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Patient Centered Care I > EXAM 1: Units 1 and 2 > Flashcards

EXAM 1: Units 1 and 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Subjective s/s are AKA

A

presumptive

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2
Q

Objective s/s are AKA

A

probable

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3
Q

Diagnostic s/s are AKA

A

positive

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4
Q

Sporadic uterine contractions
“false labor”

A

Braxton Hicks contractions

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5
Q

Medical technique used to feel for solid objects that are surrounded by fluid in the body

A

Ballottement

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6
Q

Softening of the cervix (2 signs that indicate this)

A

Goodell’s sign
Hegar’s sign

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7
Q

Bluish discoloration of the vulva/cervix

A

Chadwick’s sign

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8
Q

Optimal gestational weight gain

A

25-35 lb

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9
Q

Which vitamin is required for calcium absorption?

A

Vit D required for calcium absorption

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10
Q

Nutrient needed for bone and heart health

A

calcium

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11
Q

Which vitamin helps iron absorption

A

Vit C helps iron absorption

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12
Q

Nutrient needed to increase maternal RBC count

A

iron

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13
Q

2 substances that interfere with iron absorption

A

milk and caffeine

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14
Q

nutrient that prevents neural tube defects

A

folic acid (folate)

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15
Q

macronutrient that supports the growth of fetal tissue

A

protein

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16
Q

In the 2nd trimester, this is the recommended caloric increase for the mother

A

340 calories daily

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17
Q

In the 3rd trimester, this is the recommended caloric increase for the mother

A

452 calories daily

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18
Q

chewing/craving non-food items

A

pica

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19
Q

Bacterial infection caused by processed meats and raw milk

A

listeriosis

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20
Q

daily caffeine limit during pregnancy

A

no more than 200 mg per day

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21
Q

4 T’s of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Tone
Tissue
Trauma
Thrombin

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22
Q

Inability of uterus to contract down to its pre-pregnancy size after giving birth

A

Uterine atony

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23
Q

Very fast/short labor where the baby is born within 3 hours of the onset of contractions

A

Precipitous labor

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24
Q

Several births close together

A

Multiparity

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25
Q

5 main causes of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Precipitous labor
Uterine atony
Retained placental fragments
Prolonged 3rd stage of labor (30+minutes)
Multiparity

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26
Q

Foul-smelling lochia is a sign of postpartum _______

A

infection

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27
Q

Shortness of breath and difficulty breathing without exertion is a sign of a

A

blood clot

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28
Q

typical time of onset for an infection

A

42-78 hours

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29
Q

A fever more than ______ degrees indicates possible postpartum infection

A

100.4 F
38 C

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30
Q

Normal blood loss ranges for both vaginal birth and cesarean birth

A

Vaginal: 500 mL
Cesarean: 1000 mL

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31
Q

8 signs of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Blood loss greater than normal range
Uterine atony
Clots larger than a quarter
Peri-pad saturation (>1 in an hour)
Constant trickle of bright red blood from vagina
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Decreased urinary output

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32
Q

First line of treatment for uterine atony (medication)

A

Oxytocin (uterine stimulants/oxytotics)

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33
Q

Gestational HTN characterized by this finding

A

BP >140/90 (2 readings 4 hours apart)

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34
Q

Is proteinuria a characteristic of gestational HTN?

A

No - there is no proteinuria in gestational HTN

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35
Q

6 risk factors for gestational HTN

A

Young (<19 yo) or Old (>40 yo) mother
First pregnancy
Extreme obesity/DM
Chronic HTN
Family Hx preeclampsia
Multifetal gestation

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36
Q

What distinguishes gestational HTN from preeclampsia?

A

Proteinuria (although not always present in preeclampsia)

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37
Q

4 labs to monitor with gestational HTN

A

Liver enzymes
BUN
CBC
Clotting study

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38
Q

6 characteristics of severe preeclampsia

A

BP 160/110 or higher
Proteinuria 3+
Elevated blood creatinine
Cerebral/visual disturbances
Hyperreflexia
Thrombocytopenia

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39
Q

What distinguishes severe preeclampsia from eclampsia?

A

Seizures

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40
Q

What does the HELLP in HELLP syndrome stand for?

A

H: Hemolysis
EL: Elevated Liver enzymes
LP: Low Platelets

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41
Q

s/s of HELLP Syndrome are similar to

A

the flu

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42
Q

2 classes of medications that are given to help treat HELLP Syndrome

A

Antihypertensives
Anticonvulsants

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43
Q

Which anticonvulsant would be given for HELLP Syndrome?

A

Magnesium sulfate

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44
Q

When treating HELLP Syndrome, which effect should you watch for as a result of medication treatment?

A

Magnesium toxicity

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45
Q

5 s/s magnesium toxicity

A

Absence of deep tendon reflexes
Urine output <30 ml/hr
RR <12/min
Decreased LOC
Cardiac arrhythmias

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46
Q

Medication given to promote uterine contractions

A

Oxytocin

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47
Q

What can stimulate oxytocin?

A

Breastfeeding

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48
Q

Which 2 hormone levels decrease postpartum?

A

Estrogen and Progesterone

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49
Q

Purpose of estrogen

A

Plays key role in breast development

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50
Q

Purpose of progesterone

A

Increase uterine muscle tone to prepare uterus for pregnancy or menstruation

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51
Q

When does ovulation usually occur again for lactating mothers postpartum?

A

6 months postpartum

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52
Q

When does ovulation usually occur again for non-lactating mothers postpartum?

A

7-9 weeks postpartum

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53
Q

Assessment usually performed on a postpartum mother

A

BUBBLEE

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54
Q

What does BUBBLEE stand for?

A

B: Breasts
U: Uterus
B: Bowel
B: Bladder
L: Lochia
E: Episiostomy
E: Epidural site

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55
Q

Breastmilk is ____% water

A

80% water

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56
Q

How often should an infant be fed during the day?

A

8-10 feedings a day

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57
Q

When should the first breastfeed occur after birth?

A

1 hour after birth

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58
Q

How long should a mother wait before giving cow’s milk?

A

12 months

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59
Q

The sucking action from breastfeeding or pumping stimulates the pituitary gland to release this hormone

A

Prolactin

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60
Q

What dies prolactin do?

A

Increase milk production

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61
Q

Most of the fats and proteins are in this kind of breastmilk

A

Hindmilk

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62
Q

This kind of breastmilk is a watery-blue texture

A

Foremilk

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63
Q

3 stages of breastmilk

A

1) Colostrum
2) Transitional milk
3) Mature milk

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64
Q

Considered the “first milk”, “first child immunization”
Creamy yellow liquid with proteins, minerals, vitamins, and immunoglobulins

A

Colostrum

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65
Q

Colostrum is given for this many days

A

1-3 days

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66
Q

This type of breastmilk has colostrum in it

A

Transitional milk

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67
Q

Mature milk begins around this time

A

7 days

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68
Q

This kind of breastmilk is 90% water and 10% carbs, proteins, and fats

A

Mature milk

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69
Q

Process where the uterus returns to its pre-pregnancy size and condition after childbirth

A

Uterine involution

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70
Q

1 hour after delivery, the fundus should be

A

at the level of the umbilicus

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71
Q

How far the fundus should move back down each day

A

1-2 cm per day

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72
Q

For the first 1-3 days postpartum, what kind of lochia is expected?

A

lochia rubra
(bright red, heavy flow, small/medium clots)

73
Q

From days 4-10 postpartum, what kind of lochia is expected?

A

Lochia serosa
(pinkish brown, less blood and more discharge)

74
Q

From days 10-8 weeks postpartum, what kind of lochia is expected?

A

Lochia alba
(yellow/white, little blood, no clots)

75
Q

2 red flags of postpartum lochia

A

Soaking through a pad in 1 hour or less
Clots bigger than a golf ball

76
Q

How much urinary output is indicative of urinary retention?

77
Q

2 nursing interventions for uterine atony

A

Massage fundus
Administer IV oxytotics after placenta is delivered

78
Q

Nursing intervention for episiostomy care

A

ice packs to reduce swelling

79
Q

How long until menstrual flow returns for a bottle-feeding mother?

A

6-10 weeks after giving birth

80
Q

How long until menstrual flow returns for a breastfeeding mother after giving birth?

A

3-4 months
(ovulation is suppressed, but this is NOT a form of birth control)

81
Q

Assessment thats performed on an infant

82
Q

Cheese-like waxy substance on a newborn that should not be wiped off

83
Q

Nose and mouth of the newborn needs suction to avoid

A

meconium aspiration

84
Q

APGAR scoring of 0-3 indicates

A

severe distress

85
Q

APGAR scoring of 4-6 indicates

A

moderate difficulty

86
Q

APGAR scoring of 7-10 indicates

A

minimal/no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life

87
Q

A common and usually temporary blue discoloration of the hands and feet of the baby

A

acrocyanosis

88
Q

4 ways babies lose heat

A

Conduction
Convection
Evaporation
Radiation

89
Q

Rooting reflex AKA

A

Sucking reflex for feeding

90
Q

Involuntary reflex in babies causing them to grasp objects in their hands

A

Palmar reflex

91
Q

Involuntary reflex in babies causing them to curl their toes when the foot is pressed

A

Palmar grasp

92
Q

startle reflex

A

Moro reflex

93
Q

Reflex in newborns causing them to assume a “fencers” position with one arm bent and one arm straightened

A

Fencing reflex
Tonic neck

94
Q

Reflex causing the toes of the newborn to splay/fan out when the sole is trouched

A

Babinski Reflex

95
Q

Involuntary movement causing babies to “walk” or “dance” when help upright

96
Q

3 activity phases of a newborn

A

1) First period of reactivity
2) Period of relative inactivity
3) Second period of reactivity

97
Q

2 factors that determine newborn maturity

A

Neuromuscular and physical maturity

98
Q

Score used as a method to determine a newborn’s gestational age

A

New Ballard Score

99
Q

Neonatal morbidity and mortality are related to these two factors

A

1) Gestational age
2) Birth weight

100
Q

First stool a baby passes that is a black/tarry texture

101
Q

Newborns should pass meconium within _____

A

within 48 hours

102
Q

Newborns should have an average of _______ wet diapers in a 24-hour period as an indicator of adequate eating and hydration

A

6 wet diapars

103
Q

3 vaccines/medications given to newborns

A

erythromycin eye ointment
IM Vitamin K
IM HepB

104
Q

These two medications should not be given in the same thigh

A

IM Vitamin K
IM HepB

105
Q

3 times the Hepatitis B vaccine should be given

A

At birth
1 month old
6 months old

106
Q

Umbilical cord should fall off within ______ days

107
Q

Incorrect swaddling puts a newborn at risk for

A

Congenital hip dysplasia

108
Q

2 maneuvers that can help detect congenital developmental dysplasia of the hips in a newborn

A

Ortolani maneuver
Barlow maneuver

109
Q

What is the provider/nurse listening for when performing the Ortolani and Barlow maneuvers?

A

a click (indicated presence of hip dysplasia)

110
Q

If an infant is younger than 3 months old, what can be used to prevent/treat hip dysplasia?

A

Pavlik harness

111
Q

If an infant is 4 months-2 years old, what can be used to treat hip dysplasia?

A

Spica cast

112
Q

For children older than 2 years old, this is the intervention required to treat hip dysplasia

A

surgical intervention

113
Q

Primary sex organ for females

114
Q

First sign of puberty

A

estrogen-induced breast development

115
Q

Secondary signs of puberty

A

growth of pubic and axillary hair

116
Q

menopause is caused by

A

decrease in estrogen

117
Q

Chromosomes that influence the development of sex organs and sex characteristics

A

Biological sex

118
Q

What gender the individual identifies as

A

gender identity

119
Q

characteristics someone displays through behavior, clothing, etc.

A

gender expression

120
Q

personal gender preference for emotional and physical sexual attraction

A

sexual orientation

121
Q

fully reversible hormone therapy

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone therapy

122
Q

partially reversible hormone therapy

A

testosterone/estrogen therapy

123
Q

irreversible sexual therapy

A

surgical procedures

124
Q

distress about gender identity not matching physical appearance

A

gender dysphoria

125
Q

“Adams apple” reduction

A

Chondrolaryngoplasty

126
Q

Surgical removal of one or both testicles

A

Orchiectomy

127
Q

Artificial penis created from skin taken from other parts of the body

A

Phalloplasty

128
Q

2 forms of natural birth control

A

Abstinence (most effective)
Coitus interruptus

129
Q

3 forms of barrier contraception

A

Male condoms
Female condoms
Diaphragm

130
Q

Main complication with oral contraceptives

A

thromboembolism

131
Q

MOA oral contraceptives

A

1) contain estrogen and progesterone which suppresses ovulation
2) Thicken cervical mucus to trap semen
3) Alters uterine shedding to prevent implantation

132
Q

3 classes of medications that can make oral contraceptives less effective

A

Anticonvulsants
Antifungals
Antibiotics

133
Q

Contraception that’s effective for 3-5 years and allows immediate return to fertility once removed

A

Low hormone IUD

134
Q

Contraception effective for up to 10 years

A

Copper IUD

135
Q

MOA of the morning-after pill

A

Prevents fertilization by inhibiting ovulation and transport of sperm

136
Q

Removal of cervix and uterus, but not the ovaries

A

total hysterectomy

137
Q

Removal of upper part of the uterus, but not the cervix

A

Partial hysterectomy

138
Q

Removal of ovaries, cervix, uterus, and ovaries

A

Radical hysterectomy

139
Q

Removal of one of both ovaries

A

oophorectomy

140
Q

Removal of one or both fallopian tubes

A

salpingectomy

141
Q

very painful periods

A

dysmenorrhea

142
Q

dx after no mentrual cycles for 6 months

A

amenorrhea

143
Q

Syndrome that occurs about 14 days before menstruation characterized by abdominal/back pain, headaches, changes in appetite, breast tenderness, mood fluctuations, and fatigue

A

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

144
Q

Endometrial lining outside the uterus

A

Endometriosis

145
Q

Noncancerous tumors that grow in the uterus that may include dysfunctional uterine bleeding, pelvic pain, painful intercourse, and blowel/bladder dysfunction

A

Uterine fibroids

146
Q

Ovarian cysts caused by a hormone imbalance

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

147
Q

Painful intercourse

A

Dyspaerunia

148
Q

Inflammation of the prostate causing frequent urination

A

Acute prostatitis

149
Q

2 characteristics of acute prostatitis

A

Elevated WBC
Pain at site

150
Q

5 s/s prostatitis

A

Dysuria (irregular urination)
Hematuria (RBC in urine)
Fever
Lower back, pelvic, genital pain
Sexual dysfunction

151
Q

3 kinds of medications that can help cause erectile dysfunction

A

1) Anti_____

—Antidepressants (SSRIs, alcohol)

—Antifungals

—Antihistamines

—Antihypertensives

2) Diuretics (thiazide)

3) Sympatholytics

152
Q

first line of treatment for ED

A

sildenafil (Viagra)

153
Q

3 kinds of STI’s

A

Bacterial
Viral
Parasitic

154
Q

6 STI’s that are mandated to be reported to the local health department by HCP

A

Syphilis

HIV

Chlamydia

Gonorrhea

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

Hepatitis B & C

155
Q

Most common bacterial STI
“Silent infection”

156
Q

3 ways chlamydia can be transmitted

A

oral, vaginal, rectal

157
Q

2 long-term effects of chlamydia

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Arthritis

158
Q

Main treatment of chlamydia

A

azithromycin

159
Q

Someone treating chlamydia should abstain from sexual activity for this long

A

7 days after beginning treatment

160
Q

2nd most common bacterial STI

161
Q

Gonorrhea affects this body part mainly

162
Q

How long someone treating gonorrhea should abstain from sexual activity

A

7 days after starting treatment

163
Q

2 STI’s that are commonly coinfected

A

Chlamydia and Gonorrhea

164
Q

which type of STI is syphylis?

165
Q

4 stages of syphylis

A

Primary
Secondary
Latent
Tertiary

166
Q

Syphilis stage described as asymptomatic and can last for many years

“Stage of dormancy”

A

Latent stage

167
Q

Syphilis stage characterized by a RASH, fever, lesions on the mouth/vagina/anus

A

secondary stage

168
Q

Syphilis stage characterized by painless chancres that go away with or w/o treatment

A

Primary syphilis

169
Q

Syphilis stage that occurs after this has been left untreated and now depends on which organs have no been infected

A

Tertiary syphilis

170
Q

Genital Herpes (HSV-2) is this kind of STI

171
Q

Cure for HSV

172
Q

Main s/s of HSV-2

A

vesicles near the mouth or anus

173
Q

HPV can cause _______ in the throat, tongue, penis, vagina, and vulva

174
Q

Clinical presentation of HPV

A

genital warts

175
Q

Tx for HPV

A

No treatment

176
Q

Bacterial infection of the vagina

A

bacterial vaginosis

177
Q

Inflammation of the gynecological reproductive tract caused by infection

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

178
Q

2 most common causes of PID

A

chlamydia and gonorrhea

Patient Centered Care I (3 decks)

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