EXAM HERO - ONCO NURSING PRACTICE Flashcards by Gabi Nguyen

Which of the following is a key role of an oncology nurse when administering chemotherapy?
Prescribing chemotherapy dosages according to patient weight and height
Monitoring patients for adverse reactions during and after chemotherapy administration
Performing the first dose administration of experimental chemotherapy drugs
Deciding the combination of drugs to be used in chemotherapy protocols

Monitoring patients for adverse reactions during and after

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a critical aspect of pain management that oncology nurses must manage for cancer patients?
Initiating opioid therapy at the highest possible doses to quickly control pain
Regularly assessing pain levels and adjusting pain management plans accordingly
Advising patients to avoid non-pharmacological pain relief methods such as meditation or massage
Waiting for patients to request pain relief before administering medication

Regularly assessing pain levels and adjusting pain management plans accordingly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following best describes the role of oncology nurses in patient education?
Providing detailed explanations about surgical procedures, which is solely the surgeon’s responsibility
Teaching patients and families about the side effects of treatments and how to manage them
Instructing patients to make decisions about treatment plans without family consultation
Limiting information to avoid overwhelming the patient with details about their diagnosis

Teaching patients and families about the side effects of treatments and how to manage them

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary function of immunotherapy in cancer treatment?
To reduce the tumor size mechanically through surgical interventions
To enhance the body’s immune response to recognize and destroy cancer cells
To administer strong antibiotics to prevent infections in cancer patients
To decrease blood supply to tumors by vasoconstriction

To enhance the body’s immune response to recognize and destroy cancer cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are considered primary lymphoid organs?
Spleen and tonsils
Bone marrow and thymus
Lymph nodes and spleen
Tonsils and lymph nodes

Bone marrow and thymus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What role do lymphocytes play in the immune system?
They are primarily involved in the clotting of blood.
They transport oxygen to tissues and organs throughout the body.
They are essential for both the innate and adaptive immune responses.
They synthesize and release neurotransmitters necessary for brain function.

They are essential for both the innate and adaptive immune responses.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary function of phagocytes in the immune system?
To produce antibodies that neutralize pathogens
To directly kill tumor cells without recognizing specific antigens
To engulf and digest pathogens and cellular debris
To regulate the action of other immune cells by releasing hormones

To engulf and digest pathogens and cellular debris

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are considered secondary lymphoid organs?
Bone marrow and thymus
Spleen and lymph nodes
Brain and spinal cord
Liver and pancreas

Spleen and lymph nodes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What distinguishes natural killer (NK) cells from other lymphocytes in their method of targeting infected or cancerous cells?
NK cells require antibodies to bind to targets before they can destroy them.
NK cells destroy targets without the need for prior antigen exposure.
NK cells participate in phagocytosis like neutrophils.
NK cells directly produce antibodies against pathogens.

NK cells destroy targets without the need for prior antigen exposure.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary role of dendritic cells in the immune system?
To suppress immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
To present antigens to T-cells, initiating a specific immune response
To produce large volumes of antibodies rapidly
To serve as the main phagocytic cells in blood

To present antigens to T-cells, initiating a specific immune response

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary role of mast cells in the immune system?
To produce and secrete hormones that regulate other immune cells
To act as the primary phagocytic cells during bacterial infections
To trigger the inflammatory response through the release of histamine
To directly kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells

To trigger the inflammatory response through the release of histamine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How do oncogenes contribute to cancer development?
They are involved in slowing down cell division and promoting cell differentiation.
They suppress immune responses against tumor cells.
They result from mutations of proto-oncogenes and promote uncontrolled cell division.
They enhance the accuracy of DNA replication during cell division.

They result from mutations of proto-oncogenes and promote uncontrolled cell division.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary function of cytokines in the immune system?
To encapsulate and isolate pathogenic bacteria
To facilitate the digestion and absorption of nutrients
To serve as messengers that regulate immune and inflammatory responses
To directly neutralize toxins produced by pathogens

To serve as messengers that regulate immune and inflammatory responses

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What mechanism is primarily involved in chemical carcinogenesis?
Direct stimulation of the immune system to attack body tissues
Induction of hormonal imbalances that lead to benign tumors
Direct damage to DNA by chemical agents leading to mutations
Enhancement of nutrient absorption promoting uncontrolled cell growth

Direct damage to DNA by chemical agents leading to mutations

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary function of tumor suppressor genes in cellular biology?
They promote cell division and prevent apoptosis.
They encode proteins that help to repair damaged DNA.
They regulate and promote the angiogenesis process.
They initiate the transcription of growth-promoting genes.

They encode proteins that help to repair damaged DNA.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In pathology, what does pleomorphism refer to?
The presence of uniform cells of the same size and shape within a tissue
Variation in size and shape of cells and/or their nuclei within a tumor
The ability of cancer cells to metastasize to different organs
The disappearance of cells due to programmed cell death

Variation in size and shape of cells and/or their nuclei within a tumor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which virus is known to be associated with cervical cancer through the process of viral carcinogenesis?
Influenza virus
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
Hepatitis A virus
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What typically characterizes familial carcinogenesis?
Environmental factors rather than genetic predispositions primarily cause it.
It involves inherited genetic mutations that significantly increase cancer risk.
It only affects individuals in late adulthood, regardless of family history.
It is unrelated to specific mutations and varies randomly across populations.

It involves inherited genetic mutations that significantly increase cancer risk.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the role of aneuploidy in the development of cancer?
Aneuploidy results in the uniform division of chromosomes, promoting healthy cell function.
It involves the reduction of chromosome numbers to half, enhancing reproductive cell stability.
Aneuploidy involves a deviation from the normal number of chromosomes, contributing to cellular dysfunction and cancer.
It ensures genetic stability by correcting DNA replication errors.

Aneuploidy involves a deviation from the normal number of chromosomes, contributing to cellular dysfunction and cancer.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the significance of deletions in the context of genetic mutations in cancer?
They represent a harmless variation in genetic material that does not affect cell function.
They result in the duplication of essential genes, enhancing cellular functions.
They involve the removal of segments of DNA, potentially leading to loss of tumor suppressor gene function.
They increase genetic diversity within cells, typically benefiting their adaptability and survival.

They involve the removal of segments of DNA, potentially leading to loss of tumor suppressor gene function.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How do landscaper genes influence cancer development within the tumor microenvironment?
By directly altering DNA sequences within oncogenes.
By regulating interactions between tumor cells and their surrounding environment.
By enhancing the metabolic rate of cancer cells.
By secreting hormones that suppress immune surveillance.

By regulating interactions between tumor cells and their surrounding environment.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the context of oncology nursing, why is understanding the function of gatekeeper genes important when providing patient education about genetic testing and cancer risk?
Gatekeeper genes primarily regulate the uptake of chemotherapy drugs into cancer cells.
These genes are responsible for encoding proteins that manage the metabolic pathways in cancer cells.
Gatekeeper genes directly control cell growth by regulating the cell cycle and apoptosis, impacting cancer development.
They are involved in the modification of hormonal levels that could predispose individuals to cancer.

Gatekeeper genes directly control cell growth by regulating the cell cycle and apoptosis, impacting cancer development.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary function of caretaker genes in cellular biology, particularly relevant in cancer prevention?
They produce growth factors that enhance cell division.
They directly stimulate the immune system to attack cancer cells.
They maintain genomic integrity by repairing DNA damage.
They promote the angiogenesis needed for tumor growth.

They maintain genomic integrity by repairing DNA damage.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What distinguishes the initiation phase from the promotion phase in cancer development?
Initiation involves irreversible genetic alterations, while promotion involves reversible changes that enhance cell proliferation.
Initiation is the stage where tumors become malignant, whereas promotion is where tumors spread.
Promotion occurs first, establishing mutations, followed by initiation, which involves immune evasion.
Initiation involves angiogenesis, and promotion involves metastasis.

Initiation involves irreversible genetic alterations, while promotion involves reversible changes that enhance cell proliferation.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What characterizes Gompertzian growth of tumors? The tumor size decreases exponentially with time. The tumor growth rate accelerates rapidly in the later stages of development. The tumor growth rate slows down as the tumor size increases. The tumor cells differentiate into normal cells as they proliferate.

The tumor growth rate slows down as the tumor size increases.

What does hyperplasia refer to in pathological terms? The reduction in the size and number of cells within a tissue. The presence of cells of an abnormal type within a tissue, which are not typically found there. The increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue that are normal in morphology. The development of benign tumors from glandular structures.

The increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue that are normal in morphology.

What is metaplasia in the context of tissue pathology? The transformation of differentiated cells into a less specialized type. The transition of one differentiated cell type to another type that is better suited to the environment. The loss of differentiation within cells, typically seen in malignant tumors. The spontaneous conversion of chronic inflammation into benign fibrous tissue.

The transition of one differentiated cell type to another type that is better suited to the environment.

What does dysplasia signify in a histopathological examination? A return to normal cell alignment after a traumatic injury. The uniform growth and replication of cellular DNA in response to medicinal treatments. The presence of abnormal cells within a tissue, indicating a potential precancerous state. The organization of cells into new functional tissue types after surgery.

The presence of abnormal cells within a tissue, indicating a potential precancerous state.

What characterizes anaplasia in cancerous tissues? Uniform cell size and shape with high levels of differentiation. High degree of cell differentiation and organized tissue structure. Lack of cellular differentiation and abnormal variations in cell size and shape. Increased hormone production and secretion by cancer cells.

Lack of cellular differentiation and abnormal variations in cell size and shape.

In the context of cancer progression, what does the term 'invasion' specifically refer to? The ability of cancer cells to initiate immune responses against themselves. The spread of cancer cells into surrounding tissues from the primary tumor. The expansion of a tumor due to increased blood supply. The movement of cancer cells through the bloodstream to distant organs.

The spread of cancer cells into surrounding tissues from the primary tumor.

What does metastasis involve in the progression of cancer? The shrinkage of the primary tumor due to effective immune surveillance. The redistribution of nutrients away from the tumor to the rest of the body. The spread of cancer cells from the primary site to distant organs, forming new tumors. The transformation of benign tumors into malignant forms without leaving the primary site.

The spread of cancer cells from the primary site to distant organs, forming new tumors.

What role does angiogenesis play in cancer progression? It enhances the immune system's ability to detect and destroy cancer cells. It involves the growth of new blood vessels that provide nutrients and oxygen to tumors. It refers to the formation of new lymph nodes near the tumor site. It describes the shrinkage of blood vessels as the tumor decreases in size.

It involves the growth of new blood vessels that provide nutrients and oxygen to tumors.

What is the significance of apoptosis in the context of cancer biology? It is a form of uncontrolled cell proliferation typical of cancerous cells. It describes the body's natural process of eliminating unnecessary or damaged cells through programmed cell death. It refers to the rapid multiplication of cancer cells in response to chemotherapy. It is the mechanism by which tumors acquire nutrients from the host.

It describes the body's natural process of eliminating unnecessary or damaged cells through programmed cell death.

How does tumor heterogeneity complicate cancer treatment? It allows tumors to respond to single-mode treatments uniformly. It leads to consistent tumor behavior and predictable treatment outcomes. It results in varied responses to treatment due to genetic variation among cancer cells within the same tumor. It stabilizes tumor genetics, making targeted therapies universally effective.

It results in varied responses to treatment due to genetic variation among cancer cells within the same tumor.

What defines a substance as a carcinogen? A substance that enhances the immune system's ability to fight off cancer cells. A substance that directly contributes to cellular growth and division under normal conditions. A substance known to cause cancer or significantly increase the risk of cancer development. A substance that aids in the healing of tissues and reduces the likelihood of mutation.

A substance known to cause cancer or significantly increase the risk of cancer development.

How does radiation contribute to the development of cancer? Radiation stimulates the immune system to attack cancer cells, preventing their growth. Radiation leads to the repair of damaged DNA, thus preventing mutations. Radiation can cause mutations in DNA and disrupt cellular processes, leading to cancer. Radiation increases the rate of cell death, which decreases the risk of tumor formation.

Radiation can cause mutations in DNA and disrupt cellular processes, leading to cancer.

In what way can the immune system contribute to cancer progression? By consistently eliminating all abnormal cells before they can proliferate. By overstimulating cell division and tissue growth after an infection. By failing to recognize and destroy cancer cells, allowing them to grow and spread. By enhancing oxygenation and nutrient supply to all body tissues indiscriminately.

By failing to recognize and destroy cancer cells, allowing them to grow and spread.

Which genes are most commonly associated with an increased risk of hereditary breast cancer? TP53 and RB1 BRCA1 and BRCA2 MYC and BCL2 KRAS and NRAS

BRCA1 and BRCA2

Which gene mutation is most closely associated with increased susceptibility to cutaneous melanoma? ALK BRAF APC FLT3

BRAF

What is Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome (VHL) and its primary associated risk? A genetic disorder characterized by the development of infectious diseases due to a compromised immune system. A hereditary condition that primarily increases the risk of developing benign skin tumors. An autosomal dominant disorder associated with the development of various types of tumors and cysts in multiple organs. A syndrome that leads to chronic inflammation and subsequent fibrosis of the liver.

An autosomal dominant disorder associated with the development of various types of tumors and cysts in multiple organs.

What is the purpose of the Logarithm of the Odds (LOD) score in genetic linkage analysis? To measure the strength of association between two variables in a population-based study. To calculate the ratio of observed versus expected outcomes in a case-control study. To estimate the likelihood that two or more loci are linked rather than segregating independently. To determine the statistical significance of results in randomized clinical trials.

To estimate the likelihood that two or more loci are linked rather than segregating independently.

What is a defining feature of cohort studies in medical research? They compare groups with and without a disease to identify factors that may contribute to the disease. They follow a group of people over time to see how specific exposures affect the rates of a certain outcome. They are typically conducted over a short period to assess the effects of a treatment or intervention immediately. They require participants to be randomly assigned to different treatment groups.

They follow a group of people over time to see how specific exposures affect the rates of a certain outcome.

What is the primary goal of conducting a clinical trial in medical research? To provide immediate treatment solutions without concern for long-term outcomes. To assess the efficacy and safety of a new treatment or intervention in a controlled environment. To collect anecdotal evidence about new experimental techniques. To observe natural progression of a disease without any intervention.

To assess the efficacy and safety of a new treatment or intervention in a controlled environment.

What characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) in breast cancer diagnosis? It is a type of breast cancer that has spread to nearby lymph nodes. It represents the earliest form of breast cancer confined to the milk ducts without invasion into surrounding tissue. It involves the spread of cancer cells from the ducts to distant organs of the body. It is a benign condition that does not require any form of treatment.

It represents the earliest form of breast cancer confined to the milk ducts without invasion into surrounding tissue.

What is the clinical significance of lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) in breast cancer screening? LCIS is an aggressive form of invasive breast cancer requiring immediate surgical intervention. LCIS is a benign condition and typically does not require treatment, but it indicates an increased risk of developing invasive breast cancer. LCIS denotes that cancer has metastasized and spread to multiple organs. LCIS is not related to breast tissue and usually involves the lymphatic system.

LCIS is a benign condition and typically does not require treatment, but it indicates an increased risk of developing invasive breast cancer.

What distinguishes invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC) from other forms of breast cancer? IDC is characterized by the cancer cells remaining within the ducts and lobules. IDC involves the spread of cancer cells beyond the ducts into the surrounding breast tissues. IDC only occurs in the lymph nodes, not in the breast tissue. IDC is a benign proliferation of ductal cells without any risk of metastasis.

IDC involves the spread of cancer cells beyond the ducts into the surrounding breast tissues.

What is a distinctive feature of invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) of the breast? It starts in the milk ducts and spreads uniformly throughout the breast. It is characterized by the formation of large, easily distinguishable tumors. It is typically more aggressive than other forms of breast cancer. It often presents as a subtle thickening in the breast, making it harder to detect by physical exam.

It often presents as a subtle thickening in the breast, making it harder to detect by physical exam.

What symptom is most commonly associated with Paget's disease of the breast? Severe breast pain and inflammation. A rash on the leg that spreads slowly. Flaking, itching, and redness of the nipple and surrounding area. Sudden, acute swelling of the entire breast.

Flaking, itching, and redness of the nipple and surrounding area.

How do non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) and small cell lung cancer (SCLC) differ in terms of their clinical behavior? NSCLC grows and spreads more slowly than SCLC, which is often more aggressive and quickly metastasizes. SCLC is typically easier to treat than NSCLC because it responds well to surgical interventions. NSCLC and SCLC are equally responsive to radiation therapy and have similar survival rates. SCLC is less associated with smoking compared to NSCLC.

NSCLC grows and spreads more slowly than SCLC, which is often more aggressive and quickly metastasizes.

What are common symptoms associated with metastases to the ascending colon? Severe pelvic pain and urinary incontinence Bright red blood in the stool and frequent urination Abdominal pain on the right side and iron deficiency anemia Chronic cough and shortness of breath

Abdominal pain on the right side and iron deficiency anemia

What symptoms are typically observed with metastases to the transverse colon? Constipation alternating with diarrhea and abdominal bloating Severe headache and visual disturbances Jaundice and severe itching Frequent urination and burning sensation during urination

Constipation alternating with diarrhea and abdominal bloating

Which symptoms are commonly associated with metastases to the sigmoid colon? Excruciating lower back pain and leg weakness Which symptoms are commonly associated with metastases to the sigmoid colon? Excruciating lower back pain and leg weakness Blood-streaked stools and lower left abdominal pain Severe chest pain and palpitations Intense upper abdominal pain and vomiting

Blood-streaked stools and lower left abdominal pain

What are common symptoms of cancer in the oral cavity? Continuous ringing in the ears and hearing loss Persistent hoarseness and difficulty swallowing A sore that does not heal, loose teeth, and a lump or thickening in the cheek

A sore that does not heal, loose teeth, and a lump or thickening in the cheek

Which symptoms are indicative of cancer in the nasal cavity? Frequent nosebleeds, nasal congestion or blockage, and sinus infections that do not respond to treatment Persistent dry cough and shortness of breath Intermittent claudication and swelling in the legs Chronic diarrhea and abdominal cramping

Frequent nosebleeds, nasal congestion or blockage, and sinus infections that do not respond to treatment

What are typical symptoms of cancer in the salivary glands? Rapid weight gain and increased appetite A palpable mass or swelling near the jaw or neck, pain, and facial numbness Excessive sweating and flushes Frequent urination and excessive thirst

A palpable mass or swelling near the jaw or neck, pain, and facial numbness

When assessing a patient's history for risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, which of the following is important to consider? The number of times the patient has traveled internationally. The patient's history of menstrual irregularities and family history of breast or ovarian cancer. The patient's history of high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. The patient's dietary habits, particularly their intake of red meat and processed foods.

The patient's history of menstrual irregularities and family history of breast or ovarian cancer.

Which aspect is crucial in a patient's history when assessing for risk factors of testicular cancer? Previous sports injuries, particularly those involving the legs or arms. A history of testicular or scrotal pain, undescended testes at birth, or a family history of testicular cancer. The patient's job involving exposure to loud noise. The frequency of the patient's aerobic exercise routines.

A history of testicular or scrotal pain, undescended testes at birth, or a family history of testicular cancer.

What is a key risk factor for developing urothelial carcinoma? Chronic exposure to certain industrial chemicals or smoking. Extended periods of physical inactivity or sedentary lifestyle. High intake of caffeine and carbonated beverages. Frequent use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Chronic exposure to certain industrial chemicals or smoking.

What is a characteristic feature of papillary tumors in the context of pathology? They are typically flat and lack a distinct structure. They exhibit finger-like projections that grow into the lumen of the organ. They always metastasize to distant organs rapidly after formation. They are exclusively benign and do not require medical intervention.

They exhibit finger-like projections that grow into the lumen of the organ.

What key factors should be considered in a patient history assessment for bladder cancer? History of diabetes and cholesterol levels. Frequency of aerobic physical activity. Smoking history and exposure to occupational hazards such as chemicals used in the dye industry. Dietary preferences, including the intake of organic foods.

Smoking history and exposure to occupational hazards such as chemicals used in the dye industry.

What are common clinical signs and symptoms associated with leukemia? Intermittent claudication and joint swelling. Severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Frequent infections, fatigue, easy bruising, and abnormal bleeding. Chronic skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis.

Frequent infections, fatigue, easy bruising, and abnormal bleeding.

Which of the following is considered a critical prognostic factor in cancer treatment? The patient's preference for treatment location (hospital or home). The socioeconomic status of the patient. The genetic makeup of the tumor and the presence of metastasis. The patient's dietary preferences and nutritional status before diagnosis.

The genetic makeup of the tumor and the presence of metastasis.

What distinguishes well-differentiated (low-grade) tumor cells from undifferentiated (high-grade) tumor cells? Well-differentiated tumor cells resemble normal cells in appearance and function, while undifferentiated tumor cells lack these normal features and have abnormal growth patterns. Well-differentiated tumor cells are typically more aggressive and spread more quickly than undifferentiated tumor cells. Undifferentiated tumor cells are usually benign and less likely to invade nearby tissues or metastasize. Well-differentiated tumor cells have a higher rate of apoptosis compared to undifferentiated tumor cells.

Well-differentiated tumor cells resemble normal cells in appearance and function, while undifferentiated tumor cells lack these normal features and have abnormal growth patterns.

What is the significance of tumor staging in cancer treatment? Tumor staging describes the intensity of pain associated with the cancer. It determines the psychological impact of cancer on the patient and family. It identifies the size of the tumor, the extent of spread, and the presence of metastasis, guiding treatment decisions and prognosis. Tumor staging is used to decide the financial cost of treatment and the duration of hospital stay.

It identifies the size of the tumor, the extent of spread, and the presence of metastasis, guiding treatment decisions and prognosis.

What does tumor grading indicate in cancer diagnosis? The financial impact of the cancer treatment. The differentiation level of the tumor cells and the rate of tumor growth and spread. The patient's likelihood of responding to psychological counseling. The duration of time a patient has had symptoms before diagnosis.

The differentiation level of the tumor cells and the rate of tumor growth and spread.

What is the purpose of the TNM classification system in cancer staging? To determine the patient's nutritional status and metabolism. To assess the psychological impact of cancer on the patient. To describe the size and direct extent of the primary tumor, lymph node involvement, and the presence of metastasis. To evaluate the effectiveness of post-treatment cancer rehabilitation.

To describe the size and direct extent of the primary tumor, lymph node involvement, and the presence of metastasis.

What is the primary purpose of cervical cancer screening, such as the Pap test and HPV testing? To treat pre-existing cervical cancer symptoms. To diagnose cervical cancer at its most advanced stage. To detect changes in the cervix before cancer develops or finds early-stage cancer. To assess the effectiveness of cervical cancer treatment after diagnosis.

To detect changes in the cervix before cancer develops or finds early-stage cancer.

What is the focus of the Nottingham Grading System when used in the context of breast cancer? It evaluates the financial costs associated with different treatment options. It measures the effectiveness of breast cancer awareness programs. It assesses the degree of cell differentiation within the tumor to help determine the tumor grade. It calculates the likelihood of cancer recurrence based solely on patient age and tumor size.

It assesses the degree of cell differentiation within the tumor to help determine the tumor grade.

What significant impact did the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA 1987) have on nursing home care? It deregulated nursing home operations, reducing federal oversight. It introduced significant funding cuts to all federally funded nursing homes. It established minimum standards of care and rights for people living in certified nursing facilities. It mandated the inclusion of alternative medicine practices in all nursing homes.

It established minimum standards of care and rights for people living in certified nursing facilities.

What is the primary purpose of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA)? To provide patients with the right to decline any medical treatment for religious reasons only. To ensure that all healthcare providers receive adequate compensation for emergency services rendered. To encourage individuals to make decisions about advance healthcare directives and inform them of their rights to make informed decisions regarding their medical care. To mandate healthcare facilities to use electronic health records for all patients to ensure better data management.

To encourage individuals to make decisions about advance healthcare directives and inform them of their rights to make informed decisions regarding their medical care.

What is the main requirement of the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)? To provide all employees within healthcare settings a minimum wage increase annually. To require hospitals to perform non-urgent medical screenings on all patients regardless of their ability to pay. To obligate hospitals to provide care to anyone needing emergency healthcare treatment regardless of their citizenship, legal status, or ability to pay. To mandate all hospitals to transfer patients to specialized facilities after initial treatment is completed.

To obligate hospitals to provide care to anyone needing emergency healthcare treatment regardless of their citizenship, legal status, or ability to pay.

What is the main role of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)? To regulate drug prices and healthcare insurance premiums in the United States. To produce evidence to make healthcare safer, higher quality, more accessible, equitable, and affordable. To enforce healthcare laws around patient data security and privacy under HIPAA. To oversee the training and certification of medical professionals across the country.

To produce evidence to make healthcare safer, higher quality, more accessible, equitable, and affordable.

What does accreditation by the National Accreditation Program for Breast Centers (NAPBC) signify for a breast center? The center provides the highest standard of care for diseases other than breast cancer. The center meets or exceeds national quality standards in breast cancer treatment, including diagnosis, surgery, and follow-up care. The center is exempt from participating in national cancer research initiatives. The center is primarily funded by the national government.

The center meets or exceeds national quality standards in breast cancer treatment, including diagnosis, surgery, and follow-up care.

What is the significance of Commission on Cancer (CoC) accreditation for a cancer program? It indicates that the program focuses solely on pediatric oncology. It certifies that a cancer program meets specific national standards for cancer care and is committed to providing high-quality, multidisciplinary, patient-centered care. It guarantees financial assistance for all cancer patients treated within the program. It allows the program to avoid compliance with state and federal regulations regarding cancer treatment.

It certifies that a cancer program meets specific national standards for cancer care and is committed to providing high-quality, multidisciplinary, patient-centered care.

What does the ethical principle of justice entail within the healthcare context? Ensuring that all actions taken by healthcare providers benefit the patient. Providing all patients with the same treatments, irrespective of their individual health needs. Ensuring fair distribution of healthcare resources and equitable treatment of all patients. Respecting the medical hierarchy and maintaining professional boundaries at all times.

Ensuring fair distribution of healthcare resources and equitable treatment of all patients.

What is a fundamental principle of Utilitarianism theory in ethical decision-making? Actions are right if they benefit the individual performing them, regardless of the impact on others. The moral worth of an action is determined solely by its contribution to overall utility, that is, its contribution to happiness or pleasure as summed among all persons. Decisions should prioritize the rights of the individual over the general welfare of the community. Moral actions are those that strictly adhere to laws and regulations, regardless of the consequences.

The moral worth of an action is determined solely by its contribution to overall utility, that is, its contribution to happiness or pleasure as summed among all persons.

What does the ethical principle of beneficence entail in the context of healthcare? Healthcare providers must ensure that they do not harm patients under any circumstances. Healthcare providers must strive to maximize benefits and minimize harm, actively promoting the patient's well-being. Healthcare providers are required to treat all patients with the same standard of care, regardless of their background. Healthcare providers must respect patients' rights to make decisions about their own health, even if these decisions conflict with medical advice.

Healthcare providers must strive to maximize benefits and minimize harm, actively promoting the patient's well-being.

What is the ethical principle of nonmaleficence in healthcare? The obligation to treat all patients equally and to distribute healthcare resources fairly. The duty to act in ways that are beneficial to the patient, supporting their health and welfare. The obligation to avoid causing harm to patients, including preventing harm where possible. The duty to respect patient decisions and confidentiality in all medical interactions.

The obligation to avoid causing harm to patients, including preventing harm where possible.

What does the ethical principle of autonomy signify in medical ethics? Healthcare providers should promote fair and equitable treatment among all patients. Patients have the right to make informed decisions about their own healthcare. Healthcare providers must ensure that personal biases do not influence patient care. All medical treatments should be based solely on scientific evidence, regardless of patient preferences.

Patients have the right to make informed decisions about their own healthcare.

What is the primary responsibility of an oncology nurse in managing a cancer patient's pain? Prescribing opioid pain medications as needed. Coordinating interdisciplinary meetings to discuss patient progress. Assessing pain levels and managing pain relief strategies in collaboration with the healthcare team. Conducting independent research on new pain management therapies.

Assessing pain levels and managing pain relief strategies in collaboration with the healthcare team.

Why is patient education considered a critical component of oncology nursing practice? It helps legal teams gather information for malpractice lawsuits. It assists insurance companies in determining coverage and benefits. It empowers patients and families through knowledge, improving their ability to manage aspects of care and decision-making. It is only necessary for patients undergoing experimental treatments.

It empowers patients and families through knowledge, improving their ability to manage aspects of care and decision-making.

What is a critical role of oncology nurses when administering chemotherapy? Deciding which chemotherapy drugs are appropriate for each patient. Mixing and preparing chemotherapy drugs in the pharmacy. Monitoring for and managing adverse reactions during and after chemotherapy administration. Conducting initial consultations and obtaining consent for chemotherapy.

Monitoring for and managing adverse reactions during and after chemotherapy administration.

What is an essential responsibility of an oncology nurse in the management of cancer-related symptoms? Conducting major surgical procedures to alleviate symptoms. Prescribing new cancer treatment medications as symptoms evolve. Assessing and managing symptoms to enhance patient quality of life. Directly altering treatment plans without consulting an oncologist.

Assessing and managing symptoms to enhance patient quality of life.

What is an essential aspect of oncology nursing in the context of survivorship care? Focusing exclusively on the medical management of recurrent cancer. Assisting patients in transitioning from cancer treatment to follow-up survivorship care, including monitoring for late effects and coordinating with other health services. Recommending alternative, non-medical treatments for cancer to all survivors. Discontinuing all screenings and medical follow-up after cancer treatment is complete.

Assisting patients in transitioning from cancer treatment to follow-up survivorship care, including monitoring for late effects and coordinating with other health services.

How do oncology nurses contribute to palliative care for cancer patients? They focus solely on curing the patient's cancer. They provide support that focuses only on the physical dimensions of care. They deliver holistic care that addresses physical, emotional, and spiritual needs of patients. They manage palliative care without involving other specialized team members.

They deliver holistic care that addresses physical, emotional, and spiritual needs of patients.

Why is the involvement of oncology nurses critical in clinical trials for cancer treatments? They solely determine the eligibility of patients for clinical trials. They are responsible for designing the protocols for new drug trials. They play a key role in patient education, adherence to the protocol, and management of side effects. They provide legal advice to patients considering trial participation.

They play a key role in patient education, adherence to the protocol, and management of side effects.

How do oncology nurses contribute to end-of-life care for cancer patients? By focusing solely on extending life with aggressive treatments. By providing comprehensive support, including symptom management and emotional support, and facilitating discussions about palliative care options. By limiting communication to only medical facts and treatment options. By encouraging families to make all decisions without patient input.

By providing comprehensive support, including symptom management and emotional support, and facilitating discussions about palliative care options.

What is the role of oncology nurses in genetic counseling for cancer patients? They perform genetic testing and interpret the results without consultation from a geneticist. They provide initial counseling and support, and help to facilitate referrals for specialized genetic counseling and testing. They alter genetic data to suit patient preferences in treatment plans. They independently alter treatment based on genetic test results.

They provide initial counseling and support, and help to facilitate referrals for specialized genetic counseling and testing.

How do oncology nurses serve as advocates for cancer patients? By solely focusing on the administrative aspects of patient care. By lobbying for lower medication prices independently. By ensuring patients' needs and preferences are respected in care plans and helping them navigate the healthcare system. By deciding on the specific treatments that patients should receive without consulting other healthcare professionals.

By ensuring patients' needs and preferences are respected in care plans and helping them navigate the healthcare system.

What role do oncology nurses play in the follow-up care of cancer survivors? They primarily focus on arranging financial compensation for patients. They monitor survivors for recurrence, manage late effects of treatment, and provide ongoing psychological support. They conduct major surgical procedures required during follow-up. They delegate all follow-up care responsibilities to primary care providers.

They monitor survivors for recurrence, manage late effects of treatment, and provide ongoing psychological support.