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Organ Histology > Exam I > Flashcards

Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

The general functions of epithelium.

A

Absorption, secretion, and to provide a barrier

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2
Q

Sensory functions of epithelium would most likely be found where?

A

Taste buds, retina in the eye

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3
Q

Basic characteristics of shared among epithelial types.

A

Cells are adjacent to one another, associated with complete/partial basement membranes, avascular, associated with vascular connective tissue, held together by cell junctions

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4
Q

Which part of the basement membrane is produced by epithelium?

A

Basal lamina

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5
Q

Which part of the basement membrane is produced by fibroblasts in connective tissue?

A

Reticular lamina

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6
Q

Basal lamina is produced by:

A

Epithelium

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7
Q

Reticular lamina is produced by:

A

Fibroblasts in connective tissue

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8
Q

A partial basement membrane is composed of:

A

Basal lamina only

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9
Q

Functions of a basement membrane.

A

Provides a surface for epithelial cell attachment, molecular filter, limits stretch, directs migration of cells

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10
Q

How do epithelial cells obtain nutrition?

A

Diffusion

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11
Q

Functions of connective tissue.

A

Provide nutrition and a source of defensive cells

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12
Q

Which cell junction is called a tight junction?

A

Zonula occludens

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13
Q

These junctions involve the sharing of intrinsic membrane proteins between adjacent cells.

A

Zonula occludens (tight junctions)

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14
Q

Two functions of tight junctions.

A

Provide strong attachments and prevent passage of materials between cells

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15
Q

Which cell junction is called an adhesion belt?

A

Zonula adherens

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16
Q

Cadherins and marginal bands are found in which cell junction?

A

Zonula adherens (adhesion belt)

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17
Q

Functions of zonula adherens.

A

Provide strong attachments and cell structural stability

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18
Q

Which cell junction is called a desmosome?

A

Macula adherens

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19
Q

In which cell junction will you find proteins arranged in a cylinder?

A

Gap junctions

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20
Q

Functions of gap junctions.

A

Provide strong attachment and transport materials between cells

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21
Q

Which cell junction allows transport of materials between cells?

A

Gap junctions

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22
Q

Which junction helps to connect epithelial cells to the basal lamina?

A

Hemidesmosomes

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23
Q

Which junction uses integrin to bind to structural CT glycoproteins and also connects to the cytoskeleton?

A

Focal point contacts

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24
Q

Which clinical consideration of cell junctions is not an autoimmune disease, but instead caused by bacterial infection?

A

Cholera

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25
Q

Which clinical consideration of cell junctions causes large, blistering lesions that burst, but do heal?

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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26
Q

Which clinical consideration of cell junctions causes skin blistering that doesn’t heal easily, with excessive bleeding and can be fatal?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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27
Q

This disease is caused by antibodies that bind to some parts of desmosomes.

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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28
Q

This disease is caused by toxins that disrupt proteins in the zonula occludens.

A

Cholera

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29
Q

This disease is caused by antibodies that bind to some proteins in hemidesmosomes.

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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30
Q

Epithelium that is a single layer thick is termed:

A

Simple epithelium

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31
Q

Epithelium found in the lung, parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule and serosa on the outside of organs is most likely what type?

A

Simple squamous

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32
Q

Functions of simple squamous epithelium.

A

Living filter, provide a barrier

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33
Q

Epithelium found in the exocrine ducts, thyroid cells, and kidney tubules is most likely what type?

A

Simple cuboidal

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34
Q

Functions of simple cuboidal epithelium.

A

Absorption, secretion, provide a barrier

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35
Q

Epithelium found in the stomach, small intestines, gall bladder and larger exocrine ducts is most likely what type?

A

Simple columnar

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36
Q

Functions of simple columnar epithelium.

A

Absorption, secretion, provide a barrier

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37
Q

Epithelium found in the trachea, respiratory region of nasal cavity and bronchi is most likely what type?

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar

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38
Q

The 3 cell types associated with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

A

Goblet cells, ciliated columnar cells, and basal cells

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39
Q

Function of goblet cells.

A

Produce mucus

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40
Q

Function of ciliated columnar cells.

A

Move mucus over the surface

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41
Q

Function of basal cells.

A

To be the stem cell for CPSC epithelium

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42
Q

Finger-like projections at the apical surface on some epithelial cells are called:

A

Microvilli

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43
Q

Microvilli are also called:

A

A brushborder or a striated border

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44
Q

Function of microvilli.

A

To increase surface area to increase absorption

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45
Q

Location of microvilli.

A

Kidney tubule cells and small intestines

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46
Q

Extremely long microvilli that aren’t related to true cilia are called:

A

Stereocilia

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47
Q

Location of stereocilia.

A

Epididymis and cochlear hair cells

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48
Q

Thin, apical hair-like extensions of the cytoskeleton are termed:

A

Cilia

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49
Q

What are two points about cells with cilia?

A

Cells have many mitochondria and basal bodies block the free surface so there is no absorption or secretion.

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50
Q

Location of cilia.

A

Trachea and fallopian tube (oviduct)

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51
Q

The surface layer of glycoproteins and carbs that covers some epithelium is termed:

A

Glycocalyx

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52
Q

The glycocalyx is produced by:

A

Epithelium

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53
Q

Functions of the glycocalyx.

A

Protection and cell recognition

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54
Q

Location of glycocalyx.

A

Stomach and small intestines

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55
Q

Epithelium that is two or more cell layers thick is called:

A

Stratified epithelium

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56
Q

Function of stratified squamous epithelium.

A

Protection from abrasion/friction

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57
Q

Location of stratified squamous epithelium.

A

Esophagus, oral cavity, tongue and vagina

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58
Q

Problems/limitations of stratified squamous epithelium.

A

No protection from drying and limited thickness

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59
Q

Location of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

A

Skin

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60
Q

Function of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

A

Protection in a dry environment

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61
Q

Which epithelial layer in the skin is the uppermost 2-5 layers that exocytose lipid-filled lamellar granules?

A

Stratum granulosum

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62
Q

Which epithelial layer in the skin contains mitotic keratinocytes and is closest to the dermis?

A

Stratum basale

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63
Q

Which epithelial layer in the skin is present only in thick skin and is very difficult to see?

A

Stratum lucidum

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64
Q

Which epithelial layer in the skin produces lipids and keratohyaline vacuoles?

A

Stratum spinosum

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65
Q

Functions of the stratum corneum.

A

Prevents water loss, provides a barrier to microbes and protects against abrasion

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66
Q

Which cells protect against UV radiation?

A

Melanocytes

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67
Q

Melanocytes are found in which skin epithelial layer?

A

Stratum basale

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68
Q

Darker pigments in the skin are due to the presence of:

A

Eumelanin

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69
Q

Reddish pigments in the skin are due to the presence of:

A

Pheomelanin

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70
Q

Which cells recognize and process external foreign antigens (aka APCs)?

A

Langerhans cells

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71
Q

Langerhans cells are found in which skin epithelial layer?

A

Stratum spinosum

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72
Q

Merkel cells are found in which epithelial layer of the skin?

A

Stratum basale

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73
Q

When exposed to UV light, melanocytes increase/decrease, while Langerhans cells increase/decrease.

A

Increase; decrease

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74
Q

Which type of epithelium would most likely be found in the larger ducts of sweat glands and salivary glands?

A

Stratified cuboidal

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75
Q

Which type of epithelium would most likely be found in the larger ducts in the pancreas, parts of the male urethra, and conjunctiva of the eye?

A

Stratified columnar

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76
Q

Location of transitional (urinary) epithelium?

A

Most of the urinary tract

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77
Q

Transitional epithelium has several specializations including:

A

Thin, fenestrated basement membrane, large superficial cells and a well-developed zonula occludens

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78
Q

Why is having a well-developed zonula occludens important?

A

Due to fenestrated basement membrane and prevents waste/urine from seeping between cells

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79
Q

What is an unusual feature found in transitional epithelium?

A

Some binucleated superficial cells

80
Q

Patchy skin lesions, accumulation of cells in stratum corneum, and inflammation in dermal papillae are all indicative of:

A

Psoriasis vulgaris

81
Q

An increase in melanin without an increase in melanocyte numbers would present as:

A

Freckles

82
Q

Patches that lack melanocytes would be termed:

A

Vitiligo

83
Q

Discoloration due to a proliferation of melanocytes would be termed:

A

Moles

84
Q

What disease is associated with mitotically active melanocytes that invade the dermis?

A

Malignant melanoma

85
Q

Albinism occurs when:

A

Melanocytes fail to produce melanin.

86
Q

The most common form of albinism occurs when:

A

Tyrosinase is missing from melanocytes. When present, converts tyrosine to melanin.

87
Q

The method of secretion by which the product is released into a duct or directly onto an epithelial surface is termed:

A

Exocrine secretion

88
Q

The method of secretion where secretory product is released into nearby CT for vascular dispersal to targets is termed:

A

Endocrine secretion

89
Q

Two components of exocrine secretion.

A

Parenchyma and stroma

90
Q

What is the most common method of secretion? Where is it located?

A

Merocrine; goblet cells, salivary glands, pancreas, sweat glands

91
Q

Which method of secretion is associated with odor?

A

Holocrine and apocrine

92
Q

Location of holocrine secretion.

A

Sebaceous glands, tarsal (Meibomian) glands of eyelid

93
Q

Which method of secretion secretes cytoplasm, membranes and in-tact vacuoles?

A

Apocrine

94
Q

Location of apocrine secretion.

A

Lactating mammary glands, sweat glands, ceruminous glands and ciliary (Moll’s) glands in eyelid

95
Q

The smallest division of a gland or group of cells surrounding a cavity is termed:

A

Acinus

96
Q

A small group of serous cells attached to a mucus acinus is called:

A

Serous demilune

97
Q

Contractile cells that wrap around acini and assist in secretion are called:

A

Myoepithelial cells

98
Q

Location of myoepithelial cells.

A

Salivary/sweat glands, lacrimal glands, and lactating mammary glands

99
Q

Serous glands produce:

A

Proteins

100
Q

Location of serous glands.

A

Pancreas, parotid gland, chief cells in the stomach

101
Q

Mucus glands produce:

A

Mucus

102
Q

Location of mucus glands.

A

Goblet cells, mucous cells in stomach, minor salivary glands in tongue and palate

103
Q

Mixed glands produce:

A

Serous and mucus

104
Q

Location of mixed glands.

A

Sublingual and submandibular salivary glands

105
Q

How is exocrine secretion regulated?

A

Myoepithelial cells, hormones, blood supply

106
Q

Which subtype of endocrine secretion occurs when the signaling cell is its own target?

A

Autocrine

107
Q

Which subtype of endocrine secretion occurs when the signaling cell is close to the target cell, so the hormone doesn’t enter the blood?

A

Paracrine

108
Q

How is endocrine secretion regulated?

A

Hormones and the ANS

109
Q

General functions of CT.

A

Provide structural support, provide a medium for exchange, defense/protection, storage of adipose

110
Q

Most CT is derived from:

A

Mesenchyme

111
Q

Ground substance is composed of:

A

GAGs, proteoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins

112
Q

The important general trait of GAGs is that they are:

A

Hydrophilic

113
Q

Examples of sulfated GAGs.

A

Keratan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate, heparin sulfate and dermatin sulfate

114
Q

Examples of non-sulfated GAGs.

A

Hyaluronic acid (Hyaluronan)

115
Q

Which type of GAG allows for diffusion in tissues by holding water?

A

Non-sulfated (Hyaluronic acid)

116
Q

Positive aspects of inflammation include:

A

Increased fluidity will aid cell movement and increased numbers of defensive cells.

117
Q

Negative aspects of inflammation include:

A

Excessive swelling can damage BVs, nerves and cells

118
Q

What are examples of adhesive glycoproteins?

A

Laminin and fibronectin

119
Q

What disease is associated with improperly produced collagen I?

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and scurvy

120
Q

What disease is associated with underdeveloped elastic fibers?

A

Marfan’s syndrome

121
Q

Which type of fiber is not affected by aging and is the first fiber produced during wound healing?

A

Reticular

122
Q

Reticular fibers are the same as:

A

Collagen III

123
Q

Which cells in CT are derived from mesenchyme cells?

A

Fibroblasts

124
Q

Functions of fibroblasts.

A

Structural- produce and maintain matrix/healing

Defensive- produce cytokines/phagocytosis

125
Q

Mature, less active fibroblasts that maintain tissue are called:

A

Fibrocytes

126
Q

Fibrocytes produce:

A

HA, ground substance and ventricular fibers

127
Q

Fibrocytes cannot produce:

A

Collagen I and elastic fibers

128
Q

Myofibroblasts primarily function during:

A

Wound healing and tooth eruption

129
Q

Which CT cell type produces leptin?

A

Adipocytes

130
Q

Which CT cell type is derived from B lymphocytes, have a “clock-faced” nucleus and produces immunoglobulins?

A

Plasma cells

131
Q

Which CT cell type is derived from monocytes?

A

Macrophages

132
Q

Functions of macrophages.

A

Phagocytosis of debris and microbes, act as an APC, create foreign body giant cells, release cytokines

133
Q

Which CT cell type is derived from bone marrow precursors and contain basophils?

A

Mast cells

134
Q

Functions of mast cells.

A

Mediate inflammation/IHR/anaphylaxis/asthma and to release primary and secondary mediators

135
Q

What are the primary mediators?

A

Histamine, heparin, ECF and NCF

136
Q

What are the secondary mediators?

A

Leukotrienes

137
Q

Which primary mediator is the “on switch?”

A

Histamine

138
Q

Which primary mediator is the “off switch?”

A

Heparin

139
Q

What stimuli will activate mast cells?

A

Trauma, phagocytosis, IgE-allergen complex and complement process

140
Q

Which cells are produced when IgE formation is elicited?

A

Memory cells (B and T)

141
Q

Anaphylaxis is stimulated by massive production of:

A

IgG

142
Q

Immediate hypersensitivity response is stimulated by:

A

IgE-allergen complex

143
Q

The primary problem of asthma is the release of:

A

Leukotrienes

144
Q

Secondary difficulties of asthma are caused by:

A

Inflammation in the lungs

145
Q

Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

146
Q

Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of allergic inflammation?

A

Eosinophils

147
Q

Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of chronic inflammation?

A

Lymphocytes

148
Q

Adult stem cells that change into another cell type are called:

A

Mesenchyme cells

149
Q

Reticular cells function to make _____ when needed on a permanent basis.

A

Reticular fibers

150
Q

Loose areolar tissue is found in:

A

Greater and lesser omenta and around BVs

151
Q

Loose irregular tissue is found in:

A

Dermis- papillary layer and beneath epithelium in organs

152
Q

Dense irregular tissue is found in:

A

Dermis- reticular layer, nerve sheaths, and organ capsules

153
Q

Dense regular tissue is found in:

A

Tendons, ligaments and aponeuroses

154
Q

An important adipokine produced by white adipose is:

A

Leptin

155
Q

Major functions of leptin.

A

Inhibit appetite and regulate formation of new adipocytes

156
Q

White adipose tissue stores large amounts of _____ to break down triglycerides.

A

Lipase

157
Q

What is the function of brown adipose?

A

Thermogenesis

158
Q

Increased _____ and _____ should lead to an increase in healing potential.

A

Cell types and vascularity

159
Q

3 types of specialized CT.

A

Cartilage, bone and blood

160
Q

Surface protections, such as keratin on the skin and acidic environments in the vagina, are examples of _____ immunity.

A

Innate

161
Q

Acute inflammation, such as non-specific processes (neutrophil/macrophage/eosinophil movement) is an example of _____ immunity.

A

Innate

162
Q

A form of acquired immunity mediated by B cells and plasma cells is called:

A

Humoral immunity

163
Q

A form of acquired immunity mediated by T lymphocytes, and doesn’t depend on B lymphocyte participation is called:

A

Cell-Mediated immunity

164
Q

Humoral immunity usually occurs in response to _____, while cell-mediated immunity occurs in response to _____.

A

Bacteria; Viruses/fungi/foreign cells

165
Q

Which form of acquired immunity is a cytotoxic response?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

166
Q

Humoral immunity and an incomplete capsule are characteristics of:

A

Diffuse lymphatics

167
Q

Humoral and cell-mediated immunities, as well as the presence of a capsule, are characteristics of:

A

Lymphatic organs

168
Q

Locations of MALT.

A

Gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, and urogenital tract

169
Q

Which antibody is secreted by MALT?

A

IgA

170
Q

Locations of GALT.

A

Gastrointestinal tract (Peyer’s patches in ileum)

171
Q

Locations of BALT.

A

Lymph nodules in the respiratory tract (commonly form when air tubes bifurcate)

172
Q

Which type of tonsil is associated with epithelial folds (pleated tonsils)?

A

Pharyngeal tonsils

173
Q

When pharyngeal tonsils become inflamed they are called:

A

Adenoids

174
Q

Which type of tonsil is associated with tonsilar crypts?

A

Palatine tonsils

175
Q

Palatine tonsils are also called:

A

Faucial tonsils

176
Q

Palatine tonsils exhibit which type of surface epithelium?

A

Stratified squamous

177
Q

Tonsils located in the dorsal posterior 1/3 of the tongue that exhibit stratified squamous epithelium are called:

A

Lingual tonsils

178
Q

The tonsillar ring around the openings to the digestive and respiratory systems is called:

A

Waldeyer’s ring

179
Q

Major functions of lymph nodes.

A

Filtration of lymph using phagocytosis and establish humoral/cell-mediated immunities

180
Q

The first sinus to receive afferent lymph is called the:

A

Subcapsular sinus (marginal sinus)

181
Q

The primary cell type of the cortex is _____ and exhibits _____ immunity.

A

B lymphocytes; humoral

182
Q

The primary cell type of the paracortex is _____ and exhibits _____ immunity.

A

T lymphocytes; cell-mediated

183
Q

HEVs are lined with _____ cells and is an important cross-over point between _____ and _____.

A

Cuboid cells; blood and lymph

184
Q

The primary cell type of the medulla is:

A

Plasma cells

185
Q

Thymus involution begins first in the _____, second in the _____ and third in the _____.

A

Septa; cortex; medulla

186
Q

The formation of thymic corpuscles (Hassall’s bodies) occurs in the:

A

Medulla

187
Q

Function of thymic corpuscles.

A

Secrete cytokines to influence dendritic cells and development of some T cells

188
Q

What prevents T cells from physically contacting foreign antigens?

A

Blood thymic barrier

189
Q

TEC types I, II and III are found in the _____, while TEC types IV, V, and VI are found in the _____.

A

Cortex; medulla

190
Q

What is lacking in the thymus?

A

Afferent lymph vessels, reticular cells and reticular fibers

191
Q

The spleen stores large numbers of:

A

Monocytes

192
Q

The general function of white pulp is:

A

Immunity

193
Q

Function of red pulp.

A

Rapid blood filtration and allows contact with blood-borne foreign antigens

194
Q

Long-term storage of T cells occurs where?

A

Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS)

195
Q

Location of reticular fibers.

A

Liver, bone marrow, and lymph nodes

Organ Histology (4 decks)

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