Exam 6: Units 11, 12, & 13 Flashcards

1
Q

part of the brain that coordinates the production and release of hormones

A

hypothalamus

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2
Q

this gland secretes hormones that regulate most of the other endocrine glands

A

pituitary gland

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3
Q

endocrine function of the pancreas

A

secreting insulin and glucagon to regulate blood glucose levels

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4
Q

exocrine function of the pancreas

A

secretes enzymes for digestion such as amylase and lipase

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5
Q

glucagon is released from

A

pancreatic ALPHA cells

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6
Q

insulin is released from

A

pancreatic BETA cells

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7
Q

after a meal, the digestive system breaks down carbohydrates to simple sugars called

A

glucose

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8
Q

Insulin is produced in the pancreas by

A

Islets of Langerhans in the beta cells

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9
Q

process that generates glucose from non-carbohydrate sources such as proteins, lipids, pyruvate, or lactate

A

gluconeogenesis

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10
Q

process of breaking down glycogen into glucose for energy

A

glycogenolysis

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11
Q

for a non-diabetic patient, a fasting glucose of ______ is normal

A

60-110

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12
Q

a patient can be diagnosed with DM if this glucose reading is given on 2 separate occassions

A

at or above 126

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13
Q

pre-diabetes glucose reading (must be consistently for dx)

A

100-125

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14
Q

HbgA1C AKA

A

glycosylated hemoglobin

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15
Q

a HbgA1C of ______ must be taken for a DM diagnosis

A

6.5%

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16
Q

expected HgbA1C for a non-diabetic person

A

4%-6%

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17
Q

HgbA1C reading that is considered prediabetic

A

5.7% - 6.4%

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18
Q

acceptable HgbA1c range for diabetic patients

A

6.5% - 8%

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19
Q

TARGET goal of HgbA1C for a diabetic patient

A

less than 7%

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20
Q

an HbA1C of 6% correlates with this blood glucose level

A

126

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21
Q

an HbA1C of 7% correlates with this blood glucose reading

A

154

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22
Q

an HbA1C of 8% correlates with this blood glucose reading

A

183

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23
Q

an HbA1C of 9% correlates with this blood glucose reading

A

212

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24
Q

an HbA1C of 10% correlates with this blood glucose reading

A

240

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25
Q

3 P’s of hyperglycemia

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Polyphagia

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26
Q

excessive urination

A

polyuria

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27
Q

feeling of extreme hunger

A

polyphagia

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28
Q

feeling of excessive thirst

A

polydipsia

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29
Q

a patient may have these kinds of respirations with hyperglycemia

A

Kussmaul respirations (deep, labored)

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30
Q

a fasting blood glucose of _____ indicates hyerglycemia

A

> 125

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31
Q

a postprandial blood glucose of _____ indicates hyperglycemia

postprandial: after lunch or dinner

A

> 180

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32
Q

this test is the average blood glucose level over the previous 2-3 months

A

HbA1C

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33
Q

the non-diabetic goal range for the HbA1C

A

4% - 6%

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34
Q

hypoglycemia is a blood glucose of

A

70 or less

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35
Q

this hormone taps into glucose reserves to release it to the blood

A

epinephrine/norepinephrine

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36
Q

pancreas releases _____ to raise blood glucose

A

glucagon

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37
Q

3 key clinical presentations of hypoglycemia (think brain)

A

confusion
mental fogginess
poor cognition

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38
Q

newborns will have an initial ____ in glucose

A

drop in glucose

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39
Q

a healthy newborn can tolerate a blood glucose of

A

30

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40
Q

this IV fluid may be given to a patient experiencing hypoglycemia

A

dextrose

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41
Q

genetic, autoimmune disease involving the death of beta cells in the pancreatic Islets of Langerhans

A

T1D

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42
Q

T1D usually occurs in (age range)

A

adolescence

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43
Q

3 P’s of T1D

A

Polyuria
Polyphagia
Polydipsia

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44
Q

a patient with T1D may have this non-fasting blood glucose reading

A

200

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45
Q

a patient with T1D may have this fasting blood glucose reading

A

greater than or equal to 126

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46
Q

a patient with T1D may have an HbA1C of

A

greater than or equal to 6.5%

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47
Q

C-peptide levels with a patient with T1D will be

A

decreased

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48
Q

serum ketones will be _____ in T1D

A

present

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49
Q

a patient with T1D will have a blood gas pH _____ than 7.35

A

less than 7.35

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50
Q

a T1D urinalysis will be positive for both

A

glucose and ketones

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51
Q

an HgbA1C should be tracked every

A

3 months

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52
Q

diabetic patients who are sick should increase their

A

blood glucose monitoring

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53
Q

a diabetic patient who is sick should never omit

A

their insulin

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54
Q

a diabetic patient who is sick should drink plenty of

A

fluids

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55
Q

a diabetic patient who is sick needs to contact their provider if blood glucose reaches this level, or if this is identified in the urine

A

> 250

ketones are present in urine

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56
Q

regular insulin is diluted with

A

normal saline ONLY

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57
Q

lispro and aspart insulin are (class)

A

rapid-acting insulin

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58
Q

regular insulin is (class)

A

fast-acting insulin

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59
Q

NPH/isophane insulin is (class)

A

intermediate-acting insulin

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60
Q

glargine and detemir insulin are (class)

A

long-acting insulin

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61
Q

onset of lispro

A

15-30 minutes

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62
Q

peak of lispro

A

30 min - 3 hour

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63
Q

duration of lispro

A

3-5 hours

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64
Q

onset of regular insulin

A

30-60 minutes

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65
Q

peak of regular insulin

A

2-4 hour

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66
Q

duration of regular insulin

A

4-12 hour

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67
Q

onset of NPH insulin

A

1-2 hours

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68
Q

peak of NPH insulin

A

4-12 hour

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69
Q

duration of NPH insulin

A

14-24 hour

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70
Q

onset of glargine

A

2-4 hour

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71
Q

peak of glargine

A

NO PEAK FOR LONG-ACTING

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72
Q

duration of glargine

A

up to 24 hours

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73
Q

only kind of insulin that can be given IV

A

regular

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74
Q

1st line oral hypoglycemic medication for T2D

A

metformin

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75
Q

metformin is contraindicated in (x2)

A

renal impairment
metabolic acidosis

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76
Q

Some T2 diabetics are insulin dependent. Another medication that can be used is

A

GLP1 to increase insulin sensitivity

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77
Q

DKA is typically seen in this kind of DM

A

T1D

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78
Q

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) is typically seen in this kind of DM

A

T2D

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79
Q

DKA has a pH of (think acidic)

A

<7.35

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80
Q

this electrolyte imbalance accompanies DKA

A

potassium imbalance

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81
Q

a person with DKA may have this kind of breathing pattern

A

Kussmaul respirations

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82
Q

HHS has a pH of (basic)

A

> 7.4

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83
Q

there are more profound ______ manifestations with HHS

A

neurological

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84
Q

HHS is a _____ disease

A

thromboembolitic disease - increased clot risk

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85
Q

there is SIGNIFICANT ______ in HHS

A

dehydration

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86
Q

a person with HHS may have this kind of electrolyte imbalance

A

potassium imbalance

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87
Q

a key s/s with DKA is a

A

flushed face

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88
Q

nurse should administer these 4 things to a patient with DKA

A

1) FLUIDS
2) Insulin
3) Potassium
4) Bicarb - assess need first

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89
Q

onset of HHS is _____ than in DKA

A

much slower

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90
Q

serum and urine ketones are ______ in HHS

A

absent

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91
Q

serum and urine ketones are _____ in DKA

A

present

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92
Q

mortality rate for DKA

A

1% - 5%

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93
Q

mortality rate for HHS

94
Q

main goal in treating DKA and HHS

A

restoring circulatory volume

95
Q

part of treating DKA and HHS is treating

A

hyperglycemia

96
Q

goal range for potassium when treating DKA and HHS

97
Q

sodium is corrected in DKA and HHS using

98
Q

main health condition that contributes to metabolic syndrome

A

insulin resistance

99
Q

if metabolic syndrome is left untreated, it can lead to (x2)

A

T2D
Cardiovascular disease

100
Q

main health impact of metabolic syndrome

A

damage to vasculature and nerves

101
Q

waist circumferences that accompany metabolic syndrome (males and females)

A

Males: >40
Females: >35

102
Q

2 medications that can be used for metabolic syndrome

A

Glucophage
Statins

103
Q

outer layer of skin composed of mainly keratinocytes and other cells

104
Q

largest portion of the skin made of connective tissue, blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves, sweat/sebaceous glands, and hair roots

105
Q

subcutaneous fat that insulates the body, absorbs shock, and pads the internal organs and structures

A

subcutaneous tissue

106
Q

this refers to interior body forces upon the skin when moving in the opposite directions and may result in deep tissue injury

107
Q

a mechanical force caused by dragging the skin across a surface, such as changing position in bed

108
Q

3 phases of the wound healing process

A

1) Hemostatic/Inflammatory
2) Proliferative
3) Remodeling

109
Q

phase of the wound healing process where new collagen fibers are formed, a new wound bed is created, and new capillaries are formed

A

Proliferative

110
Q

phase of the wound healing process where stronger collagen replaces the gelatinous collagen

A

remodeling

111
Q

phase of the wound healing process where damaged tissue releases cytokines, which trigger blood coagulation, and the wound begins to heal

A

hemostatic/inflammatory

112
Q

type of wound healing that involves the skin being closed with adhesives or sutures

A

primary intention

113
Q

type of wound healing that involves the wound being left open to view

A

second intention

114
Q

type of wound healing that is a combination of primary and secondary intention, where the wound is left open for 5-10 days before being closed with sutures

A

tertiary intention
delayed primary closure

115
Q

second intention requires a _____ healing time compared to primary intention

A

longer healing time

116
Q

two types of wounds

A

acute and chronic

117
Q

incisions, skin tears, abrasions, and moisture-associated damages are this type of wound

A

acute wounds

118
Q

arterial ulcers, venous ulcers, and diabetic ulcers are this type of wound

A

chronic wounds

119
Q

excessive/hypertrophic wound healing can result in

120
Q

this color of wound indicates healthy regeneration of tissue

121
Q

this color of wound indicates presence of purulent drainage and slough

122
Q

this color of wound indicates the presence of eschar, which hinders wound healing and requires removal

123
Q

drainage is AKA

124
Q

1 gram = ____ mL drainage

A

1 gram = 1 mL

125
Q

type of drainage that is normal for the healing process, characterized by clear, thin, watery, and pale yellow appearance

A

serous drainage

126
Q

type of drainage that is bright red, appearing as blood leaking from the wound

A

sanguineous drainage

127
Q

type of drainage that is a combination of serous and sanguineous drainage that is pink/watery

A

serosanguineous drainage

128
Q

type of drainage that is thick and foul-smelling

129
Q

this type of therapy increases oxygen availability for wound healing

A

Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy

130
Q

when irrigating a wound, clean it in this order

A

from the least contaminated area towards the most contaminated

131
Q

these. kinds of solutions remain the preferred cleansing agents for wound irrigation

A

isotonic solutions

132
Q

procedure where biofilm and dead tissue are removed with a scalpel and scissors

A

surgical debridement

133
Q

procedure where foam strips are laid into the wound bed with an occlusive sealed drape, suction with negative pressure is applied in attempts to decrease swelling and enhance healing in a moist environment

A

Vacuum-assisted closure system (wound vac)

134
Q

partial or total rupture of a sutured wound, usually with separation of underlying skin layers

A

dehiscence

135
Q

a dehiscence that involves the protrusion of visceral organs through a wound opening

A

evisceration

136
Q

evisceration or dehiscence require

A

emergency treatment

137
Q

the nurse should administer antibiotic therapy at this time

A

after collecting specimens for culture and sensitivity testing

138
Q

most susceptible areas for pressure injuries

A

over bony prominences

139
Q

pressure injuries are classified by

A

how much tissue loss is observed in the wound

140
Q

stage of pressure injury with nonblanchable erythema of intact skin

141
Q

stage of pressure injury with partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis. Wound bed is reddish-pinkish WITHOUT slough, eschar, or granulation tissue

142
Q

stage of pressure injury with full-thickness skin loss, SOME slough and eschar is present

143
Q

stage of pressure injury with full-thickness skin loss and tissue loss. Cartilage, bone, fascia, muscle, ligaments, or tendons are exposed

144
Q

stage of pressure injury with obscured full-thickness skin and tissue loss

A

Unstageable

145
Q

stage of pressure injury with persistent nonblanchable deep red, maroon or purple discoloration. Eschar or slough obscures staging.

A

Deep Tissue Pressure Injury (DTPI)

146
Q

TIME mneumonic

A

T: Tissue integrity
I: Inflammation/Infection
M: Moisture
E: Edge of wound

147
Q

this tool is used to assess the patient’s risk of developing a wound ulcer

A

Braden scale

148
Q

nerve damage due to uncontrolled diabetes

A

diabetic neuropathy

149
Q

during inflammation, this series of events usually occurs (x3)

A

1) Vasodilation
2) Increased vascular permeability
3) Leukocyte cellular infiltration

150
Q

5 cardinal signs of inflammtion

A

Heat
Redness
Pain
Swelling
Loss of Function

151
Q

this is released by mast cells and causes vasodilation and vascular permeability

152
Q

a group of substances that are released in response to injury that can cause vasodilation/increased permeability and attract neutrophils

153
Q

a group of compounds released that can cause vasodilation/increase permeability, cause swelling, and cause pain

A

prostaglandins

154
Q

2 types of inflammation

A

chronic
acute

155
Q

condition that is characterized by a progressive deterioration of joint cartilage

A

osteoarthritis

156
Q

osteoarthritis is not

A

inflammatory or autoimune

157
Q

osteoarthritis has a ____ onset

A

slow onset

158
Q

osteoarthtitic pain is usually

A

asymmetrical (affects ONE joint)

159
Q

in osteoarthritis, the patient may feel pain/stiffness in joints at this time

A

after weight-bearing activities

160
Q

this protects the ends of the bone, allowing the bone to move seamlessly over each other in a joint

A

articular cartilage

161
Q

osteoarthritis occurs when there is damage to the ____ cartilage

A

articular cartilage

162
Q

this gender is more at risk for osteoarthritis

163
Q

in osteoarthritis, these nodes may present at the DIP of fingers

A

Heberden’s nodes

“Heberden’s are Higher on the finger”

164
Q

in osteoarthritis, these nodes may occur at the PIP of the fingers

A

Bouchard’s nodes

“Bouchard’s are closer to the Body”

165
Q

a main risk factor for osteoarthritis
(NOT the only risk factor, though)

A

obesity (increased weight/wear on joints)

166
Q

medication of choice for managing osteoarthritis

A

acetaminophen

167
Q

these medications can be used on a short-term basis for managing osteoarthritis

168
Q

these two supplements can be taken for osteoarthritis

A

glucosamine and chondroitin

169
Q

topical ______ can be used for osteoarthritis

A

topical capsaicin

170
Q

replacement or reconstruction of the joint

A

arthroplasty

171
Q

this is a chronic inflammatory type of arthritis, also an autoimmune disease

A

rheumatoid arthritis

172
Q

patient with rheumatoid arthritis will have a

A

+ rhematoid factor

173
Q

rheumatoid arthritis usually affects the ____ joints first

A

upper joints

174
Q

rheumatoid arthritis has a ____ onset

A

rapid onset

175
Q

pain associated in rheumatoid arthritis is located

A

bilaterally and asymmetrically

176
Q

a person with rheumatoid arthritis will usually have joint pain/stiffness at this time

A

in the mornings

177
Q

rheumatoid arthritis is a _____ disease that can affect any connective tissue in the body

A

systemic disease

178
Q

this kind of rheumatoid arthritis affects joints and organs of children under 16

A

juvenile RA

(children CAN outgrow this)
(bone development is affected)

179
Q

gender that is more at risk for rheumatoid arthritis

180
Q

this virus may pose a risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis

A

Epstein-Barr virus

181
Q

removal of synovium

A

synovectomy

182
Q

joint fusion

A

arthrodesis

183
Q

joint deformities are _____ signs of rheumatoid arthritis

A

late signs

184
Q

2 types of finger contractures that are common in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Swan neck
Boutonniere

185
Q

morning stiffness, joint swelling/deformity, and _____ are common clinical presentations of rheumatoid arthritis

A

subcutaneous nodules

186
Q

this lab will be elevated in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis

A

ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)

187
Q

this blood cell count will be high with rheumatoid arthritis

A

WBC (inflammation)

188
Q

this blood cell count will be low with rheumatoid arthritis

A

RBC (due to anemia)

189
Q

synovial fluid aspiration

A

arthrocentesis

190
Q

alternate this when treating rheumatoid arthritis

A

alternate hot and cold

191
Q

3 classes of medications used to manage rheumatoid arthritis

A

NSAIDs
Corticosteroids
DMARDs (disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs)

192
Q

complication of RA: autoimmune disease where the body attacks the glands that produce tears/saliva and result in drying of other parts of the. body.

AA: eyes, mouth, vagin

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

193
Q

inflammation of arteries that can disrupt blood flow, affecting mainly the smaller arteries of the skin, eyes, and brain

A

vasculitis

194
Q

vasculitis can lead to

A

organ ischemia

195
Q

disease that involves the buildup of collagen in the skin and other parts of the body

A

scleroderma

196
Q

scleroderma is an _____ disease

A

autoimmune

197
Q

gender more at risk for scleroderma

198
Q

this kind of scleroderma only affects the skin on the chest, abdomen, or limb, but not usually the hands or face

A

localized scleroderma

199
Q

localized scleroderma AKA

200
Q

localized scleroderma/morphea develops

201
Q

this kind of scleroderma may affect large areas of the skin and organs such as the heart, lungs, or kidneys

A

systemic scleroderma

202
Q

systemic scleroderma AKA

203
Q

there are two main types of scleroderma

A

Limited disease
Diffuse disease

204
Q

Limited disease (systemic scleroderma/sclerosis) is associated with this syndrome

A

CREST syndrome

205
Q

CREST syndrome stands for

A

C: calcinosis
R: Raynaud’s
E: Esophageal dysfunction
S: Sclerodactyly
T: Telangiectasias

206
Q

part of CREST syndrome characterized by calcium deposits on the skin

A

calcinosis

207
Q

part of CREST syndrome characterized by a spasm in the blood vessels as a response to cold or stress

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon

208
Q

part of CREST syndrome characterized by acid reflux and decrease in motility of the esophagus

A

esophageal dysfunction

209
Q

part of CREST syndrome characterized by thickening or tightening of the skin on the fingers and hands

A

sclerodactyly

210
Q

part of CREST syndrome characterized by a dilation of capillaries causing red marks on the surface of the skin

A

telangiectasias

211
Q

during an assessment, this kind of skin may indicate scleroderma

A

tight, thick skin on the fingers

212
Q

during an assessment, if these appear on the fingers or toes, it may indicate scleroderma

A

ulcers on the fingertips or toes

213
Q

these three parts of the body will be assessed for abnormalities when diagnosing scleroderma

A

heart, lungs, and abdomen

214
Q

pharmacological treatment for scleroderma may include

A

corticosteroids
immunosuppressants (methotrexate)

215
Q

for most people, scleroderma progresses like this

A

the disease gets worse, but slowly

216
Q

type of arthritis caused by an increase of uric acid levels (hyperuricemia)

217
Q

two types of gout

A

primary and secondary

218
Q

this type of gout is more common

219
Q

accumulation of sodium urate crystals in joints such as the big toe an hands, sometimes the ears

220
Q

primary gout has three stages

A

1) asymptomatic hyperuricemia
2) Acute gouty arthritis
3) chronic gout

221
Q

primary gout can be

222
Q

secondary gout is caused by

A

another disease that causes excessive uric acid in the blood

223
Q

treatment for secondary gout focuses on

A

treating the underlying condition

224
Q

acute gout attacks should subside within

225
Q

this joint is commonly affected by gout pain

A

metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe

226
Q

an antigout medication (for acute gout)

A

colchicine

227
Q

2 other classes of medications that can be used for acute gout

A

NSAIDs
corticosteroids

228
Q

antigout medication (for chronic gout)

A

allopurinol

229
Q

MOA allopurinol

A

promotes uric acid secretion and decreases production or uric acid

230
Q

a uricosuric medication that can be used for chronic gout

A

probenecid

231
Q

MOA probenecid

A

promotes secretion of uric acid

232
Q

a client should avoid this food while treating gout

A

organ meats/shellfish