast cells?
Trauma, phagocytosis, IgE-allergen complex and complement process
Which cells are produced when IgE formation is elicited?
Memory cells (B and T)
Anaphylaxis is stimulated by massive production of:
IgG
Immediate hypersensitivity response is stimulated by:
IgE-allergen complex
The primary problem of asthma is the release of:
Leukotrienes
Secondary difficulties of asthma are caused by:
Inflammation in the lungs
Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of acute inflammation?
Neutrophils
Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of allergic inflammation?
Eosinophils
Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of chronic inflammation?
Lymphocytes
Adult stem cells that change into another cell type are called:
Mesenchyme cells
Reticular cells function to make _____ when needed on a permanent basis.
Reticular fibers
Loose areolar tissue is found in:
Greater and lesser omenta and around BVs
Loose irregular tissue is found in:
Dermis- papillary layer and beneath epithelium in organs
Dense irregular tissue is found in:
Dermis- reticular layer, nerve sheaths, and organ capsules
Dense regular tissue is found in:
Tendons, ligaments and aponeuroses
An important adipokine produced by white adipose is:
Leptin
Major functions of leptin.
Inhibit appetite and regulate formation of new adipocytes
White adipose tissue stores large amounts of _____ to break down triglycerides.
Lipase
What is the function of brown adipose?
Thermogenesis
Increased _____ and _____ should lead to an increase in healing potential.
Cell types and vascularity
3 types of specialized CT.
Cartilage, bone and blood
Surface protections, such as keratin on the skin and acidic environments in the vagina, are examples of _____ immunity.
Innate
Acute inflammation, such as non-specific processes (neutrophil/macrophage/eosinophil movement) is an example of _____ immunity.
Innate
A form of acquired immunity mediated by B cells and plasma cells is called:
Humoral immunity
A form of acquired immunity mediated by T lymphocytes, and doesn’t depend on B lymphocyte participation is called:
Cell-Mediated immunity
Humoral immunity usually occurs in response to _____, while cell-mediated immunity occurs in response to _____.
Bacteria; Viruses/fungi/foreign cells
Which form of acquired immunity is a cytotoxic response?
Cell-mediated immunity
Humoral immunity and an incomplete capsule are characteristics of:
Diffuse lymphatics
Humoral and cell-mediated immunities, as well as the presence of a capsule, are characteristics of:
Lymphatic organs
Locations of MALT.
Gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, and urogenital tract
Which antibody is secreted by MALT?
IgA
Locations of GALT.
Gastrointestinal tract (Peyer’s patches in ileum)
Locations of BALT.
Lymph nodules in the respiratory tract (commonly form when air tubes bifurcate)
Which type of tonsil is associated with epithelial folds (pleated tonsils)?
Pharyngeal tonsils
When pharyngeal tonsils become inflamed they are called:
Adenoids
Which type of tonsil is associated with tonsilar crypts?
Palatine tonsils
Palatine tonsils are also called:
Faucial tonsils
Palatine tonsils exhibit which type of surface epithelium?
Stratified squamous
Tonsils located in the dorsal posterior 1/3 of the tongue that exhibit stratified squamous epithelium are called:
Lingual tonsils
The tonsillar ring around the openings to the digestive and respiratory systems is called:
Waldeyer’s ring
Major functions of lymph nodes.
Filtration of lymph using phagocytosis and establish humoral/cell-mediated immunities
The first sinus to receive afferent lymph is called the:
Subcapsular sinus (marginal sinus)
The primary cell type of the cortex is _____ and exhibits _____ immunity.
B lymphocytes; humoral
The primary cell type of the paracortex is _____ and exhibits _____ immunity.
T lymphocytes; cell-mediated
HEVs are lined with _____ cells and is an important cross-over point between _____ and _____.
Cuboid cells; blood and lymph
The primary cell type of the medulla is:
Plasma cells
Thymus involution begins first in the _____, second in the _____ and third in the _____.
Septa; cortex; medulla
The formation of thymic corpuscles (Hassall’s bodies) occurs in the:
Medulla
Function of thymic corpuscles.
Secrete cytokines to influence dendritic cells and development of some T cells
What prevents T cells from physically contacting foreign antigens?
Blood thymic barrier
TEC types I, II and III are found in the _____, while TEC types IV, V, and VI are found in the _____.
Cortex; medulla
What is lacking in the thymus?
Afferent lymph vessels, reticular cells and reticular fibers
The spleen stores large numbers of:
Monocytes
The general function of white pulp is:
Immunity
Function of red pulp.
Rapid blood filtration and allows contact with blood-borne foreign antigens
Long-term storage of T cells occurs where?
Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS)
Location of reticular fibers.
Liver, bone marrow, and lymph nodes
