EXAM 2: Units 3 and 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Psychotic behavior and thinking present for at least 6 months

A

Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patient has impairments of personality functioning, but impairment is not as severe with schizophrenia

A

Schizotypal personality disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Similar symptoms to schizophrenia, but duration is only 1-6 months. Social/occupational dysfunction may not be present

A

Schizophreniform Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Disorder where patient meets criteria for both schizophrenia AND depressive or BPD

A

Schizoaffective disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Schizophrenia occurs earlier in ____

A

Earlier in males than females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The DSM-5 criteria requires 2 or more of the following present for a significant portion of 1 month

A

1) Delusions
2) Hallucinations
3) Disorganized speech
4) Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior
5) Negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Poverty of thought or speech (mumble or vague response)

A

Alogia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lack of energy

A

Anergia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lack of pleasure or joy

A

Anhedonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lack of motivation in activities and hygiene

A

Avolition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Phase 1 of schizophrenia

A

Premorbid phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phase 2 of schizophrenia

A

Prodromal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Phase 3 of schizophrenia

A

Active psychotic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Phase 4 of schizophrenia

A

Residual phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In this phase of schizophrenia either has no symptoms, or very mild ones. These occur before there isa clear sign of illness

A

Phase 1: Premorbid phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In this phase of shizophrenia, signs of deterioration begin to show and it becomes apparent that an illness is present

A

Phase 2: Prodromal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In this phase of schizophrenia, there are acute positive and psychotic symptoms present

A

Phase 3: Active psychotic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This phase of schizophrenia usually follows the active phase and is characterized by flat affect, presence of negative symptoms, and symptoms from the active phase are barely present anymore

A

Phase 4: Residual phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Clinical improvement in schizophrenia occurs in ___% of patients

A

44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

4 phases of a therapeutic relationship

A

Orientation
Identification
Exploitation
Resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anticholinergic effects, EPS, NMS, orthostatic hypotension, burred vision, and photophobia are side effects of this class of medication

A

Antipsychotic medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Life threatening emergency that can occur at any time while taking antipsychotics

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sudden fever, BP fluctuations, Tachycardia, Muscle rigidity, and decreased LOC are s/s of ________

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neurological condition that prevents a person from recognizing their own health problems or conditions

A

Anosognosia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mild depressive disorder is called

A

Persistent Depressive Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PDD is also known as

A

dysthymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mild manic expression is called

A

hypomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mild BPD is called

A

cyclothymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Major Depressive Disorder is more common in ______

A

more common in females than males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DSM-5 criteria requires these two points in diagnosing PDD

A
  • Chronically depressed mood lasting at least every day/all day for at least 2 years
    -No evidence of mania/hypomania
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Early onset of PDD is described as ______

A

a diagnosis occurring before age 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Late onset of PDD is described as ______

A

Diagnosis occurring at age 21 or older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Single episode or recurrent episodes resulting in a significant change in a person’s normal functioning which occur almost every day for a minimum of 2 weeks

A

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diagnostic tool that is a 21-item self assessment of the usual characteristic behaviors and attitudes present in depression

A

Beck Depression Inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Diagnostic tool that is a 9-question self-administered assessment that patients fill out to determine the amount and frequency of depression symptoms

A

PHQ-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Diagnostic tool that has a version with 17 items and another version with 21 items

A

Hamilton Depression Scale (HDRS, Ham-D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Diagnostic tool used for older adults that has 15 yes/no questions

A

Geriatric depression scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diagnostic tool that has 5 questions (about mood, self confidence, speech, sleep, and activity) for the client to self-assess

A

Altman Self-Rating Mania Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Leading treatment for depression

A

SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A trained therapist empowers the client to change their behavior by recognizing thinking errors and changing their thinking

A

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Use of magnetic pulses to stimulate focaal areas of the cerebral cortex

A

Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A vagal nerve stimulator is implanted, through an outpatient procedure, in the left chest wall

A

Vagal nerve stimulation (VNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Electrodes are surgically placed deep into the brain to stimulate underactive regions (more intensive than VNS)

A

Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Prior to electroconvulsive therapy, which class of medications should be d/c? Why?

A

Benzodiazapenes should be d/c because the goal is to induce a seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Prior to electroconvulsive therapy, the client will be NPO _____ to ______ hours

A

NPO 6-8 hours prior to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

During ECT, ____ ______ are induced by electrical current attached to one, or both, sides of the forehead

A

Brief seizures are induced during ECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Potential side effect from ECT

A

Temporary memory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

SES can occur within ____ after starting treatment or increasing the dose

A

SES can start within 2-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3 s/s of SES

A

Seizures
Fever
Hyperreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Rapid, often exaggerated changes in mood

A

Labile moods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Abnormally elevated mood which can be described as expansive or irritable, usually requiring hospitalization. These last at least 1 week.

A

Manic episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A less severe episode of mania that lasts at least 4 days accompanied by three or more manifestations of mania.

A

Hypomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This requirement distinguishes mania from hypomania

A

Requirement of a hospitalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Four or more episodes of hypomania or acute mania within 1 year and associated with increased recurrence rate and resistance to treatment

A

Rapid cycling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Rapid, continuous speech with sudden and frequent topic change

A

Flight of ideas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

BPD where patient has experienced at least one episode of mania alternating with major depression

A

Bipolar 1 disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

BPD where patient has had one or more hypomanic episodes alternating with major depressive episodes

A

Bipolar 2 disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Patient has had at least 2 years of repeated hypomanic manifestations that do not meet the criteria for hypomanic episodes alternating with minor depressive episodes

A

Cyclothymic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

During an acute manic episode, the focus is on _____ and _____ in nursing care

A

The focus is on safety and maintaining physical health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Medication used for BPD

A

Mood stabilizers - Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Therapeutic procedure for BPD

A

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

3 mood stabilizing antiepileptics
(c, v, l)

A

Carbamazepine
Valproate
Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

3 classes of medications used to treat BPD

A

Mood stabilizers
Antiepileptics
Antipsychotics

63
Q

Maintenance level range of lithium

A

0.6-1.2 mEq/L

64
Q

effects of lithium begin within ____ days

65
Q

Maximum benefits of lithium may not be seen for _____

66
Q

Due to its short half life, lithium must be administered in _____ doses daily

A

2-3 doses daily

67
Q

During initial treatment of manic episodes, lithium levels may require to be at higher levels, at

A

1-1.5 mEq/L

68
Q

Initial s/s of lithium toxicity can progress to these 5 more severe s/s

A

Seizures
Severe hypotension
Stupor (decreased LOC)
Coma
Death

69
Q

Main initial s/s of lithium toxicity

A

Polyuria (frequent urination)

70
Q

2 manic complications

A

Physical exhaustion and/or death

71
Q

Main client teaching with mental illness

A

Medicinal treatment is lifelong

72
Q

Asthma affects both the ____ and ____ tracts

A

Asthma affects both the upper and lower respiratory tracts

73
Q

Asthma is _____ in nature

A

Asthma is acute in nature

74
Q

4 main manifestations of asthma

A

Wheezing
Coughing
Chest tightness
Dyspnea

75
Q

Most emergent finding during an asthma attack

A

Absent breath sounds

76
Q

Example of bronchodilator

77
Q

MOA albuterol

A

Stimulate SNS, relaxing smooth muscle, resulting in bronchodilation

78
Q

2 side effects of albuterol

A

Tachycardia and tremors

79
Q

Encourage _____ vaccine to prevent triggering asthma attacks

A

Encourage FLU VACCINE

80
Q

Example of a corticosteroid inhaler for asthma

A

Fluticasone

81
Q

Nursing consideration for using a corticosteroid inhaler (fluticasone) for asthma

A

Use an extender and rinse the mouth with water to avoid oral thrush

82
Q

Treatment where patient shakes the device prior to use, breathes out through the mouth, inhales medication, holds breath for 10 seconds, and then exhales

A

Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI)

(Like the typical inhaler you see with asthma pt)

83
Q

2 early signs of hypoxia

A

Confusion, altered LOC

84
Q

Late sign of chronic hypoxia

A

Clubbing of fingers

85
Q

First line of treatment for asthma

A

Bronchodilators (albuterol)

86
Q

After the first line of treatment, this is the next resort of treatment

A

Systemic corticosteroid treatment (IV or oral)

87
Q

How often can fluticasone be used, and what is its role in treating asthma?

A

Fluticasone can be used once daily and helps prevent attacks from happening

88
Q

Excessive amounts of CO2 in the blood

A

Hypercapnia

89
Q

An increase in these three vitals can indicate hypoxia and hypercapnia

A

Increased HR, RR, and BP

90
Q

For a patient with asthma, the nurse should assess the lungs for these three sounds

A

Wheezing
Stridor
Dyspnea

91
Q

For treatment of asthma, the nurse should prioritize these two things

A

Respiratory status and oxygenation

92
Q

3 primary therapies when treating asthma

A

Oxygen administration
Short-acting B2 agonists (SABAs)
Systemic corticosteroids

93
Q

Most severe form of asthma

A

Status Asthmaticus

94
Q

What makes Status Asthmaticus hard to treat?

A

Condition does not respond to common treatments

95
Q

Status Asthmaticus requires

A

Ventilatory support

96
Q

Aside from bronchodilators, oxygen therapy, and steroid therapy used to treat asthma, Status Asthmaticus may also require these 2 additional treatments

A

Emergency Intubation
Epinephrine

97
Q

COPD is an umbrella term covering these two conditions

A

Chronic Bronchitis
Emphysema

98
Q

1 cause of emphysema

99
Q

Swelling of bronchioles and bronchi

A

Chronic bronchitis

100
Q

Destruction of alveoli

101
Q

Most clients who have emphysema also have _____

A

Chronic bronchitis

102
Q

COPD is

A

Irreversible

103
Q

This is characterized by the loss of lung elasticity hyperinflation of lung tissue, causing destruction of alveoli leading to decreased SA for gas exchange, CO2 retention, and respiratory acidosis

104
Q

Inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles due to chronic exposure to irritants

A

Chronic bronchitis

105
Q

Pathologic changes in airways due to underlying comorbidities

106
Q

Main risk factor for COPD

A

Smoking (1st, 2nd, or 3rd hand)

107
Q

Early symptom of COPD

A

Productive cough in the morning

108
Q

2 physical assessment findings indicating COPD

A

1) Chest tightness
2) Barrel chest/increased chest diameter (w emphysema)

109
Q

2 labs/diagnostic studies for COPD

A

Spirometry
CAPTURE questionnaire

110
Q

Barrel chest can further cause this complication

A

Right-sided heart failure

111
Q

What is a main cause of barrel chest?

A

Air is unable to escape, so it gets trapped in the lungs

112
Q

2 main techniques of nursing care for treatment of COPD

A

Pursed lip breathing technique
Postural drainage

113
Q

This technique assists in prolonged exhalation and promotes elimination of carbon dioxide from the body

A

Pursed lip breathing technique

114
Q

This technique uses gravitational assistance for secretion removal

A

Postural drainage

115
Q

For someone with COPD, oxygen levels should be kept in this range

116
Q

Patients with COPD may need up to this much oxygen via NC, and this much with a venturi mask

A

2-4 L/min via NC
40% via venturi mask

117
Q

COPD patients become

A

Hypercapnic (hold on to CO2)

118
Q

Normal O2 levels for someone with COPD is

119
Q

How can hypoventilation occur for someone with COPD?

A

Hyperoxygenation (even within normal range for a healthy adult) can decrease the hypoxic stimulus to breathe

120
Q

Carbohydrates break down into

121
Q

3 dietary considerations for someone with COPD

A

1) Smaller, more frequent, high-calorie meals
2) Moderate amount of carbs
3) Soft foods

122
Q

3 side effects with albuterol (3 T’s)

A

Tachycardia
Trouble sleeping
Tremors (nervousness)

123
Q

3 side effects with Ipratropium (DDB)

A

Dry mouth
Dizziness
Blushing

124
Q

3 side effects with Theophylline (3 P’s)

A

1) Poor sleep (restlessness)
2) Potty (diarrhea)
3) Pain (headache)

125
Q

3 bronchodilators used for COPD (TIA)

A

Theophylline
Ipratropium
Albuterol

126
Q

2 Anti-inflammatory medications used for COPD (P,M)

A

Prednisone (corticosteroid)
Montekulast (leukotriene antagonist)

127
Q

Nursing consideration with prednisone

A

Take with food

128
Q

3 side effects of prednisone

A

Hyperglycema
Hypokalemia
Fluid retention

129
Q

2 side effects with montekulast

A

Fatigue
Headaches

130
Q

2 kinds of pneumonia infections

A

Bacterial or viral

131
Q

A gunky cough with pneumonia typically indicates this kind of infection

A

Bacterial infection

132
Q

A dry cough with pneumonia typically indicates this kind of infection

A

Viral infection

133
Q

Both bacterial and viral pneumonia infections bring on a

134
Q

This type of pneumonia develops before 48 hours since admission

A

Community-acquired

135
Q

This type of pneumonia develops after 48 hours since admission

A

Hospital-acquired

136
Q

This type of pneumonia develops after patient breathes in liquid

A

Aspiration pneumonia

137
Q

This type of pneumonia can develop when a patient had an endotracheal intubation placed more than 48 hours ago

A

Ventilator-associated

138
Q

Increased incidence of pneumonia in ____

A

Older adults

139
Q

two vacines that can help break the chain of pneumonia infection

A

Pneumococcal and flu

140
Q

Adventitious lung sounds AKA

A

wet crackles in lungs

141
Q

Cough, dyspnea, tachypnea, pleuritic chest pain, and adventitious lung sounds are all clinical presentations of

142
Q

2 labs/diagnostics for pneumonia

A

Chest X-Ray
CT scan (if CXR is normal)

143
Q

Inflammation of the pleura that is triggered by chest movement when you breathe

144
Q

4 options for pneumonia treatments

A

1) Antibiotics
2) Bronchodilators
3) Steroid/Anti-inflammatory therapy
4) Oxygen therapy

145
Q

Goal of oxygen therapy

A

O2 95%-100%

146
Q

One thing to remember while using antibiotics to treat pneumonia

A

Obtain a sputum culture before starting broad-spectrum antibiotic

147
Q

Respiratory disorder that causes mucus glands to secrete excessive amounts of thick mucus

A

Cystic fibrosis

148
Q

CF is inherited from a mutated recessive gene, meaning in order for someone to inherit this, then ..

A

Both parents need to have the gene

149
Q

This ethnicity has a higher risk for having CF

A

caucasians

150
Q

Infants can be diagnosed with CF is they have developed a

A

meconium ileus (often the FIRST clinical manifestation)

151
Q

Looking for these 2 things in a stool analysis for CF

A

Presence of fat and enzymes

152
Q

High _____ and _____ are positive findings for CF in a sweat test

A

High sodium and chloride

153
Q

Wheezing indicates

A

Upper airway restriction

154
Q

Ronchi indicates

A

Lower airway restriction

155
Q

Fatty stools AKA

A

Steatorrhea

156
Q

this is given with all meals and snacks in dietary treatment for CF

A

Pancreatic enzymes to aid digestion