Exam 6 Flashcards
Which cellular technology is compromised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?
OBJ-2.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps.
How many volts of electrical charge is applied to the drum of a laser printer?
OBJ-3.11: To ensure the positively charged toner is attracted to the laser printer’s negatively charged drum during printing, a uniform negative charge of approximately 600 volts is applied to print the image on the paper.
Dion Training utilizes a federation authentication model for all of its internal and external services. If an employee needs to access one of the company’s web applications from their smartphone, they use a username and password to log in to the main website. They then are transferred and authenticated to all of the other sites and services automatically. Which of the following type of authentication is this known as?
OBJ-1.7: Single Sign-on (SSO) is an authentication technology that allows users to authenticate once and receive authorizations for multiple services. The advantage of single sign-on is that each user does not have to manage multiple user accounts and passwords. The disadvantage is that compromising the account also compromises multiple services. Multifactor authentication is an authentication scheme that relies on at least two of the five factors: something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, and somewhere you are. Since only a username and password are used in this scenario, it is not considered multi-factor authentication. Face ID is an Apple device feature that uses a face lock to grant access to the device. Face ID is considered a form of biometric authentication. Touch ID is an Apple device feature that uses fingerprint biometric information to grant access to the device.
You are trying to select the best device to install to detect an outside attacker trying to reach into your internal network. The device should log the event, but it should not take any action to stop it. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select?
OBJ-2.5: An intrusion detection system is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) conducts the same functions as an IDS but can also block or take actions against malicious events. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server used to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching a user.
Your child’s school issues an Office 365 account to each student to use for their school projects. Your child needs to install the proper software on their Windows 10 laptop for their school work folder to remain synced between the laptop and the cloud service. Which software should you install?
OBJ-4.1: OneDrive is a part of the Office 365 suite of tools and services. OneDrive is an online data storage service that can be used through a web browser or a downloadable client. If you have the downloadable client installed, it will ensure the files always remain synced between the cloud service and the local laptop. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.
A user wants to print a large job on both the front and back sides of the paper. Which of the following settings should the technician advise the user to change in the printer settings?
OBJ-3.10: Duplex printing is a feature of some computer printers, multi-function printers (MFPs), and copy machines that allow the printing of a sheet of paper on both sides automatically. Without this capability, print devices can only print on a single side of the paper, sometimes called single-sided printing or simplex printing. With duplex printing, information is printed on the front side of a piece of paper, and then the paper is automatically fed back through the printer to print the information on the backside of the paper. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait (taller rather than wider) and landscape (wider rather than taller). The collate setting allows the gathering and arranging of individual sheets or other printed components into a pre-determined sequence. Collating creates consistent, logical sets from multiple parts, such as printing a series of pages in a report like pages 1, 2, 3 before printing the second copy. This makes it easier to staple and distribute to people after coming out of the printer. The term transparency was made up as a distractor for this question.
You are setting up a cable television in a customer’s home. Which connector type should be used to connect the TV tuner to the wall jack when using a coaxial cable?
OBJ-3.1: The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.
A repeat customer is back with their laptop again. This is the third time they have dropped their laptop and caused their hard disk’s internal platter to fail. Which of the following devices should you replace their internal hard drive with to prevent this issue from occurring again?
OBJ-5.3: Since this customer is accident-prone, you should recommend they install an NVMe or SSD device. These solid-state devices are more resistant to drops since they have no moving parts or platters in them. A hybrid or HDD solution would not be effective as they both have moving platters in them that can be destroyed by a drop.
Which of the following security features would allow a user to track their laptop’s location if it was stolen?
OBJ-3.5: LoJack for Laptops is a proprietary laptop theft recovery software that grants remote access to lock, delete sensitive files, and locate the stolen laptop. The user will need to install a LoJack program on the laptop and create a security card with the laptop’s PIN/ID. This PIN/ID can be used to track down the laptop whenever it reconnects to the internet.
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as K?
OBJ-3.1: This port is the audio cluster on the rear of this motherboard. This contains the audio inputs and outputs in mini-jack format. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.
Dion Security Group has established a Security Operations Center (SOC) that operates 24/7. They have several 65” plasma TVs at the front of the room that are used as computer displays to show open tickets. You turned off the televisions to clean the screens and noticed that the company logo is still visible in each of the screens’ upper left corners. Which of the following should you do to correct this?
OBJ-5.4: The logo in the upper left corner has been burned into the display since it is a static image. This is common with plasma displays and TVs. To fix this, you need to replace the TVs. If you plan to have a lot of static content on a display, you should use an OLED or LED display instead. If burn-in was experienced on old CRT monitors, you could run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in. Unfortunately, this will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED displays, though.
Rick has just received a new Google Pixel smartphone and installed all of his favorite apps, including a different style virtual keyboard. After about 6 months of use, he noticed that the smartphone has become slow, and the virtual keyboard is not responding properly when keys are pressed or becomes completely unresponsive. What is the FIRST solution to try to fix this issue?
OBJ-5.5: The simplest and most efficient way to fix unresponsive apps is to close the app running in the background and restart the app again. A custom virtual keyboard app can often cause performance decline and unresponsiveness, and the virtual keyboard will lock up. It is always a good practice to always close apps running in the background to reduce resource consumptions. If this doesn’t solve the issue, then a soft reset or factory reset may be needed.
Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?
OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization’s data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.
Which application would NOT allow you to sync your data between your Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS devices?
OBJ-4.1: Shadow Copy will not sync your data between Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS devices because it only works on Windows devices. OneDrive, Google Drive, and DropBox allow you to configure their synchronization applications on all four of these operating systems to keep them synced with the latest version in the cloud service. These applications are all a form of SaaS (software as a service). Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.
An employee’s laptop has become warm to the touch and does not sit evenly on the table during use. You turn the laptop over and see the case bulging into a slightly rounded shape. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
OBJ-5.5: Based on the description, the battery is defective and swelling. Swollen batteries, while not common, are a significant risk. They result from too much current inside a cell of the battery, which causes a build-up of heat and gas. This can be caused by overcharging, manufacturer defects, deep discharge, or damage to the battery. The most common cause is an overcharge of the battery, which causes a chemical reaction between the electrodes and the electrolyte, resulting in the release of heat and gases that expand inside the battery, causing the casing to swell or split open. If a battery begins to bulge, swell, or split, it should immediately be replaced.
A customer wants to build a home server that would allow their family to stream locally stored video files on a home network. The home server should also have fault tolerance to ensure the server’s data is not inadvertently lost in the event of a hard disk drive failure. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO)
OBJ-3.8: In this scenario, a gigabit NIC will help handle the heavy network load created by sharing large files over the network. Data protection needs to use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10 configuration to protect against any potential data loss caused by a single hard disk drive failure. RAID 5 is the most commonly used RAID for servers. A RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 hard disk drives and can continue to operate as long as 2 of the 3 drives are functional.
You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD?
OBJ-3.4: An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive’s lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn’t matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.
You have been asked to develop a solution for one of your customers. The customer is a software development company, and they need to be able to test a wide variety of operating systems to test the software applications their company is developing internally. The company doesn’t want to buy a bunch of computers to install all of these operating systems for testing. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet the company’s requirements?
OBJ-4.2: Since the company’s main goal was to minimize the amount of hardware required, the BEST solution is to purchase a high-end computer that has a lot of CPU cores and RAM, install a hypervisor, and configure a virtual machine for each operating system that will be used to test the applications being developed. This allows a single machine to run multiple operating systems for testing with the least amount of hardware.
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow for both onsite systems and cloud services to work together seamlessly. What type of cloud model should you recommend?
OBJ-4.1: A hybrid cloud model allows for the seamless integration of both onsite and cloud services to the end-user simultaneously. Hybrid clouds can be cost-efficient, flexible, easy to migrate to a complete cloud solution in the future, and require less maintenance than completely onsite options. As with all cloud options, the contents must be properly secured due to the elastic storage nature of all cloud solutions and the possibility of data remnants. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.
Which of the following requirements should you consider when selecting the type of processors, storage, and RAM to utilize in a virtualization environment?
OBJ-4.2: Before you purchase a system to use as a virtualization environment, you should look at the minimum requirements for all operating systems you intend to host as guest VMs. This will ensure you can balance the performance needed and maintain a smooth-running environment without numerous conflicts or issues.
Dion Training has asked you to verify that a server rack has been properly installed and grounded. Which tool should you utilize to verify that the server rack is properly grounded?
OBJ-2.8: A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. If you use the lowest ohms (resistance) setting, you can touch the multimeter’s black lead to a grounded metal surface and touch the red lead to each circuit wire. If you get a meter reading of zero ohms (low resistance), this indicates that the circuit is properly grounded. If you get a meter reading of infinity, O.L., Open Loop, or a needle that pegs high on the meter, this indicates an open circuit with no path to ground. A voltmeter can only measure the voltage, not the amperage or resistance of the circuit. A loopback plug is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively.
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard below, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
OBJ-3.3: The area circled indicates the memory slots that contain the RAM. These are also considered DDR3 memory slots based on the key/notch location. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.
Which of the following devices is used to provide power to a wireless access point?
OBJ-2.2: A POE (power over ethernet) injector can provide electrical power to a device over a CAT 5e cable. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth.
Which of the following tools is used to identify why an 802.11g network is intermittently dropping network traffic?
OBJ-5.7: A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network’s signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. Based on the issue described in the question, the network may have dead zones that could be fixed by adding additional access points to increase the network’s wireless coverage. Another possible issue could be radio frequency interference from other devices, which a WiFi analyzer could help identify. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively.
An employee is complaining that their workstation is not booting into Windows when they reboot their machine. You noticed that during the reboot, the system is loading into a PXE-based OS. What should you do next?
OBJ-3.5: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is a network boot execution process allowing you to retrieve an image from a PXE server. It is often used for reimaging computers in corporate deployments. To boot from the hard drive instead, the BIOS’s boot order should be changed from PXE to HDD. Rebooting the workstation will just reload the PXE-based OS again. Since the system is booting to the PXE environment, it is bypassing the internal hard drive’s OS making recovery mode an invalid choice.
Your printer is connected directly to your computer using a USB cable. Your coworker’s printer is broken, and they asked you to share your printer to allow them to print. Which of the following should you do as a temporary solution to allow them to print without incurring any additional cost?
OBJ-3.10: In Windows 10, you can share your printer with many PCs on your network. To share a printer from the PC that the printer is connected to your system with a coworker’s computer that the printer is not directly connected to, you must set up sharing settings for the printer in Windows, ensure your computer remains online, and that the printer is connected to your computer at all times. This is a free solution that will let your coworker print to your computer over the network. While this isn’t an ideal long-term solution, it is a great workaround until their printer is fixed or a more expensive option (like a network printer or print server) can be purchased and installed. Purchasing a printer or a wireless print server would incur additional costs making them incorrect options. A guest account is not needed for them to print using your computer, but Printer Sharing must be enabled instead.
Which of the following is categorized as a public IP address?
OBJ-2.6: To communicate on the Internet, a host must obtain a unique public IP address. Typically this is allocated by an Internet Service Provider. If an address is not an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), a private IP address (10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x), or a localhost IP (127.0.0.1), then it is considered a public IP address.
What type of Virtual Desktop should be chosen to reduce capital expenditures and have the hardware maintained by the cloud service provider?
OBJ-4.1: A remote hosted virtual desktop (HVD) is a full, thick-client user environment run as a virtual machine (VM) on a server and accessed remotely. Using a hosted virtual desktop allows a company to utilize the cloud for its desktop infrastructure, reduce its maintenance cost, and shift capital expenses (such as new desktops) to operational expenses (monthly fees to pay for virtual desktop services). Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.
You are attempting to build a new gaming workstation and have just finished installing the motherboard and the processor. You are about to begin installing two memory modules, and notice 4 DIMM sockets on the motherboard labeled 0, 1, 2, and 3. Two of these are colored red, and two are colored blue. Which of the following should you do FIRST?
OBJ-3.3: You should consult the motherboard’s manual and documentation to determine the best method of installing the memory into the system. The system may support both single-channel and dual-channel memory configurations, depending on how the memory is installed. Based on your specific customer needs, you may wish to install them as single or dual-channel (which may require installing the memory in certain slots). Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction.
Which of the following wireless technologies allows a wireless device to automatically be configured for a SOHO wireless network with the push of a button?
OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On compatible equipment, users push a button on the access point and connect adapters to associate them securely. WPS is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them, making them vulnerable to attack. Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key. Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wi-Fi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme. Wi-Fi protected access version 2 (WPA2) replaced the original version of WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption.
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as E?
OBJ-3.1: This port is the VGA connection. A video graphics array (VGA) connector is a 15-pin HD connector that has been used to connect the graphics adapter to a monitor since 1987. The use of digital flat-panel displays rather than CRTs has made this analog connector increasingly obsolete. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.
Which type of internet connection is the slowest and has the least bandwidth?
OBJ-2.7: A dial-up link is a very low bandwidth and extremely slow. Dial-up is simply a telephone conversation between two computers. Whereas with DSL, this “conversation” is pushed to the higher frequency parts of the phone line, with dial-up, it occupies the whole frequency range, but not very efficiently. Ordinary telephone charges apply for each session’s duration, and the phone line cannot be used for voice calls at the same time.
You have been asked to install a network cable in the crawl space between the ceiling in your office and the roof. You need to choose the right type of cable to ensure you do not violate the local fire codes. Which of the following cable types should you choose?
OBJ-3.1: Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. For example, most large office buildings use the space between the ceiling and the roof to return air to the AC unit. This qualifies this area as a plenum ceiling, and all the cables that go through that ceiling must be plenum rated. It is important to check your local building codes to see if you need to use plenum cable. These plenum cables cost more because the insulation material must meet the standards for plenum cables while also meeting the standards for their ethernet category such as 5e, 6a, or 7. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals surrounded by glass or plastic cladding that guides the light pulses along the core and a protective coating.
What type of wiring standard is used with POTS?
OBJ-3.2: POTS (Plain Old Telephone System) is an older standard used for telephone systems. An RJ-11 wiring standard is used to terminate both ends of a standard phone line. This is also used for DSL lines and VoIP ATA (Analog Telephony Adapter) devices. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.
