EXAM HERO - CARE CONTINUUM

Question 1

What is the primary reason for flushing an implanted vascular access device with heparin?
To prevent blood from clotting inside the device
To test the functionality of the infusion pump
To deliver medications more quickly
To reduce the risk of infection

Answer 1

To prevent blood from clotting inside the device

Question 2

Why is it important to establish a patient’s desires for care prior to a life-threatening illness?
To ensure medical treatments align with the patient’s personal values and legal wishes
To minimize the costs of healthcare for the patient
To allow healthcare providers to avoid difficult decisions
To reduce the number of hospital visits for the patient

Answer 2

To ensure medical treatments align with the patient’s personal values and legal wishes

Question 3

What is a common management strategy for chemotherapy-induced alopecia?
Using topical minoxidil after chemotherapy completion
Taking oral vitamin supplements during chemotherapy
Using scalp cooling caps during chemotherapy sessions
Increasing protein intake before starting chemotherapy

Answer 3

Using scalp cooling caps during chemotherapy sessions

Question 4

What is a key consideration in the care continuum for patients with therapy-related secondary leukemia?
Implementing lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise
Monitoring for recurrence of the primary cancer
Frequent genetic testing of family members
Careful review of previous cancer treatments and their cumulative toxicities

Answer 4

Careful review of previous cancer treatments and their cumulative toxicities

Question 5

Which intervention is most critical in the care continuum for a patient experiencing acute liver failure?
Immediate evaluation for liver transplant eligibility
Gradual reintroduction of solid foods
Regular physical therapy sessions
Psychosocial interventions

Answer 5

Immediate evaluation for liver transplant eligibility

Question 6

What is a pivotal aspect of managing progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in the care continuum?

Answer 6

Monitoring and adjusting immunosuppressive therapy

Question 7

What is an essential focus in the long-term management of dilated cardiomyopathy in the care continuum?Routine cognitive behavioral therapy
Intensive blood sugar control
Regular monitoring and adjusting of cardiac medications
Immediate surgical interventions

Answer 7

Regular monitoring and adjusting of cardiac medications

Question 8

What is a primary prevention measure for cardiovascular disease?
Administering beta-blockers to patients with hypertension
Conducting cholesterol screening for early detection
Encouraging a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains
Performing angioplasty to improve coronary artery blood flow

Answer 8

Encouraging a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains

Question 9

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention for breast cancer?
Educating the public on the importance of a healthy lifestyle
Prescribing chemotherapy to treat existing breast cancer
Conducting regular mammography screenings
Vaccination against human papillomavirus (HPV)

Answer 9

Conducting regular mammography screenings

Question 10

What is the primary goal of mass screening programs in public health?
To provide personalized treatment plans for individual patients
To identify individuals with a specific disease within a large population
To offer genetic testing to all participants
To assess the long-term outcomes of chronic diseases

Answer 10

To identify individuals with a specific disease within a large population

Question 11

What characterizes selective or prescriptive screening in public health?
Screening applied indiscriminately to all individuals regardless of risk
Screening targeted at high-risk groups based on specific risk factors
Screening that is mandatory for all citizens
Screening that focuses solely on children and adolescents

Answer 11

Screening targeted at high-risk groups based on specific risk factors

Question 12

What is the purpose of multiphasic screening in a healthcare setting?
To administer a single diagnostic test for a specific disease
To evaluate patients using a series of different tests at one time
To focus on the treatment of diagnosed diseases
To conduct genetic testing for hereditary conditions only

Answer 12

To evaluate patients using a series of different tests at one time

Question 13

What is the primary goal of teaching women to perform breast self-examination (BSE)?
To replace the need for professional breast exams
To empower women to detect any abnormal changes early
To guarantee the detection of breast cancer
To conduct a formal diagnostic assessment

Answer 13

To empower women to detect any abnormal changes early

Question 14

At what age is it recommended to start routine screening for colon cancer?
25 years
30 years
45 years
60 years

Answer 14

45 years

Question 15

What is oxaliplatin primarily used for in cancer treatment?
As a radiation therapy enhancer
As a monoclonal antibody for immune therapy
As a chemotherapeutic agent in colorectal cancer
As a hormonal therapy for breast cancer

Answer 15

As a chemotherapeutic agent in colorectal cancer

Question 16

What is the primary therapeutic use of pegaspargase in cancer treatment?
As a supportive care medication to reduce nausea
As an angiogenesis inhibitor to prevent tumor growth
As a targeted therapy for hormone receptor-positive cancers
As an enzyme used in the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Answer 16

As an enzyme used in the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Question 17

For which type of cancer is trastuzumab most commonly used as a treatment?
Prostate cancer
HER2-positive breast cancer
Lung cancer
Melanoma

Answer 17

HER2-positive breast cancer

Question 18

What is an essential management strategy for a patient experiencing tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)?
Immediate chemotherapy to reduce tumor size
Administration of prophylactic antibiotics
Aggressive hydration and electrolyte management
Surgical removal of the tumor

Answer 18

Aggressive hydration and electrolyte

Question 19

What is a typical first-line treatment for a condition characterized by the abnormal proliferation of blood cells, such as polycythemia vera?
High-dose corticosteroids
Phlebotomy and hydroxyurea
Antiviral therapy
Dietary changes to reduce iron intake

Answer 19

Phlebotomy and hydroxyurea

Question 20

What critical aspect must be monitored in a patient receiving etoposide as part of their chemotherapy regimen?
Blood glucose levels
White blood cell count
Bone density
Vitamin B12 absorption

Answer 20

White blood cell count

Question 21

What is considered a first-line treatment for managing chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) post-hematopoietic stem cell transplantation?
High-intensity interval training
Administration of calcineurin inhibitors
Immediate surgical intervention
Replacement of the graft with a synthetic alternative

Answer 21

Administration of calcineurin inhibitors

Question 22

What is the most common type of severe reaction to chemotherapeutic agents?
Cognitive decline
Anaphylaxis
Gastrointestinal perforation
Acute renal failure

Answer 22

Anaphylaxis

Question 23

What is a crucial management strategy for a patient diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Immediate administration of anticoagulants
Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
Administration of clotting factors and platelets
Scheduled therapeutic phlebotomy

Answer 23

Administration of clotting factors and platelets

Question 24

A 62-year-old male patient with a history of chronic pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital with sudden onset of abdominal pain, hypotension, and confusion. His laboratory tests reveal prolonged PT and aPTT, decreased fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer, suggesting the presence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The patient shows signs of both bleeding and thrombotic complications, with purpura on the skin and complaints of severe leg pain indicating possible deep vein thrombosis. Based on the scenario above, what is the most appropriate initial management approach for this patient with suspected DIC?
Administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
Begin targeted antibiotic therapy for underlying infection
Start immediate transfusion of platelets and fresh frozen plasma
Perform emergency surgery to address an underlying thrombotic event

Answer 24

Start immediate transfusion of platelets and fresh frozen plasma

Question 25

A 68-year-old female patient, a former smoker with a 40-pack-year history, presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent cough, unintentional weight loss of 10 kg over the past three months, and increasing shortness of breath. A chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right upper lobe of the lung, and subsequent CT scans confirm the presence of a 5 cm solitary pulmonary nodule with associated mediastinal lymphadenopathy. A biopsy of the mass is performed, revealing non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). Based on the scenario above, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient with diagnosed NSCLC? Schedule the patient for immediate surgical resection of the tumor Initiate palliative care focusing on symptom management Conduct staging investigations to assess the extent of disease spread Start chemotherapy with a single-agent regimen immediately

Answer 25

Conduct staging investigations to assess the extent of disease spread

Question 26

A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes is brought to the emergency department by his family due to confusion and a high fever. He was previously treated for a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, his skin is warm and flushed, his heart rate is elevated at 110 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is slightly low at 100/60 mmHg. Initial laboratory tests show elevated white blood cells and a high lactate level, indicating the warm phase of septic shock. Based on the scenario above, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient in the warm phase of septic shock? Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and intravenous fluids Immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation Start vasopressor therapy to increase blood pressure Perform emergency surgery to remove the infection source

Answer 26

Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and intravenous fluids

Question 26

Following treatment initiation, the same patient's condition progresses unfavorably. His extremities become cold and clammy, his blood pressure drops further to 85/50 mmHg, and his urine output decreases significantly. The patient becomes increasingly lethargic, indicating a transition to the cold shock phase of septic shock. Based on the scenario above, what is the next step in managing this patient who has progressed to the cold shock phase of septic shock? Increase the rate of intravenous fluid administration Begin high-dose corticosteroid therapy Initiate vasopressor therapy to support blood pressure Reduce antibiotic dosage due to risk of renal failure

Answer 26

Initiate vasopressor therapy to support blood pressure

Question 27

Following major surgery, What is the most appropriate initial management approach for third-space syndrome? Aggressive fluid resuscitation with isotonic saline Administration of high-dose diuretics to remove excess fluid Immediate reintroduction of oral feeding to promote gastrointestinal recovery Monitoring and gradual replacement of fluid and electrolytes

Answer 27

Monitoring and gradual replacement of fluid and electrolytes

Question 28

What is a first-line treatment for managing hypercalcemia of malignancy? Administration of loop diuretics High fluid intake and intravenous bisphosphonates Reduction in dietary calcium High-dose vitamin D supplementation

Answer 28

High fluid intake and intravenous bisphosphonates

Question 29

Which treatment is immediately effective for protecting the heart in a patient with severe hyperkalemia? Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate Intravenous calcium gluconate Increase in dietary potassium intake Intravenous administration of insulin and glucose

Answer 29

Intravenous calcium gluconate

Question 30

What is a common cause of increased bone resorption leading to osteoporosis? Excessive consumption of vitamin D Increased physical activity Elevated levels of parathyroid hormone High dietary intake of calcium

Answer 30

Elevated levels of parathyroid hormone

Question 31

For which condition is somatostatin analog therapy most commonly indicated? Uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus Acute viral hepatitis Growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenomas Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Answer 31

Growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenomas

Question 32

What is a hallmark sign of cardiac tamponade that would be crucial for an oncology nurse to recognize? Widened pulse pressure Pulsus paradoxus High-grade fever Isolated right-sided heart failure

Answer 32

Pulsus paradoxus

Question 33

What is a common initial symptom of superior vena cava syndrome that oncology nurses should be alert to? Ascites Severe hypotension Facial swelling and distended neck veins Sudden onset of severe back pain

Answer 33

Facial swelling and distended neck veins

Question 34

Which treatment option is a common approach for a newly diagnosed patient with aggressive T-cell lymphoma? Hormone therapy Chemotherapy combined with immunotherapy Surgical resection of lymph nodes High-frequency ultrasound therapy

Answer 34

Chemotherapy combined with immunotherapy

Question 34

Which statement is true regarding adenocarcinomas for oncology nursing practice? They primarily originate from epithelial cells found in glandular structures or tissues. They are most commonly benign and rarely require intervention. They are exclusively found in the brain and central nervous system. They are treated solely with radiation therapy regardless of the stage.

Answer 34

They primarily originate from epithelial cells found in glandular

Question 35

What is the primary indication for using the MVAC chemotherapy regimen? Early-stage breast cancer Advanced transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Metastatic prostate cancer

Answer 35

Advanced transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium

Question 36

What is a common indication for performing a nephrectomy in the context of cancer treatment? Benign renal cysts Unilateral small kidney stones Renal cell carcinoma Acute pyelonephritis

Answer 36

Renal cell carcinoma

Question 37

What is a key clinical feature of radiation-induced pulmonary toxicity that oncology nurses should monitor for in patients undergoing thoracic radiation? Progressive muscle weakness Sudden onset of severe chest pain Dry, persistent cough and dyspnea High fever and chills

Answer 37

Dry, persistent cough and dyspnea

Question 38

Which chemotherapeutic agent is most commonly associated with the risk of developing chemotherapy-induced pulmonary toxicity? Vincristine Methotrexate Bleomycin Cisplatin

Answer 38

Bleomycin

Question 39

What is the significance of anaplasia in the context of cancer pathology? Indicates high cell differentiation typical of benign tumors Represents the highest grade of cellular differentiation in malignant tumors Describes poorly differentiated or undifferentiated cells typical of aggressive malignancies Refers to cells returning to a normal state post-treatment

Answer 39

Describes poorly differentiated or undifferentiated cells typical of aggressive malignancies

Question 40

Which characteristic distinguishes carcinomas from other types of cancer? Originating from mesenchymal tissue such as bone or muscle Originating from blood-forming cells in the bone marrow Originating from epithelial cells that cover internal and external surfaces of the body Originating from connective tissue such as cartilage or fat

Answer 40

Originating from epithelial cells that cover internal and external surfaces of the body

Question 41

What is a typical feature of sarcomas regarding their location in the body? They primarily develop in glandular tissues like the thyroid and pancreas They develop in supportive and connective tissues, including bones, muscles, and fat They are usually found in the lymphatic system, affecting lymph nodes They often originate in the skin and mucous membranes

Answer 41

They develop in supportive and connective tissues, including bones, muscles, and fat

Question 42

What is a key feature of myeloma in diagnostic testing? Detection of solid tumors in the lymphatic system Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells High levels of abnormal immunoglobulins in blood or urine Elevated white blood cell counts typical of leukemias

Answer 42

High levels of abnormal immunoglobulins in blood or urine

Question 43

What is a common symptom of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) in the chronic phase? Severe anemia leading to frequent transfusions Sudden episodes of acute pain Fatigue and fullness in the abdomen due to an enlarged spleen Rapid onset of night sweats and high fever

Answer 43

Fatigue and fullness in the abdomen due to an enlarged spleen

Question 44

What diagnostic finding is most indicative of Hodgkin's lymphoma? Elevated white blood cell counts Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy Low levels of serum immunoglobulins Detection of Philadelphia chromosome

Answer 44

Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy

Question 45

Which factor is considered a major risk for developing multiple myeloma? Previous bacterial infections Chronic alcohol use Advanced age High-fat diet

Answer 45

Advanced age

Question 46

What does the acronym "CRAB" represent in the context of multiple myeloma? Calcium elevation, Reduced hemoglobin, Altered immunity, Bone pain Calcium elevation, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lesions Chronic renal failure, Reactive antibodies, Anemia, Bone marrow suppression Constant fatigue, Renal insufficiency, Abdominal pain, Blood clots

Answer 46

Calcium elevation, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lesions

Question 47

What is a primary target organ for chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)? Heart Kidneys Skin Pancreas

Answer 47

Skin

Question 48

Which of the following is a common use of anti-metabolites in cancer therapy? Promoting rapid cell division in cancerous tissues Enhancing the immune system's ability to fight cancer cells Inhibiting the synthesis of DNA and RNA to prevent cancer cell growth Inducing hypermutation in cancer cells to trigger immune detection

Answer 48

Inhibiting the synthesis of DNA and RNA to prevent cancer cell growth

Question 49

What is the mechanism of action of mitotic inhibitors in chemotherapy? Preventing the formation of microtubules necessary for cell division Directly damaging DNA to prevent replication Blocking hormonal signals that promote tumor growth Altering cellular metabolic pathways to starve cancer cells

Answer 49

Preventing the formation of microtubules necessary for cell division

Question 50

What is a primary therapeutic use of alkylating agents in chemotherapy? Targeting non-dividing, dormant cancer cells Initiating immune-mediated destruction of tumor cells Cross-linking DNA strands, leading to cell death Enhancing oxygen delivery to hypoxic tumor tissues

Answer 50

Cross-linking DNA strands, leading to cell death

Question 51

What is a unique characteristic of platinum-based chemotherapy agents in cancer treatment? They promote immune system recognition of cancer cells. They act primarily by inhibiting topoisomerase enzymes. They induce DNA cross-linking to prevent DNA replication and transcription. They increase oxygen radicals within tumor cells to cause damage.

Answer 51

They induce DNA cross-linking to prevent DNA replication and transcription.

Question 52

Which of the following best describes the action of antitumor antibiotics in cancer therapy? They disrupt microtubules during cell division. They interfere with DNA replication by intercalating into DNA strands. They stimulate an allergic reaction to cancer cells. They inhibit RNA transcription by blocking ribosome function.

Answer 52

They interfere with DNA replication by intercalating into DNA strands.

Question 53

What is a common use of Dacarbazine (DTIC) in oncology? Treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Treatment of hormone-responsive prostate cancer. Treatment of malignant melanoma. Treatment of early-stage breast cancer.

Answer 53

Treatment of malignant melanoma.

Question 54

What distinguishes carboplatin from other platinum-based chemotherapy agents? It has a broader spectrum of activity against different cancer types. It has a lower potential for causing nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity. It is less effective in inducing DNA cross-links. It is only used in pediatric patients.

Answer 54

It has a lower potential for causing nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity.

Question 55

What is a notable side effect of cisplatin that requires careful monitoring during chemotherapy? Cardiac arrhythmias Hepatotoxicity Nephrotoxicity Severe hyperglycemia

Answer 55

Nephrotoxicity

Question 56

What is the primary mechanism of action of EGFR inhibitors in cancer therapy? They stimulate the immune system to attack cancer cells. They inhibit the enzyme telomerase in cancer cells. They block the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) signaling pathway. They enhance the effects of radiation therapy.

Answer 56

They block the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) signaling pathway.

Question 57

What is the standard treatment for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) that could be recommended to a newly diagnosed patient like Diane? High-dose chemotherapy and radiation Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) therapy Stem cell transplantation as a first-line therapy Surgical removal of the spleen

Answer 57

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) therapy

Question 58

What is blastic crisis in the context of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)? A sudden improvement in patient symptoms due to effective treatment A phase characterized by extreme thrombocytosis and splenomegaly A transition to an acute and aggressive form of leukemia A reduction in all types of blood cells leading to severe anemia

Answer 58

A transition to an acute and aggressive form of leukemia

Question 59

What is the primary clinical use of hematopoietic growth factors in cancer treatment? To decrease the production of cancerous cells in the bloodstream To enhance the effects of radiation therapy To increase red blood cell production after chemotherapy To stimulate the immune system's natural killer cells directly

Answer 59

To increase red blood cell production after chemotherapy

Question 60

At what age are women recommended to start routine mammography screening according to general guidelines? 30 years 40 years 50 years 60 years

Answer 60

40 years

Question 61

How often is fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) recommended for average-risk individuals to screen for colon cancer? Every month Every year Every 3 years Every 5 years

Answer 61

Every year

Question 62

What does the term "cancer incidence" specifically refer to in epidemiological studies? The total number of people living with cancer within a given population at a specific time The number of new cancer cases diagnosed in a specific population during a certain period The number of cancer-related deaths within a population over a specific period The proportion of patients who recover from cancer in a given year

Answer 62

The number of new cancer cases diagnosed in a specific population during a certain period

Question 63

What does the term "cancer prevalence" refer to in public health? The rate at which cancer is diagnosed as fatal within a given population The total number of all cancer cases (new and pre-existing) within a population at a given time The average age of cancer diagnosis within a specific demographic The likelihood of recurrence of cancer after initial treatment

Answer 63

The total number of all cancer cases (new and pre-existing) within a population at a given time

Question 64

What does the term "absolute risk" describe in cancer epidemiology? The probability of a person in the general population developing cancer over a specific time period, such as their lifetime The comparison of cancer risk between people with certain exposures and those without The excess cancer risk attributed to a specific risk factor in the population The likelihood of cancer recurrence after successful treatment

Answer 64

The probability of a person in the general population developing cancer over a specific time period, such as their lifetime

Question 65

What is "relative risk" in the context of cancer research? The overall likelihood of any individual developing cancer in their lifetime The ratio of the risk of cancer among people with a specific risk factor to those without the risk factor The total number of cancer cases existing in a population at a particular point in time The effectiveness of cancer treatment in reducing mortality

Answer 65

The ratio of the risk of cancer among people with a specific risk factor to those without the risk factor

Question 66

What does "attributable risk" indicate in cancer epidemiology? The percentage of cancer cases that can be prevented if a specific risk factor were eliminated The percentage increase in cancer risk due to genetic factors The survival rate of cancer patients after five years of diagnosis The decrease in cancer incidence following a public health intervention

Answer 66

The percentage of cancer cases that can be prevented if a specific risk factor were eliminated

Question 67

What is "cumulative risk" in cancer epidemiology? The risk of a population developing cancer if they are exposed to multiple risk factors over time The chance of an individual developing cancer at some point during their lifetime, given no specific risk factors The total number of new cancer cases projected in a population over a future period The likelihood of cancer recurrence based on initial treatment success

Answer 67

The chance of an individual developing cancer at some point during their lifetime, given no specific risk factors

Question 68

Which of the following is known to cause pulmonary toxicities in patients undergoing treatment for cancer? Broad-spectrum antibiotics only Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Certain chemotherapy agents and radiation therapy High-dose vitamin supplements

Answer 68

Certain chemotherapy agents and radiation therapy